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PART - I
                                                   GENERAL INTELLIGENCE
Directions Q. 1 to 8) : Select the related letters/word/number/figure from the given alternatives.
1.     River : Dam :: Traffic : ?
       (a) Vehicle                  (b) Speed                   (c ) Signal light         (d) Path

2.     Ornithologist : Birds :: Archaeologist : ?
       (a) Artifacts                     (b) Archipelago               (c ) Arbiter                  (d) Aquatic
3.     AYBZ : CWDX :: EUFV : ?
       (a) GSHT                          (b) GHST                      (c ) SHGT                     (d) MVGT
4.     DCEF : QPRS :: XWYZ : ?
       (a) IHGF                          (b) STUV                      (c ) SRQP                     (d) NMOP
5.     17 : ? :: 145 : 195
       (a) 42                            (b) 35                        (c ) 30                       (d) 24
6.     3222 : 7222 :: 3323 “ ?
       (a) 9947                          (b) 8838                      (c ) 7727                     (d) 2212
7.     Question M arks                                                 Answer Figure




                                                                         (a)         (b)               (c)           (d)
8.     Question M arks                                                 Answer Figure




                                                                     (a)        (b)       (c)                         (d)
Directions Q. 9 to 15) : Find the odd word/letters/ number pair from the given responses.
9.     (a) Carpenter                (b) Goldsmith              (c ) Blacksmith          (d) Driver
10.    (a) Ink                         (b) Paper                       (c ) Office                   (d) Pen
11.    (a) dcba                        (b) hgfe                        (c ) pqrs                     (d) rqop
12.    (a) BFJN                        (b) DHLP                        (c ) GIMQ                     (d) HLPT
13.    (a) (37 - 74)                   (b) (52 - 26)                   (c ) 47 - 84)                 (d) (88 - 44)
14.    (a) 20, 16, 18                  (b) 18, 14, 16                  (c ) 16, 12, 14               (d) 14, 1, 13




15.


           (a)           (b)           (c)         (d)
16.    A series of figure are given, and these can be grouped into classes. Select from amongst the alternatives one set of groups into
       which these figures can be classified.




       (a) 1, 3, 8; 2, 4, 6; 5, 7, 9 (b) 1, 4, 9; 3, 6, 8; 2, 5, 7 (c ) 3, 4, 7; 9, 8, 7; 4, 3, 1 (d)    2, 3, 6; 9, 3, 4; 6, 3, 2
Directions Q. 17 to 18) : Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of                the following words?
17.    1. Income                     2. Fame                       3. Education                   4.     Employment
       (a) 1, 2, 3, 4                (b) 3, 4, 1, 2                (c ) 3, 4, 2, 1                (d)    4, 3, 2, 1
18.    1. Plant                      2. Tree                       3. Soil                        4.     Fruit           5. Seeds
       (a) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5             (b) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4             (c ) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1             (d)    5, 2, 1, 4, 3



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Directions Q. 19) : Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall
       complete it
19.    QST ___, QS __ R, Q __ TR, __ STR.
       (a) SQTR                      (b) RTSQ                  (c ) TRQS                (d) TSRQ
Directions Q. 20 to 24) : Find the missing number/letters/figure from the given responses.
20.    AMV, FQX, KUZ, ____? ___
       (a) PYB                       (b) OXA                   (c ) NYB                 (d) MYB

21.      27, 32, 30, 35, 33, __?__
         (a) 28                             (b) 31                         (c ) 36                       (d) 38

22.      71, 59, 48, 38, 29, __?__
         (a) 18                             (b) 21                         (c ) 20                       (d) 12

23.      Question M arks                                                   Answer Figure




                                                                              (a)        (b)            (c)          (d)
24.      Question M arks                                                   Answer Figure




                                                                                (a)          (b)        (c)          (d)
25.      If
         (a) Sunitha is taller than Anitha                                 (b) Reean is taller than Chitra but shorter than Banu
         (c ) Anitha is shorter than Chitra.                               (d) Chitra is taller than Sunitha.
         Then who is the shortest?
         (a) Sunitha                         (b) Anitha                    (c ) Reena                    (d) Banu

26.      Pointing to a photograph Vikas said ‘She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only son”. How is the girl related to Vikas in the
         photograph?
         (a) Father                      (b) Brother                    (c ) Sister                  (d) Mother.

27.      If the day before yesterday was thursday, when will Sunday be?
         (a) Tomorrow                   (b) Day after tomorrow       (c ) Today                          (d) Two days after today

28.      If the row of children, ravi is fourth from right and sham is second from left. When they interchange positions Ravi is ninth from
         right. W hat will be sham’s position from left?
         (a) Fifth                           (b) Sixth                      (c ) Seventh                  (d) Eight

29.      A man was 32 years of age when he had his first son. His wife was 35 years of age when his son attained the age of 7 years.
         The difference in age between the man and his wife is
         (a) 7 years                    (b) 3 years                    (c ) 5 years                (d) 4 years

Directions Q. 30) : From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters given in the
       wor d.

30.      PERMANENT
         (a) REMNANT                        (b) TRAMP                      (c ) MENTOR                   (d) AMPERE

Directions Q. 31) : In question, number of letters repeated in the given word are indicated in front of each alternative.
       Identify the correct alternative.

31.      MEASUREMENTS
         (a) M2E2A2S2U1R1N1T1               (b) M2E3A1S1U2R1N2T1           (c ) M2E2A1S2U1R1N1T1         (d) M2E3A1S2U1R1N1T1

32.      If LOVE is coded as 27, then how is COME coded as?
         (a) 38                         (b) 18                             (c ) 28                       (d) 2

33.      In a certain code MONKEY is XDJMNL. How is “TIGER” written as ?
         (a) QDFHS                     (b) SDFHS                     (c ) SHFDQ                          (d) UJHFS

34.      Some equations are solved on the basis of certain system. On the same basis find the correct answer for the unsolved
         equation.
         If 13 × 12 = 651 and 41 × 23 = 349 then 24 × 22 = ?
         (a) 504                         (b) 46                     (c ) 528                   (d) 825

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Directions Q. 35 to 37) : Select the missing number from the given responses.



35.




       (a) 31                           (b) 229                         (c ) 234                      (d) 312

36.    3     6     7
       9    18     21
       27 54       ?
       81 162     189
       (a) 22                           (b) 63                          (c ) 190                      (d) 55




37.




       (a) 0                            (b) 125                         (c ) 100                      (d) 144

Directions Q. 38) : In the following question you have to identify the correct response from the giv en premises stated
       according to following symbols.
38.    If > = ÷, V = ×, < = +, ^ + –, + = =, × = <, – = >
       (a) 6 < 2 > 3 ^ 8 V 4 + 13          (b) 6 ^ 2 < < 3 > 8 < 4 – 13 (c ) 6 V 2 < 3 ^ 8 > 4 × 13 (d) 6 > 2 V 3 < 8 ^ 4 + 13

39.    Assuming that the statement ‘Every library has books’ is true, which of the following statement is definitely true?
       (a) Books are only in Library                                   (b) No Library is without books
       (c ) Some libraries do not have readers                         (d) Libraries are meant for books only

Directions Q. 40) : In question, one statement is given, followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the
       statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decid e which
       of the given conclusion, if any, follow from the given statement.
40.    Statement : All philosophers are men. Socrates was a philosopher.
       Conclusion: I Socrates was a man.                             II. Women cannot become philosophers.
       (a) Only I is valid              (b) Only II is valid         (c ) Both are not valid   (d) Both are valid

41.    A man drives his car 50 km towards eastward direction. He turned right went for 30 km, then he turned west and drive for 10
       km. How far is he from the starting point?
       (a) 50 km                        (b) 60 km                        (c ) 100 km                 (d) 20 km
42.    Raju facing North and moves 20 km, then he turned to his right and moves 20 km and then he moves 10 km in North-East, then
       he turned to his right and moves 20 km and the he turned to his right and moves 20 km, and again he turned to his left and moves
       20 km. Now in which direction Raju is facing?
       (a) South-East                   (b) North-East                   (c ) South-W est            (d) North-W est
43.    The following diagram shows the different view of same cube. Find out how many spots are on face directly opposite to the
       face of the cube having 6 spots :




       (a) 1                        (b) 3                      (c ) 5                   (d) 2
Directions Q. 44) : In question, among the four answer figures which one can be formed from the cut out pieces given
       b e lo w?
44.    Question M arks                                         Answer Figure




                                                                             (a)          (b)         (c)          (d)

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Directions Q. 45) : In question, which one of the answer figure shall complete the given questions figure?
45.    Question M arks                                         Answer Figure




                                                                               (a)       (b)          (c)             (d)
46.      In which answer figure is the question figure embedded?
         Question M arks                                                Answer Figure




                                                                         (a)         (b)        (c)         (d)
47.      A piece of paper is folded and a cut is made as shown below. From the given responses indicate how it will appear when
         opened.
         Question M arks                                            Answer Figure




                                                                    (a)       (b)       (c)        (d)
Directions Q. 48) : which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror image of the question figure when the mirror is
       held at XY?
48.    Question M arks                                         Answer Figure




                                                                               (a)       (b)          (c)             (d)

49.      W hich represents Carrot, Food, Vegetable?


         (a)                             (b)                            (c )                         (d)


50.      The diagram given below represents owner, broker and worker. Identify the region which represents all the three i.e., owner,
         broker and worker.




         (a) L                           (b) T                          (c ) P                       (d) R

                                                           PART - II
                                                      ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q. 51 to 59) : Each of the following nine items consists of a word or a group of words   in capital letters followed by four
       words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is similar in meaning to     the word in capital letters.
51.    CRAVEN
       (a) Greedy                      (b) Cowardly                   (c ) Flattering                (d) Restless
52.    FORTY WINKS
       (a) A person beyond 40 years of age                            (b) A studious person
       (c ) Ordeals of life                                           (d) A short nap
53.    VICARIOUS
       (a) Ambitious                   (b) Not experienced personally(c ) Nostalgic                  (d) Vindictive

