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Let : G G be an isomorphism from the group G to the group G. In particular, is bijective so
that its inverse 1 : G G exists (see 1.9.1). Prove that 1 is an isomorphism.
1.9.1 Theorem. A function f : X Y has an inverse if and only if it is bijective.
Proof. Letf:XY beafunction.
() Assume that f has an inverse f 1
. (f injective?) Let x,x X and assume that f(x) = f(x). Then x =
f 1
(f(x)) = f 1
(f(x)) = x.
Therefore, f is injective. (f surjective?) Let y Y . Put x = f 1
(y). Then x X and
f(x) = f(f 1
(y)) = y.
Therefore, f is surjective. Since f is both injective and surjective, it is
bijective.
() Assume that f is bijective. Define f 1
: Y X by letting f 1
(y) be the unique x in X for which f(x)
= y. (Since f is surjective, there is at least one such x and since f is injective, there is at most one
such x.) For x X, we have f 1
(f(x)) = x (since f 1
(f(x)) is defined to be the element that f sends to
f(x)). Similarly, for y Y , f(f 1
(y)) = y (since f 1
(y) is defined to be the element that f sends to y).
Therefore, f 1
is an inverse of f.
Solution
You mulitply and divide and your answer shall me y = 384.4

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Let - G G be an isomorphism from the group G to the group G- In part.docx

  • 1. Let : G G be an isomorphism from the group G to the group G. In particular, is bijective so that its inverse 1 : G G exists (see 1.9.1). Prove that 1 is an isomorphism. 1.9.1 Theorem. A function f : X Y has an inverse if and only if it is bijective. Proof. Letf:XY beafunction. () Assume that f has an inverse f 1 . (f injective?) Let x,x X and assume that f(x) = f(x). Then x = f 1 (f(x)) = f 1 (f(x)) = x. Therefore, f is injective. (f surjective?) Let y Y . Put x = f 1 (y). Then x X and f(x) = f(f 1 (y)) = y. Therefore, f is surjective. Since f is both injective and surjective, it is bijective. () Assume that f is bijective. Define f 1 : Y X by letting f 1 (y) be the unique x in X for which f(x) = y. (Since f is surjective, there is at least one such x and since f is injective, there is at most one such x.) For x X, we have f 1 (f(x)) = x (since f 1 (f(x)) is defined to be the element that f sends to f(x)). Similarly, for y Y , f(f 1 (y)) = y (since f 1 (y) is defined to be the element that f sends to y). Therefore, f 1 is an inverse of f. Solution You mulitply and divide and your answer shall me y = 384.4