Important multiple choice questions for msbte exam

MISS. PRAJAKTA D. SAWANT 1
PHARMACOLOGY AND TOXICOLOGY MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
IMPORTANT MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS FOR MSBTE EXAM
SUBJECT:PHARMACOLOGY AND TOXICOLOGY
SUBJECT CODE: 0813
CLASS: DCP-II
SUBJECT TEACHER: MISS. PRAJAKTA D. SAWANT
INDEX
SR. NO. NAME OF CHAPTER No. of MCQ’S PAGE NO.
01 INTRODUCTION AND SCOPE OF PHARMACOLOGY 15 2
02 ROUTES OF ADMINISTRATION OF DRUG 22 3
03 PHARMACOKINETICS AND PHARMACODYNAMICS 47 4-5
04 GENERAL MECHANISM OF DRUG ACTION. 19 5-7
05 DRUGS ACTING ON CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM 142 7-17
06 DRUGS ACTING ON AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM 37 17-19
07 DRUGS ACTING ON EYE 10 19-20
08 DRUGS ACTING ON RESPIRATORY SYSTEM 17 20-21
09 AUTOCOIDS 17 21-22
10 CARDIOVASCULAR DRUGS 29 22-23
11 DRUGS ACTING ON BLOOD SYSTEM 34 24-25
12 DRUGS AFFECTING RENAL FUNCTION 13 25-26
13 HORMONES AND HORMONES ANTAGONISTS 48 26-29
14 DRUGS ACTING ON DIGESTIVE SYSTEM 78 29-33
15 CHEMOTHERAPY OF MICROBIAL DISEASES. 57 33-37
16 DISEASES AND TREATMENT 30 37-39
17 PROTOZOAL INFECTIONS 15 39-40
18 CHEMOTHERAPY OF CANCER 16 41-42
19 ANTISEPTICS AND DISINFECTANTS 12 42-43

CHAPTER NO. 1 : INTRODUCTION AND SCOPE OF PHARMACOLOGY
1. Drug is the chemical or therapeutic substance which is used for diagnosis
,prevention,cure & treatment of disorders /diseases.
2. “pharmacology is the study of interation that occurs between a living organism and
exogeneous chemical( drug).”
3. Study of what body does to drug means pharmacokinetics.
4. Study of what drug does to body means pharmacodynamics.
5. Which branch of pharmacology deals with study of poisons: Toxicology.
6. Clinical Pharmacology branch of pharmacology which involves scientific study of drug
in man.
7. Chemotherapy branch of pharmacology which Deals with effect of drug
microorganisms &parasites which occur in living organism.
8. Which is branch of pharmacology that deals with study of drug
safety:Pharmacovigilance.
9. Who is father of medicine:Hippocrates.
10.Who is grandfather of pharmacology: Paracelsus.
11.Who is Father of pharmacology: Ostwald Schmiedeberg.
12.Which of the following are the sources of drugs: Plant, animal, mineral and
microorganisms.
13.Prodrug is an inactive drug which is converted into active drug after metabolism.
14.Drugs used in rare diseases are Orphan drugs.
15.Essential drugs are drugs that meet the priority health care needs of the population.

CHAPTER NO. 02 ROUTES OF ADMINISTRATION OF DRUG
1. Metabolism of drug before it reaches the systemic circulation u known as First pass
metabolism
2. A path by which drug is taken into body is known as Routes of administration of
drug.
3. Which is most common routes of drug administration Oral route .
4. Which of the following factors affects the choice of route: Physical and chemical
properties of drug, site of desired action, accuracy of digestive juices and condition
of patient.
5. Which of the following are the routes of administration of drug: Enteral,
Parenteral and Topical.
6. Which of the following are the Enteral route of administration of drug:Oral, buccal,
sublingual and rectal.
7. Which is the most safest route of administration of drug: Oral route.
8. In which route drug is placing between the gums and cheeks : Buccal route.
9. In which route drug is placed under the tongue.
10.Which route is involved in the first pass metabolism:Liver.
11.Which route involves the first pass metabolism: Oral route.
12.Which route avoids the first pass metabolism: Rectal,topical,parenteral(All routes
except oral route.)
13.Parenteral route involves direct delivery of drug into systemic circulation.
14.In which route drug is injected into layer of skin : Intradermal route.
15.In which route drug is injected under the skin: Subcutaneous route.
16.Which route is having 100% bioavailability: Intravenous route.
17.Most of the IM injections are given through which parts: Upperarms, thighs and
Buttocks.
18.Which drug is commonly administered through transdermal route: nitroglycerin.
19.Most of the gaseous and volatile drugs are administered through which
route:Inhalational route.
20.Topical route involves application of drug directly on the surface of skin/mucous
membrane.
21.How much quantity of drug can be administered through subcutaneous route: 2
ml.
22.Normal salines are mostly given through which route: Intravenous route.

CHAPTER NO. 03 PHARMACOKINETICS AND PHARMACODYNAMICS
1. Pharmacokinetics involves : Absorption,Distribution,Metabolism and excretion
(ADME).
2. Absorption is the process which involves movement of substance from site of
administration to the systemic circulation.
3. Which of the following are process of absorption :passive diffusion ,Filtration,
Facilitated diffusion, Active transport
4. passive diffusion is depend on the concentration gradient .
5. Absorption of 90% drug occur through the passive diffusion .
6. . Active transport is the energy dependant process.
7. drugs like synthetic drugs steroids and hormones are absorbed by active transport.
8. Endocytosis involves phagocytosis cell eating and pinocYtosis cell drinking.
9. Bioavailability is the fraction of administered drug reaches the systemic
circulation.
10..Passive diffusion and facilitated diffusion is known as down hill transport.
11.. Filtration involves passage of drug through aqueous pores.
12.. Which physiological factors affect on absorption of drug: PH, Ionization,
Area of the absorption.
13.. Rapid absorption occurs if drugs are administred before meal .
14.Calcium and magnesium ions decrease the absorption of tetracycline.
15.. Drugs are better absorbed through which part: Intestine.
16.In presence of disease absorption of drug is reduced.
17.Acidic drugs are better absorbed in stomach.
18.. basic drugs are better absorbed in the intestine.
19.Unionized drugs are better absorbed than ionized drugs.
20.Active transport is known as Up hill transport.
21.The reversible transfer of drug between one compartment and another is known
as distribution.
22.which of the following factors affect the distribution of drug :Lipid solubility, tissue
binding, physiological barrier, plasma protein binding.
23.. non ionized drugs can cross membrane easily.
24.Drugs having low molecular weight can cross membrane easily.