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54.    TO JETTISON
       (a) To go on trekking           (b) To sail                     (c ) To abandon             (d) To fire a gun
55.    THE WORSE FOR WEAR
       (a) worrisome                   (b) Financially poor            (c ) Hostile                (d) Shabby from use
56.    BEE IN ONE’S BONNET
       (a) Sickness                    (b) Obsession                   (c ) Misery                 (d) Freshness
57.    TO BROWBEAT
       (a) To bully                    (b) To chase                    (c ) To give a hint         (d) To revive old friendship
58.    TO ASSUAGE
       (a) To assume                   (b) To forget                   (c ) To resolve             (d) To mitigate
59.    DEBONAIR
       (a) Bed-ridden                  (b) Candid                      (c ) Elegant                (d) Thrifty
Directions (Q. 60 to 68) : Each of the following nine items consists of a word or a group of words in capital letters followed by four
       words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.
60.    PREPOSSESSION
       (a) Incredible                  (b) Arousing envy               (c ) Unattractive           (d) Recent
61.    ADULATION
       (a) Confusion                   (b) Inertia                     (c ) Consolidation          (d) Condemnation
62.    BLITHESOME
       (a) Graceful                    (b) Sullen                      (c ) Adventurous            (d) Mammoth
63.    SENILE
       (a) Suspicious                  (b) Mentally alert              (c ) Corrupt                (d) Affluent
64.    PREDILECTION
       (a) Analogy                     (b) Anticlimax                  (c ) Antipathy              (d) Argument
65.    ON THE BLINK
       (a) Apologetically              (b) Blindly                     (c ) Legally                (d) In working order
66.    CONSANGUINE
       (a) Of different kind           (b) Invisible                   (c ) Urbane                 (d) Untenanted
67.    REDOUBTABLE
       (a) Truthful                    (b) Crafty                      (c ) W idely travelled      (d) Ordinary
68.    INORDINATE
       (a) Distant                     (b) Facile                      (c ) Moderate               (d) Attractive
Directions (Q. 69 to 77) : In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange
       these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
69.    Many (P) way to fuel growth (Q) economists argue that (R) and alleviate poverty (S) free trade is a magic bullet-the quickest
       which one of the following is the correct sequence?
       (a) Q-P-S-R                       (b) R-S-P-Q                      (c ) Q-S-P-R                   (d) R-P-S-Q
70.    As a (P) way to fuel growth (Q) economists argue that (R) and alleviate poverty (S) free trade is a magic bullet-the quickest
       W hich one of the following is the correct sequence?
       (a) Q-P-S-R                       (b) R-S-P-Q                      (c ) Q-S-P-R                   (d) R-P-S-Q
70.    As a (P) maestro appeared to be enjoying every bit of it (Q) and followed every composition the (R) thunderous applause
       from (S) an appreciative audience preceded
       W hich one of the following is the correct sequence?
       (a) P-Q-S-R                       (b) R-S-Q-P                      (c ) P-S-Q-R                   (d) R-Q-S-P
71.    Keeping (P) farmers to smoke their fields during (Q) in view the prevailing weather conditions (R) agricultural experts have
       advised (S) the night to protect vegetables from cold
       W hich one of the following is the correct sequence?
       (a) S-R-P-Q                       (b) Q-P-R-S                      (c ) S-P-R-Q                   (d) Q-R-P-S
72.    It is (P) stressful or joyful (Q) with the belief in the evanescence of life itself(R) necessary to rise above the situation, (S)
       and in the philosophical quest of the purpose of life
       W hich one of the following is the correct sequence?
       (a) R-P-Q-S                       (b) Q-S-R-P                      (c ) R-S-Q-P                   (d) Q-P-R-S
73.    The difference (P) and development on the other affects (Q) in the relationship between death and birth rates on the one
       hand (R) but the age structure of the population(S) not just the rate of population growth
       W hich one of the following is the correct sequence?
       (a) S-R-Q-P                       (b) Q-P-S-R                      (c ) S-P-Q-R                   (d) Q-R-S-P
74.    Here (P) another supposed discovery of 29-inch footprints (Q) claim to have found in Kerala (R) we go again with yet (S)
       which a group of amateur anthropologists
       W hich one of the following is the correct sequence?

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(a) R-Q-S-P                      (b) S-P-R-Q                      (c ) R-P-S-Q                   (d) S-Q-R-P
75.      Creative (P) world of reality (Q) writers and artists, through their imagination (R) transform the details of the (S) into the
         world of art
         W hich of the following is the correct sequence?
         (a) S-P-R-Q                      (b) Q-R-P-S                      (c ) S-R-P-Q                   (d) Q-P-R-S
76.      Thus (P) against the state through the courts (Q) of one’s privacy against arbitrary intrusion by the police (R) the court
         emphasized that the security (S) is basic to a free society and enforceable
         W hich one of the following is the correct sequence?
         (a) P-Q-S-R                      (b) R-S-Q-P                      (c ) P-S-Q-R                   (d) R-Q-S-P
77.     The preference (P) responsibilities of looking after parents in their old age (Q) despite the fact that in a growing number of
        families (R) at least in urban India, daughters are taking on the (S) for the male child continues
        W hich one of following is the correct sequence?
        (a) S-Q-R-P                         (b) R-P-S-Q                      (c ) S-P-R-Q                  (d) R-Q-S-P
Directions (Q. 78 to 82) : In this section you have a short passage. After the passage, you will find some questions based on the
        passage. First, read the passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers
        based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
                                                                 Passage – I
        Today, India looks to be on course to join the league of developed nations. It is beginning to establish a reputation not just as the
        technology nerve-centre and back-office to the world, but also as its production centre. India’s secularism and democracy
        serve as a role model to other developing countries. There is great pride in an India that easily integrates with a global economy,
        yet maintains a unique cultural identity.
        But what is breath taking is India’s youth. For despite being an ancient civilization that traces itself to the very dawn of human
        habitation, India is among the youngest countries in the world. More than half the country is under 25 years of age and more than
        a third is under 15 years of age.
        Brought up in the shadow of the rise of India’s service industry boom, this group feels it can be at least as good if bot better than
        anyone else in the world. This confidence has then demonstrating a great propensity to consume, throwing away ageing ideas
        of asceticism and thrift. The economic activity created by this combination of a growing labour pool and rising consumption
        demand is enough to propel India to double-digit economic growth for decades. This opportunity also represents the greatest
        threat to India’s future. If the youths of India are not properly educated and if there are not enough jobs created, India will have
        forever lost its opportunity.
        India’s Information Technology and Business process Outsourcing industries are engines of job creation, but they still account
        for only 0.2 per cent of India’s employment. The country has no choice but to dramatically industrialise and inflate its economy.
        According to a recent survey, more than half of India’s unemployed within the next decade could be its educated youth.
78.     Consider the following statements :
        1. India’s rich cultural heritage prevents India from surging ahead to become and active partner in the global economy
        2. By and large, India’s youth still believe in a thrifty lifestyle.
        W hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (a) 1 only                          (b) 2 only                       (c ) both 1 and 2             (d) neither 1 nor 2
79.     What is the approximate number of people in India who are in the age group 15-25 years?
        (a) 500 million                     (b) 350 million                  (c ) 210 million              (d) 180 million
80.     In the recent past, which sector has witnessed a phenomenal growth?
        (a) Heavy industry                  (b) Service industry             (c ) Petrochemical industry (d) Textile industry
81.     Consider the following statements :
        1. Rising consumption demand will retard economic growth.
        2. India’s youth are its greatest opportunity as well as threat.
        W hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (a) 1 only                          (b) 2 only                       (c ) both 1 and 2             (c ) neither 1 nor 2
82.     Consider the following statements :
        1. Information Technology sector provides a relatively large proportion of jobs in India.
        2. In the coming decade only uneducated youth will remain deprived of employment opportunity.
        W hich of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (a) 1 only                          (b) 2 only                       (c ) both 1 and 2             (d) neither 1 nor 2
Directions (Q. 83 to 92) : In this section 10 sentences are given. Each sentence has three parts (a), (b) and (c). Read each
        sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in
        any one of the part (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response accordingly. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In
        that case letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
83.     (a) The prime minister’s good looks won him/(b) the election but he has still to prove/(c) that he’s not a just pretty face/(d) no
        error.
84.     (a) The two books are the same/(b) except for the fact that this /(c) has an answer in the back/(d) no error.
85.     (a) He estimated his income tax bill/(2) by extrapolation over figures/(c) among the old buildings in the area./(d) no error.
 150. (a) The modern office block/(b) sticks out like a sore thumb/(c) among the old buildings in the area/(d) no error
86.
87.     (a) I will try to put over /(b)some feelers to gauge/(c) people’s reactions to our proposal/(4) no error.
88.     (a) A major contribution of Mathura sculptors/(b) of that period were the creation and popularization/(c) of the Buddha’s
        image in human form.(4) no error.

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Directions (Q. 93 to 100) : In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and the sixth
        sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are
        labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the correct sequence of the four sentence.
93.     S1 : Political empowerment apart, the state should recognise the right to life of every citizen.
        S6 : The state should prepare for the seasons ahead, not just winter, and create shelters on a war footing.
        P : Places of religious worship play an important role in this respect, providing food and shelter.
        Q : Where lives are at state, resource crunch cannot work as an excuse.
        R : It can still intervene to save lives, by ensuring that offices, schools and other institutions that function only during the day
        are used as night shelters.
        S : However, civil society organisations cannot be expected to compensate for state neglect.
        W hich one of the following is the correct sequence?
        (a) S-Q-R-P                         (b) R-P-S-Q                      (c ) S-P-R-Q                    (d) R-Q-S-P
94.     S1 : This is the age of knowledge.
        S6 : Not surprisingly then that we Indians are often labelled as being overly superstitious.
        P : Logic and intuition are no longer enemies.                       Q : It is also the age of Aquarius
        R : The two live together comfortably in every Indian household.
        S : So why should superstitions be considered out of place in this age of nanotechnology and computers?
        W hich one of the following is the correct sequence?
        (a) Q-P-S-R                         (b) R-S-P-Q                      (c ) Q-S-P-R                    (d) R-P-S-Q
95.     S1 : Sachin has second centuries against all oppositions, in all countries.
        S6 : But largely, he has been the dictator, giving nightmares to quality bowlers of the world.
        P : There have been those rare occasions when he looked entangled at the crease.
        Q : In fact, some of his most memorable essays came in adverse conditions.
        R : Gavaskar called him “the closest thing to batting perfection this game has every seen”.
        S : Sachin has established his stamp over all type of attack
        W hich one of the following is the correct sequence?
        (a) P-Q-S-R                         (b) R-Q-S-P                      (c ) P-S-Q-R                    (d) R-S-Q-P
96.     S1 : Jagan has been working in our home for over 25 years
        S6 : Then came the question of raising his children on the paltry sum of money he earned washing cars and sweeping
        homes.
        P : And another
        Q : Till finally his wife delivered a son and he declared his innings.
        R : I remember the day his first daughter was born.                  S : And then came another.
        W hich one of the following is the correct sequence?
        (a) R-P-S-Q                         (b) Q-S-P-R                      (c ) R-S-P-Q                    (d) Q-P-S-R
97.     S1 : Diabetes is a silent killer and because it does not seem as potent as cancer or AIDS is very often overlooked with too
        much heed by patients.
        S6 : Though diabetes can never be totally cured it can definitely be controlled from causing serious consequences.
        P : Worse, as many as a third of them don’t even know it.
        Q : Untreated diabetes can lead to heart and kidney failure, amputations and even death
        R : Millions of people suffer from diabetes
        S : The early symptoms of diabetes are often confused with other less grave conditions.
        (a) S-Q-R-P                         (b) R-P-S-Q                      (c ) S-P-R-Q                    (d) R-Q-S-P
98.     S1 : Ships, built in dry docks are launched amidst chanting of Atharva Veda.
        S6 : The latest INS Mumbai is the tenth reincarnation of its original INS Bombay.
        P : Even now newer warships are given names of old decommissioned warships.
        Q : One of the enduring superstitions of the navy is that old ships, don’t die.
        R : In Europe, they break champagne bottles on the bow; in India we break coconuts.
        S : It derives from the animistic belief that a ship has a soul that lives on the that it is reborn.
        W hich one of the following is the correct sequence?
        (a) R-Q-S-P                         (b) S-P-R-Q                      (c ) R-P-S-Q                    (d) S-Q-R-P
99.     S1 : Jaswant Singh of 4 Garhwal Rifles was apparently relaxing at 10,000 feet when he spotted a whole battalion of
        Chinese troops advancing towards an Indian army post.
        S6 : Versions of the story vary
        P : They surrounded him, captured the three and beheaded them.
        Q : Finally the enemy sent a scout party to ascertain the real strength of the Indian defence, and they found just a rifleman
        and two girls.
        R : After the war, the Chinese, impressed by the rifleman’s valour, gave his head back to the Indians, who set up a temple
        for him.
        S : W ith just one 303 and ammunition supplied by two girls from an abandoned dump, he mowed down about 50 enemy
        troopers
        W hich one of the following is the correct sequence?
        (a) P-Q-S-R                         (b) S-R-P-Q                      (c ) P-R-S-Q                    (d) S-Q-P-R
100. S1 Each creature of the sea has it own significance for seamen.
        S6 : A dead dolphin is a bad omen.
        P : One reason could be that dolphins and sharks do not cohabit
        Q : Sighting a dolphin is supposed to bring luck.                    R : A dolphin swimming with the ship brings good luck
        S : Upon sighting the first dolphin on a voyage even the admiral will come up on deck to watch it.
        W hich one of the following is the correct sequence?
        (a) S-R-Q-P                         (b) Q-P-S-R                      (c ) S-P-Q-R                    (d) Q-R-S-P


