Chapter 05
Multiple Choice Questions
26. _____ is the process of creating and managing a business to achieve desired objectives.
A. Entrepreneurship
B. Bootstrapping
C. Intrapreneuship
D. Innovation
E. Brainstorming
.
27. A _____ is best described as any independently owned and operated business that is not
dominant in its competitive area and does not employ more than 500 people.
A. publicly owned business
B. limited liability company
C. small business
D. publicly traded company
E. for-profit corporation
28. A small business is any independently owned business that employs not more than _____ people.
A. 100
B. 500
C. 300
D. 200
E. 20
29. Vernon runs Buzz, his own event management company, which frequently organizes large
corporate events. Vernon has established a good reputation for organizing corporate events with a
fair degree of professionalism at reasonable costs. Vernon works out of his old house with a staff
of about 55 employees. Vernon's company is most likely to be categorized as a(n):
A. multinational corporation.
B. limited liability company.
C. franchise.
D. public sector holding.
E. small business.
30. The Small Business Administration (SBA) is a(n):
A. body established by the U.S. Chamber of Commerce to encourage the intrapreneurial spirit in
small businesses.
B. independent agency of the federal government that offers managerial and financial assistance
to small businesses.
C. independent agency created under the GATT to protect small businesses against competition
from larger companies.
D. division of the federal government that is responsible for ensuring that newly formed
businesses adhere to the law.
E. U.S. Congressional agency that regulates the issue of stocks by small businesses.
31. Which of the following is an advantage for small businesses that choose to enter the retailing
industry?
A. Retailing is relatively difficult field to gain entry.
B. Retailing requires a large capital investment in the initial stages.
C. Retailing allows small business to focus on specific groups of consumers.
D. Retailing requires sophisticated machinery and technical expertise.
E. Retailing suffers from heavy competition and losses only in the initial stages.
32. Which of the following reasons makes retailing an attractive industry for small businesses?
A. Retailing eliminates the need for any entrepreneurial skills.
B. Retailing offers high barriers to entry.
C. Retailing eliminates the need to engage in active interactions with the final customers.
D. Retailing requires low initial financing.
E. Retailing limits a firm's need to focus on specific groups of consumers.
33. Which of the following best illustrates a small business operating in a retail industry as opposed to
wholesaling its products?
A. Janet bakes cakes and sells them to other restaurants and cafes in malls.
B. BC Inc. manufactures stationery and sells it in bulk to book shops and supermarkets.
C. P ...
Small Business Management An Entrepreneur’s Guidebook 8th edition by Byrd tes...ssuserf63bd7
Small Business Management An Entrepreneur’s Guidebook 8th edition by Byrd test bank.docx
https://qidiantiku.com/test-bank-for-small-business-management-an-entrepreneurs-guidebook-8th-edition-by-mary-jane-byrd.shtml
StuDocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university. This document contains 49 multiple choice questions from an entrepreneurship course at Monroe Community College. The questions cover topics like the definition of an entrepreneur, factors involved in starting a business, and government resources available for entrepreneurs.
This document provides 30 multiple choice questions that appear to be from a final exam for an MGT 521 management course. The questions cover topics such as communication, credibility of online sources, logical reasoning, leadership, entrepreneurship, accounting, global trade, human resources, and strategic planning.
This document provides answers to 29 multiple choice questions about business concepts. The questions cover topics such as communication, credibility of sources, logical reasoning, leadership, entrepreneurship, accounting, global trade, job specialization, economics, human resource management, and strategic planning. The answers provided are single letters A, B, C, or D with no further explanation given.
This document provides answers to 29 multiple choice questions about business concepts. The questions cover topics such as communication, credibility of sources, logical reasoning, leadership, entrepreneurship, accounting, global trade, job specialization, economics, human resource management, and strategic planning. The answers provided are single letters A, B, C, or D with no further explanation given.
Small Business Management An Entrepreneur’s Guidebook 8th edition by Byrd tes...ssuserf63bd7
Small Business Management An Entrepreneur’s Guidebook 8th edition by Byrd test bank.docx
https://qidiantiku.com/test-bank-for-small-business-management-an-entrepreneurs-guidebook-8th-edition-by-mary-jane-byrd.shtml
StuDocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university. This document contains 49 multiple choice questions from an entrepreneurship course at Monroe Community College. The questions cover topics like the definition of an entrepreneur, factors involved in starting a business, and government resources available for entrepreneurs.
This document provides 30 multiple choice questions that appear to be from a final exam for an MGT 521 management course. The questions cover topics such as communication, credibility of online sources, logical reasoning, leadership, entrepreneurship, accounting, global trade, human resources, and strategic planning.
This document provides answers to 29 multiple choice questions about business concepts. The questions cover topics such as communication, credibility of sources, logical reasoning, leadership, entrepreneurship, accounting, global trade, job specialization, economics, human resource management, and strategic planning. The answers provided are single letters A, B, C, or D with no further explanation given.
This document provides answers to 29 multiple choice questions about business concepts. The questions cover topics such as communication, credibility of sources, logical reasoning, leadership, entrepreneurship, accounting, global trade, job specialization, economics, human resource management, and strategic planning. The answers provided are single letters A, B, C, or D with no further explanation given.
(New) final exam for mgt 521 all correct answers 100%quikly11
This document provides the questions and answers to a multiple choice exam on management and business topics. It covers areas like communication, marketing, leadership, ethics, entrepreneurship, accounting, economics, human resources, and strategic planning. The questions test understanding of key concepts in these areas and ability to identify examples and apply definitions. The document suggests the answers may not completely cover the actual exam being taken.
(New) final exam for mgt 521 mgt 521 all correct answers 100%ri0908O0o
This document provides the questions and answers to a multiple choice exam on business concepts. It covers topics like communication, credibility of sources, decision making, leadership, entrepreneurship, accounting, technology, international business, economics, human resources, and business analysis. The questions test understanding of key terms and ability to identify examples related to various business functions and strategies.
Mgt 521 final exam mcq`s correct answers 100%Austing_3
This document provides the questions and answers to a multiple choice exam on management and business topics. It covers areas like communication, marketing, leadership, ethics, entrepreneurship, accounting, economics, human resources, and strategic planning. The questions test understanding of key concepts in these areas and ability to identify examples and apply definitions. The document suggests the answers may not completely cover the actual exam being taken. It requests good feedback if the answers were helpful for studying.
Mgt 521 final exam mcq`s correct answers 100%liamSali
This document provides the questions and answers to a MGT/521 Final Exam. It contains 28 multiple choice questions covering various topics related to management, including communication, credibility of sources, decision-making, leadership, ethics, entrepreneurship, accounting, economics, human resources, and business strategy. The document encourages leaving positive feedback if the provided answers are helpful and wishes the reader good luck on their exam.
This document is a first quarter exam for an Entrepreneurship class covering multiple choice questions, knowledge questions, an enumeration section, and an essay question. The multiple choice and knowledge questions cover topics like the definition of entrepreneurship, components of the marketing mix, qualities of successful entrepreneurs, and barriers to entry. The enumeration section asks students to list competencies of entrepreneurial success, steps in developing a value proposition, and barriers to entry. The essay question asks students to explain the main components of the marketing mix.
This document provides answers to 30 multiple choice questions about business concepts and strategies. The questions cover topics such as communication, source credibility, logical reasoning, leadership, entrepreneurship, stakeholders, SWOT analysis, accounting, technology, global trade, job specialization, economics, human resource management, business analysis, strategic planning, and tactical planning.
This document provides answers to 29 multiple choice questions about business concepts and practices. The questions cover topics such as communication, source credibility, logical reasoning, leadership, entrepreneurship, accounting, human resources, and strategic planning. The answers are intended to assess understanding of fundamental business principles and how businesses operate.
This document provides answers to 29 multiple choice questions about business concepts and practices. The questions cover topics such as communication, source credibility, logical reasoning, leadership, entrepreneurship, accounting, human resources, and strategic planning. The answers are intended to assess understanding of fundamental business principles and how businesses operate.
This document provides answers to 30 multiple choice questions about business concepts and strategies. The questions cover topics such as communication, source credibility, logical reasoning, leadership, entrepreneurship, stakeholders, SWOT analysis, accounting, technology, global trade, job specialization, economics, human resource management, business analysis, strategic planning, and tactical planning.
This document provides answers to 29 multiple choice questions about business concepts and practices. The questions cover topics such as communication, source credibility, logical reasoning, leadership, entrepreneurship, accounting, human resources, and strategic planning. The answers are intended to assess understanding of fundamental business principles and how businesses operate.
(New) mgt 521 mgt521 final exam entire answers with questions correct 100%twiter343r
This document provides answers to 30 multiple choice questions about business concepts such as communication, source credibility, logical reasoning, leadership, entrepreneurship, stakeholders, accounting, global trade, job specialization, economics, human resource management, business analysis, strategic planning, and tactical planning. The questions cover a wide range of foundational business topics.
We are looking for three types of people to join our business.
1) Retailers (part-time) - Typical earnings of 200-500 per month
2) Team Builders (part / full time options) - By developing a team you can expect to earn 800-2,000 per month
3) Business Developers - This role involves developing Team Builders and earnings are uncapped and range from 2,500-25,000+ per month in addition to a substantial income you can look forward to a number of other incentives including - Car Plan - International Travel - Generous Profit Sharing Scheme.
Wherever you dream of going in life, Forever Living Products is a great vehicle for getting you there. Starting in your own home, you can build a business that provides you the time and money to do the things you've always wanted to do.
What do you dream of? A new car? A nicer home? Extended vacations? Paying off debt? Better Wealth?
With Forever Living Products, they’re all closer than you think!
If you’re looking for more out of life -- a healthier mind and body, more control over how you earn an income, richer rewards for your effort, and more time for yourself and your family -- you can find it here!
Invest a few moments and see what Forever Living Products has to offer. It only takes a minute to change your life FOREVER!
CONTACT US TO ATTEND AN ON LINE BUSINESS PRESENTATION, OR FILL OUT THE CONTACT FORM ON THE WE PAGE BELOW.
http://naturalcare.flp.com/
Complete the following1. Price differentiation attempts to sell.docxmaxinesmith73660
Complete the following:
1. Price differentiation attempts to sell
Choose one answer.
a. different products with different features at the same price.
b. identical products at different times at different prices.
c. products at lower prices, due to economies of scale, unintentionally resulting in lower net income for the company. incorect
d. products to customers based on their ability to pay.
e. all products at different prices.
2. Eric buys companies that are small or companies in financial trouble. He helps these companies turn around and develop a competitive advantage. The company that he recently purchased is called Your Way, Inc. The company sells men's clothing and accessories. Your Way keeps the sewing machines for clothes manufacturing at a separate production facility so that the store location space can be reserved for display and selling.After looking over the different products available, Eric realized that the company's previous owner was not aware of the product life cycle because the company kept items that were obviously too old and out of date. Also, because of the high turnover, employees did not have good knowledge of the different product lines and did not know the difference between a product line and a product mix. To move the company forward, Eric thought of the following two measures: first, developing a new product to incorporate into the product mix; and second, eliminating the out-of-date products.
Refer to Your Way, Inc. Which of the following descriptions should Eric use to best explain the difference between the product line and product mix?
Choose one answer.
a. The product line is a group of similar products that differ only in relatively minor characteristics, whereas product mix is all the products a firm offers for sale.
b. The product mix is a group of similar products that differ only in relatively minor characteristics, whereas product line is all the products a firm offers for sale.
c. The product line is a group of unrelated products, whereas product mix is all the products a firm offers for sale. incorrect
d. The product line is a group of similar products, whereas product mix is all products that are different.
e. There is no difference between a product line and product mix.
3. Price serves the function of ____ for goods, services, and financial resources.
Choose one answer.
a. distributor
b. determining factor incorrect
c. screener
d. quantifier
e. allocator
4. Which of the following is the most selective advertising medium?
Choose one answer.
a. Direct mail
b. Magazines
c. Newspapers
d. Out-of-home advertising
e. Television incorrect
5. Pure Training, Inc., is a company that helps people start their own businesses. As part of the training it provides, the company covers many different aspects of entrepreneurship. One principle its trainers focus on is the difference between data and information. They also stres.
Question 1 of 205.0 PointsA highly developed international.docxIRESH3
Question 1 of 20
5.0 Points
A highly developed international company with a deep involvement throughout the world, plus a worldwide perspective in its management and decision making is called a(n)
A.international corporation.
B.multidomestic corporation.
C.multinational corporation.
D.global corporation.
E.Stage IV corporation.
Question 2 of 20
5.0 Points
What is the activity that occurs in Stage I of international development?
A.The company invests in production facilities in key countries.
B.The company exports, but trade is minor and handled by an export department.
C.The company establishes its own export division with sales offices in other countries.
D.The company operates in a global industry and establishes worldwide personnel, R&D, and financing strategies.
E.The company establishes local operating divisions in host countries to better serve individual country markets.
Question 3 of 20
5.0 Points
What is the activity that occurs in the last stage of international development?
A.The company invests in production facilities in key countries.
B.The company exports, but trade is minor and handled by an export department.
C.The company establishes its own export division with sales offices in other countries.
D.The company operates in a global industry and establishes worldwide HR, R&D, and financing strategies thereby denationalizing its operations.
E.The company establishes local operating divisions in host countries to better serve individual country markets.
Question 4 of 20
5.0 Points
Which type of structure was used by American Cyanamid to introduce and manage a similar line of products throughout the world?
A.geographic-area structure
B.network structure
C.product-group structure
D.international structure
E.functional structure
Question 5 of 20
5.0 Points
Which type of structure was used by Nestle to tailor products to regional differences and to achieve regional coordination?
Question 6 of 20
5.0 Points
Which type of structure enables a corporation to centralize decision making along product lines and to reduce costs?
A.geographic-area structure
B.product-group structure
C.network structure
D.matrix structure
E.functional structure
Question 7 of 20
5.0 Points
According to Chandler and others, which factors MUST be closely aligned to avoid the consequences of poor organizational performance?
A.management, workforce, and customers
B.operations, marketing, and finance
C.strategy, structure, and environment
D.rules, goals, and tasks
E.hierarchy, contacts, and integrators
Question 8 of 20
5.0 Points
A candidate for a fourth stage in corporate development is
A.conglomerate structure.
B.strategic business units.
C.divisional structure.
D.matrix structure.
E.hybrid structure.
Question 9 of 20
5.0 Points
When Kimberly-Clark introduced Huggies disposable diapers against Procter & Gamble's market leading Pampers, they were using the offensive tactic known as a(n) ...
This chapter discusses the key elements and purpose of a business plan. A business plan serves two essential functions: to guide a company's operations and strategy, and to attract lenders and investors. The chapter outlines the main components a business plan should include, such as an executive summary, company overview, industry analysis, marketing strategy, management team, and financial projections. An effective business plan demonstrates a company's potential for success and repayment to convince stakeholders to provide funding.
The document provides a sample multiple choice exam for an MGT 521 management course. It contains 30 multiple choice questions testing concepts related to communication, leadership, ethics, entrepreneurship, economics, human resources, strategic planning, and tactics. The questions cover topics such as logical fallacies, stakeholder analysis, SWOT analysis, job specialization, and differences between strategic and tactical planning.
This document provides an overview of entrepreneurship and small business. It defines key terms like enterprise, entrepreneurship, and intrapreneurship. It also outlines the important skills, attributes, and behaviors of successful entrepreneurs. Additionally, it discusses the importance of small businesses and entrepreneurship for both individual economies and the wider global economy. The document evaluates the stages necessary for a new business idea and common misconceptions around entrepreneurship. It concludes with a summary of the key points and recommendations.
Mgt 521 mgt/521 final exam 100% correct answersGliven
This document provides answers to 30 multiple choice questions about business concepts and topics. The questions cover areas such as communication, leadership, entrepreneurship, accounting, economics, human resources, and strategic planning. Sample questions include types of source credibility issues, examples of logical fallacies in persuasion, stakeholders of a business, and the difference between tactical and strategic planning.
This document provides answers to 30 multiple choice questions about business concepts and topics. The questions cover areas such as communication, leadership, entrepreneurship, accounting, economics, human resources, and strategic planning. Sample questions include types of source credibility issues, examples of logical fallacies in persuasion, stakeholders of a business, and the difference between tactical and strategic planning.
EDUC 742EDUC 742Reading Summary and Reflective Comments .docxtidwellveronique
EDUC 742
EDUC 742
Reading Summary and Reflective Comments Form & Instructions
For each assigned reading, summarize the main principles and reflect on these principles in order to make the content meaningful to you. This will ensure that you understand the reading and understand its relationship to daily life experiences within your educational setting or work environment. The reflective statements may draw on previous experiences or future plans to use the information from the reading. You are also encouraged to critique ideas in light of a biblical worldview. Summaries will be 100-125 words and will be in paragraph form, and the reflections will be 150-200 words. (Submit the Reading Summary by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Sunday in Modules/Weeks 1, 3, 4, 5, and on Friday in Module/Week 8, adding the new entries each time.)
STUDENT NAME:
Bridget Pruitt
Reading
Assignment
Main Principles
Reflective Comments
Reading Summary 1
Razik and Swanson
Data within the United States is processed based on four assessments. The assessments are reading, math, science, and other subjects. They are based on 4th, 8th, and 12th graders. They are also broken up into different ethnic groups. There are a lot of data that is alarming within the U.S. Data is based on household characteristics, family and peer influences, and student achievement. Also in this chapter it reaches on the education reform movement. Global forces and the specific causes that are concerning within the U.S. education system. What are the causes of failure within the U.S. school system and what changes can be implemented to improve the rapid downfall of our education system.
When all of the assessments were implemented on the different groups that provided data that broke up the groups that is when I feel our education system had been broken. Ways of instruction as well as curriculum has not changed much, however, all of the testing data is what has changed and the ways that the data is being implemented. Schools have become all about the numbers instead of the importance of what is being taught to our children. If the U.S. school systems were not all about the numbers and teaching our children how to read and write I feel that our schools would be more successful in all the data assessments that are being implemented. The problem is that special attention is given to achievement gaps among ethnic and economic groups instead of teaching everyone the same way that was taught years and years ago. With all the changes within the school systems and how they are wanting teachers to teach their children has caused a lot of confusion as well as stress upon the teachers as well as the children.
Van
Brummelen
First of all, I love this book. It goes into practices and prospective within the interaction between theory and practice. It explains why in public schools that God cannot be taught and how the Christian schools central theme is focused in the teachings of Jesus Christ. In this chapter it.
EDUC 380 Blog Post Samples Module 1 The Brain Below .docxtidwellveronique
EDUC 380 Blog Post Samples
Module 1: The Brain
Below are some student examples that are excellent blog posts for the first two prompts in Module 1
(The Brain). The goal for the discussion posts is to engage in the module materials directly and explore
some of the questions and issues in each module more deeply. The posts are very important for your
learning. Below you will find comments to help you understand how these students met the rubric
requirements. The rubric for blog posts is posted in the end of this document and is in the course
syllabus.
Blog Post # 1:
● Describe a time when you engaged in something adults might consider risky and/or thoughtless:
● How old were you?
● Why did you do it?
● What were you thinking at the time?
Think back to the article on risk-taking you read and to the video you watched on the teen brain. What
connections can you make between the lecture, the article, and/or the video?
Growing up, my family would take annual trips to the river in Laughlin, Nevada. We
would go with our family friends who had kids with a wide range of ages. I was 13 years
old at the time within the middle age range. A big activity at the river is jumping off of
rocks. My parents did not want my sisters and me to engage in this activity. During one
of the annual trips, I joined the older teenagers on a boat ride to the “jumping rock.”
Depending on how much risk they wanted to take, there are different levels for people
to jump off of. All of the older teens were jumping off of the highest level. I decided to
join the older teens and jump from the tallest rock. At the time, I wanted to do it
because all of the older teenagers were doing it. I wanted to be like them. This was not
an impulsive decision. I had thought about doing this activity the whole trip and decided
to go on the boat ride, knowing they were going to jump off the tallest rock. The article,
“Beautiful Brains,” explains, “Seeking sensation isn’t necessarily impulsive. You might
plan a sensation-seeking experience- a skydive or a fast car…” (Dobbs, 2011, p. 49).