25.The blood brain barrier, blood placenta barrier, blood cerebrospinal fluid barrier,
blood testis barrier, simple blood capillary barrier are the physiological barriers.
26.. Acidic drug bind to the plasma albumin.
27.. Basic drug bind to the alpha 1 acid glycoprotein.
28.Significance of plasma protein binding involves increase in duration of action of
drug, possibility of drug interactions.
29.. Highly protein bound drugs have longer duration of action.
30.The amount of fluid in which administered drug is readily and uniformly
distributed is nown as apparent volume of distribution.
31.Metabolism is chemical alterations of drug in living organism.
32.Metabolism is also known as biotransformation/ Detoxification.
33.Phase 1 reaction are also known as non synthetic/ non conjugation reaction.
34.Phase 1 reaction include oxidation, hydrolysis, reduction reaction.
35.Phase 2 reaction are also known as synthetic/ conjugation reaction.
36.Phase 2 reaction involves coupling of drug.
37.Conjugated product are more water soluble.
38.Phase 2 reaction include glucuronidation,sulphation, acetylation, methylation,
glycine conjugation reaction.
39.Which process involves passage out of systemically absorbed drugs: Excretion.
40.Which is the most important channel of excretion: Kidney.
41.Weak acids excreted in alkaline urine and Weak bases are quickly excreted in
acidic urine.
42.Drugs like volatile general anesthetics ,alcohols excreted through which route:
Lungs.
43.Purgatives like senna and cascara absorbed through small intestine.
44.Gel is excreted in large intestine.
45.Basic drug like barbiturates, diazepam excreted through urine.
46.Drugs like iodides & metallic salt excreted through saliva.
47.Heavy metals like arsenic & mercury are excreted through skin.
CHAPTER NO.04 GENERAL MECHANISM OF DRUG ACTION.
1. Ability of drug to elicit response when it interact with the receptor is known as
efficacy.
2. The ability of drug to bind to the receptor is known as affinity.

3. It is ability of a drug to elicit a response after binding to a receptor is nown as
intrinsic activity.
4. Drugs that bind to a receptor and activate them is known as agonists.
5. Different mechanisms of drug actions are:
 Physical action
 Chemical action
 Enzyme inhibition
 Enzyme induction
 Stimulation
 Depression
 Physical action.
6. Certain drugs produces their action by increasing activity of specialized cells is
known as stimulation.
7. Which of the following factors affect the drug action:
 Age
 Body weight
 Sex
 Time of administration
 Route of administration
 Environment
 Emotional or Psychological factors
 Physiological factors
 Presence of disease
 Cumulation
 Additive effect
 Synergism
 Antagonism
 Tolerance
8. Females requires smaller dose of drug than males.
9. In liver cirrhosis drugs like barbiturates and chlorpromazine may produce
prolonged effect.
10.If a drug is administered repeatadely then there may occurs high concentration in
plasma is known as cumulation.
11.When total pharmacological action is similar to sum of theire individual
pharmacological action is known as additive effect.

12.When total pharmacological action is greater than sum of theire individual
pharmacological action is known as synergism.
13.When two or more drugs administered together act on same physiological system
they try to oppose each others pharmacological action is known as antagonism.
14.An unusual high dose of drug required to produce therapeutic response produced
by therapeutic dose of drug is known as a tolerance.
15.Tachyphylaxis is known as a acute tolerance.
16.Eskimos can tolerate high fat diet and carbohydrates is the example of which type
of tolerance:racial tolerance.
17.Tolerance develops slowly and tachyphylaxis develops quickly.
18.It is defined as an alteration in pharmacological effect of one drug produced by
another drug is known as drug interaction.
19.Liquid paraffin like mineral oils reduces absorption of fat soluable vitamins A, D,
E,K.
CHAPTER NO. 05 DRUGS ACTING ON CENTRAL NERVOUS
SYSTEM
A. GENERAL ANAESTHETICS
1. Which of the following are stage of general anaesthesia
 Stage of analgesia and amnesia (stage I)
 Stage of delirium or excitement (stage II)
 Stage of surgical anaesthesia (stage III)
 Stage of medullary paralysis. (stage IV)
2. Stage of analgesia and amnesia is suitable for dental surgery and obstetrical
producers
3. Which stage is not suitable for any surgical producers: Stage of delirium or
excitement

4. Stage of surgical anaesthesia is most suitable for major operations .
5. Which stage of anaelgesia may cause the death: Stage of medullary paralysis.
6. Which of the following are volatile anaesthetics:Ether,
chloroform,halothane,cyclopropane and nitrous oxide.
7. Volatile anaesthetics are the safest anaesthetics agent and also good analgesics.
8. In Volatile anaesthetics 190mg/100ml blood cause respiratory arrest.
9. Which anaesthetic is used in patient with bronchial asthma : Halothane.
10.Which is safest anaesthetic agent: Nitrous oxide.
11.Nitrous oxide is also know n as laughing gas.
12.General anaesthesis for surgery requires
 Unconsciousness
 Analgesia
 Muscle relaxation
13.Nitrous oxide is Non-flammable & Non-irritant.
14.Which of the following is not a potent anaesthetic: Nitrous oxide.
15.Which pharmacological agents are administered before anaesthesia:
Preanaesthetic medications.
16.Which anti-emetic drug is used as a preanaesthetic medication: Promethazine.
17.Which opioid analgesic is used as a preanaesthetic medication: Morphine &
Pethidine.
18.The minimal alveolar concentration of an inhalational anaesthetic is a measure of
its potency.
19.Minimum alveolar concentration of halothane is 0.75%
20.Dissociative anaesthesia is produced by ketamine.
21.Lower is the minimum alveolar concentration higher is the potency.
B. ANALGESICS, ANTIPYRETICS AND ANTI-INFLAMMATORY DRUGS
1. Unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with the tissue damage is
called as Pain.
2. Pain word is derived from latin word poin means penlty.
3. Cardiac pain is commonly called as referred or reflective pain.
4. Vague pain is defined as psychogenic or functional pain.

5. Malignancy parturition, burns, fractures are the severe pain.
6. Headache, bodyache, arthralgia, myalgia, neuralgia are the Mild pain.
7. The agents which when administered externally relieves mild or moderate pain
without affecting degree of consciousness are called as Analgesics.
8. Narcotic analgesic are also known as opioid analgesic.
9. Narcosis means slight depression of CNS system.
10.Narcotic analgesic relieve severe pain associated with burns, parturition, fracture,
traumas, tumors, malignancy etc.
11. Morphine, codeine are the opioid analgesic from the phenanthrene derivative.
12.Morphine, codeine are the opioid analgesic.
13.Which of the following anaelgesics are involves in the Benzyl isoquinoline series:
Papaverine, Noscapine, Narcine
14.All narcotic analgesics acts on which receptors: Opiate recetors.
15.Morphine relieve severe pain associated with burns, parturition, fracture, traumas,
tumors, malignancy etc.
16.Morphine relieves severe pain by increasing pain threshold.
17.The sensation of emotional well-being called as Euphoria.
18.Morphine produces depression/stimulation effect on respiration: Depression.
19.Which drug produces pin-point miosis .effect: Morphine.
20.Tincture opium is used to produce constipation.
21.Paracetamol is a Para amino phenol derivative.
22.Pyrexia means rise in body temperature.
23.body temperature rises due to high prostaglandine level.
24.Salicylates are respiratory stimulants.
25.Salicylates increase secretion of bile by stimulation of hepatic parenchyma

26.In large dose of salicylates may leads to acute hepatic necrosis.
27.Ketosis is treated with intravenous administration of dextrose.
28. Rheumatism is inflammatory disorder that affect musculoskeletal system
29.Anti-rheumatic agent I used to treat rheumatism disorder.
30.Gout is a disorder of purine metabolism and is characterized by hyperuricaemia with
severe acute arthritis.
31.Uric acid synthesis inhibitor is Allopurinol.
32. Colchicine is reduce inflammation pain and also reduce urate crystals deposition.
C. SEDATIVES AND HYPNOTICS
1. The pharmacological agent which when administered relieves anxiety, stress, and
tension by inducing drowsiness, known as sedative .
2. The pharmacological agents which when administered induce sleep resembling to
natural sleep is known as hypnotics.
3. Which class of drug having more hypnotic action with hangover: Benzodiazepines.
4. Which of the following is long acting barbiturate phenobarbital.
5. Which of the following is intermediate acting barbiturates Butobarbitone &
Amylobarbitone .
6. Which of the following is short acting barbiturates:Secobarbitone and
Hexobarbitone.
7. Which of the following is benzodiazepines Diazepam , lorazepam, Nitrazepam.
8. Which benzodiazepines is used as muscle relaxant Diazepam.
9. Barbiturates act on GABA receptors.
10.What is Effect of barbiturates on CVS : fall in blood pressure and decreased in heart
rate .
11.What is Effect of barbiturates on kidney : decrease in urine output cause oliguria.

