This document provides instructions for candidates taking an entrance examination for an M.A. in Economics. It outlines details such as the time allowed, maximum marks, instructions for filling out the answer sheet correctly, and guidelines for marking answers. Candidates are informed that the exam contains 100 compulsory questions to be answered in the provided answer sheet by darkening the correct choice with a ballpoint pen. Each correct answer carries 1 mark, while 1/4 of a mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. Candidates are instructed to write their details on the question paper and answer sheet, darken the appropriate question paper series code, and return both items to the invigilator after completing the exam within the allotted 3 hours
The Consequence of work environment on Employees ProductivityIOSRJBM
This research aims to analyze working environment of a foreign private banks operating in Kurdistan Region of Iraq and examines the relationship between the workplace physical conditions and employee’s productivity. The research uses qualitative approach, the data was collected from a questionnaire distributed to 50 employees working in four foreign banks in the Kurdistan Region of Iraq.The result will show that There is a relationship between office environment and productivity of employees. Behavioral components of office environment have a greater effect on productivity, than the physical components alone. And Satisfaction of Employees towards overall Workplace Environment leads to productivity.
The document discusses human resource planning and related concepts. It defines human resource planning as a strategy for acquiring, utilizing, improving and preserving an organization's human resources. The two main aspects of HRP are 1) estimating required workforce and 2) staffing policies and programs. It also discusses job analysis, job descriptions, job specifications, and provides examples of each.
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This document contains a 24 question survey about HR practices at Reliance HR Services Pvt Ltd in Chennai. The survey asks employees about their satisfaction with various aspects of their employment including compensation and benefits, work conditions, training opportunities, career development, and employer-employee relations. Employees are asked to rate their level of satisfaction with these areas on scales such as "highly satisfied" to "highly dissatisfied". The purpose is to understand employee perceptions of HR effectiveness and ways to improve HR practices.
The document discusses the history and trends of outsourcing human resource functions such as payroll, benefits administration, and recruiting to third party vendors. It examines the rationale for HR outsourcing including cost reduction and access to expertise, and also reviews frameworks for determining which HR functions to outsource. Several case studies of companies that have outsourced HR functions are presented along with both the benefits and disadvantages of such arrangements.
The document discusses job satisfaction, including:
1) Defining job satisfaction and the factors that determine it such as personal expectations, work conditions, supervision, and promotion opportunities.
2) Explaining the outcomes of job satisfaction such as mental and physical health, organizational commitment, absenteeism, and productivity.
3) Identifying ways to measure job satisfaction using rating scales, interviews, and critical incidents.
4) Discussing theories of job satisfaction including content, process, and situational theories.
5) Explaining causes of job satisfaction such as company culture, interesting work, rewards, and low stress levels.
The Consequence of work environment on Employees ProductivityIOSRJBM
This research aims to analyze working environment of a foreign private banks operating in Kurdistan Region of Iraq and examines the relationship between the workplace physical conditions and employee’s productivity. The research uses qualitative approach, the data was collected from a questionnaire distributed to 50 employees working in four foreign banks in the Kurdistan Region of Iraq.The result will show that There is a relationship between office environment and productivity of employees. Behavioral components of office environment have a greater effect on productivity, than the physical components alone. And Satisfaction of Employees towards overall Workplace Environment leads to productivity.
The document discusses human resource planning and related concepts. It defines human resource planning as a strategy for acquiring, utilizing, improving and preserving an organization's human resources. The two main aspects of HRP are 1) estimating required workforce and 2) staffing policies and programs. It also discusses job analysis, job descriptions, job specifications, and provides examples of each.
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This document contains a 24 question survey about HR practices at Reliance HR Services Pvt Ltd in Chennai. The survey asks employees about their satisfaction with various aspects of their employment including compensation and benefits, work conditions, training opportunities, career development, and employer-employee relations. Employees are asked to rate their level of satisfaction with these areas on scales such as "highly satisfied" to "highly dissatisfied". The purpose is to understand employee perceptions of HR effectiveness and ways to improve HR practices.
The document discusses the history and trends of outsourcing human resource functions such as payroll, benefits administration, and recruiting to third party vendors. It examines the rationale for HR outsourcing including cost reduction and access to expertise, and also reviews frameworks for determining which HR functions to outsource. Several case studies of companies that have outsourced HR functions are presented along with both the benefits and disadvantages of such arrangements.
The document discusses job satisfaction, including:
1) Defining job satisfaction and the factors that determine it such as personal expectations, work conditions, supervision, and promotion opportunities.
2) Explaining the outcomes of job satisfaction such as mental and physical health, organizational commitment, absenteeism, and productivity.
3) Identifying ways to measure job satisfaction using rating scales, interviews, and critical incidents.
4) Discussing theories of job satisfaction including content, process, and situational theories.
5) Explaining causes of job satisfaction such as company culture, interesting work, rewards, and low stress levels.
This document provides information and resources for evaluating the performance of a hospital manager. It includes a 4-page sample performance evaluation form with rating scales for evaluating administrators on various criteria like leadership, decision-making, customer service, and more. It also lists the top 12 methods for conducting performance appraisals, such as management by objectives, critical incident reporting, behaviorally anchored rating scales, and 360-degree/multi-rater feedback. Useful online resources on performance management topics are referenced throughout the document.
Project report on employee motivation.pdfShashi Kant
This document provides an overview of a research project on employee motivation at Tata Steel Ltd. It includes an introduction to the topic, the research problem being investigated, the objectives and significance of the study. It also outlines the research methodology that will be used, including sampling design, sample size, data collection methods, and a literature review. The goal of the research is to understand the key intrinsic and extrinsic factors that influence employee motivation and how they impact individual and organizational outcomes.
This presentation speaks about job satisfaction. It covers the concept of measurement of job satisfaction and covers a few important measures of job satisfaction including the selection of an appropriate measure of job satisfaction. It also includes features and importance of job satisfaction. Easy to read and understand.
Douglas McGregor proposed two contrasting theories of human motivation and management in the 1960s: Theory X and Theory Y. Theory X assumes employees are unmotivated and dislike work, encouraging an authoritarian management style. Theory Y assumes employees are self-motivated and happy to work, promoting a participative and decentralized style of management that involves employees in decision making. While Theory X may be more applicable to large-scale production environments, Theory Y is considered superior and more widely adopted, especially for knowledge work and professional services.
Head of corporate affairs performance appraisaladamliesen
This document provides information and resources for conducting a performance appraisal for a head of corporate affairs. It includes:
1. A sample performance appraisal form with sections for planning and results, rating performance factors, employee strengths, areas for improvement, and signatures.
2. Examples of performance review phrases for evaluating various skills and behaviors.
3. An overview of the top 12 methods for performance appraisal, including Management by Objectives, Critical Incident Method, Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales, and 360 Degree Feedback.
The document aims to provide a head of corporate affairs with all the necessary materials and guidance to properly conduct a performance review.
This document defines key hospital and statistical terms and outlines how hospital statistics are calculated and reported. It discusses that hospital statistics are collected data on hospital utilization and patient morbidity and mortality that provide important information for health planning and management. It describes the two main categories of hospital statistics as administrative statistics, which include data on hospital resources, services, and surgical procedures, and morbidity and mortality statistics, which analyze leading causes of patient illness and death. Required data sources and examples of specific hospital indicators that can be calculated are also provided.
This document defines and discusses various types of hospital statistics that are used to evaluate hospital performance and quality of care. It describes statistics related to beds, admissions, discharges, deaths, workloads, care evaluation, and population served. Key metrics discussed include bed occupancy rate, average length of stay, turnover interval, gross and net death rates, autopsy rate, and caesarean section rate. Hospital statistics provide important information for planning, resource allocation, and identifying areas for improvement in hospital administration and services.
This document discusses employee advocacy, which refers to employees publicly supporting and promoting their employer's reputation. It notes that employee advocacy indicates effective corporate culture and loyalty when employees sincerely advocate for their company. The document also discusses the need for employee advocacy and strategies for building it, such as empowering employees and creating a culture of passion by clearly communicating the company's purpose and mission. It argues that financial incentives alone do not motivate long-term advocacy and that trust between employees and employers is important for genuine advocacy.
A Key Performance Indicator (KPI) is a measurable value that demonstrates how effectively a company is achieving key business objectives. Organizations use key performance indicators at multiple levels to evaluate their success at reaching targets
This document provides an extensive literature review on factors related to employee job satisfaction at Coca-Cola and Pepsi. It discusses prior research on how job satisfaction is influenced by factors such as salary, benefits, work environment, relationships with supervisors and colleagues, promotion opportunities, and personal adjustment. The review also examines differences in satisfaction between private and public sector employees. The literature establishes that job satisfaction is an important indicator of employee behavior and organizational performance.
The document outlines the 5 phases of evolution of human resource management: 1) Industrial revolution, 2) Scientific management, 3) Trade union, 4) Human relation movement, 5) Human resource approach. It provides brief descriptions of each phase, from the mechanization during the industrial revolution to treating employees as assets and focusing on both organizational and individual goals under the human resource approach.
This document provides information and resources for evaluating the job performance of a clinical coordinator. It includes a 4-page performance evaluation form with rating scales for evaluating an employee on various performance factors. It also lists phrases that can be used in a performance review and the top 12 methods for performance appraisal, such as management by objectives, critical incident method, and 360-degree feedback. The resources are intended to help managers formally assess a clinical coordinator's work performance and provide constructive feedback.