By jumping off the rock with them, I thought this would change their view of me as an
older and more mature teenager. When they changed their opinion about me, it would
allow me to hang out with them all the time. I was taking more risks because I would get
a higher reward. This relates to the article, “Beautiful Brains,” which states, “Teens take
more risks not because they don’t understand the dangers but because they weigh risk
versus reward differently. In situations where risk can get them something they want,
they value the reward more heavily than adults do” (Dobbs, 2011, p. 54). By jumping off
the tallest rock, it gave me the reward of spending more time with the older teenagers.
If I had jumped off the shorter rock, I could have not been accepted into the group
because they did not view me as mature as themselves. Therefore, I would have been
penalized for not.
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(New) final exam for mgt 521 mgt 521 all correct answers 100%ri0908O0o
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Mgt 521 final exam mcq`s correct answers 100%Austing_3
This document provides the questions and answers to a multiple choice exam on management and business topics. It covers areas like communication, marketing, leadership, ethics, entrepreneurship, accounting, economics, human resources, and strategic planning. The questions test understanding of key concepts in these areas and ability to identify examples and apply definitions. The document suggests the answers may not completely cover the actual exam being taken. It requests good feedback if the answers were helpful for studying.
Mgt 521 final exam mcq`s correct answers 100%liamSali
This document provides the questions and answers to a MGT/521 Final Exam. It contains 28 multiple choice questions covering various topics related to management, including communication, credibility of sources, decision-making, leadership, ethics, entrepreneurship, accounting, economics, human resources, and business strategy. The document encourages leaving positive feedback if the provided answers are helpful and wishes the reader good luck on their exam.
This document is a first quarter exam for an Entrepreneurship class covering multiple choice questions, knowledge questions, an enumeration section, and an essay question. The multiple choice and knowledge questions cover topics like the definition of entrepreneurship, components of the marketing mix, qualities of successful entrepreneurs, and barriers to entry. The enumeration section asks students to list competencies of entrepreneurial success, steps in developing a value proposition, and barriers to entry. The essay question asks students to explain the main components of the marketing mix.
This document provides answers to 30 multiple choice questions about business concepts and strategies. The questions cover topics such as communication, source credibility, logical reasoning, leadership, entrepreneurship, stakeholders, SWOT analysis, accounting, technology, global trade, job specialization, economics, human resource management, business analysis, strategic planning, and tactical planning.
This document provides answers to 29 multiple choice questions about business concepts and practices. The questions cover topics such as communication, source credibility, logical reasoning, leadership, entrepreneurship, accounting, human resources, and strategic planning. The answers are intended to assess understanding of fundamental business principles and how businesses operate.
This document provides answers to 29 multiple choice questions about business concepts and practices. The questions cover topics such as communication, source credibility, logical reasoning, leadership, entrepreneurship, accounting, human resources, and strategic planning. The answers are intended to assess understanding of fundamental business principles and how businesses operate.
This document provides answers to 30 multiple choice questions about business concepts and strategies. The questions cover topics such as communication, source credibility, logical reasoning, leadership, entrepreneurship, stakeholders, SWOT analysis, accounting, technology, global trade, job specialization, economics, human resource management, business analysis, strategic planning, and tactical planning.
This document provides answers to 29 multiple choice questions about business concepts and practices. The questions cover topics such as communication, source credibility, logical reasoning, leadership, entrepreneurship, accounting, human resources, and strategic planning. The answers are intended to assess understanding of fundamental business principles and how businesses operate.
(New) mgt 521 mgt521 final exam entire answers with questions correct 100%twiter343r
This document provides answers to 30 multiple choice questions about business concepts such as communication, source credibility, logical reasoning, leadership, entrepreneurship, stakeholders, accounting, global trade, job specialization, economics, human resource management, business analysis, strategic planning, and tactical planning. The questions cover a wide range of foundational business topics.
We are looking for three types of people to join our business.
1) Retailers (part-time) - Typical earnings of 200-500 per month
2) Team Builders (part / full time options) - By developing a team you can expect to earn 800-2,000 per month
3) Business Developers - This role involves developing Team Builders and earnings are uncapped and range from 2,500-25,000+ per month in addition to a substantial income you can look forward to a number of other incentives including - Car Plan - International Travel - Generous Profit Sharing Scheme.
Wherever you dream of going in life, Forever Living Products is a great vehicle for getting you there. Starting in your own home, you can build a business that provides you the time and money to do the things you've always wanted to do.
What do you dream of? A new car? A nicer home? Extended vacations? Paying off debt? Better Wealth?
With Forever Living Products, they’re all closer than you think!
If you’re looking for more out of life -- a healthier mind and body, more control over how you earn an income, richer rewards for your effort, and more time for yourself and your family -- you can find it here!
Invest a few moments and see what Forever Living Products has to offer. It only takes a minute to change your life FOREVER!
CONTACT US TO ATTEND AN ON LINE BUSINESS PRESENTATION, OR FILL OUT THE CONTACT FORM ON THE WE PAGE BELOW.
http://naturalcare.flp.com/
Complete the following1. Price differentiation attempts to sell.docxmaxinesmith73660
Complete the following:
1. Price differentiation attempts to sell
Choose one answer.
a. different products with different features at the same price.
b. identical products at different times at different prices.
c. products at lower prices, due to economies of scale, unintentionally resulting in lower net income for the company. incorect
d. products to customers based on their ability to pay.
e. all products at different prices.
2. Eric buys companies that are small or companies in financial trouble. He helps these companies turn around and develop a competitive advantage. The company that he recently purchased is called Your Way, Inc. The company sells men's clothing and accessories. Your Way keeps the sewing machines for clothes manufacturing at a separate production facility so that the store location space can be reserved for display and selling.After looking over the different products available, Eric realized that the company's previous owner was not aware of the product life cycle because the company kept items that were obviously too old and out of date. Also, because of the high turnover, employees did not have good knowledge of the different product lines and did not know the difference between a product line and a product mix. To move the company forward, Eric thought of the following two measures: first, developing a new product to incorporate into the product mix; and second, eliminating the out-of-date products.
Refer to Your Way, Inc. Which of the following descriptions should Eric use to best explain the difference between the product line and product mix?
Choose one answer.
a. The product line is a group of similar products that differ only in relatively minor characteristics, whereas product mix is all the products a firm offers for sale.
b. The product mix is a group of similar products that differ only in relatively minor characteristics, whereas product line is all the products a firm offers for sale.
c. The product line is a group of unrelated products, whereas product mix is all the products a firm offers for sale. incorrect
d. The product line is a group of similar products, whereas product mix is all products that are different.
e. There is no difference between a product line and product mix.
3. Price serves the function of ____ for goods, services, and financial resources.
Choose one answer.
a. distributor
b. determining factor incorrect
c. screener
d. quantifier
e. allocator
4. Which of the following is the most selective advertising medium?
Choose one answer.
a. Direct mail
b. Magazines
c. Newspapers
d. Out-of-home advertising
e. Television incorrect
5. Pure Training, Inc., is a company that helps people start their own businesses. As part of the training it provides, the company covers many different aspects of entrepreneurship. One principle its trainers focus on is the difference between data and information. They also stres.
Question 1 of 205.0 PointsA highly developed international.docxIRESH3
Question 1 of 20
5.0 Points
A highly developed international company with a deep involvement throughout the world, plus a worldwide perspective in its management and decision making is called a(n)
A.international corporation.
B.multidomestic corporation.
C.multinational corporation.
D.global corporation.
E.Stage IV corporation.
Question 2 of 20
5.0 Points
What is the activity that occurs in Stage I of international development?
A.The company invests in production facilities in key countries.
B.The company exports, but trade is minor and handled by an export department.
C.The company establishes its own export division with sales offices in other countries.
D.The company operates in a global industry and establishes worldwide personnel, R&D, and financing strategies.
E.The company establishes local operating divisions in host countries to better serve individual country markets.
Question 3 of 20
5.0 Points
What is the activity that occurs in the last stage of international development?
A.The company invests in production facilities in key countries.
B.The company exports, but trade is minor and handled by an export department.
C.The company establishes its own export division with sales offices in other countries.
D.The company operates in a global industry and establishes worldwide HR, R&D, and financing strategies thereby denationalizing its operations.
E.The company establishes local operating divisions in host countries to better serve individual country markets.
Question 4 of 20
5.0 Points
Which type of structure was used by American Cyanamid to introduce and manage a similar line of products throughout the world?
A.geographic-area structure
B.network structure
C.product-group structure
D.international structure
E.functional structure
Question 5 of 20
5.0 Points
Which type of structure was used by Nestle to tailor products to regional differences and to achieve regional coordination?
Question 6 of 20
5.0 Points
Which type of structure enables a corporation to centralize decision making along product lines and to reduce costs?
A.geographic-area structure
B.product-group structure
C.network structure
D.matrix structure
E.functional structure
Question 7 of 20
5.0 Points
According to Chandler and others, which factors MUST be closely aligned to avoid the consequences of poor organizational performance?
A.management, workforce, and customers
B.operations, marketing, and finance
C.strategy, structure, and environment
D.rules, goals, and tasks
E.hierarchy, contacts, and integrators
Question 8 of 20
5.0 Points
A candidate for a fourth stage in corporate development is
A.conglomerate structure.
B.strategic business units.
C.divisional structure.
D.matrix structure.
E.hybrid structure.
Question 9 of 20
5.0 Points
When Kimberly-Clark introduced Huggies disposable diapers against Procter & Gamble's market leading Pampers, they were using the offensive tactic known as a(n) ...
This chapter discusses the key elements and purpose of a business plan. A business plan serves two essential functions: to guide a company's operations and strategy, and to attract lenders and investors. The chapter outlines the main components a business plan should include, such as an executive summary, company overview, industry analysis, marketing strategy, management team, and financial projections. An effective business plan demonstrates a company's potential for success and repayment to convince stakeholders to provide funding.
The document provides a sample multiple choice exam for an MGT 521 management course. It contains 30 multiple choice questions testing concepts related to communication, leadership, ethics, entrepreneurship, economics, human resources, strategic planning, and tactics. The questions cover topics such as logical fallacies, stakeholder analysis, SWOT analysis, job specialization, and differences between strategic and tactical planning.
This document provides an overview of entrepreneurship and small business. It defines key terms like enterprise, entrepreneurship, and intrapreneurship. It also outlines the important skills, attributes, and behaviors of successful entrepreneurs. Additionally, it discusses the importance of small businesses and entrepreneurship for both individual economies and the wider global economy. The document evaluates the stages necessary for a new business idea and common misconceptions around entrepreneurship. It concludes with a summary of the key points and recommendations.
Mgt 521 mgt/521 final exam 100% correct answersGliven
This document provides answers to 30 multiple choice questions about business concepts and topics. The questions cover areas such as communication, leadership, entrepreneurship, accounting, economics, human resources, and strategic planning. Sample questions include types of source credibility issues, examples of logical fallacies in persuasion, stakeholders of a business, and the difference between tactical and strategic planning.
This document provides answers to 30 multiple choice questions about business concepts and topics. The questions cover areas such as communication, leadership, entrepreneurship, accounting, economics, human resources, and strategic planning. Sample questions include types of source credibility issues, examples of logical fallacies in persuasion, stakeholders of a business, and the difference between tactical and strategic planning.
Similar to Chapter 05Multiple Choice Questions26. _____ is the pr.docx (20)
EDUC 742EDUC 742Reading Summary and Reflective Comments .docxtidwellveronique
EDUC 742
EDUC 742
Reading Summary and Reflective Comments Form & Instructions
For each assigned reading, summarize the main principles and reflect on these principles in order to make the content meaningful to you. This will ensure that you understand the reading and understand its relationship to daily life experiences within your educational setting or work environment. The reflective statements may draw on previous experiences or future plans to use the information from the reading. You are also encouraged to critique ideas in light of a biblical worldview. Summaries will be 100-125 words and will be in paragraph form, and the reflections will be 150-200 words. (Submit the Reading Summary by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Sunday in Modules/Weeks 1, 3, 4, 5, and on Friday in Module/Week 8, adding the new entries each time.)
STUDENT NAME:
Bridget Pruitt
Reading
Assignment
Main Principles
Reflective Comments
Reading Summary 1
Razik and Swanson
Data within the United States is processed based on four assessments. The assessments are reading, math, science, and other subjects. They are based on 4th, 8th, and 12th graders. They are also broken up into different ethnic groups. There are a lot of data that is alarming within the U.S. Data is based on household characteristics, family and peer influences, and student achievement. Also in this chapter it reaches on the education reform movement. Global forces and the specific causes that are concerning within the U.S. education system. What are the causes of failure within the U.S. school system and what changes can be implemented to improve the rapid downfall of our education system.
When all of the assessments were implemented on the different groups that provided data that broke up the groups that is when I feel our education system had been broken. Ways of instruction as well as curriculum has not changed much, however, all of the testing data is what has changed and the ways that the data is being implemented. Schools have become all about the numbers instead of the importance of what is being taught to our children. If the U.S. school systems were not all about the numbers and teaching our children how to read and write I feel that our schools would be more successful in all the data assessments that are being implemented. The problem is that special attention is given to achievement gaps among ethnic and economic groups instead of teaching everyone the same way that was taught years and years ago. With all the changes within the school systems and how they are wanting teachers to teach their children has caused a lot of confusion as well as stress upon the teachers as well as the children.
Van
Brummelen
First of all, I love this book. It goes into practices and prospective within the interaction between theory and practice. It explains why in public schools that God cannot be taught and how the Christian schools central theme is focused in the teachings of Jesus Christ. In this chapter it.
EDUC 380 Blog Post Samples Module 1 The Brain Below .docxtidwellveronique
EDUC 380 Blog Post Samples
Module 1: The Brain
Below are some student examples that are excellent blog posts for the first two prompts in Module 1
(The Brain). The goal for the discussion posts is to engage in the module materials directly and explore
some of the questions and issues in each module more deeply. The posts are very important for your
learning. Below you will find comments to help you understand how these students met the rubric
requirements. The rubric for blog posts is posted in the end of this document and is in the course
syllabus.
Blog Post # 1:
● Describe a time when you engaged in something adults might consider risky and/or thoughtless:
● How old were you?
● Why did you do it?
● What were you thinking at the time?
Think back to the article on risk-taking you read and to the video you watched on the teen brain. What
connections can you make between the lecture, the article, and/or the video?
Growing up, my family would take annual trips to the river in Laughlin, Nevada. We
would go with our family friends who had kids with a wide range of ages. I was 13 years
old at the time within the middle age range. A big activity at the river is jumping off of
rocks. My parents did not want my sisters and me to engage in this activity. During one
of the annual trips, I joined the older teenagers on a boat ride to the “jumping rock.”
Depending on how much risk they wanted to take, there are different levels for people
to jump off of. All of the older teens were jumping off of the highest level. I decided to
join the older teens and jump from the tallest rock. At the time, I wanted to do it
because all of the older teenagers were doing it. I wanted to be like them. This was not
an impulsive decision. I had thought about doing this activity the whole trip and decided
to go on the boat ride, knowing they were going to jump off the tallest rock. The article,
“Beautiful Brains,” explains, “Seeking sensation isn’t necessarily impulsive. You might
plan a sensation-seeking experience- a skydive or a fast car…” (Dobbs, 2011, p. 49).
By jumping off the rock with them, I thought this would change their view of me as an
older and more mature teenager. When they changed their opinion about me, it would
allow me to hang out with them all the time. I was taking more risks because I would get
a higher reward. This relates to the article, “Beautiful Brains,” which states, “Teens take
more risks not because they don’t understand the dangers but because they weigh risk
versus reward differently. In situations where risk can get them something they want,
they value the reward more heavily than adults do” (Dobbs, 2011, p. 54). By jumping off
the tallest rock, it gave me the reward of spending more time with the older teenagers.
If I had jumped off the shorter rock, I could have not been accepted into the group
because they did not view me as mature as themselves. Therefore, I would have been
penalized for not.
EDUC 741Course Project Part 1 Grading RubricCriteriaLevels .docxtidwellveronique
EDUC 741
Course Project: Part 1 Grading Rubric
Criteria
Levels of Achievement
Content 70%
Advanced
Proficient
Developing
Not Present
Analysis
13 to 14 points
The analysis thoroughly interprets and examines at least three referred journal articles for perspective, validity, and significance of the findings.
12 points
The analysis partially interprets and examines at least three referred journal articles for perspective, validity, and significance of the findings.
1 to 11 points
The analysis attempts of some aspects of analysis and interpretation of journal articles in a limited way. The review is more descriptive than analytical.
0 points
Not present
Use of Evidence and Relevant Outside Information
13 points
The analysis is thoroughly supported with relevant facts, arguments, examples, and details. Information outside the subject articles is often incorporated into the analysis.
11 to 12 points
The analysis is generally supported with relevant facts, arguments, and details. Information outside the subject articles is occasionally incorporated into the analysis.
1 to 10 points
The analysis is thoroughly supported with some facts, arguments, examples, and details. Information outside the subject articles is incorporated in a limited way into the analysis.
0 points
Not present
Organization and Development
13 points
The analysis is quite well-reasoned, indicating substantial breath and depth of thinking. The summary of each article is thorough and meaningful.
11 to 12 points
The analysis is generally well-reasoned, indicating some breath and depth of thinking. The summary of each article is generally sound.
1 to 10 points
The analysis has limited reasoning, indicating a surface understanding of the articles. The summary of each article is limited.
0 points
Not present
Body – Biblical Worldview
13 points
A biblical worldview perspective is clearly articulated and is supported by appropriate Scripture references, course requirements, and application.
11 to 12 points
A biblical worldview perspective is articulated but is not supported by Scripture or is not appropriate, and somewhat applies to course requirements and application.
1 to 10 points
A biblical worldview perspective is poorly articulated and is not supported by Scripture or is not appropriate, and does not apply to course requirements and application.
0 points
Not present
Structure 30%
Advanced
Proficient
Developing
Not Present
Grammar and Spelling
6 points
Correct spelling and grammar are used throughout the essay. There are 0–2 errors in grammar or spelling that distract the reader from the content.
5 points
There are 3–5 errors in grammar or spelling that distract the reader from the content.
1 to 4 points
There are 6–10 errors in grammar or spelling that distract the reader from the content.
0 points
There are more than 10 errors in the grammar or spelling that distract the reader from the content.
Sentence Structure and Mechanics
6 points
Sentences are well-phrased and varied in lengt.
EDUC 740
Prayer Reflection Report Grading Rubric
Criteria
Levels of Achievement
Content 70%
Advanced
Proficient
Developing
Not present
Structure & Organization
33 to 35 points
The paper has a clearly constructed introduction that builds the foundation for further reflection. The structure is clear, logical, and easy to follow. Each paragraph is focused and uses excellent transitions from previous paragraphs. The paper has a clear conclusion. Overall writing style is appropriate for a graduate-level course.
30 to 32 points
The paper has a constructed introduction that builds the foundation for further reflection. The structure is clear, logical, and easy to follow. Each paragraph is focused and uses transitions from previous paragraphs. The paper has a conclusion. Overall writing style is appropriate for a graduate-level course.
1 to 29 points
The paper has a constructed introduction that is beginning to build the foundation for further reflection. The structure is vague and difficult to follow. Not all paragraphs are focused and don’t always use transitions from previous paragraphs. The paper has a conclusion. Overall writing style is not appropriate for a graduate-level course.
0 points
Not present
Analysis
19 to 20 points
The content reflects higher-level thinking through critical self-evaluation and application of principles learned. Includes a discussion of your reflections based on your personal prayer journal, including any changes and/or positive things that you have seen occur in the lives of the leaders you have chosen. Includes specific examples of ways that you have seen changes in the lives of the leaders you have chosen. Includes specific examples of the impact of the assignment on your own life.