12.Dose of phenobarbitone: 30 mg , 60 mg tablets orally.
13.Dose of butobarbitone : 100 mg tablets orally.
14.Dose of Amylobarbitone : 60 mg tablets orally.
15.Dose of diazepam :5 to 10 mg
16.Dose of Flurazepam : 15 to 30 mg.
17.Dose of Nitrazepam : 15 to 30 mg.
18.Which drugs are used t treat barbiturate poisoning: Diuretics like mannitol and
furosemide and antibiotics.
D. PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGICAL AGENTS
1. Psyche means mind.
2. Psychotics are the pharmacological agents which induces psychosis.
3. Which of the following are the examples of psychotics: Morphine, LSD, Nicotine,
Cannabis, alcohol.
4. Which pharmacological agents are mainly tranquilizers, which when administered,
relieve symptoms associated with major or minor psychosis:Anti-psychotics.
5. Tranquilizers are anti-psychotics, which when administered, calm individuals
without inducing sedation and psychosis.
6. Anti-psychotics are mainly used in Schizophrenia
7. Which of the following drug is known as largactil: Chlorpromazine.
8. Which of the following is a high potency antipsychotic drug having minimal
sedative and autonomic effects and no propensity to cause weight gain
:Haloperidol
9. The psychotic symptoms most benefited by neuroleptic drugs are Hallucinations,
delusions and aggressive

10.The drug which should not be used to treat neurotic anxiety and tension
syndromes despite having antianxiety action is Chlorpromazine
11.Which of the following anti-psychotic drug having phenothiazine ring:
Chlorpromazine.
12.Which of the following extra-pyramidal effects seen with antipsychotic agents is
also known as “rabbit syndrome” Perioral tremon.
13.Which is the first anti-psychotic drug used in management of schizophrenia:
Chlorpromazine.
14.Chlorpromazine acts on Chemo-receptor-trigger zone.
15.Which drug produces pseudo-pregnancy in females and gynaecomastia in males:
Chlorprmazine.
16.Which rauwolfia alkaloid is used as a anti-psychotic: Reserpine.
17.Which of the following drugs are used to relieve tension and fear: Anti-anxiety
drug.
18.Anti-anxiety drugs having muscle relaxant activity (identify true or false): True.
19.Antidepressants are also called as Psychoanaleptic or mood elevators.
20.Which of the following is example of tricyclic antidepressants: Imiprimine.
21.Which of the following is example of MAOI’S: Tranyl cypromine
22.Valium and calmpose is the trade name of which drug: Diazepam.
E. EPILEPSY AND ANTI-CONVULSANTS
1. Which of the following is the chronic convulsive disorder : Epilepsy.
2. Which of the following are types of epilepsy: grandmal, petitmal,temporal lobe
epilepsy, cortical focal epilepsy, hyps arrhythmia.

3. Which of the following drugs are used to treat grandmal
epilepsy:Phenytoin,phenobarbitone, Mephenobarbitone and Methoin.
4. Sodium valproate is used to treat which type of epilepsy: Status epilepsy.
5. Which is the primary drug used in the treatment of epilepsy: Di-pheny-
hydantoin/Phenytoin.
6. Suxinimides are less toxic than oxazolidindiones.
7. Dilantin is the trade name of which drug: Phenytoin.
F. DRUG ABUSE
1. The misuse of drug for non-medical purpose which can leads to acute and chronic
toxicity is known as :Drug abuse.
2. Which of the following are examples of permissive types of drug abuse: caffeine
present in tea, nicotine present in smoking,chewing etc.
3. Which of the following are examples of banned drugs: Heroin,Cocaine,Ganja,
Charas,Lysergic acid di-ethyl amide.
G. CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM STIMULANT AND ANALEPTICS
1. Which pharmacological agents overcome narcolepsy by stimulating CNS:
Analeptics./CNS stimulants.
2. Which of the following is example of cortical stimulant:Caffeine,
Amphetamine,Methylphenidate.
3. Picrotoxin, nikethamide are which types of stimulants:Respiratory/Medullary
stimulants.
4. Strychnine is the spinal stimulant.
5. Coramine is the trade name of which drug:Nikethamide.

H. PARKINSONISM AND ANTI-PARKINSONISM DRUGS.
1. Parkinsonism is degenerative & progressive disorder associated with the
neurological consequence of increase in dopamine level produced by basal
ganglia.
2. give the symptoms of parkinsonism: Rigidity,tremors,Bradykinesia
3. Which is the precursor of dopamine: Levodpa.
4. give the dose of levodopa drug.:125-500mg
5. dopamine is cross the blood brain barrier.(true/false): False
6. Which of the following anticholinergic drug is used as a anti-parkinsonism:
Benzotropin and Diphenylhydramine.
7. Which of the following pair are correct except:
 peripheral decarboxylase inhibitors: Carbidopa
 MAO-B inhibitor: selegiline
 COMT inhibitor:Bromocryptine
 Dopamine facilitor:Amantadine
8. .levodopa is contraindicated in-:Angle closure glaucoma
9. which of agent enhances the bioavailability of levodopa-:Tolcapone (COMT
inhibitor)
10.L-Dopa is combined with carbidopa in treatment of parkinsonism because-
11.Inhibit peripheral decarboxylation of levodopa

12.The most effective drug in parkinsonism is: levodopa+carbidopa
13.Use of carbidopa along with levodopa in the treatment of parkinsonism:
Minimises 'on-off' effect'
14.For majority of patients of parkinsonism the standard drug therapy is:
.Levodopa + carbidopa
15.Which of the following drug combination should not be used in parkinsonism:
Amantadine + anticholinergics
16.Which neurons are involved in parkinsonism: Cholinergic neurons GABAergic
neurons Dopaminergic neurons
17.Principal aim for treatment of Parkinsonian disorders is:
 To restore the normal balance of cholinergic and dopaminergic
influences on the basal ganglia with antimuscarinic drugs
 To restore dopaminergic activity with levodopa and dopamine agonists
 To decrease glutamatergic activity with glutamate antagonists
 All of the above
18.Indicate the drug that induces parkinsonian syndromes: Chlorpromazine
19.Select the agent, which is preferred in the treatment of the drug-induced form of
parkinsonism: Benztropine
20.The main reason for giving levodopa, the precursor of dopamine, instead of
dopamine is: Dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier
Which of the following agents is the most helpful in counteracting the behavioral
complications of levodopa: Clozapine

21. Which of the following vitamins reduces the beneficial effects of levodopa by
enhancing its extracerebral metabolism: Pyridoxine
22. Levodopa should not be given to patients taking: Monoamine oxydase A
inhibitors .
23. Which of the following antiparkinsonian drugs is an antiviral agent used in the
prophylaxis of influenza A2: Amantadine
I. LOCAL ANAESTHETICS
1. Which are the pharmacological agents when applied block conduction as well as
generation of impulses in localized area: Local Anaesthetics.
2. Which of the following is the naturally occurring local anaesthetics: Cocaine.
3. Which of the following is the nitrogen containing local anaesthetics:
Procaine,Lignocaine,Benzocaine and Amethocaine.
4. Which of the following are techniques of applications of local anaesthetics:
Topical/surface anaesthesia, infiltration anaesthesia,Nerve block anaesthesia,
spinal anaesthesia
5. Which drugs are used to produce surface anaesthesia: Lignocaine, Amethocaine.
6. Which drugs are used to produce Infiltration anaesthesia:Procaine and lignocaine.
7. In which technique drug is injected in surrounding area of that part which is to be
operated: Nerve block anaesthesia.
8. In which technique drug is injected into subarachnoid space: Spinal anaesthesia.
9. Which drug is used to produce spinal anaesthesia: Lignocaine.
10.Which technique is used in gynaecological surgery: Spinal anaesthesia.
11.Which of the following is the commonly used local anaesthetic drug: Lignocaine.