Staffing involves acquiring, deploying, and retaining a workforce to positively impact an organization. It includes human resource planning, recruitment, selection, orientation, training, performance management, and compensation. Effective staffing considers the person-job match as well as the person-organization match. Staffing models have evolved from simple headcounts to more sophisticated approaches integrating organizational strategy. Key components of nursing staffing include staffing patterns, staffing plans, scheduling approaches like cyclic and self-scheduling, and patient classification systems.
This document contains materials for evaluating the performance of a community staff nurse, including:
1) A job performance evaluation form with ratings definitions and evaluation criteria in various performance areas.
2) Examples of performance review phrases focused on attitude, creativity/innovation, and decision making.
3) Instructions for completing the form and reviewing the nurse's job description, strengths, areas for improvement, and developing a performance improvement plan.
The evaluation form and supplemental materials provide a structured approach to appraising a community staff nurse's work performance.
Organizational behavior can be studied at three levels - individual, group, and organizational. It seeks to understand and explain human behavior in organizations. Key aspects of organizational behavior include leadership, motivation, communication, and organizational culture and change. Theories of organizational behavior aim to help managers understand employees' behavior and direct it towards achieving organizational goals. Managers can influence behavior through power, leadership style, effective communication, and creating the right organizational climate and culture. Organizational behavior also helps organizations adapt to environmental changes.
Study on "Effect of Employee welfare measures on J.R.T rock products"abinmp8060
This project aims at studying and analyzing the safety and welfare measures of the employees. The project objective is to evaluate the effect of the welfare measures on employee morale and satisfaction level of employee about the work environment and to study and analyze the safety and welfare measures of the employee,to evaluate the effects of the welfare measures on employee morale,evaluate the satisfactory level of employee about the work environment ,the level of satisfaction of employees
JNU MA Economics Entrance Test Paper (2011)CrackDSE
The document discusses the benefits of meditation for reducing stress and anxiety. Regular meditation practice can help calm the mind and body by lowering heart rate and blood pressure. Making meditation a part of a daily routine, even if just 10-15 minutes per day, can have mental and physical health benefits over time by reducing stress levels and promoting relaxation.
JNU MA Economics Entrance Test Paper (2010)CrackDSE
This is the entrance exam paper for JNU MA Economics Entrance Exam for the year 2010. Much more information on the JNU MA Economics Entrance Exam and JNU MA Economics Entrance preparation help available on http://crackdse.com
This document provides information and resources for evaluating the performance of a hospital manager. It includes a 4-page sample performance evaluation form with rating scales for evaluating administrators on various criteria like leadership, decision-making, customer service, and more. It also lists the top 12 methods for conducting performance appraisals, such as management by objectives, critical incident reporting, behaviorally anchored rating scales, and 360-degree/multi-rater feedback. Useful online resources on performance management topics are referenced throughout the document.
Project report on employee motivation.pdfShashi Kant
This document provides an overview of a research project on employee motivation at Tata Steel Ltd. It includes an introduction to the topic, the research problem being investigated, the objectives and significance of the study. It also outlines the research methodology that will be used, including sampling design, sample size, data collection methods, and a literature review. The goal of the research is to understand the key intrinsic and extrinsic factors that influence employee motivation and how they impact individual and organizational outcomes.
This presentation speaks about job satisfaction. It covers the concept of measurement of job satisfaction and covers a few important measures of job satisfaction including the selection of an appropriate measure of job satisfaction. It also includes features and importance of job satisfaction. Easy to read and understand.
Douglas McGregor proposed two contrasting theories of human motivation and management in the 1960s: Theory X and Theory Y. Theory X assumes employees are unmotivated and dislike work, encouraging an authoritarian management style. Theory Y assumes employees are self-motivated and happy to work, promoting a participative and decentralized style of management that involves employees in decision making. While Theory X may be more applicable to large-scale production environments, Theory Y is considered superior and more widely adopted, especially for knowledge work and professional services.
Head of corporate affairs performance appraisaladamliesen
This document provides information and resources for conducting a performance appraisal for a head of corporate affairs. It includes:
1. A sample performance appraisal form with sections for planning and results, rating performance factors, employee strengths, areas for improvement, and signatures.
2. Examples of performance review phrases for evaluating various skills and behaviors.
3. An overview of the top 12 methods for performance appraisal, including Management by Objectives, Critical Incident Method, Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales, and 360 Degree Feedback.
The document aims to provide a head of corporate affairs with all the necessary materials and guidance to properly conduct a performance review.
This document defines key hospital and statistical terms and outlines how hospital statistics are calculated and reported. It discusses that hospital statistics are collected data on hospital utilization and patient morbidity and mortality that provide important information for health planning and management. It describes the two main categories of hospital statistics as administrative statistics, which include data on hospital resources, services, and surgical procedures, and morbidity and mortality statistics, which analyze leading causes of patient illness and death. Required data sources and examples of specific hospital indicators that can be calculated are also provided.
This document defines and discusses various types of hospital statistics that are used to evaluate hospital performance and quality of care. It describes statistics related to beds, admissions, discharges, deaths, workloads, care evaluation, and population served. Key metrics discussed include bed occupancy rate, average length of stay, turnover interval, gross and net death rates, autopsy rate, and caesarean section rate. Hospital statistics provide important information for planning, resource allocation, and identifying areas for improvement in hospital administration and services.
This document discusses employee advocacy, which refers to employees publicly supporting and promoting their employer's reputation. It notes that employee advocacy indicates effective corporate culture and loyalty when employees sincerely advocate for their company. The document also discusses the need for employee advocacy and strategies for building it, such as empowering employees and creating a culture of passion by clearly communicating the company's purpose and mission. It argues that financial incentives alone do not motivate long-term advocacy and that trust between employees and employers is important for genuine advocacy.
A Key Performance Indicator (KPI) is a measurable value that demonstrates how effectively a company is achieving key business objectives. Organizations use key performance indicators at multiple levels to evaluate their success at reaching targets
This document provides an extensive literature review on factors related to employee job satisfaction at Coca-Cola and Pepsi. It discusses prior research on how job satisfaction is influenced by factors such as salary, benefits, work environment, relationships with supervisors and colleagues, promotion opportunities, and personal adjustment. The review also examines differences in satisfaction between private and public sector employees. The literature establishes that job satisfaction is an important indicator of employee behavior and organizational performance.
The document outlines the 5 phases of evolution of human resource management: 1) Industrial revolution, 2) Scientific management, 3) Trade union, 4) Human relation movement, 5) Human resource approach. It provides brief descriptions of each phase, from the mechanization during the industrial revolution to treating employees as assets and focusing on both organizational and individual goals under the human resource approach.
This document provides information and resources for evaluating the job performance of a clinical coordinator. It includes a 4-page performance evaluation form with rating scales for evaluating an employee on various performance factors. It also lists phrases that can be used in a performance review and the top 12 methods for performance appraisal, such as management by objectives, critical incident method, and 360-degree feedback. The resources are intended to help managers formally assess a clinical coordinator's work performance and provide constructive feedback.
Staffing involves acquiring, deploying, and retaining a workforce to positively impact an organization. It includes human resource planning, recruitment, selection, orientation, training, performance management, and compensation. Effective staffing considers the person-job match as well as the person-organization match. Staffing models have evolved from simple headcounts to more sophisticated approaches integrating organizational strategy. Key components of nursing staffing include staffing patterns, staffing plans, scheduling approaches like cyclic and self-scheduling, and patient classification systems.
This document contains materials for evaluating the performance of a community staff nurse, including:
1) A job performance evaluation form with ratings definitions and evaluation criteria in various performance areas.
2) Examples of performance review phrases focused on attitude, creativity/innovation, and decision making.
3) Instructions for completing the form and reviewing the nurse's job description, strengths, areas for improvement, and developing a performance improvement plan.
The evaluation form and supplemental materials provide a structured approach to appraising a community staff nurse's work performance.
Organizational behavior can be studied at three levels - individual, group, and organizational. It seeks to understand and explain human behavior in organizations. Key aspects of organizational behavior include leadership, motivation, communication, and organizational culture and change. Theories of organizational behavior aim to help managers understand employees' behavior and direct it towards achieving organizational goals. Managers can influence behavior through power, leadership style, effective communication, and creating the right organizational climate and culture. Organizational behavior also helps organizations adapt to environmental changes.
Study on "Effect of Employee welfare measures on J.R.T rock products"abinmp8060
This project aims at studying and analyzing the safety and welfare measures of the employees. The project objective is to evaluate the effect of the welfare measures on employee morale and satisfaction level of employee about the work environment and to study and analyze the safety and welfare measures of the employee,to evaluate the effects of the welfare measures on employee morale,evaluate the satisfactory level of employee about the work environment ,the level of satisfaction of employees
JNU MA Economics Entrance Test Paper (2011)CrackDSE
The document discusses the benefits of meditation for reducing stress and anxiety. Regular meditation practice can help calm the mind and body by lowering heart rate and blood pressure. Making meditation a part of a daily routine, even if just 10-15 minutes per day, can have mental and physical health benefits over time by reducing stress levels and promoting relaxation.