17 to 18 points
The content reflects thinking through self-evaluation and application of principles learned. Includes a discussion of your reflections based on your personal prayer journal, including any changes and/or positive things that you have seen occur in the lives of the leaders you have chosen. Includes examples of ways that you have seen changes in the lives of the leaders you have chosen. Includes examples of the impact of the assignment on your own life.
1 to 16 points
The content does not reflect higher-level thinking through critical self-evaluation and application of principles learned. Includes a vague discussion of your reflections based on your personal prayer journal, including any changes and/or positive things that you have seen occur in the lives of the leaders you have chosen. Includes minimal examples of ways that you have seen changes in the lives of the leaders you have chosen. Includes ambiguous examples of the impact of the assignment on your own life.
0 points
Not present
Support
14 to 15 points
Biblical references and principles are integrated into the paper appropriately, demonstrating an excellent understanding of biblical leadership principles.
13 points
Biblical references and principles are integrated.
EDUC 6733 Action Research for EducatorsReading LiteracyDraft.docxtidwellveronique
EDUC 6733 Action Research for Educators
Reading Literacy
Draft
Part A
The context of the classroom setting
In the first section of this action research project I will address the context of classroom setting. Although, it is as important as the teaching itself and understand it is essential in creating learning environments in which every student can thrive. According to Pallardy, context is a classroom’s characteristics such as the composition of the student body, classroom structures and resources. Furthermore, by establishing that context is dependent on student learning we are able to come up with an action research question that will be discussed in this essay. The action research will be on the reading workshop; Is motivation among students a big challenge when it comes to reading literacy?
In addition, a reading workshop is one way to structure a class. Developing strong reading skills in students is one of the key goals in an educational program. Reading workshops encourages the students to become better readers. To accommodate the children’s variability, I assess the children through instructing them to write journals on what they have read and giving them vocabulary tests on that week’s reading. This helps when it comes to identifying student with a reading problem and can be able to tailor lessons to individuals.
One of the concerns that I have experienced in this classroom setting of reading workshops is children’s motivation to read books that they have selected. Their ability to choose the right book and their commitment to stay with the book until they finished is also a concern when it comes to their motivation when reading books. These findings were drawn from the data of the journals and vocabulary test that I had assigned to them. The journals that they wrote the boys in the class performed poorly more than the girls. There is also the fact that the boys in the class didn’t find satisfaction in reading unlike the girls. The boys also were not reading books of their own accord unlike the girls in the class who spent hours with ‘series’ books and other chapter books.
The classroom has 24 students; 52% are boys and 48% are girls. The last two tests on vocabulary showed that girls performed more than the boys. Also, the literature review was discouraging: the boys were lagging the girls. This concerns may be a product of the independent reading workshop and of the freedom of children to choose their own books during that session.
Through observation and interaction with the boys that excelled in the literature reviews I noted that families had a strong impact and the boys that saw their fathers at home read were more likely to choose to read. Therefore, having spoken with the school administration I invited some of the male role models for the boys. I invited teachers, some of their fathers, other school male employees to visit the class and talk about their reading habits. Some of them were frank about their discovery about.
EDUC 637
Technology Portfolio InstructionsGeneral Overview
For this assignment, you will identify forms of and applications for technology for use in a middle school social studies classroom. You will be required to describe the general applications of these technologies, specific applied activities in the general social studies arena, and provide an evaluation.Learning Objective
You will develop a portfolio of technologies that could be used in a middle school social studies classroom, identifying general uses, aligned appropriate national social studies standards, potential activities, and good and bad points to that technology’s use.Assignment Process
1. Select 10 technologies (defined below) that can be used in an educational setting/environment for each of the categories listed below. Notice that I did not say educational or instructional technologies. This is to not restrict you to that search parameter, but rather to allow you to explore critically any technology that might have a pedagogical use. Select technologies representing:
a. Hardware devices
b. Business/productivity software (i.e., Microsoft Office)
c. Web-based technologies (delivered via the Internet)
d. Multimedia software (audio, video, graphical)
e. Games/entertainment
2. Then review each technology answering the following questions in 1–2 paragraphs for each question (best recorded in a word-processing program like Microsoft Word as a multi-page document). Questions to answer include:
a. What are the general functions and purposes of this technology?
b. What types of social studies objectives/goals could be met by this technology and how? Please relate to an NCSS main theme (or more than 1 if appropriate).
c. What, in your opinion, are the good and bad points of using this technology in a pedagogical setting? Consider this a risk analysis.
3. Turn in the completed assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Sunday of Module/Week 2.
EDUC 637
Literature Review InstructionsGeneral Overview
Please read the instructions and rubric for the Literature Review assignment BEFORE you sign-up for a topic. You will want to select a topic wisely so you will be able to identify 5 trends in your research.
For this assignment, you will select a topic in the general area of social studies instruction in middle grade education and examine accompanying literature related to that topic to identify the latest trends and issues. Ultimately, you will compile these results into a PowerPoint presentation of around 10 slides to identify these trends.Learning Objective
You will develop a presentation identifying general trends in middle-grade social studies education associated with a set of articles in the content area.Assignment Process
1. Begin classifying and compiling articles and sub-topics into groups of information for presentation (note 5 trends).
2. You should have scanned at least 30 articles in the process, which then need to be provided as part of this assignment in an attached bi.
EDUC 364 The Role of Cultural Diversity in Schooling A dialecti.docxtidwellveronique
EDUC 364: The Role of Cultural Diversity in Schooling
A dialectical journal is one in which you engage in conversation with the text. This involves pulling quotes from the text, and providing your reaction, thoughts, analysis and/or questions about what you’ve read. When reading a chapter from Spring(chapter2 and 3), choose 3-5 short passages/selections from each assigned chapter on which to reflect. See the example below. You can format your DJ in a chart format (see next page for template), or you can format it simply as a question/answer format like below. The goal is to use the DJ to think through your reactions and prepare for discussion. Submit your DJ to Cougar Courses prior to class, and if you don’t have your computer with you in class, print it out so you have it with you for a class discussion
Example
Quote: “Faced with the world’s migration of people’s, some countries, such as Singapore, have maintained cultural pluralism by providing public schools that use the child’s home language and reflect the cultural values of the child’s home. Through the use of educational methods that promote cultural pluralism, Singapore has been able to maintain Chinese, Malay, and Indian cultures and languages. Therefore, there have been different educational approaches to the intersection of cultures resulting from globalization...Minority cultures in the United State have primarily experienced cultural genocide, deculturalization, and denial of education. Immigrant groups have mostly experienced assimilation and hybridity.” (Chapter 1).
Response: This is always what I come back to when thinking about American education. We could have chosen a different path, a different approach educating the various groups of children that have come through the school system. But instead of seeing schooling primarily as a democratizing tool, the founders and those in government who came after them saw schooling as a tool for deculturalization, for imposing hegemony. What is most frustrating is how to tease out how our current system still contains the legacy of those oppressive institutional choices. Seeing those remnants for what they are--clearly--is the only way to change the system to truly benefit all kids.
.
EDUC 144 Writing Tips The writing assignments in this cla.docxtidwellveronique
EDUC 144 Writing Tips
The writing assignments in this class require students to engage in critical thinking and analysis,
producing papers that go beyond simple summaries of course readings by utilizing concepts, ideas, and
findings in course readings to critically analyze contemporary schooling and academic achievement in
the United States. Below is a list of suggestions to help you write strong papers that are critical and
analytical.
The introductory paragraph should briefly mention the topic and purpose/focus of your paper and state
your thesis in clear, specific terms (i.e. “In this paper, I will argue…” or “I will contend...,” or “I will
demonstrate…”).
Each paragraph in the body of the paper should be tightly organized around one main idea. Each
paragraph should build on previous ones and provide concrete examples/findings from the week’s
readings that serve as data that support your analysis, or examples from your own experiences and
observations of schooling that serve as evidence in support of your analysis. If you are drawing on a
specific theoretical concept(s) or idea(s) in your analysis, remember to clearly define and explain the
concept(s) or idea(s) before using that concept(s) or idea(s) to investigate and analyze particular aspects
of contemporary schooling.
The concluding paragraph needs to restate the thesis and main points addressed in the paper.
Sometimes writers do not know what their argument is until they have reached the end of the paper—or
the thesis has changed by the end. If either of these happens to you, be sure to put your thesis in the first
paragraph as well and/or make sure that you are making the same argument throughout the paper.
Things to keep in mind, at the level of the paragraph:
Make sure your comments are relevant to the topic at hand: one way to do this is to make an outline of
each paragraph’s main idea; each one should clearly relate to the topic and focus/purpose or thesis of
your paper. It is writer’s responsibility to select relevant concepts or ideas, examples of research
findings from the week’s readings, and/or personal experiences and observations that relate directly to
the topic and purpose/focus of the paper. It is not appropriate to expect the reader to do this instead.
Remember, examples/research findings and personal experiences and observations are not “obviously”
evidence in support of your analysis until you explicitly explain how these examples/findings/
experiences/observations support the claims in your analysis.
Make sure each paragraph’s main idea is clearly connected to your thesis.
*Smoothly transition between paragraphs: connect first line of new paragraph with main idea of
previous paragraph.
*Stick to the facts at hand—do not overstate your case.
Things to keep in mind, at the level of the sentence:
*Tighten sentence structure: combine sentences when possible by eliminating redundant information.
*Employ p.
EDUC 1300- LEARNING FRAMEWORK
Portfolio Page Prompts
INTRODUCTION
This page introduces, not you, but your portfolio. . Invite people into the portfolio and give them a reason for
exploring further Convey your purpose in creating the portfolio. Include a picture of yourself, and a quote
that is meaningful to you. No attachment is needed on this page. (10 points)
ABOUT ME
This page introduces you. Share information about yourself – your family, hobbies, work, and what you enjoy.
Don’t just TELL people, SHOW who you are, too. Things you might include: photos, images, or video/links
that interest you. Attach your Quality World Essay or another paper about yourself to this page. (10 points)
GOALS
List your long-term goals: personal, education, career. Identify the short-term and intermediate goals that will
help you progress toward these long-term goals. Include images that help you and your viewer visualize your
goals. Attach your degree plan/Timeline assignment to show your academic plans/goals. (10 points)
LEARNING
This page showcases what you’ve learned about your learning. Collect information you’ve gathered about
yourself and how you learn, such as learning styles inventories, personality type indicators, and your
Strengthsquest assessment. Interpret those results and draw conclusions about yourself from this evidence and
write about it. Attach your Insight Report from Strengthsquest so your viewer can learn more about your top
5 strengths or another assessment report which have helped you identify how you learn. (15 points)
THINKING
What have you learned this semester about critical thinking? What have you created that demonstrates the
quality of your thinking? Select examples and identify these qualities in your reflection. Attach an
assignment/paper from this class or another that show your thinking abilities. (15 points)
RESEARCH
On this page, post a question that you’ve selected to research and write what you found. What did you learn
about using the online databases? How will that help you in future classes? Attach your annotated
bibliography/research organizers and/or a research paper from another course. (15 points)
REFLECTION:
Your Introduction page described the purpose of the portfolio. On this page, provide a conclusion. Reflect on
your experience in the course and semester in creating this portfolio. Consider the following prompts:
What expectations or assumptions did you have before the course began? Were they valid or invalid?
How has the course contributed to your understanding of yourself and others?
What impact did the course have on your understanding of your quality world?
How do you now assume responsibility for your learning? What thinking and behaviors will you further
develop on your journey to becoming an autonomous learner?
(15 points)
EDUC 1300 Learning Framework Grading Rubric
Page Unsatisfactory
.
EDU734 Teaching and Learning Environment Week 5.docxtidwellveronique
EDU734: Teaching and
Learning Environment
Week 5: Curriculum
Development
Topic goals
To gain an understanding of the concept of
curriculum development and its importance
To gain an understanding of how curriculum
is implemented in different cultural contexts
Task – Forum
Do you think that the current school curriculum needs
to be adapted more to the modern culture? If so, in
what ways do you think it can be done?
What do you consider to be the implications for the
nature of valid knowledge in the future school curriculum?
EDU734: Teaching and Learning Environment Page 1
EDU734: Teaching and
Learning Environment
5.1 Introduction
Curriculum lies at the heart of educational policies and practices.
They are are highly political documents which convey ideological positions about
the type of education that should be given in different cultural contexts and the
citizenship values that can be shared by the citizen of a state (Apple, 2004).
Each society has its own values and beliefs which they want to be translated into
educational objectives via the curriculum.
“Curriculum is a comprehensive plan for an educational programme/institute/
course to offer new or improved manpower to accomplish the rising needs of a
dynamic society” (Pillai, 2015).
5.1.1 Orientations to curriculum
Child-centred
Society-centred
Knowledge-centred
Eclectic
5.1.2 Determinants of the curriculum
Basic needs
Social aspects
Cultural factors
Individual talents
Ideals: intellectual, moral, aesthetic, religious
Tradition
(Pillai, 2015)
EDU734: Teaching and Learning Environment Page 2
EDU734: Teaching and
Learning Environment
5.2 Definition of Curriculum Development
Curriculum development is defined as the process which is planned, purposeful,
progressive, and systematic in order to create positive improvements in the
educational system.
The curriculum is affected by any changes or developments that affect society
(Alvior, 2014).
It needs to correspond to those changes but at the same time to respect all
people despite of gender, ethnicity, disability, religion etc. (Symeonidou and
Mavrou, 2014).
2. How can
1. What learning 3. How can
4. How can the
educational experiences learning
effectiveness of
purposes that are likely to experiences be
learning
should the be useful in organised for
experiences be
school seek to attaining these effective
evaluated?
attain? objectives be instruction?
selected?
Diagram 5.1: Four questions for the organization and development of the
curriculum (Tyler, 1949, cited in Howard, 2007)
EDU734: Teaching and Learning Environment Page 3
EDU734: Teaching and
Learning Environment
5.2.1 Four principles for the development of any curriculum:
Def.
EDU 505 – Contemporary Issues in EducationCOURSE DESCRIPTION.docxtidwellveronique
This course examines contemporary issues in education through analyzing theories, research, and practices. It discusses national and global education initiatives and how public policy impacts schools. The course also evaluates the future of education in developed and developing countries. Students will examine the historical context of issues, identify components of educational perspectives, and analyze how demographics, technology, teaching/learning, and funding sources affect education. Required readings include textbook chapters and research articles on topics like the history of public education, teacher professionalization, equity and diversity, school reform movements, standards-based education, and school climate/bullying issues. Coursework involves discussions, analyses of case studies, and a final project.
EDU 3338 Lesson Plan TemplateCandidate NameCooperatin.docxtidwellveronique
EDU 3338 Lesson Plan Template
Candidate Name:
Cooperating Teacher Name:
Placement Site:
Grade Level:
Subject:
Length of Lesson:
Lesson Title:
Date of Lesson:
Learning Central Focus
Central Focus
What is the central focus for the content in the learning segment?
Content Standard
What standard(s) are most relevant to the learning goals?
Student Learning Goal(s)/ Objective(s)
Skills/procedures
What are the specific learning goal(s) for student in this lesson?
Concepts and reasoning/problem solving/thinking/strategies[footnoteRef:1] [1: The prompt provided here should be modified to reflect subject specific aspects of learning. Language here is mathematics related. See candidate edTPA handbooks for the “Making Good Choices” resource for subject specific components. ]
What are the specific learning goal(s) for students in this lesson?
Prior Academic Knowledge and Conceptions
What knowledge, skills, and concepts must students already know to be successful with this lesson?
What prior knowledge and/or gaps in knowledge do these students have that are necessary to support the learning of the skills and concepts for this lesson?
Theoretical Principles and/or Research–Based Best Practices
Why are the learning tasks for this lesson appropriate for your students?
Materials
What materials does the teacher need for this lesson?
What materials do the students need for this lesson?
Assessments, Instructional Strategies, and Learning Tasks
Description of what the teacher (you) will be doing and/or what the students will be doing.
Launch
__________ Minutes
How will you start the lesson to engage and motivate students in learning?
Pre-Assessment
How will you find out what students already know about the lesson objective?
What tangible pre-assessments will you administer?
How will you evaluate student performance on the pre-assessment?
Instruction
__________ Minutes
What will you do to engage students in developing understanding of the lesson objective(s)?
How will you link the new content (skills and concepts) to students’ prior academic learning and their personal/cultural and community assets?
What will you say and do? What questions will you ask?
How will you engage students to help them understand the concepts?
What will students do?
How will you determine if students are meeting the intended learning objectives?
Structured Practice and
Application
__________ Minutes
How will you give students the opportunity to practice so you can provide feedback?
How will students apply what they have learned?
How will you structure opportunities for students to work with partners or in groups? What criteria will you use when forming groups?
Formative Assessment
What formative assessment techniques will you utilize to determine if students are meeting the intended learning objectives?
Differentiation/ Planned Support
How will you provide students access to learning based on individual and group need.
EDU 3215 Lesson Plan Template & Elements Name Andres Rod.docxtidwellveronique
This lesson plan template provides guidelines for developing a lesson plan that integrates an English Language Arts standard with a standard from another subject area. The template includes sections for listing applicable Common Core standards, crafting essential questions, outlining objectives and instructional sequences, identifying vocabulary, planning for differentiation and assessment, and anticipating outcomes and difficulties. The template is meant to guide teachers in developing interdisciplinary lessons that incorporate ELA skills into other content areas.
EDST 1100R SITUATED LEARNING EDST 1100 N Situated Learning .docxtidwellveronique
EDST 1100R: SITUATED LEARNING
EDST 1100 N: Situated Learning
Thursdays, 2.30 – 5.30
Keele Campus, Mac 050B
Winter, 2020
Instructor: Dr. Lorin Schwarz
Email: [email protected]
Office Hours: ½ hour after class, or by appointment
*
Learning is intentional and contextual, and it involves developing systems and structures that not only allow but also encourage organization members to learn and grow together –to develop “communities of practice.”
-Preskill and Torres
The idea of a subject that calls to us is more than metaphor. In the community of truth, the knower is not the only active agent –the subject itself participates in the dialectic of knowing...geologists are people who hear rocks speak, historians are people who hear the voices of the long dead, writers are people who hear the music of words. The things of the world call to us, and we are drawn to them –each of us to different things, as each is drawn to different friends.
--Parker J. Palmer
Teaching is a complex, relational, and creative event. When I teach, I am simultaneously involved in several dynamic relations: with myself, with my everyday world, with my subject matter, and with my students. I cannot really teach if I am not engaged with my students or if my students are not involved with me.
--Carol S. Becker
The relationship between our physical constraints and the assertion of our freedom is not a 'problem' requiring a solution. It is simply the way human beings are. Our condition is to be ambiguous to the core, and our task is to learn to manage the movement and uncertainty in our existence, not banish it...the ambiguous human condition means tirelessly trying to take control of things. We have to do two near-impossible things at once: understand ourselves as limited by circumstances, and yet continue to pursue our projects as though we are truly in control.
--Sarah Bakewell
Course Description
Welcome to EDST 1100: “Situated Learning.” As described in the university calendar, the aims of this seminar are as follows:
“This course is framed around situated learning theories in relation to the provisioning of educational experiences in a variety of contexts (e.g., early familial experiences, formal educational experiences, cultural educational experiences, employment educational experiences). Students are first introduced to the major principles of families of learning theories (e.g., behaviourism, cognitivism, social learning theory, social constructivism). This introduction is followed by in-depth study of situated learning theory drawing from Lave and Wenger (1991) a seminal text in the field. Students engage in exploring exemplars of situated learning drawing from theory to understand the factors at play in the exemplars because, as situated learning theory would suggest, the representations of situated learning theory must be situated in relation to reference points. Given any particular learning engagement’s situational parameters, stu.
EDU 151 Thematic Unit Required ComponentsThematic Unit Requireme.docxtidwellveronique
EDU 151 Thematic Unit Required Components
Thematic Unit Requirements
Component Parts of Selected Thematic Unit
A) Study Topic - Select a specific appropriate topic reflecting children’s interests and experiences. Topics that are too broad or not developmentally applicable will not be considered. Examples of this type of topic include Ocean, Rain Forest, Outer Space. Examples of specific appropriate topics are shoes, worms, rocks.