12.Which of the following sentences are correct?
 Lignocaine 0.25% -5 % solution produces infiltration anaesthesia.
 Procaine 1-2 % solution produces central block anaesthesia.
 1-2 % solution of lignocaine produces nerve block anaesthesia.
 All of the above.
CHAPTER NO. 06 : DRUGS ACTING ON AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM
1. ANS is divided into: Sympathetic and Parasympthetic nervous system.
2. The main neurohumoral transmitter of parasympathetic system is Acetycholine.
3. The main neurohumoral transmitter of sympathetic system is Adrenaline.
4. Parasympathomimetics are also known as cholinomimetics/cholinergic drugs.
5. Parasympatholytics are also known as
Anti-cholinergics,Antimuscarinics,cholinolytics and cholinergic blocking agents.
6. Sympathomimetics are also known as :Adrenergic drugs ,adrenomimetic drugs.
7. Sympatholytics are also known as antiadrenergic drugs,adrenergic
antagonists,adrenergic blocking agents and adrenolytics.
8. What are the types of cholinergic receptors: Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors.
9. Which muscarinic receptors are present on the heart: M2
10.Which of the following is example of cholinomimetic alkaloid: Pilocarpine,
muscarine and Arecholine.
11.Which of the following sentence is correct?
 Acetylcholine decreases heart rate.
 Ach produces miosis/spasm of accommodation.
 Ach increases peristalsis.

 All of the above.
12.Which of the following drug has potent muscarinic action: Carbachol.
13.Which of the following drug has negligible nicotinic action: Bathanechol.
14.Which drug acts as a saliagogue:Pilocarpine.
15.Acetylcholine is esters of choline with acetic acid.
16.Hyoscine is also known as scopolamine.
17.Which of the following is example of reversible cholinesterase inhibitor:
physostigmine and Neostigmine.
18.Which drugs are used to treat organophosphorus compound poisoning: Atropine
sulphate, Pralidoxime, obidoxime .
19.Acetylcholine is not used clinically(true/false) : True.
20.Which of the following is the natural anti-cholinergic drug: Atropine.
21.What is action of atropine on heart and eyes: Increases HR and produces
mydriasis.
22.Prpantheline,Di-cyclomine and Atropine methonitrate are the examples of which
class of drugs: Anti-Spasmodics.
23.Belladona poisoning is occurs due to overdose of Atropine.
24.Which drug is used in treatment of belladonna poisoning: Physostigmine.
25.Ephedrine is the sympathomimetic drug.
26.Which of the following sympathomimetics drugs contains catechol amines:
Adrenaline.
27.Which of the following sentences are correct?
 Beta-1 receptor is present on heart.
 Beta-2 receptors are present on the Bronchi and eyes.
 Adrenaline produces mydriasis.

 All of the above.
28.Which drug produces Dales vasomotor reversal and biphasic response: Adrenaline.
And ergotoxin.
29.Adrenaline is the drug of choice in life threatening allergic reactions.
30.Propranolol, Atenolol,Timolol is the examples of : Beta receptors blockers.
31.Which drugs are used to treat pheochromocytoma:Alpha receptor blockers.
32.Which of the following are examples of ganglion blockers: Mecamylamine,
Trimethaphan, Prempidine, pentolinium.
33.D-tubocurarine,pancuronium,Gallamine,Succinylcholine are the examples of
neuromuscular blocking agents.
34.Myasthenia gravis is the disease characterized by weakness of skeletal muscles.
35.Which drugs are strictly avoided in the myasthenia gravis:
Streptomycin,kanamycin,lignocaine, Quinidine,barbiturates,procainamide.
36.Which of the following drugs are used to treat myasthenia
gravis:Neostigmine,Ephedrine sulphate,Prednisolone.
37.Isoprenaline is mostly administered as sublingual tablets.
CHAPTER NO. 07: DRUGS ACTING ON EYE
1. Which of the following agents dilates the pupils: Mydriatics.
2. Which of the following agents constricts the pupils: Miotics.
3. In which condition person can see the objects which are near but fails to observe
those that are far away : Spasm of accommodation(pupils constricts)
4. In which condition person can see the objects which are far away but fails to see
the objects which are too near: Cycloplegia (pupils dilates).
5. Which drugs are used as a mydriatics:Parasympatholytics and sympathomimetics.

6. Which drugs are used as a miotics: Parasympathomimetics and sympatholytics.
7. Mydriatics are also known as cycloplegics.
8. Which parasympatholytics are used as a mydriatics: Atropine,Scopalamine.
9. Which eye disorder is produced due to increase in intraocular pressure: Glaucoma.
10.Which drugs are used to treat glaucoma: Miotics,timolol,Carbonic anhydrase
inhibitors, mannitol.
CHAPTER NO.08: DRUGS ACTING ON RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
1. What are the three types of bronchial asthma: Episodic form, Status Asthmaticus
and Chronic asthma.
2. Which type of bronchial asthma is formed by allergy or respiratory tract infections:
Episodic form.
3. Anti-asthmatics are also known as bronchodialators.
4. Which drug with beta-2 receptor effect acts as a anti-asthmatics: salbutamol and
terbutaline.
5. Theophylline and Aminophylline are which type of drugs: Phosphodiesterase
inhibitors.
6. How anti-cholinergics produces bronchodilation action: By reducing concentration
of cyclic guanosin monophosphate.
7. Atrovent is a trade name of : Ipratropium.
8. Aminophylline is given in the dose of 250 mg IV.
9. Which of the following are examples of nasal
decongestants:Oxymetazoline,Xylometazoline,naphazoline hydrochloride.
10.Trade name of xylometazoline -HCL is Otrivin.
11.Which pharmacological agents are used for relief of cough: Anti-tussive.

12.Which anti-tussive agents increases flow of saliva and produces soothing
effect:Demulscents.
13.Syrups and linctuses are examples of: Demulscents and silogogues.
14.Expectorants means to drive from chest.
15.Which of the following are examples of centrally acting cough
suppressants:Morphine,codeine,Noscapine,diphenhydramine.
16.Which pharmacological agents when administered make the sputum thin and less
viscid: Mucolytic agents.
17.Acetyl cysteine and bromhexine is used as a mucolytic agent.
CHAPTER NO.09: AUTOCOIDS
1. Histamine is the tissue amine/Biogenic amine.
2. Histamine having imidazoline ring.
3. Histamine H1 receptor causes: Smooth muscle contraction,increased vascular
permeability.
4. Histamine H2 receptor causes gastric acid secretion.
5. Which drug produces triple response: histamine
6. Histamine produces which triple responses: Flush,flare and wheel.
7. Which anti-histamine having more potency and more sedative
effect:Diphenhydramine and promethazine.
8. Which anti-histamine are less potent and less sedative:Chlorpheniramine.
9. Which drugs are used to treat urticarial, rhinitis,cough and motion sickness: Anti-
histaminics.
10.Benadryl is the trade name of which drug: Diphenhydramine.
11.Prostaglandins are derived from prostate glands.