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A - 39, Vikas Puri, New Delhi - 18
PART - III
                                                                           NUMERICAL APTITUDE
                                                                                        1 4 5
                                                                                       3  of
101.     The least fraction to be subtracted from the expression                        4 5 6      to make it an integer.
                                                                                                                        .
                                                                                     1 1  3    1
                                                                                    4     21 
                                                                                     3 5  10   5

                  1                                               5                               1                        3
         (a)                                                (b)                            (c )                     (d)
                  2                                               6                               4                       10

              2
                                                                                x
102.     If       0.014  0.14x  0.014  14 2 y , find the value of
                                                                                y
         (a) 0.000196                                       (b) 0.00196                    (c ) 0.0196              (d) 0.196
                                                        2                   2
                                  (0.337  0.126)  (0.337  0.126) 
103.     The value of                                                is
                                             0.337  0.126          
         (a) 4                                              (b) 0.211                      (c ) 0.463               (d) 0.4246

                  12
104.      3   4       is equal to
                  125
         (a) 1.4                                            (b) 1.6                        (c ) 1.8                 (d) 2.4
105.     The simplified value of                   900  0.09  .000009 is
         (a) 30.27                                          (b) 30.297                     (c ) 30.097              (d) 30.197

106.     The simplified value of                   5  11  19  29  49 is
         (a) 3                                              (b) 2                          (c ) 4                   (d) 6

                                                   4   9    
107.     The least number among                      ,   ,0.45 and (0.8)2 is
                                                   9 49

                  4                                                    4
         (a)                                                (b)                                   
                                                                                           (c ) 0.45                (d) (0.8) 2
                  9                                                   49

                                  95
108.     The value of 99              99 is
                                  99
         (a) 9798                                           (b) 9997                       (c ) 9898                (d) 9896
109.     1.2  0.03 =
         (a) 0.04                                           (b) 0.037                      (c ) 0.13                (d) 0.37

           1     1      1      1      1
110.                                  =
         3 8   8 7   7 6   6 5   5 2
         (a) 5                                              (b) 4                          (c ) 3                   (d) 2

                                3    4
111.     Evaluate 16              9   if          12  3.46
                                4    3
         (a) 3.46                                           (b) 10.38                      (c ) 13.84               (d) 24.22
112.     If 2     2 x y
                            16 and 2   x y
                                                32 , then value of xy is
         (a) 2                            (b) 4                           (c ) 6                     (d) 8
113.     The LCM of two multiples of 12 is 1056. If one of the numbers is 132, the other number is
         (a) 12                           (b) 72                          (c ) 96                    (d) 132
114.     Sum of two numbers is 384. H. (3) F. of the numbers is 48. The difference of thenumbers is
         (a) 100                          (b) 192                         (c ) 284                   (d) 336
115.     The two number are in the ratio 2 : 3 and their product is 96. The sum of the number is
         (a) 5                            (b) 20                          (c ) 101                   (d) 102
116.     The sum of two number is ten. Their product is twenty. Find the sum of the reciprocals of the two numbers.

                                                                  3                               1                       11
         (a) 1                                              (b)                            (c )                     (d)
                                                                  5                               2                       6
117.     A number when divide by 192 gives a remainder of 54. W hat remainder would be obtained on dividing the same number of 16?
         (a) 2                          (b) 4                         (c ) 6                       (d) 8
118.     The least number which twhen divided by 5, 6, 7 and 8 leaves a remainder 3, but when divided by 9 leaves no remainder is
         (a) 1677                       (b) 1683                      (c ) 2523                    (d) 3363


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                                                                                                                   A - 39, Vikas Puri, New Delhi - 18
119.   The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 10. The number formed by reversing the digits is 18 less than the original number.
       Find the original number.
       (a) 81                             (b) 46                           (c ) 64                           (d) 60
120.   The least number to the subtracted from 36798 to get a number which is exactly divisible by 78 is
       (a) 18                             (b) 60                           (c ) 38                           (d) 68
121.   Five times of a positive integer is equal to 3 less than twice the square of that number. The number is
       (a) 3                              (b) 13                           (c ) 23                           (d) 33
122.   The product of two number is 24 times, the difference of these two numbers. If the sum of these number is 14, the larger number
       is
       (a) 9                              (b) 8                            (c ) 7                            (d) 10
123.   The greatest number of four digits which when divided by 12, 16 and 24 leave remainders 2, 6 and 14 respectively is
       (a) 9974                           (b) 9970                         (c ) 9807                         (d) 9998
124.   When a number is divided by 15, 20 or 35, each time the remainder is 8. Then the smallest number is
       (a) 428                            (b) 427                          (c ) 328                          (d) 338
125.   A man read 2/5th of a book on 1st day. He read1/4rd more than he read on first day. 15 pages were left for third day. The number
       of pages in the book is
       (a) 100                            (b) 105                          (c ) 225                          (d) 250
126.   Jyothi can do 3/4th of a job in 12 days. Mala is twice as efficient as Jyothi. In how many days Mala will finish the job?
       (a) 6                              (b) 8                            (c ) 12                           (d) 16
127.   Three pipes A, B and C can fill a cistern in 6 hours. After wrking at it together for 2 hours, C is closed and A and B fill it in 7 hours
       more. The time taken by C alone to fill the cistern is
       (a) 14 hours                       (b) 15 hours                     (c ) 16 hours                     (d) 17 hours
128.   A is twice as good a workman as B and B is twice as good a workman as 93) If A and B can together finish a piece of work in
       4 days, then C can do it by himself in
       (a) 6 days                         (b) 8 days                       (c ) 24 days                      (d) 12 days
129.   A and B can do a piece of work in 10 days. B and C can do it in 12 days; C and A in 15 days. In how many days will C fiish it alone?
       (a) 24                             (b) 30                           (c ) 40                           (d) 60
130.   Water is flowing at the rate of 5 km/hr through a pipe of diameter 14 cm into a rectangular tank which is 50 m long and 44 m wide.
                                                                                              22 
       Determine the time inwhich the level of water in the tank will rise by 7 cm.  Tank      
                                                                                              7 
       (a) 2.1 hour                      (b) 2.0 hour                 (c ) 2.5 hour                 (d) 2.2 hour
131.   Two solid cylinders of radii 4 cm and 5 cm and legnths 6 cm and 4 cm respectively are recast into cylinderical disc of tickness
       1 cm. The radius of the disc is
       (a) 7 cm                          (b) 14 cm                    (c ) 21 cm                    (d) 28 cm
132.   The length of a rectangle is increased by 60%. By what per cent would the breadth to be decreased to maintain the same area?

                1
       (a) 37                             (b) 60                            (c ) 75                         (d) 120
                2
133.   Volume of two cones are in the ratio 1 : 4 and their diameters are in the ratio 4 : 5. The ratio of the height is
       (a) 1 : 5                         (b) 5 : 4                      (c ) 5 : 16                      (d) 25 : 64
134.   What is the greatest length of the rod which can e kept in a room 12 m × 9m × 8m?

       (a)    288 m
       (b)    29 m                                                                                           A
       (c )   17 m
       (d)    13 m
                                                                                                            12                              D

                                                                                                                                      8
                                                                                                              B
                                                                                                                        9        C
135.   Water is being pumped out through a circular pipe whose internal diameter is 7 cm. If the flow of water is 12 cm per second, how
       many litres of water is being pumped out in one hour?
       (a) 1663.2                        (b) 1500                         (c ) 1747.6                      (d) 2000
136.   The lateral surface area of a cylinder is 1056 cm2 and its height is 16 cm. Find it volume.
       (a) 4545 cm3                      (b) 4455 cm3                     (c ) 5445 cm3                    (d) 5544 cm3
                                                                                                       3
137.   The largest sphere is carved out of a cube of side 7 cm. The volume of the sphere (in cm ) will be
       (a) 718.66                        (b) 543.72                       (c ) 481.34                      (d) 179.67
138.   The radius of circle A is twice that of circle B and the radius of circle B is twice that of circle (3) Their are will be in the ratio
       (a) 16 : 4 : 1                    (b) 4 : 2 : 1                    (c ) 1 : 2: 4                    (d) 1 : 4: 16
139.   A dozen pair of socks quoted at Rs. 80 are available at a discount of 10%. How many pairs of socks can be bought for Rs. 24?
       (a) 4                             (b) 5                            (c ) 3                           (d) 6
140.   The marked price of a T.V. is Rs. 16000. After two successive discounts it is sold for Rs. 11,400 if the first dicount is 5%, then
       the rate of second discount is
       (a) 15%                           (b) 20%                          (c ) 30%                         (d) 25%



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141.   The difference between a discount of 30% on Rs. 2000 and two successive discounts of 25% and 5% on the same amount is
       (a) Rs. 30                     (b) Rs.35                    (c ) Rs. 25                 (d) Rs. 40
142.   If x : y = 2 : 1, then (x 2  y 2 ) : (x 2  y 2 ) is
       (a) 3 : 5                         (b) 5 : 3                           (c ) 4 : 5                       (d) 5 : 6
143.   Three cars travelled distances in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If the ratio of the time of travel is 3 : 2 : 1, the the ratio of their speeds is
       (a) 3 : 9 : 1                     (b) 1 : 3 : 9                       (c ) 1 : 2 : 4                   (d) 4 : 3 : 2
144.   The ratio between two numbers is 3 : 4. If each number is increased by 6, the ratio becomes 4 : 5. The difference between the
       numbers is
       (a) 1                             (b) 3                               (c ) 6                           (d) 8
145.   There are three numbers A, B, C such that twice A is equal to thrice B and four times B is equal to five times (3) Then the ratio
       between A and C is
       (a) 3 : 4                         (b) 8 : 15                          (c ) 15 : 8                      (d) 4 : 3
146.   The weights of Mr. Gupta and Mrs. Gupta are in the ratio 7 : 8 and their total weight, combined is 120 kg. After taking a dieting
       course Mr. Gupta reduces by 6 kg and the ratio between their weights cjanges to 5 : 6. so, Mrs. Gupta has reduced by
       (a) 2 kg                          (b) 4 kg                            (c ) 3 kg                        (d) 5 kg
147.   Three numbers are inthe ratio 5 : 6 : 7. If the pooduct of the numbers is 5670, then the greatest number is
       (a) 15                            (b) 18                              (c ) 21                          (d) 28

                                                                                                                                         1
148.   A road of 5 km will be constructed in 100 days. So, 280 workers were employed. But after 80 days it was found that only 3           km
                                                                                                                                         2
       road was completed. Now, how many more people were needed to finish the work in the specified time?
       (a) 480                        (b) 80                         (c ) 200                        (d) 100
149.   A constant distance from Chennai to Bangalore is covered by Express train at 100 km/hr. If it returns back to same distance at
       80 km/hr, then the average speed during the whole journey is
       (a) 90.20 km/h                 (b) 88.78 km/h                 (c ) 88.89 km/h                 (d) 88.89 km/h
150.   The average weight of 15 students in a class increases by 1.5 kg when one of the students weighing 40 kg is replaced by a
       new student. What is the weight (in kg) of the new student?
       (a) 64.5                       (b) 56                         (c ) 60.5                       (d) 62.5