JNU MA Economics Entrance Test Paper (2010)CrackDSE
This is the entrance exam paper for JNU MA Economics Entrance Exam for the year 2010. Much more information on the JNU MA Economics Entrance Exam and JNU MA Economics Entrance preparation help available on http://crackdse.com
JNU MA Economics Entrance Test Paper (2013)CrackDSE
This is the entrance exam paper for JNU MA Economics Entrance Exam for the year 2013. Much more information on the JNU MA Economics Entrance Exam and JNU MA Economics Entrance preparation help available on http://crackdse.com
JNU MA Economics Entrance Test Paper (2012)CrackDSE
This is the entrance exam paper for JNU MA Economics Entrance Exam for the year 2012. Much more information on the JNU MA Economics Entrance Exam and JNU MA Economics Entrance preparation help available on http://crackdse.com
JNU MA Economics Entrance Test Paper (2009)CrackDSE
This is the entrance exam paper for JNU MA Economics Entrance Exam for the year 2009. Much more information on the JNU MA Economics Entrance Exam and JNU MA Economics Entrance preparation help available on http://crackdse.com
Delhi University Master's Courses Admission Bulletin 2014CrackDSE
For more details, see http://crackdse.com
This is Delhi University PG/ Master's Courses 2014 Admissions Bulletin. Other application related information available at the website above
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1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination with two papers consisting of 50 questions each. It details rules regarding the use of the answer sheet and question paper booklet, how to mark answers, and notes on copyright and passing scores.
2. Candidates have 1 hour and 30 minutes to complete the 100 total questions. They must fill in identification information correctly on the answer sheet and mark their responses clearly. No extra pages or marks outside the answer sheet will be considered.
3. The exam covers two subjects, with Paper 1 being Business Economics and Paper 2 covering another unnamed topic. Candidates must score at least 40% on each paper and 50% overall to pass the Foundation Programme Examination.
This document appears to be instructions for an economics entrance exam in India. It provides details about the exam such as the date, time limit, number of questions, and scoring information. It instructs students to write their hall ticket number on the paper and answer sheet. It indicates there are two sections, with Section A having 25 questions and Section B having 75 questions. Use of a non-programmable calculator is allowed.
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The passage discusses the government's expectations for increasing private sector power generation capacity versus the reality of the situation. While the government anticipated over 8000 MW of new private capacity, most current proposals are still in early stages and few new players have entered the sector. Foreign investment, a key part of plans, has also not materialized as hoped. The author believes that actual new private capacity added by the end of the current 5-year plan will be only about 10% of what was planned.
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The document contains a 10 question general aptitude test with multiple choice answers. It then contains a 25 question mechanical engineering test in the same format. Some key details:
- The general aptitude test includes questions on topics like number of matches in a league, logical reasoning with statements, word usage, and idioms.
- The mechanical engineering test covers topics like fluid mechanics, materials properties, manufacturing processes, dynamics and vibrations.
- Both sections contain multiple choice questions testing concepts, with some including short explanations of the reasoning behind the answers.
This document contains a pie chart showing the sources of funds collected by the National Highways Authority of India for Phase II projects. It also includes 5 multiple choice questions about the pie chart. The total funds collected were Rs. 57,600 crores. The questions ask about the percentage of funds from different sources, the central angle corresponding to different sources on the pie chart, and calculations involving the data from the pie chart, such as determining amounts based on percentages.
This document provides information about break even analysis including definitions of key terms like fixed cost, variable cost, selling price, break even point, contribution margin, and profit volume ratio. It also includes examples of break even analysis questions from past competitive exams. The document aims to explain the concept and calculations of break even analysis and how it can be used as a management decision making tool.
The document contains several word problems involving linear relationships between two variables. It asks the student to identify slopes and intercepts of linear trendlines, interpret them in real world contexts, make predictions based on linear models, and justify whether a linear model is appropriate for different situations. The student is asked to perform various calculations and algebraic manipulations to solve the problems.
1) Suppose that you purchased a ticket to the symphony for $40 fro.docxdorishigh
1) Suppose that you purchased a ticket to the symphony for $40 from an online ticket broker. Once you arrived at the symphony, you discovered that parking costs you an additional $10. In this situation, the additional $10 you pay for parking is an example of
A) an inefficient cost.
B) marginal cost.
C) opportunity cost.
D) an economic loss.
2) Opportunity cost is
A) the additional cost incurred from the consumption of one more unit of output.
B) the cost involved when choosing between alternatives.
C) the cost of production which cannot be recaptured.
D) the total cost incurred from the consumption of additional output.
3) As an individual consumes ________ of a product within a given period of time, it is likely that each additional unit consumed will yield ________ satisfaction.
A) more; successively more
B) more; successively less
C) more; no additional
D) less; negative
Refer to the information provided in Figure 3.1 below to answer the questions that follow.
Figure 3.1
4) Refer to Figure 3.1. Which of the following would be most likely to cause the demand for Dr. Pepper to shift from D0 to D1?
A) an increase in income, assuming that Dr. Pepper is a normal good
B) a decrease in the price of 7-UP, assuming 7-UP is a substitute for Dr. Pepper
C) an increase in the price of Dr. Pepper
D) an increase in the price of sugar used to make Dr. Pepper
5) If the price of spinach decreases, there will be ________ of spinach enchiladas.
A) an increase in the supply
B) a decrease in the supply
C) an increase in the quantity supplied
D) a decrease in the quantity supplied
Refer to the information provided in Figure 3.15 below to answer the questions that follow.
Figure 3.15
6) Refer to Figure 3.15. A decrease in the wage rate of gardenburger makers will cause a movement from Point B on supply curve S2 to
A) Point A on supply curve S2.
B) Point C on supply curve S2.
C) supply curve S3.
D) supply curve S1.
Refer to the information provided in Table 3.2 below to answer the questions that follow.
Table 3.2
Price per Cheeseburger
Quantity Demanded (Cheeseburgers per Month)
Quantity Supplied (Cheeseburgers per Month)
$5
1,500
500
6
1,200
700
7
900
900
8
600
1,100
9
300
1,300
7) Refer to Table 3.2. This market will be in equilibrium if the quantity of cheeseburgers demanded is
A) 300.
B) 600.
C) 900.
D) 1,200.
8) Refer to Table 3.2. If the price per cheeseburger is $5, the price will
A) remain constant because the market is in equilibrium.
B) decrease because there is an excess demand in the market.
C) increase because there is an excess demand in the market.
D) decrease because there is an excess supply in the market.
Refer to the information provided in Figure 3.13 below to answer the questions that follow.
Figure 3.13
9) Refer to Figure 3.13. The market is initially in equilibrium at Point A. If supply shifts from S1 to S2 and there is an excess demand of 6 cheeseburgers, the price of cheeseburgers will hav ...
This document contains a solved exam paper for the SSC Graduate Level Tier-II Exam in Arithmetical Ability. The paper contains 49 multiple choice questions covering a range of mathematical topics including ratios, averages, percentages, profit and loss, time and work problems, and geometry. The questions are at a graduate level and assess skills in applying mathematical concepts to word problems.
This document appears to be a math exam consisting of two sections - Section I does not allow calculators, while Section II does. Section I contains 30 multiple choice questions to be completed in 30 minutes. Section II contains 13 short constructed response questions and allows 60 minutes for completion. The exam instructions state that only one answer should be marked for each multiple choice question and final results only should be written on the answer sheet for constructed response questions. Calculators are allowed in Section II and students should be aware of radian and median modes when using a calculator. A formula sheet is also provided as a reference.
The document contains 12 math and statistics problems involving concepts like quadratic equations, matrices, probability, and vectors. It asks the reader to find solutions, expressions, and summaries using these concepts. The problems cover topics like profit functions, transition probabilities, order quantities, and objective vs. subjective probabilities.
The document contains pie charts showing the percentage breakdown of a country's total exports and export revenues by item. It states that one pie chart shows the quantity of each exported item as a percentage of total exports, while the other pie chart shows the revenue generated from each export item as a percentage of total export revenues. The reader is asked to determine the item that generates the maximum percentage change in revenue between the two pie charts.
ECO 2003Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best com.docxjack60216
ECO 2003
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. A surplus results when a
a. nonbinding price floor is imposed on a market.
b. nonbinding price floor is removed from a market.
c. binding price floor is imposed on a market.
d. binding price floor is removed from a market.
Figure 6-3
Panel (a)Panel (b)
quantity
quantity
____
2. Refer to Figure 6-3. A nonbinding price floor is shown in
a. both panel (a) and panel (b).
b. panel (a) only.
c. panel (b) only.
d. neither panel (a) nor panel (b).
Figure 6-6
____
3. Refer to Figure 6-6. If the government imposes a price ceiling of $12 on this market, then there will be a. no shortage.
b. a shortage of 10 units.
c. a shortage of 20 units.
d. a shortage of 40 units.
Figure 6-9
____
4. Refer to Figure 6-9. At which price would a price ceiling be binding? a. $4
b. $5
c. $6
d. $7
Figure 6-11
____
5. Refer to Figure 6-11. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. A government-imposed price of $9 would be a binding price floor if market demand is Demand A and a binding price ceiling if market demand is Demand B.
b. A government-imposed price of $15 would be a binding price ceiling if market demand is either Demand A or Demand B.
c. A government-imposed price of $3 would be a binding price ceiling if market demand is either Demand A or Demand B.
d. A government-imposed price of $12 would be a binding price floor if market demand is Demand A and a non-binding price ceiling if market demand is Demand B.