12.Anti-histamines blocks histamine induced gastric acid secretion by acting on which
receptor: Histamine H2 reeptor.
13.Cemetidine,ranitidine are examples of histamine H2 receptor antagonists.
14.Prostaglandins are synthesized from arachidonic acid.
15.Which forms of prostaglandins are used in therapeutics:PGE2 and PGF2alpha.
16.What is effect of prostaglandins on CVS: vasodilation and fall in blood pressure.
17.Which of the following anti-histamine is non-sedating: Cetrizine.
CHAPTER NO.10 : CARDIOVASCULAR DRUGS
1. Digitalis is the cardiac glycoside.
2. Yellow green vision is the side effect of which drug:Digitalis.
3. Digitalis is contraindicated in which conditions: Myocardial infarction,ventricular
tachycardia,calcium administration.
4. Digitalis produces interaction with which drugs:Calcium and quinidine.
5. Which drugs are used to treat digitalis toxicity:Pottasium chloride and phenytoin.
6. Which of the following are the types of arrhythmia: ectopic,Atrial flutter,Atrial
fibrillation,ventricular tachycardia.
7. Which of the following are examples of calcium channel blockers:Nifedipne and
Verapamil.
8. Quinidine is the complete depressant of myocardium.
9. Quinidine is the isomer of quinine.
10.Quinidine reduces conduction velocity.
11.Which of the following are side effects of quinidine: Cinchonism and Embolism.
12.Which forms of quinidine are used as a anti-arrhythmics: Quinidine sulphate and
gluconate.

13.Which beta blocker is used as anti-arrhythmics: Propranolol
14.Angina index= heart rate * blood pressure.
15.Which organic nitrates are used as a anti-anginal drugs:
Nitroglycerin,Amylnitrite,Isosorbide dinitrite.
16.Which of the following is side effect of organic nitrites:Nitrite syncope and
methhaemoglobinaemia.
17.Organic nitrites are used to treat: reynauds disease and trigeminal neuralgia.
18.Nitroglycerin is mostly given through which route: sublingually.
19.When propranolol combines with nitrates produces synergistic effect.
20.Which of the following are centrally acting antihypertensives: alpha methyl dopa
and Clonidine.
21.Which antihypertensive drug acts by stimulation of baroreceptors: Veratrum.
22.Captopril is the example of which class of drug: Renin angiotensin system blocker.
23.Which of the following are examples of vasodilators: Hydralazine
24.Which oral-diuretics is used as a antihypertensive Thiazide.
25.Which of the following are side effects of adrenergic ganglion blockers: Orthostatic
hypotension,tremors,mania.
26.Which drugs are used to treat severe hypertension:verapamil,nifedipine and
guanethedine.
27.Which condition is produced by hardening of blood vessels due to
hyperlipidaemia: Atherosclerosis.
28.Cholesterol level 200mg/100 ml or higher and triglyceride levels 150 mg/100ml or
above is taken as : Lethal dose.
29.Which drugs are used to treat atherosclerosis:Clofibrate,Cholestyramine,Probucol.

CHAPTER NO.11 : DRUGS ACTING ON BLOOD SYSTEM
1. Cause of anaemia areIncrease :RBC destruction Decreased RBC production
2. Which of the following form of iron is not available in India :Iron 100
3. Requirement of folic acid in pregnant women is :0.8mg/day
4. Folic acid present in food as :Polyglutamate
5. Which supplement transported in blood in combination with beta globulin – trans
cobalamin li: Vitamin B12
6. Vitamin K2 is produced in :Gut
7. The iron preparation that can be given intravenously is :Iron dextran
8. Which pharmacological agents favours the erythropoiesis: haematinics.
9. Iron requirement in pregnant women is :2.5 mg to 3 mg.
10.Ferrous Fe++
form of iron is better absorbed than ferric Fe+++
form.
11.Which haematinics are used to treat vitamin deficiency anaemia: cynocobalamine
12.Daily requirement of folic acid is 50 microgram.
13.Folic acid is used to treat which type of anaemia: Megaloblastic anaemia.
14.Which of the following are examples of directly acting intravenous anti-coagulant:
Heparin.
15.Which of the following is indirectly acting oral anticoagulant: Warfarin,Phenindion.
16.Molecular weight of heparin is :20,000.
17.Heparin is contraindicated in which of the following conditions:Peptic
ulcer,Haemophilia,Threatened abortion.
18.Coumarins are effective only in vivo.
19.Heparin is effective both in-vivo and in-vitro.
20.Identify correct mechanism of coumarin:Coumarins competitively inhibits vitamin
K in liver.
21.Heparin is administered through which route: IV and SC.
22.Which are the pharmacological agents which when administered stops the
capillary oozing : Haematinics.
23.which of following is limitations of heamostatics: They are not used to arrest
bleeding from large arteries and veins.

24. Which of the following are Heamostatics : gelatin sponge, oxidized cellulose,
human fibrinogen, fibrin foam and Russels viper venom.
25.Gelatin sponge is moistened with which solution: Thrombin or thromboplastin
solution.
26.Gelatin sponge is absorbed in how much time: 4-6 weeks.
27.Which drug is known as surface haemostatics: Oxidised cellulose.
28.Oxidised cellulose is also known as surgical cotton /guaze.
29.Which haemostatic is preffered in treatment of haemophillia: Russels viper
venom.
30.Whole human blood is preserved with which solution: Acid citrate dextrose
solution.
31.How much quantity of whole human blood is to be administered: 540 ml.
32.Red cells stored at how much temperature:100
c
33.Vitamin K is used as a coagulant.
34.Identify the wrong sentence from following sentences:
 Dextran 40 is having low molecular weight and is used in 10% solution.
 Dextran 70 is having high mol. Weight and is used in 6% solution.
 Plasma volume expanders are used to treat burns.
 Warfarin is the coagulant.
CHAPTER NO.12 : DRUGS AFFECTING RENAL FUNCTION
1. What is normal glomerular filtration rate/GFR: 125 cc/min.
2. Renal blood flow rate is : 1.2 litre/min.
3. Which pharmacological agents increases rate of formation of urine: Diuretics.

4. Mannitol,urea and glycerol are: Water/osmotic diuretics.
5. Mercaptomerin is which type of diuretics:Mercurial.
6. Which is high ceiling diuretics: Frusemide.
7. Which of the following is potassium sparing diuretics: Spironolactone.
8. Osmotic diuretics act on proximal tubule.
9. Which is the most effective xanthine diuretic: Theophylline.
10.Xanthine diuretics and thiazide diuretics act by: inhibiting tubular reabsorption of
sodium.
11.Which typeof diuretics are aldosterone antagonists: Pottasium sparing diuretics.
12.Diuretics are contraindicated in which condition: liver cirrhosis, gout, diabetes,
patient with lithium therapy.
13.Which of the following is carbonic anhydrase inhibitor:Acetazolamide.
CHAPTER NO.13 : HORMONES AND HORMONES ANTAGONISTS
1. Alpha cells secretes glucagon and beta cells secretes Insulin.
2. Diabetes means to flow through and mellitus means sweet.
3. Type I diabetes is also known as
4. Which serious type of diabetes is characterized by deficiency of insulin: Juvenile.
5. Insula means island.
6. Normal human secretes how much insulin units daily: 50 units .
7. Which of the following are types of newer insulin: Actrapid,Rapitard, Monatard.
8. Insulin is administered through which route : Subcutaneous.
9. Which pharmacological agents are administered orally to reduce blood glucose
level: Oral hypoglycaemics.