                                                                      PART - IV
                                                                 GENERAL AWARENESS

151.   The quit India Movement was launched in 1942 in the month of
       (a) January                                  (b) March                (c ) August                      (d) December
152.   Match the following :
       Column - I                                   Column - II
       (a) Keshab Sen                               1. Prarthana Samaj
       (b) Dayanand Saraswati                       2. Bramo Samaj
       (c) Raha Rammohan Roy                        3. Aligarh Movement
       (d) Syed Ahmad Khan                          4. Arya samaj
       (a) 4, 1, 3, 2                               (b) 1, 4, 2, 3           (c ) 2, 4, 1, 3                  (d) 3, 2, 4, 1
153.   Who was the first English president of the Indian National congress?
       (a) George Yule                              (b) william Wedderburn   (c ) (1) O. Hume                 (d) Henry Cotton
154.   Which one of the following personalities is known as ‘Grand Old man of India’?
       (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak                      (b) Dadabhai Naoroji     (c ) Motilal Nehru               (d) Lala lajpat Rai
155.   W ho wrote Akbarnama?
       (a) Akbar                                    (b) Birbal               (c ) Abul Fazal                  (d) Bhagavan Das
156.   The pledge for “poorna Swaraj” was taken at the Congress Session of
       (a) Calcutta                                 (b) Lahore               (c ) Allahabad                   (d) Madras
157.   W hen was the panchayati Raj system introduced in India?
       (a) 1950                                     (b) 1945                 (c ) 1959                        (d) 1962
158.   W ho held the office of the Vice-President of India for two consecutive terms?
       (a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan                                              (b) Mr. R. Venkatararaman
       (c ) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma                                         (d) Mr. V.V. Giri
159.   Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution inserted the two words-’Socialist’ and Secular’ in the Preamble?
       (a) 28th                                     (b) 40th                 (c ) 42nd                        (d) 52nd
160.   When there is a vacancy in the office of the President and the Vice President at the same time, the office is held temporarily by
       (a) a personnominated by both the Houses of Parliament                (b) the Speaker of Lok Sabha
       (c ) The deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha                               (d) the chief Justice of India




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161.   The constituion of India came into force on
       (a) 26 January, 1950             (b) 26 January, 1952             (c ) 15 August, 1948          (d) 26 Novermber, 1949
162.   W ho was the first woman Governor of a State in free India from out of the following?
       (a) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu          (b) Mrs. Sucheta Kriplani        (c ) mrs. Indira Gandhi       (d) Mrs. Vijay Laxmi pandit
163.   The parliamentary Committe which scrutinises the report of the comptroller and Auditor General of India is
       (a) Estimates Committee                                           (b) Select committee
       (c ) Public Accounts committee                                    (d) None of these
164.   Fog is an example of
       (a) Gas dispersed in gas         (b) Liquid dispersed in gas      (c ) Solid dpspersed in gas   (d) solid dispersed in liquid
165.   Which from the following is a landlocked sea?
       (a) Timor Sea                    (b) Arafura Sea                  (c ) Greenland Sea            (d) Aral Sea
166.   Match the following :
           Sea parts                        States
       (a) Bhatkal                      1. Kerala
       (b) Alleppey                     2. Tamil Nadu
       (c ) Kakinada                    3. Karnataka
       (d) Tuticorin                    4. andhra Pradesh
       (a) a, 3, 4, 2                   (b) 4, 3, 2, 1                   (c ) 3, 1, 4, 2               (d) 2, 4, 1, 3
167.   W hich one of the following represent the lines joining the places of equal rainfall?
       (a) Isohypses                    (b) Isohalines                   (c ) Isobars                  (d) Isohyets
168.   Equator represents
       (a) line joining North and south poles
       (b) imaginary line passing round the Earth midway between North & South poles
       (c ) a bet (ring) around the planet Saturn
       (d) axis of rotation of Earth
169.   Global W arming is expected to result in
       (a) increase in level of sea     (b) change incrop pattern        (c ) change in coast line     (d) all of the above
170.   Earth Summit (Save Earth) was sponsored by
       (a) UNESCO                       (b) UNCED                        (c ) WHO                      (d) UNICEF
171.   If two commodities are complements, then their cross-price eleasticity is
       (a) Zero                         (b) positive                     (c ) negative                 (d) imaginary number
172.   Opportunity cost of productionof a commodity is
       (a) the cost that the firm could have incurred when a different technique was adopted
       (b) the cost that the firm could have incurred under a different method of production
       (c ) the acutal cost incurred
       (d) the next best alternative output sacrificed
173.   Surplus earned by a factor other than land in the short period is referred to as
       (a) economic rent                (b) net rent                     (c ) quasi-rent               (d) super-normal rent
174.   Who is the Ex-officio chairman of the Planning commission?
       (a) Minister for Planning & Development                           (b) Finance Minister
       (c ) Prime Minister                                               (d) Minister for Rural 7 community Development
175.   W hich from the following is not true when the interest rate in the economy goes up?
       (a) Savings increases            (b) Lending decreases            (c ) Lending decreases        (d) Return on capital increases
176.   Which one of the following is not a method of measurement of National Income?
       (a) Value Added Method           (b) Income Method                (c ) Investment Method        (d) Expenditure method
177.   Labour intensive technique would get chosen in a
       (a) Labour Surplus Economy       (b) Capital Surplus Economy      (c ) Developed Economy        (d) Developing Economy
178.   W hich one of the following would not constitute and ecomomic activity?
       (a) A teacher teaching students in his class
       (b) A teacher teaching students under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
       (c ) A teacher teaching his own daughter at Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
       (d) A teacher providing consultancy sevices from his residence
179.   The Finance Commission
       (a) Draws up Five Year Plans
       (b) formulates Monetary Policy
       (c ) Recommends pay revision of central Government employees
       (d) Adjudicates one the sharing of resources between centre and the States

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180.   Net National product of a country is
       (a) GDP minus depreciation allowances                              (b) GDP plus net income from abroad
       (c ) GNP minus net income from abroad                              (d) GNP minus depreciation allowances
181.   Jaundice is caused due to the infection of
       (a) Brain                        (b) Liver                         (c ) Kidney                    (d) Spleen
182.   The average heart beat rate per minute in a normal person is
       (a) 82                           (b) 92                            (c ) 72                        (d) 98
183.   EEG records the activity of
       (a) Heart                        (b) lungs                         (c ) brain                     (d) muscles
184.   The colour of cow’s milk is slightly yellow due to the presence of
       (a) Xanthophyll                  (b) Riboflavin                    (c ) Ribulose                  (d) Carotene
185.   Which one of these is a communicable disease?
       (a) Diabetes                     (b) Diphtheria                    (c ) Arthritis                 (d) Cancer
186.   The concentration of which of following decreases in anaemia?
       (a) Haemoglobin                  (b) Collagen                      (c ) Hyoglobin                 (d) Myosin
187.   W hich of the following diseases usually spreads through air?
       (a) Plague                       (b) Typhoid                       (c ) Tuberculosis              (d) Cholera
188.   Cereals are a rich source of
       (a) Starch                       (b) Glucose                       (c ) Freuctose                 (d) Maltose
189.   Aspirin is common name of
       (a) Salicylic acid               (b) Salicylate                    (c ) Methyl Salicylate         (d) Acetyl salicylic acid
190.   Small Pox is caused by
       (a) Rubeola virus                (b) VAriola Virus                 (c ) Varicella                 (d) Myxovirus
191.   Carbon monoxide is an inflammable gas. Which one of the followiwng is also inflammable?
       (a) Helium                       (b) Nitrogen                      (c ) Oxygen                    (d) Hydrogen
192.   Respiration process requires
       (a) heat                         (b) water                         (c ) oxygen                    (d) sunlight
193.   W hich one of the following metals does not react with water to produce hydrogen?
       (a) Potassium                    (b) Cadmium                       (c ) Sodium                    (d) Lithium
194.   Ozone consists of
       (a) oxygen only                  (b) Oxygen and Nitrogen           (c ) Hydrogen and Carbon       (d) Oxygen and Carbon
195.   W hich of the following liquids has the least density?
       (a) Fresh water                  (b) Salt water                    (c ) Petrol                    (d) Mercury
196.   W hich of the following principle is sued to produce ‘low-temperature’?
       (a) Super conductivity           (b) Joule-Delvin effect           (c ) Therm-electric effect     (d) Adiabatic demagnetisation
197.   A photo-electric cell converts
       (a) mechanical energy to electric energy                           (b) heat energyto mechanical energy
       (c ) light energy to chemical energy                               (d) light energy to electrical energy
198.   Two stones of different masses are dropped simultaneously from the top of a building
       (a) Smaller stone reaches the ground earlier                       (b) Larger stone reaches the ground earlier.
       (c ) Both the stones reach the ground at the same time.            (d) Depends on the composition of the stone.
199.   Pulsars are
       (a) starts moving towards the Earth                                (b) stars moving away from Earth
       (c ) rapidly spinning stars                                        (d) high temperature s stars
200.   Biggest planet of solar system is
       (a) Earth                        (b) Mars                          (c ) Saturn                    (d) Jupiter

                                                                *** End ***




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                                                                                                       A - 39, Vikas Puri, New Delhi - 18
ANSWER CARD
                                               MOCK SSC LDC DETAENTRY
         1. c      2. a      3. a     4. d     5. d     6. c     7. c     8. a     9. d     10. c    11. c    12. c
         13. c     14. d     15. d    16. b    17. b    18. b    19. b    20. a    21. d    22. b    23. b    24. b
         25. b     26. c     27. a    28. c    29. d    30. c    31. d    32. 2    33. a    34. d    35. c    36. b
         37. 3     38. d     39. b    40. a    41. a    42. b    43. c    44. b    45. a    46. d    47. d    48. c
         49. a     50. b     51. b    52. d    53. b    54. c    55. d    56. b    57. a    58. d    59. c    60. c
         61. d     62. b     63. b    64. c    65. d    66. a    67. d    68. c    69. c    70. b    71. d    72. a
         73. d     74. b     75. a    76. b    77. b    78. c    79. b    80. b    81. b    82. a    83. c    84. c
         85. c     86. d     87. a    88. b    89. c    90. c    91. a    92. a    93. b    94. c    95. d    96. c
         97. b     98. a     99. d    100. b   101. a   102. b   103. a   104. b   105. b   106. a   107. b   108. d
         109. b    110. a    111. a   112. c   113. c   114. b   115. b   116. c   117. c   118. b   119. c   120. b
         121. a    122. b    123. a   124. a   125. c   126. b   127. a   128. c   129. c   130. b   131. b   132. a
         133. d    134. c    135. a   136. d   137. d   138. a   139. a   140. d   141. b   142. a   143. b   144. c
         145. c    146. b    147. c   148. c   149. d   150. d   151. c   152. b   153. a   154. b   155. c   156. b
         157. c    158. a    159. c   160. d   161. a   162. a   163. c   164. b   165. d   166. c   167. d   168. b
         169. d    170. b    171. c   172. d   173. c   174. c   175. d   176. c   177. a   178. c   179. d   180. d
         181. b    182. c    183. c   184. d   185. b   186. a   187. c   188. a   189. d   190. b   191. d   192. c
         193. b    194. a    195. c   196. d   197. d   198. c   199. c   200. d




                                                   ANSWER CARD
                                               MOCK SSC LDC DETAENTRY
         1. c      2. a      3. a     4. d     5. d     6. c     7. c     8. a     9. d     10. c    11. c    12. c
         13. c     14. d     15. d    16. b    17. b    18. b    19. b    20. a    21. d    22. b    23. b    24. b
         25. b     26. c     27. a    28. c    29. d    30. c    31. d    32. 2    33. a    34. d    35. c    36. b
         37. 3     38. d     39. b    40. a    41. a    42. b    43. c    44. b    45. a    46. d    47. d    48. c
         49. a     50. b     51. b    52. d    53. b    54. c    55. d    56. b    57. a    58. d    59. c    60. c
         61. d     62. b     63. b    64. c    65. d    66. a    67. d    68. c    69. c    70. b    71. d    72. a
         73. d     74. b     75. a    76. b    77. b    78. c    79. b    80. b    81. b    82. a    83. c    84. c
         85. c     86. d     87. a    88. b    89. c    90. c    91. a    92. a    93. b    94. c    95. d    96. c
         97. b     98. a     99. d    100. b   101. a   102. b   103. a   104. b   105. b   106. a   107. b   108. d
         109. b    110. a    111. a   112. c   113. c   114. b   115. b   116. c   117. c   118. b   119. c   120. b
         121. a    122. b    123. a   124. a   125. c   126. b   127. a   128. c   129. c   130. b   131. b   132. a
         133. d    134. c    135. a   136. d   137. d   138. a   139. a   140. d   141. b   142. a   143. b   144. c
         145. c    146. b    147. c   148. c   149. d   150. d   151. c   152. b   153. a   154. b   155. c   156. b
         157. c    158. a    159. c   160. d   161. a   162. a   163. c   164. b   165. d   166. c   167. d   168. b
         169. d    170. b    171. c   172. d   173. c   174. c   175. d   176. c   177. a   178. c   179. d   180. d
         181. b    182. c    183. c   184. d   185. b   186. a   187. c   188. a   189. d   190. b   191. d   192. c
         193. b    194. a    195. c   196. d   197. d   198. c   199. c   200. d