A)
B) Age Level –“Birth through Second Grade” Select an age or grade level.
B)
C) Focus - Develop a one-sentence focus statement that summarizes the direction and intent of the unit.
C)
D) Objectives - Identify three or four specific objectives you wish children to master by the completion of the unit, use the appropriate NC Early Learning Standards for the age of the child.
D)
E) Resources - You will need to cite all resources used throughout the study topic. For example: Internet resources (specific web site), printed resources, magazines, newspaper, journals, audio/visual resources, field trips, etc.
E)
F) Extensions Activities - Complete the attached Lesson Plan Forms in detail. You should also include two extension activities (extended activities or enrichment activities).
F)
G) Discussion Questions – Include at least three open-ended questions that will help children think about the topic in varied and divergent ways.
G)
H) Literature Selections - Select children’s books that relate to the theme and are developmentally appropriate for the children you will be working with
H)
I) Culminating activity - The culminating activity is a project or activity that engages children in a meaningful summarization of their discoveries and leads to new ideas, understandings and connections.
J) Evaluation - Devise appropriate means of evaluating children’s progress throughout the unit based on the objectives chosen above.
Student Name: _________ Date: _________
Assessment Name: Study Topic Unit
This assessment is used in every section of EDU 151
This assessment is designed to focus on Standards #4 and #5
This assessment is designed to focus on Supportive Skill # 3, #4, and #5
D/F
C
B
A
100
Unsatisfactory
Average
Good
Very Good
Standard or
Supportive Skill
Key Elements
Basic Knowledge
Comprehension
Application
Synthesis
Comments
Standard 4: Using Developmentally Effective Approaches to Connect with Children and Families
(Attach Weekly Planning Form to Standard 4c in School Chapters)
4c. Using a broad repertoire of developmentally appropriate teaching/learning approaches
Activities are not developmentally appropriate and do not incorporate a range of teaching approaches
0 – 12
Activities are mostly developmentally appropriate and incorporate a few teaching approaches
13
Activities are developmentally appropriate and incorporate varied teaching approaches
14
Activities are developmentally appropriate and incorporate a wide array of teaching approache.
EDSP 429
Differentiated Instruction PowerPoint Instructions
The purpose of this assignment is to produce a PowerPoint presentation that demonstrates your ability to apply course concepts and vocabulary to the topic of differentiated instruction.
Differentiated instruction is a form of instruction that seeks to maximize each student’s growth by recognizing that students have different ways of learning, different interests, and different ways of responding to instruction. In practice, it involves offering several different learning experiences in response to students’ varied needs. You will use theories, vocabulary, and models to construct a PowerPoint presentation that gives an overview of differentiated instruction.
1. Construct the PowerPoint presentation as if you were addressing peers in an in-service training on differentiated instruction.
2. The PowerPoint presentation must be 7–12 slides.
3. The PowerPoint presentation must address the following topics:
· Definition of differentiated instruction
· Advantages to students with special needs
· At least 3 specific examples of differentiated instruction
· References page
The Differentiated Instruction PowerPoint is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 5.
EDSP 429
D
IFFERENTIATED
I
NSTRUCTION
P
OWER
P
OINT
I
NSTRUCTIONS
The purpose of
this assignment is to produce a
PowerPoint
p
resentation that demonstrates
your
ability to apply course concepts and vocabulary to the topic of
d
ifferentiated
i
nstruction
.
Differentiated
instruction is a form of instruction that seeks to maximize each student
’
s growth
by recognizing that students have different ways of learning, different interests, and different
ways of responding to instruction. In practice, it involves offering several
different learning
experiences in response to students
’
varied needs.
You will
use theories, vocabulary, and models
to construct a
PowerPoint
p
resentation that gives an overview of differentiated
instruction
.
1.
Construct the
PowerPoint
presentation as if yo
u were addressing peers in an in
-
service
training on differentiated instruction.
2.
The
PowerPoint
presentation
must
be 7
–
12
slides
.
3.
The
PowerPoint
presentation
must
address the following topics:
·
Definition of differentiated
i
nstruction
·
Advantages to student
s with special needs
·
At least 3
specific examples
of differentiated instruction
·
References
page
The
Differentiated Instruction
PowerPoint
is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of
M
odule/
W
eek
5
.
EDSP 429
DIFFERENTIATED INSTRUCTION POWERPOINT INSTRUCTIONS
The purpose of this assignment is to produce a PowerPoint presentation that demonstrates your
ability to apply course concepts and vocabulary to the topic of differentiated instruction.
Differentiated instruction is a form of instruction that seeks to maximize each student’s growth
by recognizing that students have different ways of learning, different interests,.
EDSP 429Fact Sheet on Disability Categories InstructionsThe pu.docxtidwellveronique
EDSP 429
Fact Sheet on Disability Categories Instructions
The purpose of this assignment is to produce a Fact Sheet that demonstrates your ability to articulate the characteristics of each of the IDEA recognized categories of disabilities.
The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act guarantees a free appropriate public education to eligible children with disabilities. It specifically identifies 13 categories of disabilities that are entitled to special education services. Using relevant reliable websites and your text, you are to construct a Fact Sheet that explains each of the disability categories in terms that are understandable for the general public.
1. Develop the Fact Sheet as if it would be used to educate parents or others in the general public about disabilities that receive special education services.
2. Include an introduction stating the purpose of the fact sheet and the information provided.
3. Each disability category must be fully defined.
4. A minimum of 3 sources should be cited and referenced, one of which should be the textbook.
5. A reference page must be included.
The Fact Sheet on Disability Categories is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 2.
EDSP 429
F
ACT
S
HEET ON
D
ISABILITY
C
ATEGORIES
I
NSTRUCTIONS
The purpose of
this assignment is to produce a
Fact Sheet
that demonstrates
your
ability to
articulate the charac
teristics of each of the IDEA
recognized categories of disabilities.
The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act guarantees a free appropriate public education to
eligible children with disabilities. It specifically identifies 13 categories of disabilities that are
entitled to special education services. Using
relevan
t reliable websites and your text, you are to
construct a Fact Sheet that explains each of the disability categories in terms that are
understandable for the general public.
1.
Develop the Fact Sheet as if it would be used to educate parents or others in th
e general
public about disabilities that receive special education services.
2.
Include an introduction stating the purpose of the fact sheet and the information provided.
3.
Each disability category must be fully defined
.
4.
A minimum of 3 sources should be cited
and referenced, one of which should be the
textbook.
5.
A reference page must be included.
The
Fact Sheet on Disability Categories
is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of
M
odule/
W
eek
2
.
EDSP 429
FACT SHEET ON DISABILITY CATEGORIES INSTRUCTIONS
The purpose of this assignment is to produce a Fact Sheet that demonstrates your ability to
articulate the characteristics of each of the IDEA recognized categories of disabilities.
The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act guarantees a free appropriate public education to
eligible children with disabilities. It specifically identifies 13 categories of disabilities that are
entitled to special education services. Using relevant reliable websites and your.
EDSP 370Individualized Education Plan (IEP) InstructionsThe .docxtidwellveronique
EDSP 370
Individualized Education Plan (IEP) Instructions
The purpose of this assignment is to provide a means of practice in IEP development. You will be expected to produce an IEP – full in its overall scope but not in-depth. This will allow you to apply the knowledge learned within the course as a whole. The IEP will be written in three phases in order to provide assistance and feedback as well as allow for improvements. ONLY DO PHASE 1. STOP WORKING WHEN YOU SEE THIS:
THIS IS THE END OF THE WEEK 3 ASSIGNMENT.
· Phase 1
You will complete the following components of the IEP:
Notice
Cover Page
Factors
Present Level of Performance (PLOP)
Diploma Status
Phase 11 and 111 will get competed in weeks to follow (DO NOT COMPLETE THIS PORTION).
· Phase II
You will revise IEP 1 based on instructor comments and complete the
following additional components:
Goals
Objectives
Accommodations/Modifications
Participation in State Accountability and Assessment System
· Phase III
You will revise IEP II based on instructor comments and complete the
following additional components:
Least Restrictive Environment (LRE)
Transition
Extended School Year (ESY)
Parent Consent
You will be using the Michael Jones case study which has been provided with the instucstions to this. All portions of the IEP will pertain to Michael. It is understood that it will be difficult to fully consider the development of an IEP without more exhaustive details considering Michael’s educational and functional strengths and weaknesses.
To complete the IEP, it will be necessary to review all of the assigned reading and presentations. You may also research current information on Virginia Department of Education’s website. These resources provide valuable information and examples to help create the IEP. You will use the IEP template that is a sample created from the VA DOE’s sample IEP, also located in the Assignment Instruction folder for Module/Week 3.
Page 1 of 1
SAMPLE
School Division Letterhead
IEP MEETING NOTICE
Date:
To:
Susie and Robert Jones________________
and
Michael______________________________________
Parent(s)/Adult Student Student (if appropriate or if transition will be discussed)
You are invited to attend an IEP meeting regarding Michael Jones
Student’s Name
PURPOSE OF MEETING (check all that apply):
· IEP Development or Review
· IEP Amendment
· Transition: Postsecondary Goals, Transition Services
· Manifestation Determination
· Other: ________________________________________________________________________________
The meeting has been scheduled for:
Date Time Location
Meetings are scheduled at a mutually agreed upon place and time by y.
The document provides instructions for an assignment in EDSP 377 that involves creating a lesson plan to teach a pre-K student with autism named Johnsaan to ask for help using words. Students are asked to develop a 2-page lesson plan incorporating the 5 major components outlined in Chapter 5 and a 1-page reflection. The lesson plan should teach Johnsaan to replace grunting and hand waving with asking for help verbally in order to reduce his challenging behaviors. The reflection should address the rationale for the lesson, review the planning process, and identify challenges and solutions.
EDSP 377
Autism Interventions
1. Applied Behavior Analysis (ABA)
2. Auditory Integration Training (AIT)
3. Biochemical Therapies
4. Circle of Friends
5. Computer Aided Instruction
6. Dietary Restrictions and/or Supplements (including enzymes and vitamins)
7. DIR/Floortime Approach (Greenspan)
8. Discrete Trial Training (DTT)
9. Early Intervention Behavioral Intervention (EIBI)
10. Early Start Denver Model (ESDM), for young children with autism
11. Functional Communication Training (FCT)
12. Holding Therapies
13. Hyperbaric Oxygen Chamber Treatments
14. Joint Attention Interventions
15. Music Therapy
16. Naturalistic Intervention
17. Options Therapy (Son Rise)
18. Peer Mediated Instruction and Intervention
19. Pharmacological Approaches
20. Picture Exchange Communication System (PECS)
21. Pivotal Response Training (PRT)
22. Play Groups
23. Power Cards
24. Relationship Development Intervention (RDI)
25. Research on Connection with Mercury and the MMR to autism
26. Research on Siblings of Children with Autism
27. Research on Transition Services for Employment
28. Research on Transition to the Adult World
29. Research on Twin Studies
30. SCERTS Model (Social Communication, Emotional Regulation, and Transactional Support)
31. Sensory Integration
32. Sign Language
33. Social Stories
34. TEACCH (Treatment and Education of Autistic and related Communication-handicapped Children)
35. Visual Strategies and Supports
36. Video Modeling
A
UTISM
I
NTERVENTIONS
1.
Applied Behavior Analysis (ABA)
2.
Aud
itory Integration Training (AIT)
3.
Biochemical Therapies
4.
Circle of Friends
5.
Computer Aided Instruction
6.
Dietary
R
estrictions and/or
S
upplements (including enzymes and vitamins)
7.
DIR/Floortime Approach (Greenspan)
8.
Discrete Trial Training
(DTT)
9.
Early Intervention Behavioral Intervention (EIBI)
10.
Early Start Denver Model (ESDM)
,
for young children with autism
11.
Functional Communication Training (FCT)
12.
Holding Therapies
13.
Hyperbaric Oxygen C
hamber Treatments
14.
Joint
Attention Interventions
15.
Music Therapy
16.
Naturalistic Intervention
17.
Options Therapy (Son Rise)
18.
Peer
M
ediated
I
nstruction and
I
ntervention
19.
Pharmacological
A
pproaches
20.
Picture Exchange Communication System (PECS)
21.
Pivotal Response Training
(PRT)
22.
Play Groups
23.
Power Cards
24.
Relationship Development Intervention (RDI)
25.
Research on
C
onnection with
M
ercury and the MMR to autism
26.
Research on
S
iblings of
C
hildren with
A
utism
27.
Research on
T
ransition
S
ervices for
E
mployment
28.
Research on
T
ransition to the
A
dult
W
orld
29.
Research on
T
win
S
tudies
30.
SCERTS Model (Social
Communication
,
Emotional Regulation
, and
Transactional Support)
31.
Sensory Integration
32.
Sign
L
anguage
33.
Social Stories
34.
TEACCH (Treatment and Education of Autistic and related
Communication
-
handicapped C
h
ildren)
35.
Visual Strategies
and .
LAND USE LAND COVER AND NDVI OF MIRZAPUR DISTRICT, UPRAHUL
This Dissertation explores the particular circumstances of Mirzapur, a region located in the
core of India. Mirzapur, with its varied terrains and abundant biodiversity, offers an optimal
environment for investigating the changes in vegetation cover dynamics. Our study utilizes
advanced technologies such as GIS (Geographic Information Systems) and Remote sensing to
analyze the transformations that have taken place over the course of a decade.
The complex relationship between human activities and the environment has been the focus
of extensive research and worry. As the global community grapples with swift urbanization,
population expansion, and economic progress, the effects on natural ecosystems are becoming
more evident. A crucial element of this impact is the alteration of vegetation cover, which plays a
significant role in maintaining the ecological equilibrium of our planet.Land serves as the foundation for all human activities and provides the necessary materials for
these activities. As the most crucial natural resource, its utilization by humans results in different
'Land uses,' which are determined by both human activities and the physical characteristics of the
land.
The utilization of land is impacted by human needs and environmental factors. In countries
like India, rapid population growth and the emphasis on extensive resource exploitation can lead
to significant land degradation, adversely affecting the region's land cover.
Therefore, human intervention has significantly influenced land use patterns over many
centuries, evolving its structure over time and space. In the present era, these changes have
accelerated due to factors such as agriculture and urbanization. Information regarding land use and
cover is essential for various planning and management tasks related to the Earth's surface,
providing crucial environmental data for scientific, resource management, policy purposes, and
diverse human activities.
Accurate understanding of land use and cover is imperative for the development planning
of any area. Consequently, a wide range of professionals, including earth system scientists, land
and water managers, and urban planners, are interested in obtaining data on land use and cover
changes, conversion trends, and other related patterns. The spatial dimensions of land use and
cover support policymakers and scientists in making well-informed decisions, as alterations in
these patterns indicate shifts in economic and social conditions. Monitoring such changes with the
help of Advanced technologies like Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems is
crucial for coordinated efforts across different administrative levels. Advanced technologies like
Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems
9
Changes in vegetation cover refer to variations in the distribution, composition, and overall
structure of plant communities across different temporal and spatial scales. These changes can
occur natural.
Chapter wise All Notes of First year Basic Civil Engineering.pptxDenish Jangid
Chapter wise All Notes of First year Basic Civil Engineering
Syllabus
Chapter-1
Introduction to objective, scope and outcome the subject
Chapter 2
Introduction: Scope and Specialization of Civil Engineering, Role of civil Engineer in Society, Impact of infrastructural development on economy of country.
Chapter 3
Surveying: Object Principles & Types of Surveying; Site Plans, Plans & Maps; Scales & Unit of different Measurements.
Linear Measurements: Instruments used. Linear Measurement by Tape, Ranging out Survey Lines and overcoming Obstructions; Measurements on sloping ground; Tape corrections, conventional symbols. Angular Measurements: Instruments used; Introduction to Compass Surveying, Bearings and Longitude & Latitude of a Line, Introduction to total station.
Levelling: Instrument used Object of levelling, Methods of levelling in brief, and Contour maps.
Chapter 4
Buildings: Selection of site for Buildings, Layout of Building Plan, Types of buildings, Plinth area, carpet area, floor space index, Introduction to building byelaws, concept of sun light & ventilation. Components of Buildings & their functions, Basic concept of R.C.C., Introduction to types of foundation
Chapter 5
Transportation: Introduction to Transportation Engineering; Traffic and Road Safety: Types and Characteristics of Various Modes of Transportation; Various Road Traffic Signs, Causes of Accidents and Road Safety Measures.
Chapter 6
Environmental Engineering: Environmental Pollution, Environmental Acts and Regulations, Functional Concepts of Ecology, Basics of Species, Biodiversity, Ecosystem, Hydrological Cycle; Chemical Cycles: Carbon, Nitrogen & Phosphorus; Energy Flow in Ecosystems.
Water Pollution: Water Quality standards, Introduction to Treatment & Disposal of Waste Water. Reuse and Saving of Water, Rain Water Harvesting. Solid Waste Management: Classification of Solid Waste, Collection, Transportation and Disposal of Solid. Recycling of Solid Waste: Energy Recovery, Sanitary Landfill, On-Site Sanitation. Air & Noise Pollution: Primary and Secondary air pollutants, Harmful effects of Air Pollution, Control of Air Pollution. . Noise Pollution Harmful Effects of noise pollution, control of noise pollution, Global warming & Climate Change, Ozone depletion, Greenhouse effect
Text Books:
1. Palancharmy, Basic Civil Engineering, McGraw Hill publishers.
2. Satheesh Gopi, Basic Civil Engineering, Pearson Publishers.
3. Ketki Rangwala Dalal, Essentials of Civil Engineering, Charotar Publishing House.
4. BCP, Surveying volume 1
Philippine Edukasyong Pantahanan at Pangkabuhayan (EPP) CurriculumMJDuyan
(𝐓𝐋𝐄 𝟏𝟎𝟎) (𝐋𝐞𝐬𝐬𝐨𝐧 𝟏)-𝐏𝐫𝐞𝐥𝐢𝐦𝐬
𝐃𝐢𝐬𝐜𝐮𝐬𝐬 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐄𝐏𝐏 𝐂𝐮𝐫𝐫𝐢𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐮𝐦 𝐢𝐧 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐏𝐡𝐢𝐥𝐢𝐩𝐩𝐢𝐧𝐞𝐬:
- Understand the goals and objectives of the Edukasyong Pantahanan at Pangkabuhayan (EPP) curriculum, recognizing its importance in fostering practical life skills and values among students. Students will also be able to identify the key components and subjects covered, such as agriculture, home economics, industrial arts, and information and communication technology.
𝐄𝐱𝐩𝐥𝐚𝐢𝐧 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐍𝐚𝐭𝐮𝐫𝐞 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝐒𝐜𝐨𝐩𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐚𝐧 𝐄𝐧𝐭𝐫𝐞𝐩𝐫𝐞𝐧𝐞𝐮𝐫:
-Define entrepreneurship, distinguishing it from general business activities by emphasizing its focus on innovation, risk-taking, and value creation. Students will describe the characteristics and traits of successful entrepreneurs, including their roles and responsibilities, and discuss the broader economic and social impacts of entrepreneurial activities on both local and global scales.
How to Setup Warehouse & Location in Odoo 17 InventoryCeline George
In this slide, we'll explore how to set up warehouses and locations in Odoo 17 Inventory. This will help us manage our stock effectively, track inventory levels, and streamline warehouse operations.
This presentation was provided by Rebecca Benner, Ph.D., of the American Society of Anesthesiologists, for the second session of NISO's 2024 Training Series "DEIA in the Scholarly Landscape." Session Two: 'Expanding Pathways to Publishing Careers,' was held June 13, 2024.
Beyond Degrees - Empowering the Workforce in the Context of Skills-First.pptxEduSkills OECD
Iván Bornacelly, Policy Analyst at the OECD Centre for Skills, OECD, presents at the webinar 'Tackling job market gaps with a skills-first approach' on 12 June 2024
Level 3 NCEA - NZ: A Nation In the Making 1872 - 1900 SML.pptHenry Hollis
The History of NZ 1870-1900.