10.Which sulphonyl urea derivatives are oral
hypoglycaemics:tolbutamide,glimepiride.
11.Metformin is the biguinide derivatives.
12.Which drugs potentiates hypoglycemic effect of sulfonyl urea:
Salicylates,phenybutazone,alcohol,propranolol .
13.Identify correct MOA of metformin:They inhibit glucose absorption from gut and
hepatic gluconeogenesis.
14.Thyroid glands produces which thyroid hormone: T3/Thyroxin and T4 /tri-
iodothyronine.
15.Excessive secretion of thyroid hormone results in : hyperthyroidism.
16.Hyperthyroidism is also known as thyrotoxicosis.
17.Goitrogens are pharmacological agents which when administered interfere with
thyroid hormone synthesis and decreases hormonal level in blood.
18.Which of the following are examples of ion inhibitors: potassium percholate and
thiocynate.
19.Which of the following are examples of thioamides: Propylthiouracil,methimazole
and carbimazole.
20.Iodides may cause iodism.
21.Which iodine prepeartion is used as a anti-thyroid drug: Lugols iodine.
22.Which radioactive iodine is used for selective destruction of thyroid cells: I131.
23.Thioamides acts by which way: It blocks thyroid hormone synthesis by inhibiting
coupling of iodotyrosine, conversion of MIT to DIT.
24.Thyroid hormones are essential for: cretinism,calorigenc action,growth, metabolic
action and myelination of nerve fibres.
25.Oestrogen is the female sex hormone.

26.Natural oestrogens are: Oestradiol, estrone and estriol.
27.Which is the natural estrogen: Oestradiol.
28.Which is semi-synthetic steroidal oestrogen: ethynyl estradiol, mestranol and
quinestrol.
29.Which of the following is example of synthetic non-steroidal estrogen:
Benzoestrol, Hexoestrol.
30.Oestrogen is used to treat : Breast cancer,amenoeehoea, carcinoma of prostate in
males, dysmenorrhea.
31.Pregnane is the natural progesterone.
32.Half life of progesterone is 5 minutes.
33.Which of the following are examples of synthetic progesterone: Nor-ethindron and
Nor-gestrel.
34.Testosterone is the male sex hormone.
35.Which hormone is responsible for spermatogenesis and development of
secondary sex characters: testosterone.
36.Synthetic testosterone is used to treat cryptochildism.
37.Which pharmacological agents are used to prevent conception/pregnancy: Oral
contraceptives.
38.Oral contraceptives acts by: inhibiting GRH, LH, FSH,LH and inhibits ovulation.
39.Which combination pills are used as oral contraceptives: Oestrogen, progesterone.
40.Mestrenol 0.08 mg is a example of sequential pill.
41.Oral contraceptives interacts with which drugs: ampicillin, tetracycline,
rifampicin,phenytoin.
42.ACTH means adreno-cortico-tropic hormone.

43.Which adrenocortical hormone is produced and released by adrenal cortex:
Corticosteroid.
44.Cortisol and hydrocortisol are the glucocorticoids.
45.Example of mineralocorticoids is aldosterone.
46.Glucocorticoid produces which of the following effects:
 It inhibit AA and stimulate conversion of glucose in liver.
 It prevents inflammatory reactions such as local heat, redness.
 It increases secretion of gastric acid,pepsinogen and trypsinogen.
47.Mineralocorticoids are used in treatment of which disease: Addisons disease.
48.The substances which regulates water and electrolyte balance called as
mineralocorticoids.
CHAPTER NO.14: DRUGS ACTING ON DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
1. Which pharmacological agents are used to expel the gas from stomach/intestine :
Carminatives
2. Nature of carminatives is mostly : Aromatic volatile oil.
3. Carminatives are mostly used in which form: Tincture.
4. Examples of carminatives are :Food spices, cardamom, ginger, fennel, asfoetida,
cinnamon, clove, coriander and anise.
5. Which of the following are examples of tinctures: Tincture cardamom and tincture
zingiberis.
6. What is important side effect of carminatives: Flattent dyspepsials.
7. Digestants are the pharmacological agent which when administered promote the
process of digestion.
8. choose the example of Digestant. :eg.HCL,pepsin, Renin, pancreas, bile,bile
salt,bile acidis. Chenodeoxycholic acid.
9. Pepsin is proteolytic enzyme
10. Pepsin is obtained from stomach of hog .
11.Pepsin is administered orally in ……to…..gram.: 0.5 to 1 gram
12. Renin is :milk curding enzyme

13. Renin is obtained from : glandular layer of calf stomach
14. Pancreatin contains the enzyme are: Amylase,lipase,and trysin
15.Pancreatin is obtained from: hog or ox pancreas .
16. Bile salt increases the flow as well the concentration of bile
17. Dose of chenodexycholic acid is : 10-15 mg/kg/day
18. The initial step in the digestion of milk in human is carried out by : Renin
19.The curding of milk in small intestine take place due to: Renin
20.Generally antacid are :Weak base
21.Antacid cause : Neutralisation of gastric acid
22. Which of the following are the classes of antacid :Systemic antacid &non -
systamic antacid .
23. Systemic antacid are absorbed into :Systemic circulation
24. Sodium bicarbonates are example of:Systemic antacid
25. Non -systamic antacid are also known as :Gastric antacid
26. Which classes of antacid contain water insoluble preperation : Non Systamic
antacid .
27. Antacid reduce quantity of free HCL in stomach :True
28. One gram of antacid neutralise how many equivalent of acid :120 ml
29.During neutralization CO2 Is liberated & give sense of relieve from abdominal
discomfort.
30. Aluminium hydroxide gel Is commonly used antacid
31. Aluminium hydroxide also possesses Astringent & demulscent action
32. Common side effects of aluminium hydroxide is :Constipation
33. Aluminium hydroxide always given combination with magnesium salt why :
Beacause Mg salts give relief from constipation
34.Calcium carbonate has chalky taste
35. The agent which heal ulcer are called :Ulcer healing agent

36.Milk, cemetidine ,ranitidine are eg of :Ulcer healing agent
37. Which of the following is H2 receptor antagonist. :Cemetidine
38. Cemetidine injection given through which route: Intra-muscular
39.Carbenoxolon sodium is derivatives of :Glycyrrhizinic acid
40. Carbenoxolon sodium enhance healing of ulcer by which mechanism : By
increasing production of gastric mucus and By prolonging life of epithelial cells
41. Aluminium hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide, magnesium trisilicate etc are
examples of :Non- systemic antacid
42.Which pharmacological agents which when administered increase tone, motility,
peristalsis and relieves constipation: Cathartics.
43.The drastic cathartics which when administered relieve constipation by causing
gripping pain in abdomen and loss of water is known as Purgatives.
44.Laxatives are mild cathartics.
45.Which of the following are stimulant / irritant laxative: castor oil, cascara , senna.
46.Bran and methyl cellulose are : Bulk forming laxatives.
47.Osmotics laxatives are also known as saline purgatives.
48.Magnesium sulphate is the saline purgatives.
49.Which of the following are examples of fecal softner: Liquid paraffin, Dioctyl
sodium sulphosuccinate.
50.Which of the following laxative is anthraquinone derivatives: Senna and cascara.
51.Senna and cascra should be administered at which time : At bed time.
52.Bulk laxatives may be : Natural, semisynthetic , polysachharides and cellulose
derivatives.
53.Liquid paraffin is the mixture of which components: Hydrocarbons obtained from
petroleum.

