a) Let W be a subspace of R^n and v a vector in R^n. Suppose that w and w\' are orthogonal vectors with w in W and that v=w+w\'. Is it necessarily true that w\' is in W(orthogonal complement)? Either prove that it is true or find a counterexample. b) Let {v1,....,vn} be an othogonal basis for R^n and let W=span(v1,...,vk). Is it necessarily true that W(orthogonal complement) = span(v k+1,......,vn)? Either prove that it is true or find a counterexample. Solution a) No, not necessary. Take n = 3, and let W be the subspace of all points (x,y,z) in R3 with z = 0. Let v = (1,1,0) and w = (1,0,0) and w\' = (0,1,0). Clearly, v = w + w\', and also (w,w\') = 0 so w,w\' are orthogonal. But clearly w\' also is in W and w\' is not zero, hence it is not in Wperp. b) Yes. Since v1,v2,...vn form an orthogonal basis for Rn we have (vi,vj) = 0 whenever i and j are distinct. We know that dim(W) + dim(Wperp) = n. Since W is spanned by v1,v2,...,vk it follows that W has dim = k which implies that Wperp has dim = n-k. Moreover, since the vi are orthogonal, each vi is orthogonal to vj where 0< i < k+1, k.