SMARTPREP                                                                                                              Page 13
A - 39, Vikas Puri, New Delhi - 18
Student ID :
Name :
Batch :
Date :
Time :

                                          MOCK SSC - 2
                                         INSTRUCTIONS
  1.      DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THIS BOOKLET. WAIT FOR THE SIGNAL TO START.
  2.      Ensure that your personal data has been correctly entered on top of this booklet and in the Answer Sheet.
  3.      Use only a HB pencil to fill in the Answer Sheet.
  4.      This Booklet contains 12 pages. Immediately after opening this booklet, verify that all pages are printed
          properly.
  5.      Keep only the SmartPrep Id Card, pencil, eraser and sharpner with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books,
          rulers, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones or any
          other device or loose paper. These should be left outside the room.
  6.      This paper has 200 questions. The total time for the test is 2 :00 Hours.
  7.      This paper is divided into four sections:
  8.      Directions for answering the questions are given in the text booklet before each group of questions to
          which they apply. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropri-
          ate circles
   9.     Wrong answers carry negative marks. There is only one correct answer for each question.
  10.     For every correct answer you score 4 marks and for every wrong answer you lose 1 mark.


  11.     The correct way of shading the ovals.



  12.     Do the rough work on the test booklet only and NOT on the answer sheet or any other paper.
  13.     Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified.
  14.     At the end of the test, remain seated. Do not leave the hall till the invigilator announces, “You may leave
          now.” The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the test booklets and answer
          sheets from everyone in the room.


          ANY CANDIDATE GIVING/ SEEKING/ RECIEVING ANY SORT OF ASSISTANCE OR FOUND COPYING WILL
          BE IMMEDIATELY DISQUALIFIED.

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Previous Years Solved Question Papers for Staff Selection Commission (SSC)…