54.How much ML liquid paraffin should be given to produces laxative effect: 8-30 ml.
55.What is drawback of opiates as a anti-diarrhoels: These agents may cause
addiction and tolerance.
56.Lomotil is the brand name of Diphenoxylate hydrochloride.
57.Which anti-diarrhoels are used for symptomatic releife of diarrhea: Opiates.
58.Which anti-diarrhoels absorbs water in the lumen and form gelatinous mass:
Hydrophillic agents.
59.Which of the following are examples of Hydrophillic agents: psyllium seeds,
Methyl cellulose.
60.Which agents adsorbs noxious substances like bacteria, viruses to produce anti-
diarrhoel effect: Kaolin, Activated charcoal.
61.Emesis is a complex reflex co- ordinated by the vomiting centre in the medulla.
62.Vommiting centres are present in which part: Medulla.
63.Chemo receptor trigger zone is a major sensory relay station.
64.Chemo receptor trigger zone present in the atreal border of the area postrema of
medulla ooblongata
65.Which nerves are important in vomiting: Vagus and sympathetic nerve.
66.Emetics are pharmacological agents which are used for Induction of vomiting.
67.Give the name of centrally acting emetics drugs : Apomorphine
68. Which of the following is peripherally acting emetics drugs.: Mustard, Sodium
chloride
69.Which of the following emetics acts both centrally and peripherally: Ipecacuanha
& cardiac glycoside
70.What is the dose of Ipecacuanha drug. :15 ml by mouth

71.Anti- emetics are pharmacological agents used specifically to prevent and relive
nausea and vomiting.
72.Cyclizine and diphenhydramine drug are comes under the class of : Antihistaminic
class
73.Give the category of chlorpromazine drug : Anti – dopaminergics
74.What is mechanism of action of action of Anti-emetics drugs:
 directly on vomiting centre
 by acting on CTZ ( Chemo Receptor Trigger Zone)
 acting peripherall
75.What is dose of scopolamine to produce anti-emetics :0.6mg to 1mg
subcutaneously
76.The most effective drug for treatment of motion sickness is :Scopolamine
77.One of the following antihistaminic drug is used for treating emesis. :Cinnarizine
78.Which of the following drug is used as adjuvant antiemetics
 Cannabinoids
 Dexammethasone
 Benzodizepines
CHAPTER NO.15 : CHEMOTHERAPY OF MICROBIAL DISEASES.
1. Chemotherapeutic index is the ratio of maximum tolerated dose to the minimum
curative dose.
2. Which of the following condition happens in the urinary tract infection:When
100,000 or more orgnisms are present in 1 ml of urine.
3. Urinary tract antiseptics acts on which part: kidney, urinary bladder and uterus.
4. Which antibiotics are used as urinary tract antiseptics: Ampicillin,
carbenecillin,Cephalosporins and ciprofloxacin.

5. Which of the following are examples of urinary tract antiseptics:Methenamine
mandelate, nalidixic acid, oxalinic acid and nitrofurantoin.
6. Furacin is the trade name of which drug: Nitrofurazone.
7. The antimicrobial compound conbtaining SO2NH2 group are called as
sulfonamides.
8. Which of the following is intermediate acting sulphonamides: Sulfamethoxazole.
9. Which sulphonamides are used for local gastro-intestinal infection:Succinyl
sulfathiazole.
10.Sulfadiazine is the short acting sulfonamides.
11.Sulfonamides are effective against both gram positive and gram negative
organisms.
12.Select the correct MOA of sulfonamides: Sulfonamides inhibit folic acid synthase
enzyme.
13.Sulphonamide is structurally similar to Para amino benzoic acid(PABA).
14.Sulphonamide is bacteriostatic in action.
15.Sulphonamides are used to treat : Nocardiasis and acute bacillary dysentery.
16.Sulfonamides if administered with oral hypoglycemics it potentiates
hypoglycaemic action.
17.Why sulfa combinations are preferred instead of sulfa drugs:
 Combination therapy overcomes each others drawbacks.
 In combination low doses are effective.
 Combinations acts synergistically.
18.Which combination is mostly used as sulfa combination: Sulfamethoxazone +
Trimethoprim.
19.Which of the following sulfa combinations are correct:

 Trimethoprim 80 mg + Sulfamethoxazole 400 mg
20.Sulfa combinations are used in the treatment of plague and veneral diseases.
21.Antibiotics are chemical compounds produced by living microorganisms like
bacteria, fungi which are capable of inhibiting or killing microrganims.
22.The activity per milligram of a chemotherapeutic agent is called as potency.
23.Potency is expressed on which basis: Minimum inhibitory concentration.
24.Which of the following drugs having bacteriostatic activity:Chloramphenicol,
erythromycin, tetracycline, sulphonamides .
25.Which of the following drugs shows bacteriocidal activity:Penicillin, cephalosporin,
vancomycin.
26.Range of activity of compound means:Antibacterial spectrum.
27.Which of the following pairs are correct:
 Penicillin:Penicillium notatum.
 Streptomycin: Strptomyces griseus.
 Chloramphenicol: Streptomyces venezuelae.
28.Which of the following is beta lactum antibiotic: Penicillin.
29.Which of the following are examples of natural penicillin: Penicillin G, Phenoxy
methyl penicillin.
30.Benzyl penicillin is also known as penicillin G.
31.Which of the following is broad spectrum penicillin: Ampicillin and amoxicillin.
32.Methicilin, Nafcilin are examples of : Penicillanase resistant penicillins.
33.Penicillin contains fusion of which 2 rings: thiazolidine ring and beta lactum ring.

34.Penicillin G is stable at what condition: 40O
c FOR 3 days.
35.Which of the following statements are correct:
 Penicillins interfere with synthesis of bacterial cell wall.
 Streptomycin combines with bacterial ribosomes and interfere with
messenger RNA.
 Tetracyclins inhibits protein synthesis in bacterial ribosomes.
 Chloramphenicol acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis.
36.Which antibiotic used in the dental procedures, tonsillectomy and surgical
procedures: Penicillins.
37.Which is test for detection of penicillin allergy : Skin test.
38.Streptomycin is a aminoglycoside antibiotic.
39.Streptomycin is administered through which route: IM.
40.Streptomycin is used to treat tularemia infections.
41.Which of the following antibiotic is under naphthalene derivative: Tetracycline.
42.Tetracyclines are advised to avoid to take with milk or food it may cause insoluable
complexes (true/false): true.
43.Yellow staining of teeth is ADR of which antibiotic: Tetracyclin.
44.Which antibiotic is used to treat the sexually transmitted disseases /veneral
diseases: Penicillin.
45.What is main ADR of chloramphenicol: Gray baby syndrome.
46.Jarisch hexienmer reaction is related with which antibiotic: Penicillin.
47.Which of the following antibiotics are avoided in pregnancy except:
 Streptomycin
 Tetracycline

 chloramphenicol
 Penicillin.
48.Tetracycline develops Fanconi- like syndrome.
49.Which of the following the are broad spectrum antibiotics: Tetracycline and
Chloramphenicol.
50.Which of the following are Derivatives of Tetracyclines : Rollitetracycline,
Oxytetracycline, Minocycline, Doxycycline, Methacycline.
51.Which of the following antibiotic is safe to be taken in pregnancy: Penicillins.
CHAPTER NO.16: DISEASES AND TREATMENT
1. Tuberculosis is the communicable, chronic granulomatous infectious disease
caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis.
2. In 2012 govt of india declared tuberculosis as.:Notifyable disease
3. Antitubercular drugs means :The drug which are used in treatment and Or
infection of tuberculosis.
4. Choose the correct step involved in the treatment of tuberculosis
 optimum anti tubercular therapy
 Two drugs therapy
 Intermittent supervised treatment
 Low cost regime
5. Two drugs therapy includes daily supervised administration of INH+S+E or PAS
for two months.