____
6. When a tax is imposed on the sellers of a good, the supply curve shifts
a. upward by the amount of the tax.
b. downward by the amount of the tax.
c. upward by less than the amount of the tax.
d. downward by less than the amount of the tax.
Figure 6-25
Panel (a)Panel (b)
quantity
quantity
Panel (c)
____
7. Refer to Figure 6-25. In which market will the majority of the tax burden fall on buyers? a. market (a)
b. market (b)
c. market (c)
d. All of the above are correct.
Table 7-6
Buyer
Willingness to Pay
Michael
$500
Earvin
$400
Larry
$350
Charles
$300
____
8. Refer to Table 7-6. You have four essentially identical extra tickets to the Midwest Regional Sweet 16 game in the men’s NCAA basketball tournament. The table shows the willingness to pay of the four potential buyers in the market for a ticket to the game. You offer to sell the tickets for $400. How many tickets do you sell, and what is the total consumer surplus in the market? a. one ticket; $100
b. two tickets; $100
c. two tickets; $0
d. three tickets; $0
____
9. Suppose there is an early freeze in California that reduces the size of the lemon crop. What happens to consumer surplus in the market for lemons? a. Consumer surplus increases.
b. Consumer surplus decreases.
c. Consumer surplus is not affected by this change in market forces.
d. We would have to know whether the demand for lemons is ela ...
1 QUESTION 1 Answer the following questions Only.docxmercysuttle
1
QUESTION 1
Answer the following questions Only write down the numbers ex 1.1 A.
Study TABLE 1 and answer the questions that follow:
TABLE 1
PRICE (in Rand) QUANTITY DEMANDED QUANTITY SUPPLIED
2 160 80
4 140 100
6 120 120
8 100 140
10 80 160
12 60 180
1.1 In TABLE 1, the equilibrium price is ...
A R12
B R4
C R6
D R8
1.2 A Market shortage will exist if ...
A the price is above the equilibrium position
B the price is below the equilibrium position
C there is too many suppliers
D ALL of the above-mentioned
1.3 The additional utility derived from consuming an additional unit of a product is referred to
as .. . utility...
A diminishing
B marginal
C total
D average
1.4 A point inside the production possibility curve represents ...
A an inefficient use of resources
B unemployment
C underemployment
D ALL the above-mentioned
1.5 If an increase in the price of product A causes the demand curve for product B
to shift to the right, then ...
A A and B are compliments
B the price of A must be higher than the price of B
C B must be a normal product
D A and B are substitutes
1.6 If the consumer 's demand for fish increased because of an increase in the price of lamb,
these products are examples of ...
A inferior
B normal
C substitute
D complimentary
user
D:20120903231345+02'00'2012/09/03 11:13:45
PM
--------------------------------------------
1.4 D. correct answer
Q1 = 9/10
user
D:20120903233317+02'00'2012/09/03 11:33:17
PM
--------------------------------------------
grand total 74/150 = 49 %
2
1.7 If the price of a product increases it causes a ...
A shift of the demand curve to the right
B movement along the demand curve
C decrease in the elasticity of demand
D shift of the demand curve to the left
1.8 The concept opportunity costs ...
A can be applied to the analysis of any decision-making process
B is relevant only to Economics
C refers only to actual payments and income
D applies to consumers but not firms
1.9 The fact that a decline in the price of a product causes producers to reduce the quantity
of the product
A the law of supply
B the law of demand
C a change in supply
D a change in demand
1.10 When economists speak of normal goods they mean ...
A manufactured goods with no defects
B goods people usually buy
C goods of which the marginal utility decrease as consumption increases
D goods of which the quantity demanded increases with rising incomes
(10X1=10)
(10)
QUESTION 2
Use the information in the table below and answer the questions that follow:
TABLE 2
Price per square metre in
Rand
: Quantity demand of solar
panels per year in
.. thousands Quantity supplied of solar panels per year in thousands
100 5 40
80 15 25
70 20 20
60 25 15
40 40 10
2.1 Illustrate the demand and supply schedule graphically on one graph. (11)
2.2 user
D:20120903231500+02'00'2012/09/03 11:15:00
PM
--------------------------------- ...
This document provides an overview of key concepts from Chapter 1 of a linear functions textbook, including:
- Solving linear equations and using data to create scatterplots and graph lines
- Finding equations of lines from their graphs or intercepts
- Using linear models to represent real-world situations like business costs and revenues
- Identifying the slope, intercepts, domain and range of linear equations and determining if sets of points represent functions
The chapter content is explained through examples like modeling the costs and profits of a golf cart refurbishing business.
{NAME}{DATE}IDS 210HM – Culture Through Literature The Story .docxgerardkortney
{NAME}
{DATE}
IDS 210HM – Culture Through Literature: The Story of Cinderella
Graphic Organizer
Directions: Complete the graphic organizer using the Disney version of Cinderella, along with two other versions from two different cultures. DO NOT use any of the fractured fairy-tale versions. You can just type your information into the graphic organizer. It may be useful to bullet each of your points of information. Once this graphic organizer is complete, you will synthesize the information into a PowerPoint/Prezi presentation. Both the graphic organizer and PowerPoint will be turned in for grading.
Disney Version
Version 1
Version 2
Story Elements
Complete Title/Author
Cinderella
Based on the Charles Perrault version
Country/Origin/Year
France
Disney movie 1950
Main Characters
Sequence of Events
Resolution
Motif Elements
Magical Guardian
Magical Aspects
Animals
Heroine’s Wish
Lost Item
Cultural Elements
Setting/Geography/Natural Resources
Food
Dress
Language
Religion/Celebrations
Family Structure
Societal Roles (as determined by gender, age, and class)
Societal Values
SLU Core Value of Respect Connection to Assignment
{Narrative}
Sources
{In MLA format}
Instructor: Ram Sewak Dubey ECON 317: Problem Set 2 September 28, 2018
1. [Graph I - Demand Function]
A complete demand fucntion is given by the equation
Qd =−30P+0.05Y +2Pr +4T
wherer P is the price of the good, Y is the income, Pr is the price of a related good (here it
is a substitute, why?) and T is the taste parameter.
(a) Can we graph this function?
(b) Draw the graph of the demand function, by assuming Y = 6000, Pr = 20, and T = 30.
(c) Describe in words, as to what does a typical demand function, like the one here,
shows?
(d) What happens to the graph if the price of the good changes from $5 to $8?
(e) What happens to the graph when T changes from 30 to 40; or income increases from
6000 to 8000.
(f) In economics, we typically draw the demand curve by graphing the independent vari-
able (price, P) on the vertical axis and the dependent variable (quantity Qd) on the
horizontal axis. For this we modify the demand function to inverse demand function.
What is the inverse demand function for the above demand.
2. [Graph II - Budget Line]
A person has $120 to spend on two goods (x and y) whose respective prices are $3 and $5
per unit.
(a) Draw the budget line showing all the different combinations of the two goods that can
be bought with the given budget.
(b) What happens to the budget line if the budget (money available to spend) falls by 25%.
(c) What happens to the budget line if the price of good x doubles?
(d) What happens to the budget line if the price of good y falls to $4?
(e) Bonus Question Consider a scheme of quantity discount where is you buy more than
20 units of good x for each additional unit the price of good x is lower by 50%. Draw
the new budget line.
Submission deadline: October 3, 2018 11:59 .
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advanced technologies such as GIS (Geographic Information Systems) and Remote sensing to
analyze the transformations that have taken place over the course of a decade.
The complex relationship between human activities and the environment has been the focus
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The utilization of land is impacted by human needs and environmental factors. In countries
like India, rapid population growth and the emphasis on extensive resource exploitation can lead
to significant land degradation, adversely affecting the region's land cover.
Therefore, human intervention has significantly influenced land use patterns over many
centuries, evolving its structure over time and space. In the present era, these changes have
accelerated due to factors such as agriculture and urbanization. Information regarding land use and
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Accurate understanding of land use and cover is imperative for the development planning
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changes, conversion trends, and other related patterns. The spatial dimensions of land use and
cover support policymakers and scientists in making well-informed decisions, as alterations in
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9
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2. 1. Kiran's utility function is U(xl; x2)= 21n(xl )+ x2. Given her current income and the
current relative prices , she consumes 10 units of x1 and 15 units of x2. If her income
doubles, while prices stay constant , how many units of x1 will she consume after the
change in income?
(a) 20
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) The information given is not enough to determine
2. Manik's utility function on goods x and y is U(x; th = + 4. Prices of x and y are given
as pX = 5 and py = L Assume that Manik's income is equal to 60. What is his optimal
consumption of the two goods?
(a) x = Sy y = 35
(b) x=4, y=40
(c) x = Q y = 60
(d) x = 2, y=50
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
/54-A 3 1 P.T.O.
3. 3. A car manufacturing company wants to decide where to locate a new plant. The only
1 1
inputs used in cars are steel and labour, and the production function is f (S, L) = S2L2 ,
where S is tons of steel and L is units of labour. The company can locate its plant either
in country A or in country B. In country A, steel costs Rs 70 a ton and labour costs
Rs 70 per unit. In country B, steel costs Rs 80 per ton and labour costs Rs 60 per unit.