Making of a Nation.
From the NZ Wars to Liberals,
Richard Seddon, George Grey,
Social Laboratory, New Zealand,
Confiscations, Kotahitanga, Kingitanga, Parliament, Suffrage, Repudiation, Economic Change, Agriculture, Gold Mining, Timber, Flax, Sheep, Dairying,
A Visual Guide to 1 Samuel | A Tale of Two HeartsSteve Thomason
These slides walk through the story of 1 Samuel. Samuel is the last judge of Israel. The people reject God and want a king. Saul is anointed as the first king, but he is not a good king. David, the shepherd boy is anointed and Saul is envious of him. David shows honor while Saul continues to self destruct.
Chapter 05Multiple Choice Questions26. _____ is the pr.docx
1. Chapter 05
Multiple Choice Questions
26. _____ is the process of creating and managing a business to
achieve desired objectives.
A. Entrepreneurship
B. Bootstrapping
C. Intrapreneuship
D. Innovation
E. Brainstorming
.
27. A _____ is best described as any independently owned and
operated business that is not
dominant in its competitive area and does not employ more than
500 people.
A. publicly owned business
B. limited liability company
C. small business
D. publicly traded company
2. E. for-profit corporation
28. A small business is any independently owned business that
employs not more than _____ people.
A. 100
B. 500
C. 300
D. 200
E. 20
29. Vernon runs Buzz, his own event management company,
which frequently organizes large
corporate events. Vernon has established a good reputation for
organizing corporate events with a
fair degree of professionalism at reasonable costs. Vernon
works out of his old house with a staff
of about 55 employees. Vernon's company is most likely to be
categorized as a(n):
A. multinational corporation.
B. limited liability company.
3. C. franchise.
D. public sector holding.
E. small business.
30. The Small Business Administration (SBA) is a(n):
A. body established by the U.S. Chamber of Commerce to
encourage the intrapreneurial spirit in
small businesses.
B. independent agency of the federal government that offers
managerial and financial assistance
to small businesses.
C. independent agency created under the GATT to protect small
businesses against competition
from larger companies.
D. division of the federal government that is responsible for
ensuring that newly formed
businesses adhere to the law.
E. U.S. Congressional agency that regulates the issue of stocks
by small businesses.
31. Which of the following is an advantage for small businesses
that choose to enter the retailing
industry?
4. A. Retailing is relatively difficult field to gain entry.
B. Retailing requires a large capital investment in the initial
stages.
C. Retailing allows small business to focus on specific groups
of consumers.
D. Retailing requires sophisticated machinery and technical
expertise.
E. Retailing suffers from heavy competition and losses only in
the initial stages.
32. Which of the following reasons makes retailing an attractive
industry for small businesses?
A. Retailing eliminates the need for any entrepreneurial skills.
B. Retailing offers high barriers to entry.
C. Retailing eliminates the need to engage in active interactions
with the final customers.
D. Retailing requires low initial financing.
E. Retailing limits a firm's need to focus on specific groups of
consumers.
33. Which of the following best illustrates a small business
operating in a retail industry as opposed to
wholesaling its products?
5. A. Janet bakes cakes and sells them to other restaurants and
cafes in malls.
B. BC Inc. manufactures stationery and sells it in bulk to book
shops and supermarkets.
C. Pink Cult, an apparel company, sells its merchandise through
OMG!.com.
D. Neon Love Inc. imports candles and directly sells them to
customers through kiosks.
E. Auto Line Inc. manufactures component parts of cars and
sells them to automobile companies.
34. Many service providers are considered retailers because
they:
A. require a high initial start-up cost.
B. provide their services directly to ultimate consumers.
C. sell their services from a single store location.
D. focus on large market segments and institutional buyers.
E. employ only a small number of people.
35. Which of the following traits will help entrepreneurs
succeed?
A. Risk aversion
B. Intolerance
6. C. Frugality
D. Impulsivity
E. Neuroticism
36. One of the major reasons people want to own and operate
their own business is to:
A. avoid the risk of competition.
B. be their own boss.
C. avoid multi-tasking.
D. reduce stress levels.
E. avoid direct responsibility of the operations.
37. Which of the following is an advantage of a small business?
A. Greater adaptability to changing market demands
B. Highly trained and competent staff
C. Low levels of stress in managing the business
D. Diverse and large workforce
E. High success rates
38. Red Carpet Inc. is a small apparel store started by an
aspiring designer. The store needs to
7. compete against larger, well-established multinational brands.
Which of the following strategies
will most help Red Carpet Inc. avoid competition from larger
firms?
A. Red Carpet Inc. should have multiple levels of management
like the larger firms.
B. Red Carpet Inc. should target large market segments that the
competitors serve.
C. Red Carpet Inc. should expand the scale of production to
enjoy greater economies of scale.
D. Red Carpet Inc. should start to work with customers only
when the products are ready for sale.
E. Red Carpet Inc. should focus on and target small market
niches or product needs.
39. Small businesses usually have only one layer of
management. Which of the following is an
implication of this?
A. Small businesses face a low risk of failure.
B. Small businesses have great flexibility to adapt to changing
market conditions.
C. The decision-making process is lengthy in small businesses.
D. Small businesses have better access to managerial experience
and skills than larger firms.
8. E. Small business owners have a limited amount of direct
authority.
40. Which of the following is a disadvantage of small-business
ownership?
A. High cost of formation
B. Bureaucratic decision-making process
C. Ability to focus upon specific groups of customers
D. Worries about employee problems or competition
E. Limited scope for innovation
41. Which of the following is a reason behind the failure of
small businesses?
A. Overcapitalization
B. Reputation
C. Managerial experience
D. Poor business concept
E. High costs of start-up
42. Carol has recently opened a restaurant in her neighborhood.
Which of the following is NOT likely
to be a source of stress?
9. A. Competition
B. Reputation
C. Rent increases
D. Employee issues
E. Changing market demand
43. _____ is best described as the lack of funds to operate a
business normally.
A. Debt financing
B. Trade credit
C. Franchising
D. Trade deficit
E. Undercapitalization
44. Gerald started a business using the savings from his
previous job. He planned to run his business
on the revenue generated from sales. However, a few months
later, Gerald found it difficult to pay
his staff, rent, and other expenses. Seasonal sales and inability
to secure sufficient credit from
local banks made it difficult for Gerald to operate the business
10. normally. Which of the following
causes of small business failure does this scenario best
illustrate?
A. Undercapitalization
B. Trade credit
C. Economies of scale
D. Debt financing
E. Debt factoring
45. Which of the following is the shortest path to business
failure?
A. Overcapitalization
B. Undercapitalization
C. Rent increases
D. Competition
E. Changing market demand
46. The principal immediate threats to small and mid-sized
businesses include:
A. rapidly advancing technology.
B. rising entrepreneurial spirit.
11. C. reducing imports.
D. escalating costs.
E. increasing exports.
47. A business plan should do all of the following EXCEPT:
A. provide the rationale for the business.
B. include estimates of income and expenses.
C. establish a strategy for acquiring sufficient funds.
D. include an analysis of the competition.
E. limit the business's flexibility and decision-making ability.
48. Arnold approached a bank to get a loan for a business he
planned to launch later in that year. He
explained his business idea and its capital requirements to the
bank manager. The manager
listened to the plan and asked Arnold to provide a formal
document that included a rationale for
the business, an explanation of how it will achieve its goals, an
analysis of the competition, and
estimates of income and expenses among other information.
Which of the following documents
does the bank expect from Arnold in this scenario?
12. A. A business plan
B. A cash flow statement
C. A promissory note
D. A balance sheet
E. A marketing plan
49. In the process of starting a business, the step that
immediately succeeds the development of a
business plan involves:
A. organizing resources like labor and supplies.
B. developing some general business ideas.
C. deciding an appropriate legal form of business ownership.
D. promoting the business to the customers.
E. filing for tax returns for the business with the Internal
Revenue Service.
50. To make profits from a small business, the owner must first
provide or obtain _____ to start the
business and keep it running smoothly.
A. products
B. employees
13. C. profits
D. supplies
E. capital
51. Which of the following is NOT a source of equity
financing?
A. Reinvesting profits into the business
B. Selling personal assets to raise funds
C. Bringing in useful personal assets such as a computer into
the business
D. Securing long-term loans from a family member
E. Selling stock in the business to family members or friends
52. Walter sold a piece of land he inherited from his
grandparents and started a business with the
proceeds. Which of the following sources has Walter used to
raise funds for his business?
A. Equity financing
B. Debt financing
C. Venture capital
D. Initial public offering
14. E. Angel Investment
53. Janice works in a factory that manufactures decorative
accessories for office spaces, hotels, and
designer homes. She wants to start her own business because
she believes that the market for
decorative products has a great growth potential. However, she
does not want to depend on
anyone else for the procuring the initial capital and would like
to raise the amount herself. In this
scenario, which of the following methods would Janice adopt to
raise funds through equity
financing?
A. Janice would secure a mortgage from a family member or
friend.
B. Janice would secure a loan from the Small Business
Administration (SBA).
C. Janice would ask for a line of credit from her previous bank.
D. Janice would invest her savings in the new business.
E. Janice would ask suppliers for a longer trade credit.
54. Jacob and Harry are business partners in a company that
manufactures portable solar panels.
15. They initially started the business with their savings. However,
now the company plans to expand
its operations and the required amount of capital cannot be
raised through savings or by
reinvesting profits. Thus, the partners have decided to sell stock
in their business to family
members, friends, and employees. Which of the following
sources of capital have Jacob and Harry
planned to use for the expansion of their business?
A. Debt financing
B. Bootstrapping
C. Equity financing
D. Mortgaging
E. Factoring
55. Persons or organizations that agree to provide some funds
for a new business in exchange for
ownership interest or stock are called ____.
A. intrapreneurs
B. category captains
C. venture capitalists
16. D. trade debtors
E. franchisers
56. Securing a mortgage from a bank for a new business venture
is an example of:
A. equity financing.
B. venture capitalism.
C. debt financing.
D. trade credits.
E. collaterals.
57. When an entrepreneur takes out a loan from a bank, the bank
will require him to put up _____,
which is a financial interest in the property or fixtures of the
business, to guarantee payment of the
loan.
A. collateral
B. venture capital
C. trade credit
D. business plan
E. cash flow statement
17. 58. Lara, a single mother, borrowed some capital for her
business from Women Progress Council
(WPC) at an extremely low rate of interest. Which of the
following forms of funding a new small
business does this scenario best illustrate?
A. Trade credit
B. Equity financing
C. Venture capital
D. Debt financing
E. Crowdsourcing
59. Andrew, a pharmacist, realized that he should stock extra
supplies of a particular medicine to
respond to an outbreak of a particular infection in the city.
Lacking sufficient capital to purchase
the extra inventory, he turned to his bank and asked to borrow a
predetermined sum of money.
Which of the following sources of funding does this scenario
best illustrate?
A. Trade credit
B. Initial public offering
C. Venture capital
18. D. Equity financing
E. Line of credit
60. A license to sell another's products or to use another's name
in business, or both, is called a ____.
A. franchise
B. cartel
C. collateral
D. mortgage
E. collusion
61. Since Eva Carl has decided to use her savings to purchase
the rights to own and operate a
McDonald's fast-food restaurant rather than starting her own
restaurant, she is probably a(n)
____.
A. trade creditor
B. franchisee
C. franchiser
D. intrapreneur
19. E. venture capitalist
62. Nathan started the first outlet of Dynamix Gym in New York
City in 1995. The business expanded
over time, and Nathan became the owner of a chain of gyms in
New York State. Though the
business had potential to expand outside New York, Nathan did
not want to take the risk or
responsibility. Hence, he decided to sell the license to own and
operate gyms in the name of
Dynamix Gym to independent owners. In return, he charged
them an initial fee and a small share
in the monthly profits. In this scenario, Nathan is a(n) ____.
A. franchisee
B. intrapreneur
C. angel investor
D. franchiser
E. venture capitalist
63. Which of the following statements accurately brings out the
difference between franchising and
building an independent business from scratch?
20. A. The time required to set up an independent business is much
lower than obtaining a franchise.
B. A franchise outlet often reaches the break-even point faster
than an independent business
would.
C. A franchisee would experience more flexibility in decision
making than the owner of an
independent business.
D. The quality of goods and services needs to be more
standardized and uniform in independent
business than in franchises.
E. Access to managerial and financial assistance is more limited
in franchises than in
independent businesses.
64. Which of the following is an advantage that purchasers of a
popular franchise experience?
A. They get access to the already established brand name or
brand equity.
B. They have great flexibility to make decisions for their
individual franchise outlets.
C. They can enjoy their total profits without having to share
anything with the franchisers.
D. They can easily add or delete a good or service from the
21. existing product line.
E. They are free to vary their operational processes based on
their needs and constraints.
65. One of the main drawbacks of franchising is that it requires
the franchisee to:
A. invest a lot of time and effort in setting up the business.
B. take sole responsibility for all decisions in the business.
C. share the profits of the business with the franchiser.
D. build the brand appeal for the franchise outlet on his or her
own.
E. invest considerable capital in national and local advertising
programs.
66. Paul has recently quit his job as an investment banker. He
plans to open a restaurant. He has two
options: he can either start his own new restaurant from scratch
or purchase a franchise from an
already established restaurant or fast food chain. His wife, Lisa,
supports the former plan. Which
of the following statements strengthens the argument in favor of
Lisa's choice of opening a
restaurant independently?
22. A. It is easier and faster to build a business from scratch.
B. It is easier to reach the break-even point through an
independent business.
C. It is more difficult to attract customers in a franchise
business as the entrepreneur has to
personally build the brand appeal.
D. It is easier and more flexible to make and execute decisions
in an independent business.
E. It is easier to succeed in a business built from scratch as the
products and the business format
are already proven.
67. Millennials number around 75 million and represent a huge
business opportunity in the United
States. Which of the following is a defining feature of the
millennials?
A. Baby boomers above the age 50
B. First generation immigrants
C. People born at the turn of the millennium between 1999 and
2001
D. People from immigrant communities who migrated to U.S.
between 1946 and 1964
E. People born between 1977 and 1994
23. 68. Sally is a human resource manager at a company. A survey
of the company's employees revealed
that more than 80 percent of the employees belonged to the
demographic segment Generation Y.
In this scenario, which of the following HR strategies should
Sally implement in order to best serve
the needs of the employees?
A. Sally should solely use financial rewards to motivate the
employees to improve their
productivity.
B. Sally should keep the training sessions highly formal with no
scope for entertainment.
C. Sally should restrict the employees from using work from
home or telecommuting options.
D. Sally should avoid giving regular, direct feedback to the
employees.
E. Sally should use recognition and advancement as the driving
forces to motivate employees.
69. Which of the following demographic segments should small
retailers specializing in ethnic
products and small service providers target?
A. Immigrants
24. B. Echo boomers
C. Baby boomers
D. Generation X
E. Drivers
70. Which of the following demographic trends has made health
care and financial planning industries
attractive for small businesses in the United States?
A. Decreasing population of millennials
B. Increasing income among generation X
C. Aging baby boomers who are wealthy
D. Reducing entrepreneurial spirit among young generations
E. Increasing imports into the economy
71. Which of the following is an implication of technological
advances to small businesses?
A. It fails to make any significant changes as small businesses
cannot afford to use sophisticated
technology in their operations.
B. It reduces a small business's ability to adapt to changing
trends and market demands.
25. C. It increases the ratio of baby boomers as employees in small
businesses.
D. It provides new opportunities for small businesses to expand
their operations abroad.
E. It reduces a small company's ability to customize their
services and products.
72. Norton is a human resource manager at a large multinational
company. After a drastic drop in
revenue, his company is thinking of ways to correct the
situation. At a meeting with the top
management, the CEO suggested that 20 percent of the
employees should be eliminated. This
move would help the company cut costs and continue
functioning on the current projects. In this
scenario, which of the following strategies is this MNC
planning to use?
A. Debt financing
B. Intrapreneruship
C. Crowdsourcing
D. Franchising
E. Downsizing
73. Downsizing is an effective way to:
26. A. gain the advantages of small businesses.
B. increase organizational tasks.
C. reduce entrepreneurial spirit among employees.
D. increase the management layers.
E. gain employee trust.
74. Which of the following statements accurately describes
intrapreneurs?
A. Employees who become a part of a company's board of
directors through internal promotions
are referred to as intrapreneurs.
B. Entrepreneurs who sell the rights to use their products to
independent owners are
intrapreneurs.
C. Entrepreneurs who are involved in international business are
referred to as intrapreneurs.
D. Independent investors who help a company raise capital
through internal financing are
intrapreneurs.
E. Individuals in large firms who take responsibility for the
development of innovations within the
27. organizations are intrapreneurs.
75. Which of the following is an ineffective practice in making
big businesses act small?
A. Encouraging a spirit of entrepreneurship within the
organization
B. Increasing the layers of management within the organization
C. Downsizing to reduce work tasks
D. Keeping the growth vision long term
E. Focusing on current customers rather than looking for new
customers
76. George is an employee at a company that provides
information technology solutions to other
firms. He has been developing a new smart phone application
from the resources of the company.
In this scenario, George best illustrates a(n) ____.
A. franchiser
B. venture capitalist
C. intrapreneur
D. entrepreneur
E. trade creditor
28. Chapter 8
Multiple Choice Questions
26. If an employee is involved with transforming resources into
goods and services, then he is in:
A. marketing.
B. financing.
C. human resources.
D. operations management.
E. budgeting.
27. Irene is an employee associated with producing goods,
services, and ideas that satisfy the needs
of customers. Thus, she works most closely with:
A. financing.
B. budgeting.
C. production.
D. human resources.
E. operations.
28. Operations management has the primary responsibility for:
29. A. employing computer-assisted manufacturing (CAM)
exclusively for all transformations.
B. transforming goods and services into resources.
C. creating products that satisfy customers.
D. developing only such products which are intangible.
E. converting outputs into inputs.
29. Which of the following is true of the transformation
process?
A. It is the development and administration of activities that
transform resources into goods,
services, and ideas.
B. It is the conversion of human, financial, and physical
resources into goods, services, and
ideas.
C. It involves the assigning of labor, energy, and money for the
advertisement of services.
D. It is associated with the promotion and pricing of goods and
services.
E. It deals with the distribution and logistics of products.
30. Viewed from the perspective of operations, the money used
to purchase a carpenter's tools and
30. the electricity used to run his power saw are:
A. processes.
B. outputs.
C. stocks.
D. inputs.
E. maintenance costs.
31. Viewed from the perspective of operations, the furniture
items produced by a carpenter are:
A. variations.
B. inputs.
C. equipment.
D. outputs.
E. processes.
32. From the perspective of operations, food sold at a restaurant
and services provided by a plumbing
company are:
A. processes.
B. inputs.
31. C. outputs.
D. stocks.
E. costs.
33. How do operations managers ensure quality and efficiency
during the transformation process?
A. They ensure that their products never use the modular design
of transforming because this
process increases the cost of labor.
B. They always employ computer-assisted manufacturing
(CAM) technologies to guide and
control the transformation processes.
C. They shift from material-requirements planning (MRP) to
just-in-time (JIT) inventory
management.
D. They keep the work cycling between two different batches of
labor in order to track any
loopholes.
E. They take feedback at various points in the transformation
process and compare them to
established standards.
34. Money, employees, time, and equipment are examples of an
32. airline's _____ to the transformation
process.
A. outputs
B. intangibles
C. products
D. services
E. inputs
35. Which of the following is true of the transformation
process?
A. It does not occur in service companies.
B. It occurs in all organizations, regardless of what they
produce or their objectives.
C. It occurs only in manufacturing companies because they use
tangible inputs.
D. It excludes fund-raising and promoting a cause.
E. It is not a part of government agencies because they do not
use machineries for mass
production.
36. Which of the following is NOT a point of difference
between service providers and manufacturers?
33. A. Services are more labor-intensive.
B. Manufacturing has more uniform outputs.
C. Services do not undergo a transformation process.
D. Manufacturing productivity can be measured
straightforwardly.