6. Long form of ESR :Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
7. Long form of BCG : Bacille Calmette Guerin
8. Bacille Calmette Guerin is a stain of Bovine tubercle bacillus .
9. Tuberculin Test is carried out before vaccination.
10.0.1 ml Of vaccine is injected.intradermally In the deltoid region.
11.Which of the following are the first line anti-tubercular agents: rifampicin,
Isoniazid,Pyrazinamide, Ehambutol and streptomycin.
12.Which of the following are second line antitubercular agents:Cariomycin, PAS,
Amikan.
13.Which of the following are correct statements:
 Isoniazid inhibits mycolic acid synthesis.
 Rifampicin acts by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase
and interfere with RNA synthesis.
 Ethambutol inhibits polymerization of arabinoglycans of cell wall by
inhibiting arabinosyl transferase.
14.Isoniazid shows which of the following ADR: Nephrotoxicity, Hepatotoxicity.
15.Which of the following anti-tubercular drugs produces ocular toxicity: Ethambutol.
16.Which drugs are used to kill or inhibit the mycotic infestations: Antifungal agents.
17.Which of the following are types of fungal infections: Dermatophytic infections,
systemic infections and candida infections.
18.Candidal infection is caused due to which fungi: Candida albicans.
19.Which anti-fungal drugs are used to treat dermatophytic infections: griseofulvin,
Tolnaftate, clitromazole.

20.Which of the following drugs are used to treat systemic fungal infections:
Amphotericin B, Flucytosin.
21.Nystatin, Candicidin are used to treat which type of fungal infections: Candidal
infections.
22.Which of the following antiviral compounds are interfere with nucleic acid
synthesis: idoxuridine, Ribavirin, Acyclovir.
23.Which anti-viral drugs are used to treat influenza a virus infections, rubella virus
infections: Amantadine.
24.Gamma globulin is used to treat which type of viral infections:Hepatitis, measles,
mumps, polio and rubella.
25.Which bacteria produces leprosy: Mycobacterium leper.
26.Which antibiotics are used to treat leprosy: Rifampicin.
27.Dapsone is used as anti-leprotics.
28.Dapsone is bacteriostatic in action.
29.What is MOA of Dapsone: They antagonizes PABA.
30.Which drugs controls lepra reaction: Aspirin.
CHAPTER NO.17 : PROTOZOAL INFECTIONS
1. Helminthiasis is a which type of infection: Worm infestation.
2. Identify correct pair:
 Nematodes: Round worm
 Cestodes: tape worm
 Trematodes: Flukes
 All of the above
3. The anthelmintics when administered paralyse the parasitic worms: Wormifugal.

4. Which drugs are used to treat nematodes infections: Pyrantel pamoate,
piperazine, mebendazole.
5. Which drugs are used to treat cestode infections: Niclosamide, Chlorouin.
6. Praziquantal and niridazole are used to treat which type of infection: Trematodes.
7. Malaria is caused by which genus: Plasmodium.
8. Which plasmodium species causes malaria:
 P. falciparum
 P. vivax
 P. ovale
 P. Malariae
 P. Knowlesi
9. Who is vector of malaria: Female Anopheles Mosquito.
10.Which of the following anti-malarial drugs destroys sporozoites within infected
hepatic cell:Primaquin, Pyrimethamine, Proguanil.
11.Which cinchona alkaloid is used to treat malaria: quinine.
12.Cinchonism and block water fever is the side effect of qunine.
13.Quinine produces interactions with which of the following drugs: Antacids,
cimetidine, mefloquine.
14.Quinie act by inhibiting polymerization of heme to haemozoin(true/false): True.
15.Which of the following tests are performed to diagnose malaria: RDT, ELISA,
PCR,hepatomegaly and splenomegaly.

CHAPTER NO.18: CHEMOTHERAPY OF CANCER
1. Cancer is term used for disease in which abnormal cell divide without control and
are able to invade other tissue .
2. It is life threatning disease which is caused by an uncontrolled growth of abnormal
cells in the part of body .
3. The main features of cancer are :
 Excessive cell growth
 Undifferentiated cells or tissues
 A type of hereditary disorder
 A shift of cellular metabolism
4. Which stage It is only used in patients with wilms tumour : Stage 5
5. Which of the following are Types of cancer :
 Carcinoma
 Sarcoma
 Lymphoma
 Leukemias
6. Nitrosamines produces kidney ,liver and GI cancer .
7. Hepatitis B and C viruses produces hepatocellular carcinoma
8. human papilloma virus produces squamous carcinoma of cervix
9. Helicobacter pylori produces gastric carcinoma .
10.Antineoplastic agents :In greek neo means new and plasm means formation.These
are the agents which are used for treatment of cancer.
11.Nitrogen mustard ,Uracil mustard ,Cyclophosphamide Nitrosourea :Lomustine,
Carmustine are which type of anti-cancer drugs: Alkylating agents.

12.Which Antimetabolites are used as anticancer: Methotrexate, 6-mercaptopurine
,5flurouracil
13.Which Antibiotics are used to treat cancer: Doxorubicin ,Bleomycin ,Mitomycin,
Actinomycin D.
14.Vincristine Vinblastine are the vinca alkaloids .
15.Which hormones are used for treatment of cancer: Androgens, estrogen,
progestins and corticosteroids.
16.Vinca alkaloids act by binding to microtular proteins.
CHAPTER NO.19 : ANTISEPTIC AND DISINFECTANTS
1. Which pharmacological agents are applied directly to living tissues so as to kill
bacteria or inhibit their growth.: Antiseptics.
2. Disinfectants are the pharmacological agents that are applied to inanimate objects
like surgical dressings, istruments etc.
3. Antiseptics and disinfectants acts by which of the following mechanism:
 By coagulation of bacterial protein.
 By altering properties of bacterial cell wall.
 By binding to the sulfhydryl group essential for enzyme action.
4. Which of the following acids are used as a antiseptics and disinfectants: Boric acid,
Benzoic acid, mandelic acid, Salicylic acid.
5. Cetrimide is the surfactant which is used as antiseptic and disinfectant.
6. Dry heat can be used in which of the following ways:
 Flaming
 Incineration

 Hot air.
7. The surgical instruments, laboratory equipments and culture media are sterilized
by: Moist heat sterilization.
8. Which of the following agents are used to disinfect ponds and wells: Pottasium
permanganate.
9. Salicylic acid is used as a keratolytic agent.
10.Benzalkonium chloride and Benzthonium chloride is used as a rinse for diaper and
for bed linen
11.Which agent is usedfor pre-operative preparation of skin: Cetrimide.
12.Which of the following dye is used in treatment of burns: Brilliant green.

Important multiple choice questions for msbte exam

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