In which of the two countries should the company locate its new plant?
(a) Country A
(b) Country B
(c) It is indifferent between country A and country B
(d) The information given is not sufficient to determine
4. A monopolist has constant marginal costs at Re 1 per unit, and zero fixed costs. It faces
100
the demand curve D(p) = p ' p < 20 where p is price.
0, p > 20
What is the profit maximizing choice of output?
(a) 20
(b) 5
(c) 1/99
(d) 10
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
/54-A 4
4. S. If the government could set a price ceiling on the above monopolist (in Question No. 4)
in order to force it to act as a competitor, what price should it set?
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 1
(d) None of the above
6. The rank of the matrix C = A'B', where
3 1 2 r
At 1 1 0 and B=(4 2 3)
2 1 3 111
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
/54-A 5 1 P.T.O.
5. 7. If the matrix
is singular, the value of a must be
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
S. lim (ex - 1) is equal to
X- X
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) Does not exist
(d) Cannot be calculated
SPACE FOR ROUGH' WORK
/54-A 6
6. 9. Let
x+4, x<0
f(P)= x2 , 05xc5
7 , x25
The area from x = - 6 to x = 8 under the graph f (x) is
(a) 130/3
(b) 206/3
(c) 206
(d) 106
10. If flour is an inferior good; then
(a) an increase in income will decrease the demand for flour
(b) the demand for flour is negatively related to income
(c) the income elasticity of flour is negative
(d) All of the above
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
/ s4-A 7 [ P.T.O.
7. 11. Consider five urns numbered 1 to 5, where each urn contains 10 balls. Urn 1 has i
defective balls and (10 - t) nondefective balls. In an experiment, an urn is selected at
random, and then a ball is selected at random from that urn. What is the probability
that a defective ball is selected? If the ball is defective, what is the probability that it
came from urn 2?
(a) 7/10; 2/5
(b) 3/10; 2/15
(c) 1/5; 3/25
(d) 3/5; 2/5
12. The probability density function of a continuous random variable is given as
f(x) 1x, 0<-x<1
2-x, 1<x<2
Then the probability of l3 <- x <_ 3J and p(x >_ 1) are
(a) 7/18; 0
(b) 8/9; 1
(c) 8/9; 1/2
(d) 5/9; 1/2
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
/54-A 8
8. 13. A card is selected at random from an ordinary deck of cards. If an ace is drawn , you win
Rs 100; if a king is drawn, you win Rs 75; if a queen is drawn, you win Rs 50; and if a
jack is drawn, you win Rs 25. What is the probability of winning at least Rs 25? What
would you expect to win on average?
(a) 1/4; Rs 62.50
(b) 4/13; Rs 62.50
(c) 1/ 13; Rs 19.23
(d) 4/13; Rs 19.23
14. The probability mass function of a discrete random variable is given as f (x) = b for
x = I, 2, 3, 4, 5 and zero elsewhere. The mean and variance of the distribution are
(a) 3; 2
(b) 3; 11
(c) 3; 9
(d) 3; 3
15. A worker's utility is increasing in wages received and decreasing in the effort exerted.
What is the sh&pe of the indifference curve in the wage-effort space?
(a) Upward sloping
(b) Downward sloping
(c) Straight line parallel to the X-axis
(d) Straight line parallel to the Y-axis
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
/54-A 9 [ P.T.O.
9. 16. When there is a Keynesian aggregate supply curve, an increase in aggregate demand
results in proportional increase in
(a) the price level, as long as output is below its full employment level
(b) real output, as long as output is below its full employment level
(c) real output, once output is at its full employment level
(d) the cost of producing real output, as long as output is below its full employment
level
17. An increase in aggregate demand results in an increase in output
(a) and in the price level, when there is a Keynesian aggregate supply curve
(b) and no change in the price level, when aggregate supply curve is vertical
(c) and in the price level, when aggregate supply curve is positively sloped
(d) and no change in the price level, when aggregate supply curve is positively sloped
18. In the flexible version of quantity theory of money
(a) changes in the velocity of money are closely associated with changes in the money
supply
(b) changes in the price level are closely associated with changes in the money supply
(c) changes in nominal GDP are proportional to changes in velocity
(d) changes in nominal GDP are closely associated with changes in money supply
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
/54-A 10
10. 19. Suppose full employment level of output is Rs 680, the equilibrium level of output is
Rs 600 and the marginal propensity to consume is 0.80 . Full employment output can be
achieved by Rs 16 increase in government spending . Which of the following changes in
net lump sum tax revenues result in full employment output?
(a) A Rs 20 decrease
(b) A Rs 20 increase
(c) A Rs 16 increase
(d) A Rs 16 decrease
20. The fixed labour requirements per unit of wine and clothing production before trade for
England and Portugal are given below :
Wine Clothing
England 6 10
Portugal 3 5
If trade opens up between England and Portugal, what will be the pattern of trade
according to comparative advantage?
(a) England exports clothing and Portugal exports wine
(b) England exports wine and Portugal exports clothing
(c) Neither country will trade in any good
(d) Cannot say
21. If the home marginal propensity to consume exportable is greater than the elasticity of
the foreigner's offer curve, then in the absence of inferior goods, a tariff
(a) lowers the domestic prices of importable
(b) increases the domestic prices of importable
(c) No impact on domestic prices
(d) Cannot say
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
/54-A 11 [ P:T.O.
11. 22. "The average income of the people in province A is greater than the average income of
the people in province B. Some people migrate from province A to province B and as a
result the average income of both the provinces rise." Is the statement feasible?
(a) This can never happen
(b) This will always happen
(c) This is possible if the richer people of province A migrate to province B
(d) None of the given options
23. "All those who have a good voice are good singers ." This statement logically implies
(a) all those who do not have a good voice are not good singers
(b) all those who are not good singers do not have a good voice
(c) all those who are good singers have a good voice
(d) All of the given options
24. There are two countries A and B with their currencies denoted as 'A$' and B$'
respectively. Their nominal exchange rates in terms of US Dollars (USD) are as follows :
A$ 50 = USD 1; B$ 1 = USD 1.5
The nominal prices of petrol per litre in the two countries are A$ 75 per litre and
B$ 1 per litre respectively. It is reported that in purchasing power parity (PPP) terms,
petrol prices are three times higher in country A than in country B. Compare a resident
of country A earning AS 50,000 per month with a resident of country B earning
B$ 2,000 per month. In PPP terms
(a) resident of country A is better off than resident of country B
(b) resident of country A is at par with resident of country B
(c) resident of country A is worse off than resident of country B
(d) Cannot say
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
/54-A 12
12. 25. The equation for the IS curve is given as
Y=co+bo+G bl i
1-cl(1-t) 1-c1(1-t)
and that for the LM curve is given as
s
i=- mo- P +mlY l
2
where Y is income, i is the rate of interest, Pis the price level, Ms is money supply and
G denotes government spending.
Further, l1e-t 011(1- t) = X. Then the expression for the aggregate demand function and
its slope will be
Y m2x b_X r Ms)
(a) = m1+a,b1m2(co+bo+G)-ml+Ab1m2 mo
b Y = mix ( m1x
( ) m2 +Xblml CO +bo + G) - m2 +1lblml m0
Ms)
P
; positive
m2l bll Ms
(c) Y m2 +Ablml (co
+bo +G) -
m2 +Ab1m1
mo - P l; negative
b1m2A b1m2A. Ms
(d) Y m
2 +Xb1m2
(co +bo +G)- m
2 +lj' m2
mo
P ; positive
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
***
/54-A 13 (P.T.O.
15. 1. The function f (x) = log10 x is continuous over the interval
(a) (-a, a) where a> 0
(b) (- -, +o)
(c) [-a, a] where a> 0
(d) (Q 1)
2. Satish is very conscious about the food he eats. He only eats rotis and dal; a cup of dal
costs P 2, while each roti costs a rupee; and Satish decides to spend only a 13 per day
on food. He also decides to consume exactly 5500 calories a day; he has been told that
each roti has 1000 calories while each cup of dal has 500 calories. He spends the entire
money he has allocated to food. Then he consumes
(a) 3 rotis and 5 cups of dal
(b) no more than 2 rotis per day
(c) no more than 4 cups of dal per day
(d) 3 rotis and 4 cups of dal per day
3. Let X and Y be random variables with V[X1 = 2, V [Y ] = 4 and cov (X, Y ) = 2. Let
W = 2X + 3Y . The V[W1 is
(a) 68
(b) 44
(c) 48
(d) 16
4. Given the following data for an economy :
Gross domestic product at market prices 20,000
Gross domestic capital formation 5,000
Depreciation 4,000
Net exports (-) 2,000
Net factor incomes from abroad 5,000
The economy's net domestic capital formation is
(a) 1,000
(b) 5,000
(c) 3,000
(d) (-) 1,000
/3o-A 3 [ P.T.O.
16. S. The incidence of sales tax falls
(a) on only consumers if demand is completely elastic
(b) on only retailers if demand is completely elastic
(c) on only retailers if demand is completely inelastic
(d) always on both consumers and retailers
6. When an economist refers to the long run, she is referring to
(a) a length of time no shorter than 2 years
(b) a length of time no shorter than 1 month
(c) approximately the length of time such that all inputs remain fi*ed
(d) approximately the length of time such that all inputs are variable
7. Which of the following is indicative of an inverse relationship between X and Y?
(a) A scatter plot whose points are shaped like a circle
(b) A scatter plot with points mostly in the lower left and upper right quadrants
(c) A negative correlation coefficient
(d) A negative P-value for the correlation coefficient
8. Which of the following is not correct regarding the estimated slope of the regression
line?