E. Service providers have less control over the variability of
their inputs.
37. For most organizations, the ultimate objective is for
produced outputs to be:
A. easy to develop.
B. tangible, hard goods.
C. inexpensive.
D. worth more than the cost of inputs.
E. equal to the costs of input.
38. The nature of the service provider's product requires:
A. fewer employee inputs.
B. a higher degree of customer contact.
C. delayed consumption.
34. D. more expensive inputs.
E. more standardization.
39. Actual performance of the service provider's product
typically occurs:
A. several days after purchase.
B. outside the service provider's facility.
C. at the point of consumption.
D. in the buyer's home.
E. before the point of consumption.
40. To receive a haircut, you generally have to go to a salon.
This information reflects the _____.
A. uniformity of inputs
B. uniformity of outputs
C. labor required
D. measurement of productivity
E. nature and consumption of output
41. The products of service providers tend to be more
customized than those of manufacturers
because:
35. A. different customers have different needs.
B. the requirements of all customers are more or less the same.
C. technological innovations have reduced variability.
D. there is more capital required in service provision.
E. the specific needs of individual customers get incorporated.
42. The fact that a hairdresser gives each customer a different
haircut relates to the difference
between service providers and manufacturers in terms of:
A. consumption of output.
B. uniformity of inputs.
C. labor required.
D. measurement of productivity.
E. uniformity of output.
43. When compared to service providers, the products of
manufacturers are typically:
A. more labor-intensive.
B. less uniform.
C. more difficult to store.
D. more standardized.
36. E. cheaper.
44. Compared to service providers, manufacturers generally:
A. are more labor-intensive.
B. are more capital-intensive.
C. customize their outputs.
D. have difficulty measuring productivity.
E. produce intangible outputs.
45. Zedpro Computer Company is determining demand for its
future products and how much
consumers are willing to pay. For this, Zedpro should rely on:
A. the economy.
B. marketing research.
C. its competitor's moves.
D. successful past experiences.
E. intuition.
46. As a manufacturing process, the term standardization means:
A. ensuring that each product is sold at the same price.
37. B. that similar products, manufactured by different companies,
all operate in the same manner.
C. making identical, interchangeable components or complete
products.
D. making the exact product a particular customer needs or
wants.
E. making an item in self-contained units that can be
interchanged to create different products.
47. A primary reason for using standardization is to:
A. reduce production costs.
B. increase consumer options.
C. reduce product quality.
D. increase variations.
E. foster creativity.
48. Building a computer so that the components can be installed
in different configurations to meet
customers' needs is a result of:
A. flexible manufacturing.
B. modular design.
C. customization.
38. D. specialization.
E. varied engineering.
49. Facility location decisions are complex because:
A. all customers want plants nearby.
B. transportation costs are excessively high.
C. speed of delivery is not very important.
D. proximity to market or community characteristics are not
important factors.
E. the firm must live with it once the decision has been made
and implemented.
50. A company that manufactures large products, such as houses
or bridges, may require that all
resources be brought to a central location during production.
This type of facility layout is called:
A. fixed-position layout.
B. product layout.
C. line layout.
D. central control layout.
E. assembly line layout.
39. 51. A company performing large, complex tasks such as
construction or exploration is called a(n):
A. continuous manufacturing organization.
B. intermittent organization.
C. project organization.
D. exploration company.
E. survey company.
52. A metal fabrication plant with a cutting department, a
drilling department, and a polishing
department would likely use _____ layout.
A. fixed-position
B. horizontal-position
C. process
D. geographical
E. customer-based
53. A hospital having an X-ray unit, an obstetrics unit, few
emergency rooms, and other units would
best be classified as a(n):
40. A. intermittent organization.
B. project organization.
C. continuous manufacturing organization.
D. fixed organization.
E. assembly line organizations.
54. An organization that creates many products with similar
characteristics, such as automobiles,
television sets, or vacuum cleaners, would most likely be
categorized as a(n):
A. continuous manufacturing organization.
B. intermittent organization.
C. project organization.
D. process layout organization.
E. fixed-position organization.
55. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Organizations can start greening their supply chains by
increasing resource consumption and
waste.
B. The adoption of 100 percent wind-powered electricity
increases carbon emissions.
41. C. Aluminum cans can be recycled an infinite number of times.
D. It is mandatory for organizations to incorporate
sustainability into their business models.
E. Balancing profitability and socially responsibility is
impossible for corporate organizations.
56. Which of the following activities is NOT included in supply
chain management?
A. Getting products to customers
B. Obtaining and managing raw materials
C. Managing finished products
D. Packaging finished products
E. Researching and developing products
57. All activities involved in obtaining and managing raw
materials and component parts, managing
finished products, packaging them, and getting them to
customers are part of:
A. stock management.
B. supply chain management.
C. engineering.
D. finance.
42. E. strategic planning.
58. Within organizations, purchasing is also referred to as:
A. consumption.
B. disposition.
C. acquisition.
D. procurement.
E. budgeting.
59. The buying of all materials needed by an organization is
called:
A. consumer behavior.
B. capital expenditure.
C. purchasing.
D. standardization.
E. just-in-time management.
60. The term _____ refers to all raw materials, components,
completed or partially completed
products, and pieces of equipment a firm uses.
A. inventory
43. B. order quantities
C. production
D. raw materials inventory
E. intangibles
61. Materials that have been purchased to be used as inputs in
making other products are included
in:
A. finished inventory.
B. partial inventory.
C. raw materials inventory.
D. supplier inventory.
E. component parts inventory.
62. The process of determining how many supplies and goods
are needed, keeping track of quantities
on hand, each item's location, and who is responsible for it is
called:
A. process layout.
B. product layout.
44. C. material-requirements planning.
D. inventory control.
E. continuous manufacturing control.
63. A model of inventory management that identifies the
optimum number of items to order to
minimize the costs of managing them is called the:
A. just-in-time management model.
B. flexible scheduling model.
C. material requirements planning model.
D. economic order quantity model.
E. logistics model.
64. Minimizing inventory by providing an almost continuous
flow of items from suppliers to the
production facility is referred to as:
A. just-in-time inventory management.
B. flexible scheduling.
C. material-requirements planning.
D. logistics.
45. E. the economic order quantity model.
65. A planning system that schedules the precise quantity of
materials needed to make a product is
called:
A. just-in-time management.
B. material-requirements planning.
C. economic order quantities.
D. flexible scheduling.
E. cycle-time management.
66. One popular method of scheduling is the _____ which
identifies all the major activities or events
required to complete a project, arranges them in a sequence or
path, determines the critical path,
and estimates the time required for each event.
A. computer-assisted manufacturing (CAM)
B. Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)
C. Critical Path Method (CPM)
D. economic order quantity (EOQ) model
E. material-requirements planning (MRP)
46. 67. The system in which management collects and analyzes
information about the production process
to pinpoint quality problems in the production system is called:
A. total quality management.
B. statistical process control.
C. Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT).
D. operations control.
E. production control.
68. Which of the following is true about quality?
A. It is a concern only for manufacturing companies.
B. It is a concern only for service providers.
C. It always indicates the price charged for a product.
D. It is a critical element of operations management.
E. Its definition should vary from employee to employee.
69. The degree to which a good or service meets the demands
and requirements of customers is
called:
A. efficiency.
B. productivity.
47. C. quality.
D. effectiveness.
E. customer satisfaction.
70. It is especially difficult to measure quality characteristics
when:
A. a firm uses ISO 9000.
B. a firm has a total quality management program.
C. the product is a good.
D. the product is a service.
E. a firm uses statistical process control.
71. _____ refers to the processes an organization uses to
maintain its established quality standards.
A. Quality control
B. Implementation
C. Continuous manufacturing
D. Fixed-position layout
E. Logistics
72. _____ is a philosophy that uniform commitment to quality
48. in all areas of an organization will
promote a culture that meets customers' perceptions of quality.
A. The marketing concept
B. Total quality manufacturing
C. ISO 9000
D. Statistical process control
E. Total quality management
73. The first step in quality control for any organization is:
A. undertaking inspections.
B. establishing standards.
C. sampling products.
D. implementing services.
E. initiating corrections.
74. Sampling is likely to be used:
A. when inspection tests are destructive.
B. when every product must be tested because of human life and
safety.
C. to assess the quality of services.
49. D. sampling is the most expensive option.
E. testing takes a few minutes to complete.
75. It is desirable to test only a sample of the product in all of
the following circumstances EXCEPT
when:
A. inspection procedures are expensive.
B. elaborate testing equipment is required.
C. testing takes a significant number of hours to complete.
D. the product is destroyed by sampling.
E. sampling does not destroy the product.
Chapter 10
Multiple Choice Questions
26. All of the following are activities performed by human
resources managers EXCEPT:
A. planning.
B. recruiting.
C. selling.
D. training.
50. E. compensating.
27. A human resources manager deciding how many new
employees an organization will need to fill
vacant positions in the near future is engaging in the activity of
____.
A. recruiting
B. planning
C. training
D. selling
E. compensating
28. _____ involves determining, through observation and study,
the specific tasks that comprise a job
and the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to perform the
job.
A. Job description
B. Job specification
C. Job design
D. Job analysis
E. Job appraisal
51. 29. An overview of a job's title, tasks, relationships with other
jobs, the physical and mental skills
required, duties, responsibilities, and working conditions is
referred to as the:
A. job appraisal.
B. job portfolio.
C. job description.
D. job analysis.
E. job specification.
30. The qualifications necessary for a specific job, in terms of
education, experience, and personal
and physical characteristics are spelled out in the ____.
A. job evaluation
B. job specification
C. job analysis
D. job description
E. job assessment
31. ______ refers to forming a pool of qualified applicants from
which management can select new
52. employees.
A. Planning
B. Training
C. Compensating
D. Appraising
E. Recruiting
32. When compared to the external sources of recruitment,
recruiting from internal sources:
A. results in higher turnover.
B. incurs higher costs.
C. increases the possibility of lockouts.
D. decreases picketing.
E. improves employee morale.
33. Which of the following is an internal source of recruitment
for an organization?
A. Vocational schools
B. Current employees
C. Social networking sites
53. D. Competing firms
E. Colleges
34. A characteristic of search firms known as headhunters is
that they:
A. focus on internal rather than external sources of recruitment.
B. specialize in recruiting employees for entry-level jobs.
C. look for qualified candidates who are working for other
companies.
D. undertake training for unusual job requirements or skillsets.
E. operate as career planners for employees within
organizations.
35. An employer beginning the selection process for new
employees would begin with ____.
A. training
B. reference checking
C. testing
D. the application form
E. orientation
36. Which stage of the employee selection process allows
54. management to obtain detailed information
about an applicant's experience and skills, reasons for changing
jobs, and an idea of whether the
person would fit in with the company?
A. Orientation
B. Training
C. Testing
D. Reference checking
E. Interviewing
37. During which stage of the selection process is a candidate
expected to undergo physical
examinations to determine his or her suitability for a specific
job?
A. Orientation
B. Reference checking
C. Interviewing
D. Filling out the application form
E. Testing
38. At which stage in the selection process is an employer likely
55. to make use of the Myers-Briggs
Type Indicator?
A. Interviewing
B. Reference checking
C. Orientation
D. Training
E. Testing
39. Reference checking usually involves:
A. monitoring the working conditions in a firm.
B. checking a company's compliance with its policies.
C. assessing an applicant's potential for a job.
D. checking the previous work experience of a candidate.
E. identifying possible sources for recruitment.
40. The _____ is a federal agency established by the Civil
Rights Act of 1964 and dedicated to
increasing job opportunities for women and minorities and
eliminating job discrimination based on
race, religion, color, sex, national origin, or handicap.
56. A. National Center for Civil and Human Rights
B. United States Commission on Civil Rights
C. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
D. Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation
E. National Association for the Advancement of Colored People
41. Orientation is the human resources function that:
A. includes building tours, introductions, and socialization.
B. provides on-the-job training to employees.
C. appraises employees subjectively.
D. teaches employees to do specific job tasks.
E. occurs after the employee is on the job for several months.
42. An orientation includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. on-the-job training.
B. a tour of the building.
C. introductions to supervisors.
D. description of company benefits.
E. distribution of organizational manuals.
57. 43. Vikram is an employee of the Monsanto research lab. In an
effort to improve his managerial skills
and prepare him for a promotion, his company sends him on a
series of experiential management
training exercises at company expense. By helping him increase
his knowledge, Vikram's
company is involved in:
A. development.
B. orientation.
C. testing.
D. grade assignment.
E. performance appraisal.
44. A(n) _____ is a performance appraisal method that provides
feedback from a panel that typically
includes superiors, peers, and subordinates.
A. ranking
B. grade assignment
C. polygraph
D. 360-degree feedback system
E. behavioral checklist
58. 45. When Sophia Smith moved to a new job that involved more
responsibility and an increase in
compensation, the move would typically be considered a(n):
A. transfer.
B. conciliation.
C. separation.
D. arbitration.
E. promotion.
46. Joe was recently moved to a new position in his company
that involved learning new skills and
undertaking work assignments. However, he received no salary
raise. Joe's change in position
can best be described as a(n):
A. promotion.
B. lockout.
C. separation.
D. arbitration.
E. transfer.
47. Which of the following statements is true of a separation?
59. A. It is an employee's departure from an organization due to
termination or some other reason.
B. It is an employment change that involves demotion.
C. It is an advancement to a higher-level job.
D. It is a temporary suspension of employment due to violation
of work rules.
E. It is a horizontal move from one job to another within the
same company.
48. Socorro was terminated from her job by her employer
because she was repeatedly late to work.
She contributes to her company's turnover through:
A. conciliation.
B. demotion.
C. transfer.
D. separation.
E. arbitration.
49. Which of the following is likely to be an unacceptable
reason for firing an employee?
A. Violation of company rules
60. B. Excessive absenteeism
C. Frequent tardiness
D. Being a union organizer
E. Poor performance
50. Human resources departments strive to:
A. increase lockouts.
B. avoid arbitration to resolve third party issues.
C. minimize losses due to separations and transfers.
D. discourage strikebreaking.
E. fire employees because of their race, religion, gender, or age.
51. Financial compensation falls into two general categories:
A. time wages and piece wages.
B. wages and salaries.
C. wages and benefits.
D. commissions and incentives.
E. salaries and benefits.
52. A wage/salary survey indicates:
61. A. how much employees in a company need to earn in order to
meet their financial needs.
B. how much compensation similar firms are paying for jobs
that the firms have in common.
C. the proportion of compensation that can be paid through non-
financial methods.
D. how satisfied employees are with the compensation they
receive from their employers.
E. the differences between the salaries of men and women
performing the same jobs.
53. Which of the following statements is true of payment using
time wages?
A. It encourages employees to be more productive.
B. It provides incentives to increase productivity.
C. It is primarily used for skilled craftworkers.
D. It is appropriate when employees are continually interrupted.
E. It is used when quantity is more important than quality.
54. In a sales company, employees are paid a percentage of their
sales in order to motivate them to
sell as much as they can. The company incorporates _____ as an
incentive system.
62. A. commissions
B. time wages
C. profit sharing
D. salaries
E. bonuses
55. Which of the following statements is true of salary as
employee compensation?
A. It involves distributing a percentage of company profits.
B. It is a nonfinancial reward.
C. It is associated with white-collar workers.
D. It involves paying a percentage of an employee's sales.
E. It a monetary reward for exceptional performance.
56. If a company pays its workers additional compensation at
the end of the year as a "thank you" for
good work, this monetary reward would most likely be
categorized as:
A. wages.
B. commission.
C. a salary.
63. D. a benefit.
E. a bonus.
57. Which of the following forms of compensation includes an
employee stock ownership plan?
A. Wages
B. Bonuses
C. Profit sharing
D. Salaries
E. Commissions
58. Which of the following statements is true of employee stock
ownership plans?
A. They encourage employees to become involved in
strikebreaking.
B. They create a sense of partnership between a firm and its
employees.
C. They reduce employee morale and productivity.
D. They increase the possibility of lockouts.
E. They are applicable only to senior employees of a firm.
59. Which of the following forms of compensation is NOT a
64. benefit?
A. Paid vacation
B. Health insurance
C. Pension plans
D. Commissions
E. Child care
60. Employee organizations formed to deal with employers for
achieving better pay, hours, and
working conditions are known as:
A. workforce groups.
B. cooperatives.
C. working groups.
D. labor unions.
E. quality circles.
61. Which of the following objectives do labor unions strive to
achieve?
A. Reduced pay
B. Increased job security
C. Less safe working conditions
65. D. Increased work hours
E. Increased lockouts
62. One reason for deterioration of union growth is because:
A. traditional union members lack organization.
B. of the shift from a service to a manufacturing economy.
C. the unions are not backed by the power of a large group.
D. the proportion of blue-collar jobs is increasing.
E. of the increasing automation of factories.
63. The formal, written document that spells out the relationship
between the union and management
for a specified period of time is called a:
A. conciliation dossier.
B. labor contract.
C. turnover file.
D. arbitration report.
E. job specification.
64. In a labor contract, the _____ clause calls for automatic
66. wage increases during periods of inflation
to protect the "real" income of the employees.
A. non-compete
B. giveback
C. arbitration
D. cost-of-living escalator
E. wage-salary
65. Which of the following statements is true of a strike?
A. It prevents people from purchasing a company's products.
B. It is started by the management.
C. It halts or disrupts the normal working of a firm.
D. It is one of the least effective labor weapons.
E. It seldom disrupts normal working conditions.
66. A boycott takes place when:
A. a union and management negotiate a labor contract with the
help of a mediator.
B. employees of a company refuse to work as a protest against
unfair management practices.
C. management closes a work site so that employees cannot go
to work.
67. D. union members protest against management practices by
marching outside the employer's
work site.
E. union members are asked to refrain from purchasing the
products of a company whose
policies do not favor union members.
67. If a union strike partly shuts down a company's operations
and the management closes down the
rest of the plant so that none of its employees can go to work, it
represents a(n):
A. injunction.
B. embargo.
C. boycott.
D. lockout.
E. picket.
68. If the negotiations between a union and the management
representatives come to a standstill and
a third party is brought in to make suggestions or propose
solutions to help resolve the impasse,
though the solutions are not binding on the parties, then the
68. third party would most likely be a(n):
A. arbitrator.
B. mediator.
C. scab.
D. picketing agent.
E. conciliator.
69. If a neutral party is brought in to settle a labor-management
dispute and if his or her solution is
legally binding and enforceable, the neutral party is most likely
to be involved in ____.
A. conciliation
B. picketing
C. mediation
D. arbitration
E. strikebreaking
70. The difference between an arbitrator and a mediator is that:
A. a mediator is a neutral third party, while an arbitrator is a
member of the union.
B. a mediator's solution to a labor dispute is enforceable.
69. C. an arbitrator's decision is binding on the participants in a
dispute while a mediator's is not.
D. an arbitrator is a neutral third party, while a mediator is a
representative of management.
E. a mediator merely facilitates discussions between the union
and management, but does not
suggest solutions.
71. Which of the following is a primary diversity characteristic?
A. Gender
B. Income
C. Marital status
D. Religion
E. Military experience
Age, gender, race, ethnicity, abilities, and sexual orientation
represent primary characteristics of
diversity that are inborn and cannot be changed.
72. Which of the following represents a secondary characteristic
of diversity?
A. Income
B. Age
70. C. Race
D. Gender
E. Abilities
73. ____, is a primary characteristic of diversity.
A. Age
B. Work background
C. Religious belief
D. Geographic location
E. Income
74. If an organization fosters and values workforce diversity:
A. it makes less productive use of the organization's resources.
B. it reduces conflict among employees of different cultural
groups.
C. it decreases sharing of organizational goals among diverse
employees.
D. it reduces innovation and creativity of the employees.
E. it decreases the ability to serve the needs of a diverse
customer base.
75. Which of the following factors is a reason why affirmative
71. action plans became politically
questionable?