  • 1. PART - I GENERAL INTELLIGENCE Directions Q. 1 to 8) : Select the related letters/word/number/figure from the given alternatives. 1. River : Dam :: Traffic : ? (a) Vehicle (b) Speed (c ) Signal light (d) Path 2. Ornithologist : Birds :: Archaeologist : ? (a) Artifacts (b) Archipelago (c ) Arbiter (d) Aquatic 3. AYBZ : CWDX :: EUFV : ? (a) GSHT (b) GHST (c ) SHGT (d) MVGT 4. DCEF : QPRS :: XWYZ : ? (a) IHGF (b) STUV (c ) SRQP (d) NMOP 5. 17 : ? :: 145 : 195 (a) 42 (b) 35 (c ) 30 (d) 24 6. 3222 : 7222 :: 3323 “ ? (a) 9947 (b) 8838 (c ) 7727 (d) 2212 7. Question M arks Answer Figure (a) (b) (c) (d) 8. Question M arks Answer Figure (a) (b) (c) (d) Directions Q. 9 to 15) : Find the odd word/letters/ number pair from the given responses. 9. (a) Carpenter (b) Goldsmith (c ) Blacksmith (d) Driver 10. (a) Ink (b) Paper (c ) Office (d) Pen 11. (a) dcba (b) hgfe (c ) pqrs (d) rqop 12. (a) BFJN (b) DHLP (c ) GIMQ (d) HLPT 13. (a) (37 - 74) (b) (52 - 26) (c ) 47 - 84) (d) (88 - 44) 14. (a) 20, 16, 18 (b) 18, 14, 16 (c ) 16, 12, 14 (d) 14, 1, 13 15. (a) (b) (c) (d) 16. A series of figure are given, and these can be grouped into classes. Select from amongst the alternatives one set of groups into which these figures can be classified. (a) 1, 3, 8; 2, 4, 6; 5, 7, 9 (b) 1, 4, 9; 3, 6, 8; 2, 5, 7 (c ) 3, 4, 7; 9, 8, 7; 4, 3, 1 (d) 2, 3, 6; 9, 3, 4; 6, 3, 2 Directions Q. 17 to 18) : Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words? 17. 1. Income 2. Fame 3. Education 4. Employment (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 3, 4, 1, 2 (c ) 3, 4, 2, 1 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1 18. 1. Plant 2. Tree 3. Soil 4. Fruit 5. Seeds (a) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 (b) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4 (c ) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1 (d) 5, 2, 1, 4, 3 SMARTPREP Page 1 A - 39, Vikas Puri, New Delhi - 18
  • 2. Directions Q. 19) : Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it 19. QST ___, QS __ R, Q __ TR, __ STR. (a) SQTR (b) RTSQ (c ) TRQS (d) TSRQ Directions Q. 20 to 24) : Find the missing number/letters/figure from the given responses. 20. AMV, FQX, KUZ, ____? ___ (a) PYB (b) OXA (c ) NYB (d) MYB 21. 27, 32, 30, 35, 33, __?__ (a) 28 (b) 31 (c ) 36 (d) 38 22. 71, 59, 48, 38, 29, __?__ (a) 18 (b) 21 (c ) 20 (d) 12 23. Question M arks Answer Figure (a) (b) (c) (d) 24. Question M arks Answer Figure (a) (b) (c) (d) 25. If (a) Sunitha is taller than Anitha (b) Reean is taller than Chitra but shorter than Banu (c ) Anitha is shorter than Chitra. (d) Chitra is taller than Sunitha. Then who is the shortest? (a) Sunitha (b) Anitha (c ) Reena (d) Banu 26. Pointing to a photograph Vikas said ‘She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only son”. How is the girl related to Vikas in the photograph? (a) Father (b) Brother (c ) Sister (d) Mother. 27. If the day before yesterday was thursday, when will Sunday be? (a) Tomorrow (b) Day after tomorrow (c ) Today (d) Two days after today 28. If the row of children, ravi is fourth from right and sham is second from left. When they interchange positions Ravi is ninth from right. W hat will be sham’s position from left? (a) Fifth (b) Sixth (c ) Seventh (d) Eight 29. A man was 32 years of age when he had his first son. His wife was 35 years of age when his son attained the age of 7 years. The difference in age between the man and his wife is (a) 7 years (b) 3 years (c ) 5 years (d) 4 years Directions Q. 30) : From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters given in the wor d. 30. PERMANENT (a) REMNANT (b) TRAMP (c ) MENTOR (d) AMPERE Directions Q. 31) : In question, number of letters repeated in the given word are indicated in front of each alternative. Identify the correct alternative. 31. MEASUREMENTS (a) M2E2A2S2U1R1N1T1 (b) M2E3A1S1U2R1N2T1 (c ) M2E2A1S2U1R1N1T1 (d) M2E3A1S2U1R1N1T1 32. If LOVE is coded as 27, then how is COME coded as? (a) 38 (b) 18 (c ) 28 (d) 2 33. In a certain code MONKEY is XDJMNL. How is “TIGER” written as ? (a) QDFHS (b) SDFHS (c ) SHFDQ (d) UJHFS 34. Some equations are solved on the basis of certain system. On the same basis find the correct answer for the unsolved equation. If 13 × 12 = 651 and 41 × 23 = 349 then 24 × 22 = ? (a) 504 (b) 46 (c ) 528 (d) 825 Page 2 SMARTPREP A - 39, Vikas Puri, New Delhi - 18
  • 3. Directions Q. 35 to 37) : Select the missing number from the given responses. 35. (a) 31 (b) 229 (c ) 234 (d) 312 36. 3 6 7 9 18 21 27 54 ? 81 162 189 (a) 22 (b) 63 (c ) 190 (d) 55 37. (a) 0 (b) 125 (c ) 100 (d) 144 Directions Q. 38) : In the following question you have to identify the correct response from the giv en premises stated according to following symbols. 38. If > = ÷, V = ×, < = +, ^ + –, + = =, × = <, – = > (a) 6 < 2 > 3 ^ 8 V 4 + 13 (b) 6 ^ 2 < < 3 > 8 < 4 – 13 (c ) 6 V 2 < 3 ^ 8 > 4 × 13 (d) 6 > 2 V 3 < 8 ^ 4 + 13 39. Assuming that the statement ‘Every library has books’ is true, which of the following statement is definitely true? (a) Books are only in Library (b) No Library is without books (c ) Some libraries do not have readers (d) Libraries are meant for books only Directions Q. 40) : In question, one statement is given, followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decid e which of the given conclusion, if any, follow from the given statement. 40. Statement : All philosophers are men. Socrates was a philosopher. Conclusion: I Socrates was a man. II. Women cannot become philosophers. (a) Only I is valid (b) Only II is valid (c ) Both are not valid (d) Both are valid 41. A man drives his car 50 km towards eastward direction. He turned right went for 30 km, then he turned west and drive for 10 km. How far is he from the starting point? (a) 50 km (b) 60 km (c ) 100 km (d) 20 km 42. Raju facing North and moves 20 km, then he turned to his right and moves 20 km and then he moves 10 km in North-East, then he turned to his right and moves 20 km and the he turned to his right and moves 20 km, and again he turned to his left and moves 20 km. Now in which direction Raju is facing? (a) South-East (b) North-East (c ) South-W est (d) North-W est 43. The following diagram shows the different view of same cube. Find out how many spots are on face directly opposite to the face of the cube having 6 spots : (a) 1 (b) 3 (c ) 5 (d) 2 Directions Q. 44) : In question, among the four answer figures which one can be formed from the cut out pieces given b e lo w? 44. Question M arks Answer Figure (a) (b) (c) (d) SMARTPREP Page 3 A - 39, Vikas Puri, New Delhi - 18
  • 4. Directions Q. 45) : In question, which one of the answer figure shall complete the given questions figure? 45. Question M arks Answer Figure (a) (b) (c) (d) 46. In which answer figure is the question figure embedded? Question M arks Answer Figure (a) (b) (c) (d) 47. A piece of paper is folded and a cut is made as shown below. From the given responses indicate how it will appear when opened. Question M arks Answer Figure (a) (b) (c) (d) Directions Q. 48) : which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror image of the question figure when the mirror is held at XY? 48. Question M arks Answer Figure (a) (b) (c) (d) 49. W hich represents Carrot, Food, Vegetable? (a) (b) (c ) (d) 50. The diagram given below represents owner, broker and worker. Identify the region which represents all the three i.e., owner, broker and worker. (a) L (b) T (c ) P (d) R PART - II ENGLISH LANGUAGE Directions (Q. 51 to 59) : Each of the following nine items consists of a word or a group of words in capital letters followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is similar in meaning to the word in capital letters. 51. CRAVEN (a) Greedy (b) Cowardly (c ) Flattering (d) Restless 52. FORTY WINKS (a) A person beyond 40 years of age (b) A studious person (c ) Ordeals of life (d) A short nap 53. VICARIOUS (a) Ambitious (b) Not experienced personally(c ) Nostalgic (d) Vindictive Page 4 SMARTPREP A - 39, Vikas Puri, New Delhi - 18
  • 5. 54. TO JETTISON (a) To go on trekking (b) To sail (c ) To abandon (d) To fire a gun 55. THE WORSE FOR WEAR (a) worrisome (b) Financially poor (c ) Hostile (d) Shabby from use 56. BEE IN ONE’S BONNET (a) Sickness (b) Obsession (c ) Misery (d) Freshness 57. TO BROWBEAT (a) To bully (b) To chase (c ) To give a hint (d) To revive old friendship 58. TO ASSUAGE (a) To assume (b) To forget (c ) To resolve (d) To mitigate 59. DEBONAIR (a) Bed-ridden (b) Candid (c ) Elegant (d) Thrifty Directions (Q. 60 to 68) : Each of the following nine items consists of a word or a group of words in capital letters followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters. 60. PREPOSSESSION (a) Incredible (b) Arousing envy (c ) Unattractive (d) Recent 61. ADULATION (a) Confusion (b) Inertia (c ) Consolidation (d) Condemnation 62. BLITHESOME (a) Graceful (b) Sullen (c ) Adventurous (d) Mammoth 63. SENILE (a) Suspicious (b) Mentally alert (c ) Corrupt (d) Affluent 64. PREDILECTION (a) Analogy (b) Anticlimax (c ) Antipathy (d) Argument 65. ON THE BLINK (a) Apologetically (b) Blindly (c ) Legally (d) In working order 66. CONSANGUINE (a) Of different kind (b) Invisible (c ) Urbane (d) Untenanted 67. REDOUBTABLE (a) Truthful (b) Crafty (c ) W idely travelled (d) Ordinary 68. INORDINATE (a) Distant (b) Facile (c ) Moderate (d) Attractive Directions (Q. 69 to 77) : In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence. 69. Many (P) way to fuel growth (Q) economists argue that (R) and alleviate poverty (S) free trade is a magic bullet-the quickest which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) Q-P-S-R (b) R-S-P-Q (c ) Q-S-P-R (d) R-P-S-Q 70. As a (P) way to fuel growth (Q) economists argue that (R) and alleviate poverty (S) free trade is a magic bullet-the quickest W hich one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) Q-P-S-R (b) R-S-P-Q (c ) Q-S-P-R (d) R-P-S-Q 70. As a (P) maestro appeared to be enjoying every bit of it (Q) and followed every composition the (R) thunderous applause from (S) an appreciative audience preceded W hich one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) P-Q-S-R (b) R-S-Q-P (c ) P-S-Q-R (d) R-Q-S-P 71. Keeping (P) farmers to smoke their fields during (Q) in view the prevailing weather conditions (R) agricultural experts have advised (S) the night to protect vegetables from cold W hich one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) S-R-P-Q (b) Q-P-R-S (c ) S-P-R-Q (d) Q-R-P-S 72. It is (P) stressful or joyful (Q) with the belief in the evanescence of life itself(R) necessary to rise above the situation, (S) and in the philosophical quest of the purpose of life W hich one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) R-P-Q-S (b) Q-S-R-P (c ) R-S-Q-P (d) Q-P-R-S 73. The difference (P) and development on the other affects (Q) in the relationship between death and birth rates on the one hand (R) but the age structure of the population(S) not just the rate of population growth W hich one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) S-R-Q-P (b) Q-P-S-R (c ) S-P-Q-R (d) Q-R-S-P 74. Here (P) another supposed discovery of 29-inch footprints (Q) claim to have found in Kerala (R) we go again with yet (S) which a group of amateur anthropologists W hich one of the following is the correct sequence? SMARTPREP Page 5 A - 39, Vikas Puri, New Delhi - 18
  • 6. (a) R-Q-S-P (b) S-P-R-Q (c ) R-P-S-Q (d) S-Q-R-P 75. Creative (P) world of reality (Q) writers and artists, through their imagination (R) transform the details of the (S) into the world of art W hich of the following is the correct sequence? (a) S-P-R-Q (b) Q-R-P-S (c ) S-R-P-Q (d) Q-P-R-S 76. Thus (P) against the state through the courts (Q) of one’s privacy against arbitrary intrusion by the police (R) the court emphasized that the security (S) is basic to a free society and enforceable W hich one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) P-Q-S-R (b) R-S-Q-P (c ) P-S-Q-R (d) R-Q-S-P 77. The preference (P) responsibilities of looking after parents in their old age (Q) despite the fact that in a growing number of families (R) at least in urban India, daughters are taking on the (S) for the male child continues W hich one of following is the correct sequence? (a) S-Q-R-P (b) R-P-S-Q (c ) S-P-R-Q (d) R-Q-S-P Directions (Q. 78 to 82) : In this section you have a short passage. After the passage, you will find some questions based on the passage. First, read the passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. Passage – I Today, India looks to be on course to join the league of developed nations. It is beginning to establish a reputation not just as the technology nerve-centre and back-office to the world, but also as its production centre. India’s secularism and democracy serve as a role model to other developing countries. There is great pride in an India that easily integrates with a global economy, yet maintains a unique cultural identity. But what is breath taking is India’s youth. For despite being an ancient civilization that traces itself to the very dawn of human habitation, India is among the youngest countries in the world. More than half the country is under 25 years of age and more than a third is under 15 years of age. Brought up in the shadow of the rise of India’s service industry boom, this group feels it can be at least as good if bot better than anyone else in the world. This confidence has then demonstrating a great propensity to consume, throwing away ageing ideas of asceticism and thrift. The economic activity created by this combination of a growing labour pool and rising consumption demand is enough to propel India to double-digit economic growth for decades. This opportunity also represents the greatest threat to India’s future. If the youths of India are not properly educated and if there are not enough jobs created, India will have forever lost its opportunity. India’s Information Technology and Business process Outsourcing industries are engines of job creation, but they still account for only 0.2 per cent of India’s employment. The country has no choice but to dramatically industrialise and inflate its economy. According to a recent survey, more than half of India’s unemployed within the next decade could be its educated youth. 