(a) It is divided by its standard error to obtain its t -statistic
(b) It shows the change in Y for a unit change in X
(c) It is chosen so as to minimize the sum of squared errors
(d) It may effectively be regarded as zero if its P -value is below 0.01
9. Among twenty-five articles, nine are defective , six have only minor defects and three
have major defects . The probability that, if a selected article is defective, then the defect
is major is
(a) 1/3
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.24
(d) 0.08
/30-A 4
17. Answer Question Nos. 10-15 on the basis of the following information :
An exclusive club is trying very hard to pick its members from the social elite. An exact election
mechanism has been agreed upon that will ensure the entrance of only the most suave
members from the group A, B, C, D, E; F, G and H. Being 'in' or `out' of the club is determined by
the following rules :
If A is in, then G is out.
If H is out, then B is in.
If D is out, then E is out.
If H is in, then C is in.
If B is out, then G and D are out.
10. Which of the following is a complete group of people who could be in?
(a) A, F, G
(b) F, G, H, C, E, D
(c) E,D,H,C,B
(d) B,F,G,D,A
11. If B is out , then who must be in?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
12. If E and G are in the club, then what other two people must also be in the club?
(a) B, A
(b) G, H
(c) H, D
(d) D, B
13. If B and D are out of the club, then which of the following must be true?
(a) At least two people are in the club
(b) At least three people are in the club
(c) At most four people are out of the club
(d) Exactly three people are out of the club
/30-A 5 [ P.T.O.
18. 14. If seven people are in the club , then who could be out?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) E
(d) C
15. Who could be the only person in the club?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) F
Answer Question Nos. 16-21 on the basis of the following information :
A number of species faced extinction during the Mesozoic era. Species R, S, T, U, V, W and X
were species that all became extinct during this era and scientists have determined that their
extinction occurred based on the following constraints
W became extinct before X.
U became extinct after T.
S became extinct before T.
X became extinct before U.
V became extinct after U.
S became extinct before W.
R became extinct before S
16. Which of the follwoing species were the last two to go extinct?
(a) X, V
(b) T, U
(c) X, U
(d) U, V
17. Which of the following species could have been the fourth one to go extinct?
(a) S
(b) V
(c) W
(d) R
/30-A 6
1 111 I, 111.4 I1 11p, 11I11 1 1 1 I IN III .I.. 1 10 "1111111 I1 II 11 11 III J'j I 1111111 I, M1 1 1
19. 18. Which is the smallest number of species that could have gone extinct before T?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
19. Which of the following must be true if X went extinct after T?
(a) Three species went extinct before T
(b) Three species went extinct after T
(c) Four species went extinct before T
(d) At least three species went extinct after T
20. How many possible orders are there for the species' extinction pattern?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
21. If the constraints were changed and X were not required to become extinct before U,
then which of the following is a possible order for the species ' extinction?
(a) W, R, S, T, U, X, V
(b) R, S, X, W, T, U, V
(c) R, X, S, W, T, U, V
(d) R, S, T, U, V, W, X
22. Between 1750 and 1900, India's share in world manufacturing output
(a) increased from 2 percent to 15 percent
(b) increased from 7 percent to 25 percent
(c) fell from 25 percent to 2 percent
(d) stayed at around 15 percent
/30-A 7 1 P.T.O.
20. 23. Between 1990-91 and 2000-01, the Tax/GDP ratio of the Central Government of India
(a) increased from around 8 percent to around 15 percent
(b) increased from around 9 percent to around 11 percent
(c) decreased from around 11 percent to around 9 percent
(d) decreased from around 15 percent to around 8 percent
24. Which of the following is used to determine the value added in agriculture in India?
(a) Input-output approach
(b) Weather predictions
(c) Crop cutting experiments
(d) Cost surveys of the Ministry of Agriculture
25. Take India's GDP in 2009-10 at! 50,00,000 crore. Indians working abroad remit to the
country ! 150 crore and foreigners working in India remit ! 100 crore out of the
country. Foreign investors repatriate F 50 crore and Indian business abroad brings in
! 10 crore. Then India's GNP in 2009-10 would have been
(a) ! 50,00,050 crore
(b) ! 49,99,950 crore
(c) ! 50,00,090 crore
(d) 49,99,910 crore
26. National accounts of a country show the following
Net factor income from abroad 10
Income from private domestic industries 780
Income from governmental industries 100
Personal consumption expenditures 500
Government purchases 250
Exports 40
Imports 60
Depreciation 30
Then the net domestic product is
(a) 890
(b) 880
(c) 910
(d) 660
/30-A 8
I I I "PPO 1 1 I I I n u I I. I I N . { H I I 1 10 M O 'IN!II III! I 'III
21. 27. The real rate of interest is normally calculated by
(a) dividing the nominal interest rate by the price level
(b) subtracting the rate of inflation from the nominal interest rate
(c) dividing the rate of interest by the rate of inflation
(d) None of the above as it is set by the central bank
Answer Question Nos. 28-30 on the basis of the following information :
Consider an economy in which the consumption function is given by C = 400+ 0.6(Y - T).
Investment (I) is 120, government purchases (G) and taxes (T) are both 100.
28. The equilibrium level of income is
(a) 1000
(b) 1200
(c) 1300
(d) 1400
29. If government purchases increase to 240, the new equilibrium level of income would be
(a) 1700
(b) 1200
(c) 1400
(d) 1600
30. The government expenditure multiplier is
(a) 2.5
(b) 3.5
(c) 4.5
(d) 1
31. Market capitalization in the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) rose by 100 percent in a
single year. This means that
(a) the Sensex rose by 100 percent during that year
(b) the value of shares traded at the BSE over the year increased by 100 percent when
compared with the previous year
(c) the value of all outstanding shares of companies listed at the BSE rose by
100 percent
(d) the prices of every share listed at the BSE rose by 100 percent
/30-A
22. 32. If an individual deposits a sum of money in a bank, then the amount of additional credit
that the banking system can create is
(a) a fraction of that sum defined by the cash reserve ratio
(b) a fraction of that sum defined by the statutory liquidity ratio
(c) a multiple of that sum defined by the cash reserve ratio
(d) a multiple of that sum defined by the statutory liquidity ratio
33. Fuel and power have a weight of 15 percent in India's official wholesale price index. If
there is a 20 percent increase in the price index for the fuel and power subgroup, then
contribution this would make to inflation measured by the WPI would be
(a) exactly 3 percentage points
(b) less than 3 percentage points
(c) more than 3 percentage points
(d) more than 10 percentage points
34. The Bombay Stock Exchange Sensitive Index or Sensex is
(a) a simple average of the stock prices of the top 500 companies by market
capitalization
(b) a weighted average of the stock prices of the 500 most actively traded shares
(c) a weighted average of the stock prices of the 50 most actively traded shares
(d) a weighted average of the stock prices of a changing set of 30 actively traded
stocks
35. Which of the following indicators is not included in computing the human development
indices calculated by the UNDP?
(a) Life expectancy at birth
(b) Adult literacy rate
(c) Combined primary, secondary and tertiary enrolment
(d) Headcount poverty ratio
36. An increase in the international reserves of an economy indicates that
(a) ex ante savings are higher than ex ante investment
(b) ex ante savings are lower than ex ante investment
(c) ex ante savings are equal to ex ante investment
(d) Nothing can be said about ex ante savings or ex ante investment
/30-A 10
I. II nn 19 II 1 ill, I SIP.,, I111 11 ,I 1 1 1 r MMNIPINIII I I I 1 II 1 11,II II,.,, IdI ,I
23. 37. Stagflation describes a situation of
(a) rising prices and rising output
(b) rising prices and falling or stagnant output
(c) falling or stagnant prices and rising output
(d) falling or stagnant prices and falling or stagnant output
38. For the countries in the European Union that share a common currency, the euro,
which of the following is correct?
(a) It is impossible to have different real exchange rates from one another
(b) It is possible to have real exchange rates that are different from one another
(c) The nominal and real exchange rates will always vary according to capital flows
(d) The concept of real exchange rate is not relevant
39. In recent years, the bottom 20 percent of the world's population are estimated to receive
global income
(a) less than 1 percent
(b) around 3 percent
(c) around 5 percent
(d) around 10 percent
40. If an economy is a price taker in world markets for both export and import, the real
exchange rate devaluation
(a) will have no effect on the balance of trade
(b) will cause the balance of trade to improve
(c) will cause the balance of trade to deteriorate
(d) will turn a trade deficit into a balance
41. The 'Gold Standard' refers to an international currency regime under which
(a) only gold was used in international transactions
(b) only gold was used as money in domestic transactions
(c) countries officially linked their money supply to a specific value of gold
(d) countries officially linked the value of their money to a specific weight of gold
/30-A 11 1 P.T.O.
24. 42. Currently, State Governments receive approximately which of the following shares of
the Central Government's gross tax collection?