A. Increased reverse discrimination
B. High planned obsolescence
C. High level of lockout
D. Increased picketing
E. Frequent boycotts
Breaking Bad
When Going Gets Tough, a Not-So-Tough Turns to Meth
By ALESSANDRA STANLEY
Published: January 18, 2008
“Breaking Bad,” a new seven-part series on AMC about a
middle-aged chemistry teacher in Albuquerque who becomes a
methamphetamine dealer, wants no part of that Hollywood
formula. Walt White’s decision to turn to crime — part midlife
crisis, part D.I.Y. estate planning — almost instantly lands him
neck-deep in a morass of trouble without his ever experiencing
the slightest shiver of a thrill.
The series has a slight vein of black humor, but it is very, very
dark: “Thelma & Louise” as seen by Dostoyevsky.
The gloom is understandable, of course. The economy and the
political landscape today are weighed down with the steady
lowering of middle-class expectations. The young know better
than to assume that they will be better off than their parents; the
old cling to the railing, fearful of falling beyond the reach of
pensions and Social Security payments.
And crime is a particularly tempting fantasy. Be it the new
movie “Mad Money,” in which Diane Keaton plays a bourgeois
72. housewife forced to work as a janitor when her husband is laid
off, or “Breaking Bad,” films and television increasingly tap
into that sense of economic and social backsliding, finding
humor and pathos in the white-collar world’s undignified
struggle for dignity.
It’s the pacing that makes “Breaking Bad” more of a hard slog
than a cautionary joy ride. It has good acting, particularly by
Bryan Cranston (“Malcolm in the Middle”), who blends Walt’s
sad-sack passivity with glints of wry self-awareness. But the
misadventures of Walt and his slacker sidekick, Jesse (Aaron
Paul), are a picaresque comedy filmed at the speed of a tragic
opera — jokes, visual and verbal, are slowed down from 78
r.p.m. to 33 1/3 by an underlying earnestness, as if it were a
foreign art film set in the American Southwest.
This is the first series offered by AMC since its heady offering
last summer, the hit “Mad Men.” And the network’s next may
well be much better. Television follows the same pattern as
fiction and families: The second novel and the middle child
almost never live up to the expectations stoked by the first.
“Breaking Bad,” created by Vince Gilligan, a writer and
executive producer of “The X-Files,” couldn’t be more different
from “Mad Men,” but it also lacks that series’s originality and
sparkle. This crime story is in many ways a bleaker male
version of “Weeds,” Showtime’s comedy about a widowed
soccer mom who sells pot to keep up with the Joneses.
Walt’s slide into the crime lane is perhaps easier to understand.
He has just turned 50; his wife, Skyler (Anna Gunn), is
pregnant; their teenage son has cerebral palsy; and his teaching
salary is so small that he works a second job in a car wash. Fate
doesn’t leave it at that: after collapsing at the car wash, Walt
discovers that he has a fatal disease. “Are you a smoker?” the
paramedic examining him in the ambulance asks.
“No, never,” Walt replies, almost indignantly. The paramedic
remains silent.
That Walt once held promise and high expectations is signaled
early on. In the first episode he is already awake when his alarm
73. clock rings at 5 a.m., and he dutifully rises and begins trudging
on an indoor stepper, one of those cheap exercise gizmos sold
on late-night cable, and stares into space. The camera travels to
the wall in front of him and lingers on a framed certificate, an
acknowledgment of his contribution to a Nobel Prize in
chemistry. (Skyler, who writes short stories, has her own set of
disappointments.)
Walt doesn’t tell his wife or friends about his condition,
possibly because he rarely gets a word in edgewise. His wife is
kindly but briskly overbearing, checking to see if he took his
echinacea and scolding him for buying fax paper at Staples with
the wrong credit card.
And Walt’s in-laws are the kind who would drive even a
stronger man crazy. Skyler’s sister, Marie, played deliciously
by Betsy Brandt, is a narcissist and busybody, categories that
should cancel each other out but rarely do, and Marie’s
husband, Hank (Dean Norris), is a swaggering D.E.A. agent who
has vast reserves of self-regard and who inadvertently gives
Walt his criminal start.
“The Wire,” on HBO, is the rare series that takes its criminals
from the criminal class — drug dealers are second- and third-
generation felons with no connection to the outside world. Most
shows prefer comic contrasts, the “Trading Places” conceit: a
P.T.A. mom turns pot dealer on “Weeds”; a New Jersey mobster
is a suburban dad on “The Sopranos.”
The Whites are a middle-class couple trapped in a lower-
middle-class struggle — with creditors, health-insurance
brokers, employers and the lifeless bedroom community they
call home. They are upstanding citizens with outstanding debts,
and when life deals them an insurmountable blow, Walt strikes
back by joining the underworld.
74. Chapter 05
Multiple Choice Questions
26.
_____ is the process of creating and managing a business to
achieve desired objectives.
A.
Entrepreneurship
B.
Bootstrapping
C.
Intrapreneuship
D.
Innovation
E.
Brainstorming
.
27.
A _____ is best described as any independently owned and
operated business that is not dominant in its competitive area
and does not employ more than 500 people.
A.
publicly owned business
B.
limited liability company
75. C.
small business
D.
publicly traded company
E.
for-profit corporation
28.
A small business is any independently owned business that
employs not more than _____ people.
A.
100
B.
500
C.
300
D.
200
E.
20
76. 29.
Vernon runs Buzz, his own event management company, which
frequently organizes large corporate events. Vernon has
established a good reputation for organizing corporate events
with a fair degree of professionalism at reasonable costs.
Vernon works out of his old house with a staff of about 55
employees. Vernon's company is most likely to be categorized
as a(n):
A.
multinational corporation.
B.
limited liability company.
C.
franchise.
D.
public sector holding.
E.
small business.
30.
The Small Business Administration (SBA) is a(n):
A.
body established by the U.S. Chamber of Commerce to
encourage the intrapreneurial spirit in small businesses.
B.
independent agency of the federal government that offers
77. managerial and financial assistance to small businesses.
C.
independent agency created under the GATT to protect small
businesses against competition from larger companies.
D.
division of the federal government that is responsible for
ensuring that newly formed businesses adhere to the law.
E.
U.S. Congressional agency that regulates the issue of stocks by
small businesses.
31.
Which of the following is an advantage for small businesses
that choose to enter the retailing industry?
A.
Retailing is relatively difficult field to gain entry.
B.
Retailing requires a large capital investment in the initial
stages.
C.
Retailing allows small business to focus on specific groups of
consumers.
D.
Retailing requires sophisticated machinery and technical
expertise.
E.
78. Retailing suffers from heavy competition and losses only in the
initial stages.
32.
Which of the following reasons makes retailing an attractive
industry for small businesses?
A.
Retailing eliminates the need for any entrepreneurial skills.
B.
Retailing offers high barriers to entry.
C.
Retailing eliminates the need to engage in active interactions
with the final customers.
D.
Retailing requires low initial financing.
E.
Retailing limits a firm's need to focus on specific groups of
consumers.
33.
Which of the following best illustrates a small business
operating in a retail industry as opposed to wholesaling its
products?
79. A.
Janet bakes cakes and sells them to other restaurants and cafes
in malls.
B.
BC Inc. manufactures stationery and sells it in bulk to book
shops and supermarkets.
C.
Pink Cult, an apparel company, sells its merchandise through
OMG!.com.
D.
Neon Love Inc. imports candles and directly sells them to
customers through kiosks.
E.
Auto Line Inc. manufactures component parts of cars and sells
them to automobile companies.
34.
Many service providers are considered retailers because they:
A.
require a high initial start-up cost.
B.
provide their services directly to ultimate consumers.
C.
sell their services from a single store location.
80. D.
focus on large market segments and institutional buyers.
E.
employ only a small number of people.
35.
Which of the following traits will help entrepreneurs succeed?
A.
Risk aversion
B.
Intolerance
C.
Frugality
D.
Impulsivity
E.
Neuroticism
36.
One of the major reasons people want to own and operate their
own business is to:
A.
81. avoid the risk of competition.
B.
be their own boss.
C.
avoid multi-tasking.
D.
reduce stress levels.
E.
avoid direct responsibility of the operations.
37.
Which of the following is an advantage of a small business?
A.
Greater adaptability to changing market demands
B.
Highly trained and competent staff
C.
Low levels of stress in managing the business
D.
Diverse and large workforce
E.
High success rates
82. 38.
Red Carpet Inc. is a small apparel store started by an aspiring
designer. The store needs to compete against larger, well-
established multinational brands. Which of the following
strategies will most help Red Carpet Inc. avoid competition
from larger firms?
A.
Red Carpet Inc. should have multiple levels of management like
the larger firms.
B.
Red Carpet Inc. should target large market segments that the
competitors serve.
C.
Red Carpet Inc. should expand the scale of production to enjoy
greater economies of scale.
D.
Red Carpet Inc. should start to work with customers only when
the products are ready for sale.
E.
Red Carpet Inc. should focus on and target small market niches
or product needs.
39.
Small businesses usually have only one layer of management.
Which of the following is an implication of this?
A.
83. Small businesses face a low risk of failure.
B.
Small businesses have great flexibility to adapt to changing
market conditions.
C.
The decision-making process is lengthy in small businesses.
D.
Small businesses have better access to managerial experience
and skills than larger firms.
E.
Small business owners have a limited amount of direct
authority.
40.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of small-business
ownership?
A.
High cost of formation
B.
Bureaucratic decision-making process
C.
Ability to focus upon specific groups of customers
D.
Worries about employee problems or competition
84. E.
Limited scope for innovation
41.
Which of the following is a reason behind the failure of small
businesses?
A.
Overcapitalization
B.
Reputation
C.
Managerial experience
D.
Poor business concept
E.
High costs of start-up
42.
Carol has recently opened a restaurant in her neighborhood.
Which of the following is NOT likely to be a source of stress?
A.
86. 44.
Gerald started a business using the savings from his previous
job. He planned to run his business on the revenue generated
from sales. However, a few months later, Gerald found it
difficult to pay his staff, rent, and other expenses. Seasonal
sales and inability to secure sufficient credit from local banks
made it difficult for Gerald to operate the business normally.
Which of the following causes of small business failure does
this scenario best illustrate?
A.
Undercapitalization
B.
Trade credit
C.
Economies of scale
D.
Debt financing
E.
Debt factoring
45.
Which of the following is the shortest path to business failure?
88. E.
increasing exports.
47.
A business plan should do all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
provide the rationale for the business.
B.
include estimates of income and expenses.
C.
establish a strategy for acquiring sufficient funds.
D.
include an analysis of the competition.
E.
limit the business's flexibility and decision-making ability.
48.
Arnold approached a bank to get a loan for a business he
planned to launch later in that year. He explained his business
idea and its capital requirements to the bank manager. The
manager listened to the plan and asked Arnold to provide a
formal document that included a rationale for the business, an
explanation of how it will achieve its goals, an analysis of the
competition, and estimates of income and expenses among other
information. Which of the following documents does the bank
expect from Arnold in this scenario?
89. A.
A business plan
B.
A cash flow statement
C.
A promissory note
D.
A balance sheet
E.
A marketing plan
49.
In the process of starting a business, the step that immediately
succeeds the development of a business plan involves:
A.
organizing resources like labor and supplies.
B.
developing some general business ideas.
C.
deciding an appropriate legal form of business ownership.
D.
promoting the business to the customers.
90. E.
filing for tax returns for the business with the Internal Revenue
Service.
50.
To make profits from a small business, the owner must first
provide or obtain _____ to start the business and keep it running
smoothly.
A.
products
B.
employees
C.
profits
D.
supplies
E.
capital
51.
Which of the following is NOT a source of equity financing?
91. A.
Reinvesting profits into the business
B.
Selling personal assets to raise funds
C.
Bringing in useful personal assets such as a computer into the
business
D.
Securing long-term loans from a family member
E.
Selling stock in the business to family members or friends
52.
Walter sold a piece of land he inherited from his grandparents
and started a business with the proceeds. Which of the
following sources has Walter used to raise funds for his
business?
A.
Equity financing
B.
Debt financing
C.
Venture capital
D.
92. Initial public offering
E.
Angel Investment
53.
Janice works in a factory that manufactures decorative
accessories for office spaces, hotels, and designer homes. She
wants to start her own business because she believes that the
market for decorative products has a great growth potential.
However, she does not want to depend on anyone else for the
procuring the initial capital and would like to raise the amount
herself. In this scenario, which of the following methods would
Janice adopt to raise funds through equity financing?
A.
Janice would secure a mortgage from a family member or
friend.
B.
Janice would secure a loan from the Small Business
Administration (SBA).
C.
Janice would ask for a line of credit from her previous bank.
D.
Janice would invest her savings in the new business.
E.
Janice would ask suppliers for a longer trade credit.
93. 54.
Jacob and Harry are business partners in a company that
manufactures portable solar panels. They initially started the
business with their savings. However, now the company plans to
expand its operations and the required amount of capital cannot
be raised through savings or by reinvesting profits. Thus, the
partners have decided to sell stock in their business to family
members, friends, and employees. Which of the following
sources of capital have Jacob and Harry planned to use for the
expansion of their business?
A.
Debt financing
B.
Bootstrapping
C.
Equity financing
D.
Mortgaging
E.
Factoring
55.
Persons or organizations that agree to provide some funds for a
new business in exchange for ownership interest or stock are
94. called ____.
A.
intrapreneurs
B.
category captains
C.
venture capitalists
D.
trade debtors
E.
franchisers
56.
Securing a mortgage from a bank for a new business venture is
an example of:
A.
equity financing.
B.
venture capitalism.
C.
debt financing.
D.
95. trade credits.
E.
collaterals.
57.
When an entrepreneur takes out a loan from a bank, the bank
will require him to put up _____, which is a financial interest in
the property or fixtures of the business, to guarantee payment of
the loan.
A.
collateral
B.
venture capital
C.
trade credit
D.
business plan
E.
cash flow statement
58.
Lara, a single mother, borrowed some capital for her business
from Women Progress Council (WPC) at an extremely low rate
96. of interest. Which of the following forms of funding a new
small business does this scenario best illustrate?
A.
Trade credit
B.
Equity financing
C.
Venture capital
D.
Debt financing
E.
Crowdsourcing
59.
Andrew, a pharmacist, realized that he should stock extra
supplies of a particular medicine to respond to an outbreak of a
particular infection in the city. Lacking sufficient capital to
purchase the extra inventory, he turned to his bank and asked to
borrow a predetermined sum of money. Which of the following
sources of funding does this scenario best illustrate?
A.
Trade credit
B.
Initial public offering
97. C.
Venture capital
D.
Equity financing
E.
Line of credit
60.
A license to sell another's products or to use another's name in
business, or both, is called a ____.
A.
franchise
B.
cartel
C.
collateral
D.
mortgage
E.
collusion
98. 61.
Since Eva Carl has decided to use her savings to purchase the
rights to own and operate a McDonald's fast-food restaurant
rather than starting her own restaurant, she is probably a(n)
____.
A.
trade creditor
B.
franchisee
C.
franchiser
D.
intrapreneur
E.
venture capitalist
62.
Nathan started the first outlet of Dynamix Gym in New York
City in 1995. The business expanded over time, and Nathan
became the owner of a chain of gyms in New York State.
Though the business had potential to expand outside New York,
Nathan did not want to take the risk or responsibility. Hence, he
decided to sell the license to own and operate gyms in the name
of Dynamix Gym to independent owners. In return, he charged
them an initial fee and a small share in the monthly profits. In
this scenario, Nathan is a(n) ____.
99. A.
franchisee
B.
intrapreneur
C.
angel investor
D.
franchiser
E.
venture capitalist
63.
Which of the following statements accurately brings out the
difference between franchising and building an independent
business from scratch?
A.
The time required to set up an independent business is much
lower than obtaining a franchise.
B.
A franchise outlet often reaches the break-even point faster than
an independent business would.
C.
A franchisee would experience more flexibility in decision
making than the owner of an independent business.
100. D.
The quality of goods and services needs to be more standardized
and uniform in independent business than in franchises.
E.
Access to managerial and financial assistance is more limited in
franchises than in independent businesses.
64.
Which of the following is an advantage that purchasers of a
popular franchise experience?
A.
They get access to the already established brand name or brand
equity.
B.
They have great flexibility to make decisions for their
individual franchise outlets.
C.
They can enjoy their total profits without having to share
anything with the franchisers.
D.
They can easily add or delete a good or service from the
existing product line.
E.
They are free to vary their operational processes based on their
needs and constraints.
101. 65.
One of the main drawbacks of franchising is that it requires the
franchisee to:
A.
invest a lot of time and effort in setting up the business.
B.
take sole responsibility for all decisions in the business.
C.
share the profits of the business with the franchiser.
D.
build the brand appeal for the franchise outlet on his or her
own.
E.
invest considerable capital in national and local advertising
programs.
66.
Paul has recently quit his job as an investment banker. He plans
to open a restaurant. He has two options: he can either start his
own new restaurant from scratch or purchase a franchise from
an already established restaurant or fast food chain. His wife,
Lisa, supports the former plan. Which of the following
statements strengthens the argument in favor of Lisa's choice of
102. opening a restaurant independently?
A.
It is easier and faster to build a business from scratch.
B.
It is easier to reach the break-even point through an independent
business.
C.
It is more difficult to attract customers in a franchise business
as the entrepreneur has to personally build the brand appeal.
D.
It is easier and more flexible to make and execute decisions in
an independent business.
E.
It is easier to succeed in a business built from scratch as the
products and the business format are already proven.
67.
Millennials number around 75 million and represent a huge
business opportunity in the United States. Which of the
following is a defining feature of the millennials?
A.
Baby boomers above the age 50
B.
First generation immigrants
103. C.
People born at the turn of the millennium between 1999 and
2001
D.
People from immigrant communities who migrated to U.S.
between 1946 and 1964
E.
People born between 1977 and 1994
68.
Sally is a human resource manager at a company. A survey of
the company's employees revealed that more than 80 percent of
the employees belonged to the demographic segment Generation
Y. In this scenario, which of the following HR strategies should
Sally implement in order to best serve the needs of the
employees?
A.
Sally should solely use financial rewards to motivate the
employees to improve their productivity.
B.
Sally should keep the training sessions highly formal with no
scope for entertainment.
C.
Sally should restrict the employees from using work from home
or telecommuting options.
104. D.
Sally should avoid giving regular, direct feedback to the
employees.
E.
Sally should use recognition and advancement as the driving
forces to motivate employees.
69.
Which of the following demographic segments should small
retailers specializing in ethnic products and small service
providers target?
A.
Immigrants
B.
Echo boomers
C.
Baby boomers
D.
Generation X
E.
Drivers
70.
105. Which of the following demographic trends has made health
care and financial planning industries attractive for small
businesses in the United States?
A.
Decreasing population of millennials
B.
Increasing income among generation X
C.
Aging baby boomers who are wealthy
D.
Reducing entrepreneurial spirit among young generations
E.
Increasing imports into the economy
71.
Which of the following is an implication of technological
advances to small businesses?
A.
It fails to make any significant changes as small businesses
cannot afford to use sophisticated technology in their
operations.
B.
It reduces a small business's ability to adapt to changing trends
and market demands.
106. C.
It increases the ratio of baby boomers as employees in small
businesses.
D.
It provides new opportunities for small businesses to expand
their operations abroad.
E.
It reduces a small company's ability to customize their services
and products.
72.
Norton is a human resource manager at a large multinational
company. After a drastic drop in revenue, his company is
thinking of ways to correct the situation. At a meeting with the
top management, the CEO suggested that 20 percent of the
employees should be eliminated. This move would help the
company cut costs and continue functioning on the current
projects. In this scenario, which of the following strategies is
this MNC planning to use?
A.
Debt financing
B.
Intrapreneruship
C.
Crowdsourcing
107. D.
Franchising
E.
Downsizing
73.
Downsizing is an effective way to:
A.
gain the advantages of small businesses.
B.
increase organizational tasks.
C.
reduce entrepreneurial spirit among employees.
D.
increase the management layers.
E.
gain employee trust.
74.
Which of the following statements accurately describes
intrapreneurs?