78. Consider the following statements : 1. India’s rich cultural heritage prevents India from surging ahead to become and active partner in the global economy 2. By and large, India’s youth still believe in a thrifty lifestyle. W hich of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c ) both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2 79. What is the approximate number of people in India who are in the age group 15-25 years? (a) 500 million (b) 350 million (c ) 210 million (d) 180 million 80. In the recent past, which sector has witnessed a phenomenal growth? (a) Heavy industry (b) Service industry (c ) Petrochemical industry (d) Textile industry 81. Consider the following statements : 1. Rising consumption demand will retard economic growth. 2. India’s youth are its greatest opportunity as well as threat. W hich of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c ) both 1 and 2 (c ) neither 1 nor 2 82. Consider the following statements : 1. Information Technology sector provides a relatively large proportion of jobs in India. 2. In the coming decade only uneducated youth will remain deprived of employment opportunity. W hich of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c ) both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2 Directions (Q. 83 to 92) : In this section 10 sentences are given. Each sentence has three parts (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the part (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response accordingly. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response. 83. (a) The prime minister’s good looks won him/(b) the election but he has still to prove/(c) that he’s not a just pretty face/(d) no error. 84. (a) The two books are the same/(b) except for the fact that this /(c) has an answer in the back/(d) no error. 85. (a) He estimated his income tax bill/(2) by extrapolation over figures/(c) among the old buildings in the area./(d) no error. 150. (a) The modern office block/(b) sticks out like a sore thumb/(c) among the old buildings in the area/(d) no error 86. 87. (a) I will try to put over /(b)some feelers to gauge/(c) people’s reactions to our proposal/(4) no error. 88. (a) A major contribution of Mathura sculptors/(b) of that period were the creation and popularization/(c) of the Buddha’s image in human form.(4) no error. Page 6 SMARTPREP A - 39, Vikas Puri, New Delhi - 18
  • 7. Directions (Q. 93 to 100) : In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and the sixth sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the correct sequence of the four sentence. 93. S1 : Political empowerment apart, the state should recognise the right to life of every citizen. S6 : The state should prepare for the seasons ahead, not just winter, and create shelters on a war footing. P : Places of religious worship play an important role in this respect, providing food and shelter. Q : Where lives are at state, resource crunch cannot work as an excuse. R : It can still intervene to save lives, by ensuring that offices, schools and other institutions that function only during the day are used as night shelters. S : However, civil society organisations cannot be expected to compensate for state neglect. W hich one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) S-Q-R-P (b) R-P-S-Q (c ) S-P-R-Q (d) R-Q-S-P 94. S1 : This is the age of knowledge. S6 : Not surprisingly then that we Indians are often labelled as being overly superstitious. P : Logic and intuition are no longer enemies. Q : It is also the age of Aquarius R : The two live together comfortably in every Indian household. S : So why should superstitions be considered out of place in this age of nanotechnology and computers? W hich one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) Q-P-S-R (b) R-S-P-Q (c ) Q-S-P-R (d) R-P-S-Q 95. S1 : Sachin has second centuries against all oppositions, in all countries. S6 : But largely, he has been the dictator, giving nightmares to quality bowlers of the world. P : There have been those rare occasions when he looked entangled at the crease. Q : In fact, some of his most memorable essays came in adverse conditions. R : Gavaskar called him “the closest thing to batting perfection this game has every seen”. S : Sachin has established his stamp over all type of attack W hich one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) P-Q-S-R (b) R-Q-S-P (c ) P-S-Q-R (d) R-S-Q-P 96. S1 : Jagan has been working in our home for over 25 years S6 : Then came the question of raising his children on the paltry sum of money he earned washing cars and sweeping homes. P : And another Q : Till finally his wife delivered a son and he declared his innings. R : I remember the day his first daughter was born. S : And then came another. W hich one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) R-P-S-Q (b) Q-S-P-R (c ) R-S-P-Q (d) Q-P-S-R 97. S1 : Diabetes is a silent killer and because it does not seem as potent as cancer or AIDS is very often overlooked with too much heed by patients. S6 : Though diabetes can never be totally cured it can definitely be controlled from causing serious consequences. P : Worse, as many as a third of them don’t even know it. Q : Untreated diabetes can lead to heart and kidney failure, amputations and even death R : Millions of people suffer from diabetes S : The early symptoms of diabetes are often confused with other less grave conditions. (a) S-Q-R-P (b) R-P-S-Q (c ) S-P-R-Q (d) R-Q-S-P 98. S1 : Ships, built in dry docks are launched amidst chanting of Atharva Veda. S6 : The latest INS Mumbai is the tenth reincarnation of its original INS Bombay. P : Even now newer warships are given names of old decommissioned warships. Q : One of the enduring superstitions of the navy is that old ships, don’t die. R : In Europe, they break champagne bottles on the bow; in India we break coconuts. S : It derives from the animistic belief that a ship has a soul that lives on the that it is reborn. W hich one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) R-Q-S-P (b) S-P-R-Q (c ) R-P-S-Q (d) S-Q-R-P 99. S1 : Jaswant Singh of 4 Garhwal Rifles was apparently relaxing at 10,000 feet when he spotted a whole battalion of Chinese troops advancing towards an Indian army post. S6 : Versions of the story vary P : They surrounded him, captured the three and beheaded them. Q : Finally the enemy sent a scout party to ascertain the real strength of the Indian defence, and they found just a rifleman and two girls. R : After the war, the Chinese, impressed by the rifleman’s valour, gave his head back to the Indians, who set up a temple for him. S : W ith just one 303 and ammunition supplied by two girls from an abandoned dump, he mowed down about 50 enemy troopers W hich one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) P-Q-S-R (b) S-R-P-Q (c ) P-R-S-Q (d) S-Q-P-R 100. S1 Each creature of the sea has it own significance for seamen. S6 : A dead dolphin is a bad omen. P : One reason could be that dolphins and sharks do not cohabit Q : Sighting a dolphin is supposed to bring luck. R : A dolphin swimming with the ship brings good luck S : Upon sighting the first dolphin on a voyage even the admiral will come up on deck to watch it. W hich one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) S-R-Q-P (b) Q-P-S-R (c ) S-P-Q-R (d) Q-R-S-P SMARTPREP Page 7 A - 39, Vikas Puri, New Delhi - 18
  • 8. PART - III NUMERICAL APTITUDE 1 4 5 3  of 101. The least fraction to be subtracted from the expression 4 5 6 to make it an integer. . 1 1  3 1 4     21  3 5  10 5 1 5 1 3 (a) (b) (c ) (d) 2 6 4 10 2 x 102. If 0.014  0.14x  0.014  14 2 y , find the value of y (a) 0.000196 (b) 0.00196 (c ) 0.0196 (d) 0.196 2 2  (0.337  0.126)  (0.337  0.126)  103. The value of   is  0.337  0.126  (a) 4 (b) 0.211 (c ) 0.463 (d) 0.4246 12 104. 3 4 is equal to 125 (a) 1.4 (b) 1.6 (c ) 1.8 (d) 2.4 105. The simplified value of 900  0.09  .000009 is (a) 30.27 (b) 30.297 (c ) 30.097 (d) 30.197 106. The simplified value of 5  11  19  29  49 is (a) 3 (b) 2 (c ) 4 (d) 6 4 9  107. The least number among , ,0.45 and (0.8)2 is 9 49 4 4 (a) (b)  (c ) 0.45 (d) (0.8) 2 9 49 95 108. The value of 99  99 is 99 (a) 9798 (b) 9997 (c ) 9898 (d) 9896 109. 1.2  0.03 = (a) 0.04 (b) 0.037 (c ) 0.13 (d) 0.37 1 1 1 1 1 110.     = 3 8 8 7 7 6 6 5 5 2 (a) 5 (b) 4 (c ) 3 (d) 2 3 4 111. Evaluate 16 9 if 12  3.46 4 3 (a) 3.46 (b) 10.38 (c ) 13.84 (d) 24.22 112. If 2 2 x y  16 and 2 x y  32 , then value of xy is (a) 2 (b) 4 (c ) 6 (d) 8 113. The LCM of two multiples of 12 is 1056. If one of the numbers is 132, the other number is (a) 12 (b) 72 (c ) 96 (d) 132 114. Sum of two numbers is 384. H. (3) F. of the numbers is 48. The difference of thenumbers is (a) 100 (b) 192 (c ) 284 (d) 336 115. The two number are in the ratio 2 : 3 and their product is 96. The sum of the number is (a) 5 (b) 20 (c ) 101 (d) 102 116. The sum of two number is ten. Their product is twenty. Find the sum of the reciprocals of the two numbers. 3 1 11 (a) 1 (b) (c ) (d) 5 2 6 117. A number when divide by 192 gives a remainder of 54. W hat remainder would be obtained on dividing the same number of 16? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c ) 6 (d) 8 118. The least number which twhen divided by 5, 6, 7 and 8 leaves a remainder 3, but when divided by 9 leaves no remainder is (a) 1677 (b) 1683 (c ) 2523 (d) 3363 Page 8 SMARTPREP A - 39, Vikas Puri, New Delhi - 18
  • 9. 119. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 10. The number formed by reversing the digits is 18 less than the original number. Find the original number. (a) 81 (b) 46 (c ) 64 (d) 60 120. The least number to the subtracted from 36798 to get a number which is exactly divisible by 78 is (a) 18 (b) 60 (c ) 38 (d) 68 121. Five times of a positive integer is equal to 3 less than twice the square of that number. The number is (a) 3 (b) 13 (c ) 23 (d) 33 122. The product of two number is 24 times, the difference of these two numbers. If the sum of these number is 14, the larger number is (a) 9 (b) 8 (c ) 7 (d) 10 123. The greatest number of four digits which when divided by 12, 16 and 24 leave remainders 2, 6 and 14 respectively is (a) 9974 (b) 9970 (c ) 9807 (d) 9998 124. When a number is divided by 15, 20 or 35, each time the remainder is 8. Then the smallest number is (a) 428 (b) 427 (c ) 328 (d) 338 125. A man read 2/5th of a book on 1st day. He read1/4rd more than he read on first day. 15 pages were left for third day. The number of pages in the book is (a) 100 (b) 105 (c ) 225 (d) 250 126. Jyothi can do 3/4th of a job in 12 days. Mala is twice as efficient as Jyothi. In how many days Mala will finish the job? (a) 6 (b) 8 (c ) 12 (d) 16 127. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a cistern in 6 hours. After wrking at it together for 2 hours, C is closed and A and B fill it in 7 hours more. The time taken by C alone to fill the cistern is (a) 14 hours (b) 15 hours (c ) 16 hours (d) 17 hours 128. A is twice as good a workman as B and B is twice as good a workman as 93) If A and B can together finish a piece of work in 4 days, then C can do it by himself in (a) 6 days (b) 8 days (c ) 24 days (d) 12 days 129. A and B can do a piece of work in 10 days. B and C can do it in 12 days; C and A in 15 days. In how many days will C fiish it alone? (a) 24 (b) 30 (c ) 40 (d) 60 130. Water is flowing at the rate of 5 km/hr through a pipe of diameter 14 cm into a rectangular tank which is 50 m long and 44 m wide.  22  Determine the time inwhich the level of water in the tank will rise by 7 cm.  Tank     7  (a) 2.1 hour (b) 2.0 hour (c ) 2.5 hour (d) 2.2 hour 131. Two solid cylinders of radii 4 cm and 5 cm and legnths 6 cm and 4 cm respectively are recast into cylinderical disc of tickness 1 cm. The radius of the disc is (a) 7 cm (b) 14 cm (c ) 21 cm (d) 28 cm 132. The length of a rectangle is increased by 60%. By what per cent would the breadth to be decreased to maintain the same area? 1 (a) 37 (b) 60 (c ) 75 (d) 120 2 133. Volume of two cones are in the ratio 1 : 4 and their diameters are in the ratio 4 : 5. The ratio of the height is (a) 1 : 5 (b) 5 : 4 (c ) 5 : 16 (d) 25 : 64 134. What is the greatest length of the rod which can e kept in a room 12 m × 9m × 8m? (a) 288 m (b) 29 m A (c ) 17 m (d) 13 m 12 D 8 B 9 C 135. Water is being pumped out through a circular pipe whose internal diameter is 7 cm. If the flow of water is 12 cm per second, how many litres of water is being pumped out in one hour? (a) 1663.2 (b) 1500 (c ) 1747.6 (d) 2000 136. The lateral surface area of a cylinder is 1056 cm2 and its height is 16 cm. Find it volume. (a) 4545 cm3 (b) 4455 cm3 (c ) 5445 cm3 (d) 5544 cm3 3 137. The largest sphere is carved out of a cube of side 7 cm. The volume of the sphere (in cm ) will be (a) 718.66 (b) 543.72 (c ) 481.34 (d) 179.67 138. The radius of circle A is twice that of circle B and the radius of circle B is twice that of circle (3) Their are will be in the ratio (a) 16 : 4 : 1 (b) 4 : 2 : 1 (c ) 1 : 2: 4 (d) 1 : 4: 16 139. A dozen pair of socks quoted at Rs. 80 are available at a discount of 10%. How many pairs of socks can be bought for Rs. 24? (a) 4 (b) 5 (c ) 3 (d) 6 140. The marked price of a T.V. is Rs. 16000. After two successive discounts it is sold for Rs. 11,400 if the first dicount is 5%, then the rate of second discount is (a) 15% (b) 20% (c ) 30% (d) 25% SMARTPREP Page 9 A - 39, Vikas Puri, New Delhi - 18