(a) 22 percent
(b) 25 percent
(c) 32 percent
(d) 40 percent
43. Consider the following statements about a two-person simultaneous-move game in
which each person has two pure strategies :
(i) If the game has a unique Nash equilibrium which is Pareto-dominated by some other
strategy profile, then it is a prisoner's dilemma game.
(ii) If the game is a prisoner 's dilemma game, then it has a unique Nash equilibrium
which is Pareto-dominated by some other strategy profile.
Which of the following is true?
(a) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(b) (i) is false but (ii) is true
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are false
44. The intersection of three distinct planes in the three-dimensional space is
(a) a point
(b) a straight line
(c) a point or a straight line
(d) neither a point nor a straight line
45. The sampling distribution refers to
(a) the distribution of various sample sizes which might be used in a given study
(b) the distribution of different possible values of a statistic together with their
respective probabilities of occurrence
(c) the distribution of the values of the items in the population
(d) the distribution of the values of the items actually selected in a given sample
/30-A 12
nPnuINlny i i IIII u roll. I Iw"I I I a is 1IRIMPIP111I I N I I nu I I :111: I 'I I 11n'pl ill I
25. Answer Question Nos. 46-48 on the basis of the following information :
A student has taken 5 courses-Philosophy, Biology, Economics , Mathematics and Literature.
She studies for these courses according to the following pattern
Every week the student studies for exactly three courses.
If she studies Biology in a week, then she also studies Philosophy that week.
If she studies Economics in a particular week, then she does not study it in the
following week.
In any particular week she studies not more than one of the subjects studied in
the preceding week.
46. Which of the following is a possible sequence of combinations for the student in the two
successive weeks?
(a) Week-1
Week-2
Philosophy, Biology and Economics
Biology, Mathematics and Literature
(b) Week-1 : Philosophy, Biology and Mathematics
Week-2 Philosophy , Biology and Literature
(c) Week-1
Week-2
Philosophy, Mathematics and Literature
Philosophy, Biology and Economics
(d) Week-1
Week-2
Biology, Mathematics and Literature
Philosophy , Economics and Mathematics
47. If the student studies Philosophy , Biology and Economics in the first week, which of the
following combinations must be studied in the third week?
(a) Philosophy, Biology and Economics
(b) Philosophy, Biology and Mathematics
(c) Philosophy, Economics and Mathematics
(d) Economics , Mathematics and Literature
48. If the student studies Philosophy, Literature and Mathematics in the first week, which
of the following combinations must be studied in the eleventh
(a) Philosophy, Literature and Mathematics
(b) Philosophy, Biology and Mathematics
(c) Philosophy, Economics and Mathematics
(d) Economics, Mathematics and Literature
week?
/30-A 13 [P:T.O.
26. 49. The rate of interest is
(a) a flow variable
(b) a stock variable
(c) the ratio of a flow variable to a stock variable
(d) the ratio of a stock variable to a flow variable
50. The fiscal deficit is
(a) a flow variable
(b) a stock variable
(c) the ratio of a flow variable to a stock variable
(d) the ratio of a stock variable to a flow variable
51. Suppose interest is compounded half-yearly at the rate of 10% per annum. If the
present value of an asset, which returns a fixed sum of F X after one year and nothing
thereafter, is F 50,000, then X is equal to
(a) r 54,750
(b) ! 55,000
(c) r 55,125
(d) 55,250
52. Which of the following statements must be incorrect to describe a set of properties for
the probability distribution of a random variable X?
(a) E(X) = 0
(b) Standard Deviation (X) = -1
(c) Variance (X) = 1
(d) The distribution of X is not symmetric about E(X)
53. Suppose two trials of a random experiment, in which a fair coin is tossed and a fair die
is rolled simultaneously, are carried out under the same conditions. What is the
probability that the outcome `the coin shows a head and the die shows a number
divisible by 3' is observed in at least one trial?
(a) 9/144
(b) 44/144
(c) 60/ 144
(d) 80/144
/30-A 14
i I IIII1gμ11 II i x'411 n WITH i IuI; ^IRI,.i 1 10 i"TgglIU If Ii I II I I Inlnl I ,I IpI I ^ III I.I
27. Answer Question Nos. 54-57 on the basis of the following information :
Suppose, in equilibrium, aggregate income (in units of money per year) in an economy Y = C+ I,
where investment expenditure (in units of money per year) I = 1000 and aggregate consumption
expenditure (in units of money per year) C satisfies the following conditions :
(i) C is a function of current disposable income in the economy (Yd).
(ii) If Yd = 0, then C = 500.
(iii) Marginal propensity to save out of Yd is constant in the economy and equal
to 30%.
Suppose the government collects direct tax revenues equal to 15% of Y and makes direct
transfer payments equal to 750 units of money per year.
54. What is the value of the investment multiplier in the economy?
(a) Between 1.7 and 1.9
(b) Between 1.9 and 2.1
(c) Between 2.1 and 2.3
(d) Between 2.3 and 2.5
55. What is the equilibrium value of Y in the economy?
(a) Between 3250 and 3750
(b) Between 3750 and 4250
(c) Between 4250 and 4750
(d) Between 4750 and 5250
56. If instead of 750 units of money the government makes annual transfer payments equal
to 10% of Y, then the value of the investment multiplier will
(a) decrease by less than unity
(b) decrease by more than unity
(c) increase by less than unity
(d) increase by more than unity
57. If instead of 750 units of money the government makes annual transfer payments equal
to 10% of Y , then the equilibrium value of Y will
(a) decrease by less than 1000
(b) decrease by more than 1000
(c) increase by less than 1000
(d) increase by more than 1000
/30-A 15 f P.T.O.
28. 58. Consider two economies (1 and 2) where in equilibrium, the level of aggregate
income (Y) is the sum of aggregate investment expenditure (I) and aggregate
consumption expenditure (C). I is determined autonomously of Y and its value in
economy 1 is double that in economy 2. If the marginal propensity to save in economy 1
is half that in economy 2 for all values of Y , then the equilibrium value of Y - C in
economy 1 is
(a) double that in economy 2
(b) half that in economy 2
(c) the same as that in economy 2
(d) None of the above
59. An indirect utility function
(a) is defined over income and prices
(b) assumes profit maximization
(c) is homogenous of degree one
(d) satisfies all of the above
60. The GDP of a country is growing at 5%, its population growth is 2% and its income
elasticity for food is 0.5. We can expect food demand to grow at
(a) 2.0 percent
(b) 2.5 percent
(c) 3.5 percent
(d) 5-0 percent
61. If A is sufficient for B to occur and C is necessary for B to occur
(a) from occurrence of B we can conclude that A has occurred
(b) from occurrence of B we can conclude that C has occurred
(c) from occurrence of C we can conclude that A has occurred
(d) from occurrence of C we can conclude that B has occurred
62. Which of the following institutions in India is not a constitutional body?
(a) The National Finance Commission
(b) State Finance Commissions
(c) The National Planning Commission
(d) District Planning Committees
/30-A 16
11 1, 111 II 1 m111 I I^I..l.! I II WII 4!II q I' ! 1 -11 1 11,I I I ^. IIII I. III I I
29. 63. Which of the following conditions is not necessary for ordinary least squares to be the
best unbiased linear estimator (BLUE)?
(a) All errors are normally distributed
(b) All errors are independent and uncorrelated to each other
(c) All errors have expectation zero
(d) All errors have the same variance
Answer Question Nos. 64-66 on the basis of the following information :
"While capital is the most important condition or prerequisite of high efficiency production, one
cannot explain differences in the wealth of nations in terms of differences in 'capital endowment'
of different countries, in the same manner as one can explain differences in population density
by reference to differing endowments of natural resources, such as climate, rainfall, geology,
etc. For in contrast to natural resources which exist independently of human activities, 'capital
endowment' is necessarily the result of such activities. It is impossible therefore to separate
cause and effect; it is just as sensible-indeed more enlightening-to say that capital
accumulation has resulted from industrial development than that it was the cause of such
development. For taking manufacturing activities as a whole, the growth of output and the
accumulation of capital are merely different aspects of a single process."
(Nicholas Kaldor, Capitalism and Industrial Development, 1972)
64. According to Kaldor, differing endowments of natural resources
(a) explain differences in capital accumulation
(b) result from industrial development
(c) can help to explain differences in population density
(d) can be the result of human activities
65. 'Capital endowment' cannot explain the differences in the wealth of nations, because
(a) these are more determined by natural resource endowment
(b) capital is the most important condition or prerequisite of high efficiency
production
(c) capital cannot be the cause of industrial development
(d) industrial development may change 'capital endowment'
66. Kaldor argues that climate, rainfall, geology, etc.
(a) have a strong relationship with patterns of industrial development
(b) are determinants of economic growth
(c) exist independently of human activities
(d) can explain the differences in the wealth of nations
/30-A 17 [P.T.O.