108. A.
Employees who become a part of a company's board of directors
through internal promotions are referred to as intrapreneurs.
B.
Entrepreneurs who sell the rights to use their products to
independent owners are intrapreneurs.
C.
Entrepreneurs who are involved in international business are
referred to as intrapreneurs.
D.
Independent investors who help a company raise capital through
internal financing are intrapreneurs.
E.
Individuals in large firms who take responsibility for the
development of innovations within the organizations are
intrapreneurs.
75.
Which of the following is an ineffective practice in making big
businesses act small?
A.
Encouraging a spirit of entrepreneurship within the organization
B.
Increasing the layers of management within the organization
C.
109. Downsizing to reduce work tasks
D.
Keeping the growth vision long term
E.
Focusing on current customers rather than looking for new
customers
76.
George is an employee at a company that provides information
technology solutions to other firms. He has been developing a
new smart phone application from the resources of the company.
In this scenario, George best illustrates a(n) ____.
A.
franchiser
B.
venture capitalist
C.
intrapreneur
D.
entrepreneur
E.
trade creditor
110. Chapter 8
Multiple Choice Questions
26.
If an employee is involved with transforming resources into
goods and services, then he is in:
A.
marketing.
B.
financing.
C.
human resources.
D.
operations management.
E.
budgeting.
27.
Irene is an employee associated with producing goods, services,
and ideas that satisfy the needs of customers. Thus, she works
most closely with:
A.
financing.
111. B.
budgeting.
C.
production.
D.
human resources.
E.
operations.
28.
Operations management has the primary responsibility for:
A.
employing computer-assisted manufacturing (CAM) exclusively
for all transformations.
B.
transforming goods and services into resources.
C.
creating products that satisfy customers.
D.
developing only such products which are intangible.
E.
converting outputs into inputs.
112. 29.
Which of the following is true of the transformation process?
A.
It is the development and administration of activities that
transform resources into goods, services, and ideas.
B.
It is the conversion of human, financial, and physical resources
into goods, services, and ideas.
C.
It involves the assigning of labor, energy, and money for the
advertisement of services.
D.
It is associated with the promotion and pricing of goods and
services.
E.
It deals with the distribution and logistics of products.
30.
Viewed from the perspective of operations, the money used to
purchase a carpenter's tools and the electricity used to run his
power saw are:
A.
processes.
114. 32.
From the perspective of operations, food sold at a restaurant and
services provided by a plumbing company are:
A.
processes.
B.
inputs.
C.
outputs.
D.
stocks.
E.
costs.
33.
How do operations managers ensure quality and efficiency
during the transformation process?
A.
They ensure that their products never use the modular design of
transforming because this process increases the cost of labor.
B.
115. They always employ computer-assisted manufacturing (CAM)
technologies to guide and control the transformation processes.
C.
They shift from material-requirements planning (MRP) to just-
in-time (JIT) inventory management.
D.
They keep the work cycling between two different batches of
labor in order to track any loopholes.
E.
They take feedback at various points in the transformation
process and compare them to established standards.
34.
Money, employees, time, and equipment are examples of an
airline's _____ to the transformation process.
A.
outputs
B.
intangibles
C.
products
D.
services
E.
116. inputs
35.
Which of the following is true of the transformation process?
A.
It does not occur in service companies.
B.
It occurs in all organizations, regardless of what they produce
or their objectives.
C.
It occurs only in manufacturing companies because they use
tangible inputs.
D.
It excludes fund-raising and promoting a cause.
E.
It is not a part of government agencies because they do not use
machineries for mass production.
36.
Which of the following is NOT a point of difference between
service providers and manufacturers?
A.
117. Services are more labor-intensive.
B.
Manufacturing has more uniform outputs.
C.
Services do not undergo a transformation process.
D.
Manufacturing productivity can be measured straightforwardly.
E.
Service providers have less control over the variability of their
inputs.
37.
For most organizations, the ultimate objective is for produced
outputs to be:
A.
easy to develop.
B.
tangible, hard goods.
C.
inexpensive.
D.
worth more than the cost of inputs.
E.
118. equal to the costs of input.
38.
The nature of the service provider's product requires:
A.
fewer employee inputs.
B.
a higher degree of customer contact.
C.
delayed consumption.
D.
more expensive inputs.
E.
more standardization.
39.
Actual performance of the service provider's product typically
occurs:
A.
several days after purchase.
B.
119. outside the service provider's facility.
C.
at the point of consumption.
D.
in the buyer's home.
E.
before the point of consumption.
40.
To receive a haircut, you generally have to go to a salon. This
information reflects the _____.
A.
uniformity of inputs
B.
uniformity of outputs
C.
labor required
D.
measurement of productivity
E.
nature and consumption of output
120. 41.
The products of service providers tend to be more customized
than those of manufacturers because:
A.
different customers have different needs.
B.
the requirements of all customers are more or less the same.
C.
technological innovations have reduced variability.
D.
there is more capital required in service provision.
E.
the specific needs of individual customers get incorporated.
42.
The fact that a hairdresser gives each customer a different
haircut relates to the difference between service providers and
manufacturers in terms of:
A.
consumption of output.
B.
uniformity of inputs.
121. C.
labor required.
D.
measurement of productivity.
E.
uniformity of output.
43.
When compared to service providers, the products of
manufacturers are typically:
A.
more labor-intensive.
B.
less uniform.
C.
more difficult to store.
D.
more standardized.
E.
cheaper.
44.
Compared to service providers, manufacturers generally:
122. A.
are more labor-intensive.
B.
are more capital-intensive.
C.
customize their outputs.
D.
have difficulty measuring productivity.
E.
produce intangible outputs.
45.
Zedpro Computer Company is determining demand for its future
products and how much consumers are willing to pay. For this,
Zedpro should rely on:
A.
the economy.
B.
marketing research.
C.
its competitor's moves.
D.
successful past experiences.
123. E.
intuition.
46.
As a manufacturing process, the term standardization means:
A.
ensuring that each product is sold at the same price.
B.
that similar products, manufactured by different companies, all
operate in the same manner.
C.
making identical, interchangeable components or complete
products.
D.
making the exact product a particular customer needs or wants.
E.
making an item in self-contained units that can be interchanged
to create different products.
47.
A primary reason for using standardization is to:
124. A.
reduce production costs.
B.
increase consumer options.
C.
reduce product quality.
D.
increase variations.
E.
foster creativity.
48.
Building a computer so that the components can be installed in
different configurations to meet customers' needs is a result of:
A.
flexible manufacturing.
B.
modular design.
C.
customization.
D.
specialization.
E.
125. varied engineering.
49.
Facility location decisions are complex because:
A.
all customers want plants nearby.
B.
transportation costs are excessively high.
C.
speed of delivery is not very important.
D.
proximity to market or community characteristics are not
important factors.
E.
the firm must live with it once the decision has been made and
implemented.
50.
A company that manufactures large products, such as houses or
bridges, may require that all resources be brought to a central
location during production. This type of facility layout is
called:
126. A.
fixed-position layout.
B.
product layout.
C.
line layout.
D.
central control layout.
E.
assembly line layout.
51.
A company performing large, complex tasks such as
construction or exploration is called a(n):
A.
continuous manufacturing organization.
B.
intermittent organization.
C.
project organization.
D.
exploration company.
E.
survey company.
127. 52.
A metal fabrication plant with a cutting department, a drilling
department, and a polishing department would likely use _____
layout.
A.
fixed-position
B.
horizontal-position
C.
process
D.
geographical
E.
customer-based
53.
A hospital having an X-ray unit, an obstetrics unit, few
emergency rooms, and other units would best be classified as
a(n):
A.
intermittent organization.
128. B.
project organization.
C.
continuous manufacturing organization.
D.
fixed organization.
E.
assembly line organizations.
54.
An organization that creates many products with similar
characteristics, such as automobiles, television sets, or vacuum
cleaners, would most likely be categorized as a(n):
A.
continuous manufacturing organization.
B.
intermittent organization.
C.
project organization.
D.
process layout organization.
E.
fixed-position organization.
129. 55.
Which of the following statements is true?
A.
Organizations can start greening their supply chains by
increasing resource consumption and waste.
B.
The adoption of 100 percent wind-powered electricity increases
carbon emissions.
C.
Aluminum cans can be recycled an infinite number of times.
D.
It is mandatory for organizations to incorporate sustainability
into their business models.
E.
Balancing profitability and socially responsibility is impossible
for corporate organizations.
56.
Which of the following activities is NOT included in supply
chain management?
A.
Getting products to customers
B.
130. Obtaining and managing raw materials
C.
Managing finished products
D.
Packaging finished products
E.
Researching and developing products
57.
All activities involved in obtaining and managing raw materials
and component parts, managing finished products, packaging
them, and getting them to customers are part of:
A.
stock management.
B.
supply chain management.
C.
engineering.
D.
finance.
E.
strategic planning.
131. 58.
Within organizations, purchasing is also referred to as:
A.
consumption.
B.
disposition.
C.
acquisition.
D.
procurement.
E.
budgeting.
59.
The buying of all materials needed by an organization is called:
A.
consumer behavior.
B.
capital expenditure.
C.
purchasing.
132. D.
standardization.
E.
just-in-time management.
60.
The term _____ refers to all raw materials, components,
completed or partially completed products, and pieces of
equipment a firm uses.
A.
inventory
B.
order quantities
C.
production
D.
raw materials inventory
E.
intangibles
61.
Materials that have been purchased to be used as inputs in
133. making other products are included in:
A.
finished inventory.
B.
partial inventory.
C.
raw materials inventory.
D.
supplier inventory.
E.
component parts inventory.
62.
The process of determining how many supplies and goods are
needed, keeping track of quantities on hand, each item's
location, and who is responsible for it is called:
A.
process layout.
B.
product layout.
C.
material-requirements planning.
134. D.
inventory control.
E.
continuous manufacturing control.
63.
A model of inventory management that identifies the optimum
number of items to order to minimize the costs of managing
them is called the:
A.
just-in-time management model.
B.
flexible scheduling model.
C.
material requirements planning model.
D.
economic order quantity model.
E.
logistics model.
64.
Minimizing inventory by providing an almost continuous flow
of items from suppliers to the production facility is referred to
135. as:
A.
just-in-time inventory management.
B.
flexible scheduling.
C.
material-requirements planning.
D.
logistics.
E.
the economic order quantity model.
65.
A planning system that schedules the precise quantity of
materials needed to make a product is called:
A.
just-in-time management.
B.
material-requirements planning.
C.
economic order quantities.
D.
flexible scheduling.
136. E.
cycle-time management.
66.
One popular method of scheduling is the _____ which identifies
all the major activities or events required to complete a project,
arranges them in a sequence or path, determines the critical
path, and estimates the time required for each event.
A.
computer-assisted manufacturing (CAM)
B.
Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)
C.
Critical Path Method (CPM)
D.
economic order quantity (EOQ) model
E.
material-requirements planning (MRP)
67.
The system in which management collects and analyzes
information about the production process to pinpoint quality
problems in the production system is called:
137. A.
total quality management.
B.
statistical process control.
C.
Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT).
D.
operations control.
E.
production control.
68.
Which of the following is true about quality?
A.
It is a concern only for manufacturing companies.
B.
It is a concern only for service providers.
C.
It always indicates the price charged for a product.
D.
It is a critical element of operations management.
E.
138. Its definition should vary from employee to employee.
69.
The degree to which a good or service meets the demands and
requirements of customers is called:
A.
efficiency.
B.
productivity.
C.
quality.
D.
effectiveness.
E.
customer satisfaction.
70.
It is especially difficult to measure quality characteristics
when:
A.
a firm uses ISO 9000.
B.
a firm has a total quality management program.
139. C.
the product is a good.
D.
the product is a service.
E.
a firm uses statistical process control.
71.
_____ refers to the processes an organization uses to maintain
its established quality standards.
A.
Quality control
B.
Implementation
C.
Continuous manufacturing
D.
Fixed-position layout
E.
Logistics
72.
_____ is a philosophy that uniform commitment to quality in all
140. areas of an organization will promote a culture that meets
customers' perceptions of quality.
A.
The marketing concept
B.
Total quality manufacturing
C.
ISO 9000
D.
Statistical process control
E.
Total quality management
73.
The first step in quality control for any organization is:
A.
undertaking inspections.
B.
establishing standards.
C.
sampling products.
D.
141. implementing services.
E.
initiating corrections.
74.
Sampling is likely to be used:
A.
when inspection tests are destructive.
B.
when every product must be tested because of human life and
safety.
C.
to assess the quality of services.
D.
sampling is the most expensive option.
E.
testing takes a few minutes to complete.
75.
It is desirable to test only a sample of the product in all of the
following circumstances EXCEPT when:
A.
inspection procedures are expensive.
142. B.
elaborate testing equipment is required.
C.
testing takes a significant number of hours to complete.
D.
the product is destroyed by sampling.
E.
sampling does not destroy the product.
Chapter 10
Multiple Choice Questions
26.
All of the following are activities performed by human
resources managers EXCEPT:
A.
planning.
B.
recruiting.
C.
selling.
143. D.
training.
E.
compensating.
27.
A human resources manager deciding how many new employees
an organization will need to fill vacant positions in the near
future is engaging in the activity of ____.
A.
recruiting
B.
planning
C.
training
D.
selling
E.
compensating
28.
_____ involves determining, through observation and study, the
specific tasks that comprise a job and the knowledge, skills, and
abilities necessary to perform the job.
144. A.
Job description
B.
Job specification
C.
Job design
D.
Job analysis
E.
Job appraisal
29.
An overview of a job's title, tasks, relationships with other jobs,
the physical and mental skills required, duties, responsibilities,
and working conditions is referred to as the:
A.
job appraisal.
B.
job portfolio.
C.
job description.
D.
job analysis.
145. E.
job specification.
30.
The qualifications necessary for a specific job, in terms of
education, experience, and personal and physical characteristics
are spelled out in the ____.
A.
job evaluation
B.
job specification
C.
job analysis
D.
job description
E.
job assessment
31.
______ refers to forming a pool of qualified applicants from
which management can select new employees.
A.
Planning
147. 33.
Which of the following is an internal source of recruitment for
an organization?
A.
Vocational schools
B.
Current employees
C.
Social networking sites
D.
Competing firms
E.
Colleges
34.
A characteristic of search firms known as headhunters is that
they:
A.
focus on internal rather than external sources of recruitment.
B.
specialize in recruiting employees for entry-level jobs.
C.
look for qualified candidates who are working for other
148. companies.
D.
undertake training for unusual job requirements or skillsets.
E.
operate as career planners for employees within organizations.
35.
An employer beginning the selection process for new employees
would begin with ____.
A.
training
B.
reference checking
C.
testing
D.
the application form
E.
orientation
36.
Which stage of the employee selection process allows
149. management to obtain detailed information about an applicant's
experience and skills, reasons for changing jobs, and an idea of
whether the person would fit in with the company?
A.
Orientation
B.
Training
C.
Testing
D.
Reference checking
E.
Interviewing
37.
During which stage of the selection process is a candidate
expected to undergo physical examinations to determine his or
her suitability for a specific job?
A.
Orientation
B.
Reference checking
C.
Interviewing
150. D.
Filling out the application form
E.
Testing
38.
At which stage in the selection process is an employer likely to
make use of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator?
A.
Interviewing
B.
Reference checking
C.
Orientation
D.
Training
E.
Testing
39.
Reference checking usually involves:
151. A.
monitoring the working conditions in a firm.
B.
checking a company's compliance with its policies.
C.
assessing an applicant's potential for a job.
D.
checking the previous work experience of a candidate.
E.
identifying possible sources for recruitment.
40.
The _____ is a federal agency established by the Civil Rights
Act of 1964 and dedicated to increasing job opportunities for
women and minorities and eliminating job discrimination based
on race, religion, color, sex, national origin, or handicap.
A.
National Center for Civil and Human Rights
B.
United States Commission on Civil Rights
C.
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
D.
Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation
152. E.
National Association for the Advancement of Colored People
41.
Orientation is the human resources function that:
A.
includes building tours, introductions, and socialization.
B.
provides on-the-job training to employees.
C.
appraises employees subjectively.
D.
teaches employees to do specific job tasks.
E.
occurs after the employee is on the job for several months.
42.
An orientation includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
on-the-job training.
B.
a tour of the building.
C.
introductions to supervisors.
153. D.
description of company benefits.
E.
distribution of organizational manuals.
43.
Vikram is an employee of the Monsanto research lab. In an
effort to improve his managerial skills and prepare him for a
promotion, his company sends him on a series of experiential
management training exercises at company expense. By helping
him increase his knowledge, Vikram's company is involved in:
A.
development.
B.
orientation.
C.
testing.
D.
grade assignment.
E.
performance appraisal.
154. 44.
A(n) _____ is a performance appraisal method that provides
feedback from a panel that typically includes superiors, peers,
and subordinates.
A.
ranking
B.
grade assignment
C.
polygraph
D.
360-degree feedback system
E.
behavioral checklist
45.
When Sophia Smith moved to a new job that involved more
responsibility and an increase in compensation, the move would
typically be considered a(n):
A.
transfer.
B.
conciliation.
155. C.
separation.
D.
arbitration.
E.
promotion.
46.
Joe was recently moved to a new position in his company that
involved learning new skills and undertaking work assignments.
However, he received no salary raise. Joe's change in position
can best be described as a(n):
A.
promotion.
B.
lockout.
C.
separation.
D.
arbitration.
E.
transfer.
156. 47.
Which of the following statements is true of a separation?
A.
It is an employee's departure from an organization due to
termination or some other reason.
B.
It is an employment change that involves demotion.
C.
It is an advancement to a higher-level job.
D.
It is a temporary suspension of employment due to violation of
work rules.
E.
It is a horizontal move from one job to another within the same
company.
48.
Socorro was terminated from her job by her employer because
she was repeatedly late to work. She contributes to her
company's turnover through:
A.
conciliation.
B.
158. Human resources departments strive to:
A.
increase lockouts.
B.
avoid arbitration to resolve third party issues.
C.
minimize losses due to separations and transfers.
D.
discourage strikebreaking.
E.
fire employees because of their race, religion, gender, or age.
51.
Financial compensation falls into two general categories:
A.
time wages and piece wages.
B.
wages and salaries.
C.
wages and benefits.
D.
commissions and incentives.
E.
159. salaries and benefits.
52.
A wage/salary survey indicates:
A.
how much employees in a company need to earn in order to
meet their financial needs.
B.
how much compensation similar firms are paying for jobs that
the firms have in common.
C.
the proportion of compensation that can be paid through non-
financial methods.
D.
how satisfied employees are with the compensation they receive
from their employers.
E.
the differences between the salaries of men and women
performing the same jobs.
53.
Which of the following statements is true of payment using time
wages?
160. A.
It encourages employees to be more productive.
B.
It provides incentives to increase productivity.
C.
It is primarily used for skilled craftworkers.
D.
It is appropriate when employees are continually interrupted.
E.
It is used when quantity is more important than quality.
54.
In a sales company, employees are paid a percentage of their
sales in order to motivate them to sell as much as they can. The
company incorporates _____ as an incentive system.
A.
commissions
B.
time wages
C.
profit sharing
D.
salaries
161. E.
bonuses
55.
Which of the following statements is true of salary as employee
compensation?
A.
It involves distributing a percentage of company profits.
B.
It is a nonfinancial reward.
C.
It is associated with white-collar workers.
D.
It involves paying a percentage of an employee's sales.
E.
It a monetary reward for exceptional performance.
56.
If a company pays its workers additional compensation at the
end of the year as a "thank you" for good work, this monetary
reward would most likely be categorized as:
163. 58.
Which of the following statements is true of employee stock
ownership plans?
A.
They encourage employees to become involved in
strikebreaking.
B.
They create a sense of partnership between a firm and its
employees.
C.
They reduce employee morale and productivity.
D.
They increase the possibility of lockouts.
E.
They are applicable only to senior employees of a firm.
59.
Which of the following forms of compensation is NOT a
benefit?
A.
Paid vacation