  • 10. 141. The difference between a discount of 30% on Rs. 2000 and two successive discounts of 25% and 5% on the same amount is (a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs.35 (c ) Rs. 25 (d) Rs. 40 142. If x : y = 2 : 1, then (x 2  y 2 ) : (x 2  y 2 ) is (a) 3 : 5 (b) 5 : 3 (c ) 4 : 5 (d) 5 : 6 143. Three cars travelled distances in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If the ratio of the time of travel is 3 : 2 : 1, the the ratio of their speeds is (a) 3 : 9 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 : 9 (c ) 1 : 2 : 4 (d) 4 : 3 : 2 144. The ratio between two numbers is 3 : 4. If each number is increased by 6, the ratio becomes 4 : 5. The difference between the numbers is (a) 1 (b) 3 (c ) 6 (d) 8 145. There are three numbers A, B, C such that twice A is equal to thrice B and four times B is equal to five times (3) Then the ratio between A and C is (a) 3 : 4 (b) 8 : 15 (c ) 15 : 8 (d) 4 : 3 146. The weights of Mr. Gupta and Mrs. Gupta are in the ratio 7 : 8 and their total weight, combined is 120 kg. After taking a dieting course Mr. Gupta reduces by 6 kg and the ratio between their weights cjanges to 5 : 6. so, Mrs. Gupta has reduced by (a) 2 kg (b) 4 kg (c ) 3 kg (d) 5 kg 147. Three numbers are inthe ratio 5 : 6 : 7. If the pooduct of the numbers is 5670, then the greatest number is (a) 15 (b) 18 (c ) 21 (d) 28 1 148. A road of 5 km will be constructed in 100 days. So, 280 workers were employed. But after 80 days it was found that only 3 km 2 road was completed. Now, how many more people were needed to finish the work in the specified time? (a) 480 (b) 80 (c ) 200 (d) 100 149. A constant distance from Chennai to Bangalore is covered by Express train at 100 km/hr. If it returns back to same distance at 80 km/hr, then the average speed during the whole journey is (a) 90.20 km/h (b) 88.78 km/h (c ) 88.89 km/h (d) 88.89 km/h 150. The average weight of 15 students in a class increases by 1.5 kg when one of the students weighing 40 kg is replaced by a new student. What is the weight (in kg) of the new student? (a) 64.5 (b) 56 (c ) 60.5 (d) 62.5 PART - IV GENERAL AWARENESS 151. The quit India Movement was launched in 1942 in the month of (a) January (b) March (c ) August (d) December 152. Match the following : Column - I Column - II (a) Keshab Sen 1. Prarthana Samaj (b) Dayanand Saraswati 2. Bramo Samaj (c) Raha Rammohan Roy 3. Aligarh Movement (d) Syed Ahmad Khan 4. Arya samaj (a) 4, 1, 3, 2 (b) 1, 4, 2, 3 (c ) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 3, 2, 4, 1 153. Who was the first English president of the Indian National congress? (a) George Yule (b) william Wedderburn (c ) (1) O. Hume (d) Henry Cotton 154. Which one of the following personalities is known as ‘Grand Old man of India’? (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (b) Dadabhai Naoroji (c ) Motilal Nehru (d) Lala lajpat Rai 155. W ho wrote Akbarnama? (a) Akbar (b) Birbal (c ) Abul Fazal (d) Bhagavan Das 156. The pledge for “poorna Swaraj” was taken at the Congress Session of (a) Calcutta (b) Lahore (c ) Allahabad (d) Madras 157. W hen was the panchayati Raj system introduced in India? (a) 1950 (b) 1945 (c ) 1959 (d) 1962 158. W ho held the office of the Vice-President of India for two consecutive terms? (a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (b) Mr. R. Venkatararaman (c ) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma (d) Mr. V.V. Giri 159. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution inserted the two words-’Socialist’ and Secular’ in the Preamble? (a) 28th (b) 40th (c ) 42nd (d) 52nd 160. When there is a vacancy in the office of the President and the Vice President at the same time, the office is held temporarily by (a) a personnominated by both the Houses of Parliament (b) the Speaker of Lok Sabha (c ) The deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha (d) the chief Justice of India Page 10 SMARTPREP A - 39, Vikas Puri, New Delhi - 18
  • 11. 161. The constituion of India came into force on (a) 26 January, 1950 (b) 26 January, 1952 (c ) 15 August, 1948 (d) 26 Novermber, 1949 162. W ho was the first woman Governor of a State in free India from out of the following? (a) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu (b) Mrs. Sucheta Kriplani (c ) mrs. Indira Gandhi (d) Mrs. Vijay Laxmi pandit 163. The parliamentary Committe which scrutinises the report of the comptroller and Auditor General of India is (a) Estimates Committee (b) Select committee (c ) Public Accounts committee (d) None of these 164. Fog is an example of (a) Gas dispersed in gas (b) Liquid dispersed in gas (c ) Solid dpspersed in gas (d) solid dispersed in liquid 165. Which from the following is a landlocked sea? (a) Timor Sea (b) Arafura Sea (c ) Greenland Sea (d) Aral Sea 166. Match the following : Sea parts States (a) Bhatkal 1. Kerala (b) Alleppey 2. Tamil Nadu (c ) Kakinada 3. Karnataka (d) Tuticorin 4. andhra Pradesh (a) a, 3, 4, 2 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1 (c ) 3, 1, 4, 2 (d) 2, 4, 1, 3 167. W hich one of the following represent the lines joining the places of equal rainfall? (a) Isohypses (b) Isohalines (c ) Isobars (d) Isohyets 168. Equator represents (a) line joining North and south poles (b) imaginary line passing round the Earth midway between North & South poles (c ) a bet (ring) around the planet Saturn (d) axis of rotation of Earth 169. Global W arming is expected to result in (a) increase in level of sea (b) change incrop pattern (c ) change in coast line (d) all of the above 170. Earth Summit (Save Earth) was sponsored by (a) UNESCO (b) UNCED (c ) WHO (d) UNICEF 171. If two commodities are complements, then their cross-price eleasticity is (a) Zero (b) positive (c ) negative (d) imaginary number 172. Opportunity cost of productionof a commodity is (a) the cost that the firm could have incurred when a different technique was adopted (b) the cost that the firm could have incurred under a different method of production (c ) the acutal cost incurred (d) the next best alternative output sacrificed 173. Surplus earned by a factor other than land in the short period is referred to as (a) economic rent (b) net rent (c ) quasi-rent (d) super-normal rent 174. Who is the Ex-officio chairman of the Planning commission? (a) Minister for Planning & Development (b) Finance Minister (c ) Prime Minister (d) Minister for Rural 7 community Development 175. W hich from the following is not true when the interest rate in the economy goes up? (a) Savings increases (b) Lending decreases (c ) Lending decreases (d) Return on capital increases 176. Which one of the following is not a method of measurement of National Income? (a) Value Added Method (b) Income Method (c ) Investment Method (d) Expenditure method 177. Labour intensive technique would get chosen in a (a) Labour Surplus Economy (b) Capital Surplus Economy (c ) Developed Economy (d) Developing Economy 178. W hich one of the following would not constitute and ecomomic activity? (a) A teacher teaching students in his class (b) A teacher teaching students under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (c ) A teacher teaching his own daughter at Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (d) A teacher providing consultancy sevices from his residence 179. The Finance Commission (a) Draws up Five Year Plans (b) formulates Monetary Policy (c ) Recommends pay revision of central Government employees (d) Adjudicates one the sharing of resources between centre and the States SMARTPREP Page 11 A - 39, Vikas Puri, New Delhi - 18
  • 12. 180. Net National product of a country is (a) GDP minus depreciation allowances (b) GDP plus net income from abroad (c ) GNP minus net income from abroad (d) GNP minus depreciation allowances 181. Jaundice is caused due to the infection of (a) Brain (b) Liver (c ) Kidney (d) Spleen 182. The average heart beat rate per minute in a normal person is (a) 82 (b) 92 (c ) 72 (d) 98 183. EEG records the activity of (a) Heart (b) lungs (c ) brain (d) muscles 184. The colour of cow’s milk is slightly yellow due to the presence of (a) Xanthophyll (b) Riboflavin (c ) Ribulose (d) Carotene 185. Which one of these is a communicable disease? (a) Diabetes (b) Diphtheria (c ) Arthritis (d) Cancer 186. The concentration of which of following decreases in anaemia? (a) Haemoglobin (b) Collagen (c ) Hyoglobin (d) Myosin 187. W hich of the following diseases usually spreads through air? (a) Plague (b) Typhoid (c ) Tuberculosis (d) Cholera 188. Cereals are a rich source of (a) Starch (b) Glucose (c ) Freuctose (d) Maltose 189. Aspirin is common name of (a) Salicylic acid (b) Salicylate (c ) Methyl Salicylate (d) Acetyl salicylic acid 190. Small Pox is caused by (a) Rubeola virus (b) VAriola Virus (c ) Varicella (d) Myxovirus 191. Carbon monoxide is an inflammable gas. Which one of the followiwng is also inflammable? (a) Helium (b) Nitrogen (c ) Oxygen (d) Hydrogen 192. Respiration process requires (a) heat (b) water (c ) oxygen (d) sunlight 193. W hich one of the following metals does not react with water to produce hydrogen? (a) Potassium (b) Cadmium (c ) Sodium (d) Lithium 194. Ozone consists of (a) oxygen only (b) Oxygen and Nitrogen (c ) Hydrogen and Carbon (d) Oxygen and Carbon 195. W hich of the following liquids has the least density? (a) Fresh water (b) Salt water (c ) Petrol (d) Mercury 196. W hich of the following principle is sued to produce ‘low-temperature’? (a) Super conductivity (b) Joule-Delvin effect (c ) Therm-electric effect (d) Adiabatic demagnetisation 197. A photo-electric cell converts (a) mechanical energy to electric energy (b) heat energyto mechanical energy (c ) light energy to chemical energy (d) light energy to electrical energy 198. Two stones of different masses are dropped simultaneously from the top of a building (a) Smaller stone reaches the ground earlier (b) Larger stone reaches the ground earlier. (c ) Both the stones reach the ground at the same time. (d) Depends on the composition of the stone. 199. Pulsars are (a) starts moving towards the Earth (b) stars moving away from Earth (c ) rapidly spinning stars (d) high temperature s stars 200. Biggest planet of solar system is (a) Earth (b) Mars (c ) Saturn (d) Jupiter *** End *** Page 12 SMARTPREP A - 39, Vikas Puri, New Delhi - 18
  • 13. ANSWER CARD MOCK SSC LDC DETAENTRY 1. c 2. a 3. a 4. d 5. d 6. c 7. c 8. a 9. d 10. c 11. c 12. c 13. c 14. d 15. d 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. b 20. a 21. d 22. b 23. b 24. b 25. b 26. c 27. a 28. c 29. d 30. c 31. d 32. 2 33. a 34. d 35. c 36. b 37. 3 38. d 39. b 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. c 44. b 45. a 46. d 47. d 48. c 49. a 50. b 51. b 52. d 53. b 54. c 55. d 56. b 57. a 58. d 59. c 60. c 61. d 62. b 63. b 64. c 65. d 66. a 67. d 68. c 69. c 70. b 71. d 72. a 73. d 74. b 75. a 76. b 77. b 78. c 79. b 80. b 81. b 82. a 83. c 84. c 85. c 86. d 87. a 88. b 89. c 90. c 91. a 92. a 93. b 94. c 95. d 96. c 97. b 98. a 99. d 100. b 101. a 102. b 103. a 104. b 105. b 106. a 107. b 108. d 109. b 110. a 111. a 112. c 113. c 114. b 115. b 116. c 117. c 118. b 119. c 120. b 121. a 122. b 123. a 124. a 125. c 126. b 127. a 128. c 129. c 130. b 131. b 132. a 133. d 134. c 135. a 136. d 137. d 138. a 139. a 140. d 141. b 142. a 143. b 144. c 145. c 146. b 147. c 148. c 149. d 150. d 151. c 152. b 153. a 154. b 155. c 156. b 157. c 158. a 159. c 160. d 161. a 162. a 163. c 164. b 165. d 166. c 167. d 168. b 169. d 170. b 171. c 172. d 173. c 174. c 175. d 176. c 177. a 178. c 179. d 180. d 181. b 182. c 183. c 184. d 185. b 186. a 187. c 188. a 189. d 190. b 191. d 192. c 193. b 194. a 195. c 196. d 197. d 198. c 199. c 200. d ANSWER CARD MOCK SSC LDC DETAENTRY 1. c 2. a 3. a 4. d 5. d 6. c 7. c 8. a 9. d 10. c 11. c 12. c 13. c 14. d 15. d 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. b 20. a 21. d 22. b 23. b 24. b 25. b 26. c 27. a 28. c 29. d 30. c 31. d 32. 2 33. a 34. d 35. c 36. b 37. 3 38. d 39. b 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. c 44. b 45. a 46. d 47. d 48. c 49. a 50. b 51. b 52. d 53. b 54. c 55. d 56. b 57. a 58. d 59. c 60. c 61. d 62. b 63. b 64. c 65. d 66. a 67. d 68. c 69. c 70. b 71. d 72. a 73. d 74. b 75. a 76. b 77. b 78. c 79. b 80. b 81. b 82. a 83. c 84. c 85. c 86. d 87. a 88. b 89. c 90. c 91. a 92. a 93. b 94. c 95. d 96. c 97. b 98. a 99. d 100. b 101. a 102. b 103. a 104. b 105. b 106. a 107. b 108. d 109. b 110. a 111. a 112. c 113. c 114. b 115. b 116. c 117. c 118. b 119. c 120. b 121. a 122. b 123. a 124. a 125. c 126. b 127. a 128. c 129. c 130. b 131. b 132. a 133. d 134. c 135. a 136. d 137. d 138. a 139. a 140. d 141. b 142. a 143. b 144. c 145. c 146. b 147. c 148. c 149. d 150. d 151. c 152. b 153. a 154. b 155. c 156. b 157. c 158. a 159. c 160. d 161. a 162. a 163. c 164. b 165. d 166. c 167. d 168. b 169. d 170. b 171. c 172. d 173. c 174. c 175. d 176. c 177. a 178. c 179. d 180. d 181. b 182. c 183. c 184. d 185. b 186. a 187. c 188. a 189. d 190. b 191. d 192. c 193. b 194. a 195. c 196. d 197. d 198. c 199. c 200. d SMARTPREP Page 13 A - 39, Vikas Puri, New Delhi - 18
  • 14. Student ID : Name : Batch : Date : Time : MOCK SSC - 2 INSTRUCTIONS 1. DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THIS BOOKLET. WAIT FOR THE SIGNAL TO START. 2. Ensure that your personal data has been correctly entered on top of this booklet and in the Answer Sheet. 3. Use only a HB pencil to fill in the Answer Sheet. 4. This Booklet contains 12 pages. Immediately after opening this booklet, verify that all pages are printed properly. 5. Keep only the SmartPrep Id Card, pencil, eraser and sharpner with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones or any other device or loose paper. These should be left outside the room. 6. This paper has 200 questions. The total time for the test is 2 :00 Hours. 7. This paper is divided into four sections: 8. Directions for answering the questions are given in the text booklet before each group of questions to which they apply. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropri- ate circles 9. Wrong answers carry negative marks. There is only one correct answer for each question. 10. For every correct answer you score 4 marks and for every wrong answer you lose 1 mark. 11. The correct way of shading the ovals. 12. Do the rough work on the test booklet only and NOT on the answer sheet or any other paper. 13. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified. 14. At the end of the test, remain seated. Do not leave the hall till the invigilator announces, “You may leave now.” The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the test booklets and answer sheets from everyone in the room. ANY CANDIDATE GIVING/ SEEKING/ RECIEVING ANY SORT OF ASSISTANCE OR FOUND COPYING WILL BE IMMEDIATELY DISQUALIFIED.