30. Answer Question Nos. 67 and 68 on the basis of the following information :
According to the Constitution of India, "Where any law makes any provision for the acquisition
by the State of any estate or where any land comprised therein is held by a person under his
personal cultivation, it shall not be lawful for the State to acquire any portion of such land as is
within the ceiling limit applicable to him under any law for the time being in force or any
building or structure standing thereof, unless the law relating to the acquisition of such land,
building or structure, provides for payment of compensation at a rate which shall not be less
than the market value thereof." [Article 31A(e)]
67. On this basis, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The State must pay full market value for all land acquired from a cultivator
(b) Only land without buildings and structures can be acquired by the State
(c) Only a person cultivating the land personally is eligible for compensation
(d) Land above designated ceiling limits can be acquired by the State without
compensating for its market value
68. On this basis, which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Laws relating to land acquisition by the State must provide for some compensation
(b) Landlords with tenant cultivators on the acquired land must share some of the
compensation with their tenants
(c) Acquisition laws apply to land and to built structures on land
(d) Even without a law relating to land acquisition, States can acquire land
69. In 1990-91, the price index of agricultural commodities was 200 and that of
manufactured products 150. In a year's time both the indices increased by 15 (i.e., the
price index of agricultural commodities became 215 and that of manufactured
products 165). Consequently, the terms of trade between agriculture and industry
(a) moved in favour of agriculture
(b) moved in favour of industry
(c) remained unchanged
(d) None of the above
/30-A 18
I I Fit I I. l d ... I. I, I I iP nlQ1014 1 ,I I III N+I I 1 10 ""11!II I II I l
31. 70. Populations of two species A and B at time 0 are equal . If the instantaneous rates
of growth of populations of species A and B are u and u + 1 respectively, u > 0, then
at time 1 the population of species B would be
(a) twice the population of species A
(b) log 10 times of the population of species A
(c) e" times the population of species A
(d) e times the population of species A
71. Suppose the demand for good Z goes up when the price of good Y goes down. We can
say that goods Z and Y are
(a) complements
(b) perfect substitutes
(c) unrelated goods
(d) substitutes
72. If the quantity demanded of rice increases by 5% when the price of wheat increases by
20%, the cross-price elasticity of demand is
73. Which of the following does monopolistic competition have in common with perfect
competition?
(a) A large number of firms and freedom of entry and exit
(b) A standardized product
(c) Product differentiation
(d) The ability to earn an economic profit in the long run
/30-A 19 [ P.T.O.
32. 74. Which of the following does monopolistic competition have in common with monopoly?
(a) A large number of firms
(b) A downward-sloping demand curve
(c) The ability to collude with respect to price
(d) None of the above
75. The market demand function for a commodity is given as D(p) = 1 / p; where p is the
price of the commodity. Which of the following statements about the market demand
curve is correct?
(a) The price elasticity of demand for this commodity is different at different points on
the demand curve and it varies from 0 to 1
(b) The price elasticity of demand for this commodity is different at different points
on the demand curve and it varies from 0 to -
(c) The price elasticity of demand for this commodity is equal to 1 at any point on
the demand curve
(d) None of the above
76. Let a be strictly negative real number and let b be a strictly positive real number.
Which of the following is true? [ Note that Ix) stands for the absolute value of x ]
(a) ja l < b if and only if -b < a < b
(b) jal< b if and only if -b > a > b
(c) laic b if and only if -b > a
(d) None of the above
77. Let I x I stands for the absolute value of x . Then the function f (x) = ) x I is
(a) differentiable everywhere including the point '0'
(b) differentiable everywhere excluding the point '0'
(c) differentiable everywhere excluding the points '0', '1' and '-1'
(d) None of the above
/30-A 20
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33. 78. If you integrate 1 / x over the interval [ 1, y], where y > 1, you get
(a) log y (which is the natural logarithm of y)
(b) log (y+l) (which is the natural logarithm of y+1)
(c) es
(d) None of the above
79. For events A and B
(i) the probability of event A is p
(ii) the probability of event B is q
(iii) the probability of event AS is r
Which of the following is true?
(a) Probability {either A or B or both) = p + q
(b) Probability (either A or B but not both) = p+q-r
(c) Probability (either A or B but not both) = p + q - 2r
(d) None of the above
80. Which of the following sets is empty?
(a) { x is a real number [ x = x)
(b) { x is a real number x a x}
(c) (x is areal number lx=x2)
(d) {x is areal number J x m x2 )
81. Let set A contains m elements and set B contains n elements . Then the number of
distinct functions from set A to set B which can be constructed is
/30-A 21 QP;TA.
34. 82. In an election, half the electors voted for candidate A and two-thirds voted for
candidate B. 10 electors voted for both A and B. 6 electors voted for neither A nor B.
How many electors were there?
(a) 18
(b) 24
(c) 36
(d) None of the above
83. A theorem states that if P then Q'. From empirical observations it is known that P is
false. Therefore it can be inferred that
(a) Q is false
(b) Q is true
(c) the theorem If P then Q' is false
(d) None of the above
84. Following are given
(i) All P are Q.
(ii) No Q is R.
From (i) and (ii) we can infer that
(a) some P are R
(b) no P is R
(c) all P are R
(d) None of the above
85. Following are given :
(i) Some P are Q.
(ii) No R is Q.
From (i) and (ii) we can infer that
(a) some P are R
(b) no P is R
(c) all P are R
(d) None of the above
/30-A 22
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35. 86. A country that has a trade deficit experiences a nominal exchange rate depreciation: As
a result
(a) the trade deficit will necessarily decline
(b) the trade deficit will necessarily increase
(c) the exchange rate depreciation will cause domestic inflation; so there will be no
impact on the trade deficit
(d) Nothing can be said about the trade deficit without more information
87. Economic activities cover
(a) only activities that result in products that are exchanged in markets
(b) only activities that people engage in for profit
(c) only activities that are or can potentially be delegated to someone else
(d) only activities that are entered into the national accounts
88. In the WTO's Agreement on Agriculture, Blue Box' subsidies refer to
(a) measures to subsidise agricultural exports
(b) measures to provide income support to farmers
(c) measures to incentivise farmers
friendly
to make their cultivation more environment-
(d) measures to protect certain crops
89. A monopoly producing a chip at a marginal cost off '6 per unit faces a demand elasticity
of -2.5. Which price should it charge to optimize its profit57
(a) f 6 per unit
(b) r 8 per unit
(c) r 10 per unit
(d) r 12 per unit
/30-A 23 1$.T.O.
36. 90. X1, ..., X. are independent and identically distributed random variables. Assume that
Xi is normally distributed with mean 1 and variance 1. Let al, ..., aN be real numbers.
Construct the random variable Z as follows :
N
z = jai x X12
i=1
Which of the following is true?
N
(a) The expected value of Z is Tai
i=1
N
(b) The expected value of Z is Yai2
i=1
N
(c) The expected value of Z is 2 x Eai
i=1
(d) None of the above
91. The value-added tax is
(a) a direct tax
(b) an indirect tax
(c) a partly direct and partly indirect tax
(d) a new type of tax, neither direct nor indirect
92. The current investment rate in India is
(a) about 20 percent
(b) about 30 percent
(c) about 40 percent
(d) about 50 percent
/30-A 24
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37. 93. A village has 400 hectares of land of which 200 hectares is sown only once in a year,
75 hectares is sown with two crops a year, 50 hectares is-sown with three crops a year
and 75 hectares is left fallow. What is the gross cropped area of the village?
(a) 200 hectares
(b) 300 hectares
(c) 400 hectares
(d) 500 hectares
94. The Right to Education Act, 2009 covers all children
(a) up to 11 years of age
(b) up to 14 years of age
(c) in the age-group of 6 to 14 years of age
(d) in the age-group of 6 to 16 years of age
Answer Question Nos. 95-100 on the basis of the following information :
There are two experts, Xl and X2, employed by the Planning Commission of Hubble Bubble
to calculate the annual rate of growth of output in the country. Given that Y(t) denotes output
in year t and Y (t - 1) denotes output in the previous year (t - 1), Xt calculates the rate of growth
in year t using the formula [Y (t) - Y (t -1)] / Y (t) and X2 calculates it using the formula
[Y (t) - Y (t -1)] / Y(t -1).
95. Suppose Hubble Bubble's output in 2012 was greater than its output in 2011. Which
expert calculated a higher rate of growth for 2012?
(a) X1
(b) X2
(c) Both Xt and X2 calculated the same value for the rate of growth
(d) Cannot be answered on the basis of the information provided
i
96. Suppose Hubble Bubble's output in 2012 was less than its output in 2011. Which
expert calculated a higher rate of growth for 2012?
(a) Xl
(b) X2
(c) Both XI and X2 calculated the same value for the rate of growth
(d) Cannot be answered on the basis of the information provided
/30-A . 25 [ P.T.O.
38. 97. Suppose X2's calculations show that the rate of growth in 2012 was 5%. Which of the
following numbers is the closest to Xt's calculated value for the rate of growth in 2012?
(a) 4.76
(b) 4.79
(c) 5.21
(d) 5.26
98. Suppose Xl's calculations show that the rate of growth in 2012 was 5%. Which of the
following numbers is the closest to X2's calculated value for the rate of growth in 2012?
(a) 4.76
(b) 4.79
(c) 5.21
(d) 526
99. Suppose X2's calculations show that the rate of growth in 2012 was -5%. Which of the
following numbers is the closest to Xt's calculated value for the rate of growth in 2012?
(a) -4.76
(b) -4.79
(c) -521
(d) -526
100. Suppose Xl's calculations show that the rate of growth in 2012 was -5%. Which of the
following numbers is the closest to X2's calculated value for the rate of growth in 2012?
(a) -4.76
(b) -4.79
(c) -5.21
(d) -526
/30-A 26
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