Clinical Pharmacology MCQS PART CHEMOTHERAPY . Chemotherapy are part of clinical pharmacoloy deal with the infections. this learn about the medicine curing viral infection , bacterial infection , and other parasites such as ascaris , trichomonas etc,.....It ie better that this kind ofmedicne are handled carefully and used properly since the misuse of them cause many socialproblemof death increasing due to the resistance of microbe .

1. CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18
Chemotherapy exercises
Which one are a group of Anti-
metabolites?
a) Aminoglycosides
b) Carbapenems
c) Fluoroquinolones
d) Polyenes
e) Sulfonamide
2. Which one of the following agents
are narrow spectrum antibiotics?
a) Aminoglycosides
b) Cotrimoxazole
c) Fluoroquinolones
d) Tetracyclines
3. Which one of the following is a
protease inhibitor?
a) Enfuvirtide
b) Lamivudine
c) Nevirapine
d) Saquinavir
e) Zanamivir
4. Which is the most likely to cause
pancreatitis?
a) Lamivudine
b) Stavudine
c) Zalcitabine
d) Zidovudine
5. Which of the following group of
antibiotics show(s) time-dependent
killing?
a) Aminoglycosides
b) Fluoroquinolones
c) Macrolides
d) Penicillins
6. The symptoms of malaria can be
alleviated by suppressing the blood
schizonticides. Which one of the
following terms is used to describe
this?
a) Causal Prophylaxis
b) Radical Cure
c) Suppressive Cure
d) Suppressive Prophylaxis
e) Terminal Prophylaxis
7. Which one of the following anti-
malarial drugs is a blood
Commented [T1]: oDevelopment of alternative
metabolic pathways
Eg: The production of a modified form of dihydropteroate
synthetase or of dihydrofolate reductase with less or none
affinity to drug explains why bacteria may respectively
become resistant to sulfamides or to inhibitors of DHFR
such as trimethoprim
Commented [T2]: oTetracyclines are broad-spectrum
bacteriostatic antibiotics. They are active against many
gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, including
anaerobes, rickettsiae, chlamydiae, mycoplasmas ; and
against some protozoa, eg, amebas.
oThe antibacterial activities of most tetracyclines are
similar except that tetracycline-resistant strains may
remain susceptible to doxycycline or minocycline, drugs
that are less rapidly transported by the pump that is
responsible for resistance.
Commented [T3]: oConcentration dependent killing
agent
oBolus infusion achieves high peak levels, favoring rapid
killing.
oEg: aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones
oSignificant increase in the rate of bacterial killing as the
concentration of antibiotic increases from 4- to 64-fold
the MIC of the drug for the infecting organism.
Commented [T4]: oTime dependent killing agent
oEg:beta-lactams,lycopeptides,macrolides, clindamycin
oKilling effect is best predicted by the percentage of time
–that blood concentrations of a drug remain above the
MIC.
–increasing the concentration of ATB to higher
multiples of the MIC does not significantly increase the
rate of kill
–Eg., for penicillins and cephalosporins, dosing
schedules that ensure blood levels greater than MIC for
60 – 70 % of the time was showed to be clinically
effective.
oSevere infections are best treated by continuous
infusion of these agents rather than by intermittent
dosing.

2. CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18
schizonticide against all four types
of malarial parasites, is gametocidal
against all forms except Plasmodium
Falciparum and is also used for
suppressive prophylaxis but is not
active against liver stage malarial
parasites?
a) Artemether
b) Chloroquine
c) Fansidar
d) Mefloquine
e) Primaquine
8. Which one of the following is a
proliferation signal inhibitor?
a) Cyclophosphamide
b) Muromonab
c) Prednisone
d) Sirolimus
e) Tacrolimus
Answers 1. e 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. d 6. c
7. b 8. d
9. Which of the following are known
with the post antibiotic effect
a) Macrolide
b) Aminoglycoside
c) Fluoroquinolone
d) Beta lactams
e) Penicillins
10. The following are involve in
microbial resistance except
a) Presence of inactivating
Enzymes
b) Normal host physiological
changes
c) Reduction of antibiotic to
accumulate in the microbial
cell
d) Alteration of the binding site
e) Development of alternative
metabolic pathways
11. The following are the reasons of
combination therapy in microbial
treatment except
a) To provide broad-spectrum
empirical therapy in seriously
ill patients.
Commented [T5]: oPost antibiotic effect
oA persistent suppression of microbial growth that occurs
after levels of antibiotic have fallen below the MIC.
oAntimicrobial drugs with a long PAE (several hours)
often require only one dose per day.
–Eg., aminoglycosides and fluoroquinolones,
particularly against gram-negative bacteria.
Commented [T6]:
Commented [T7]: 1)To provide broad-spectrum
empirical therapy in seriously ill patients.
2)To treat polymicrobial infections such as intra-
abdominal abscesses. The antimicrobial combination
chosen should cover the most common known or
suspected pathogens but need not cover all possible
pathogens.
3)To decrease the emergence of resistant strains. The
value of combination therapy in this setting has been
clearly demonstrated for tuberculosis.
4)To decrease dose-related toxicity by using reduced
doses of one or more components of the drug regimen.
5)To obtain enhanced inhibition or killing.

3. CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18
b) To treat polymicrobial
infections such as intra-
abdominal abscesses.
c) To decrease the emergence of
resistant strains.
d) To decrease dose-related
toxicity by using single drug
regime
e) To obtain enhanced inhibition
or killing.
f) Only a and b are correct
g) All are correct
h) All are non-correct
12 the following drugs are the cell
wall synthesis bacterial inhibitor
except
a) Vancomycin
b) Penicillins
c) Cephalosporins
d) Bacitracin
e) Fosfomycin
f) Aztreonam
g) Imipenem
h) none
14. The following are not inhibitor of
last step (3rd) cell wall synthesis
except
a) Cycloserine
b) Imipenem
c) Vancomycin
d) Penicillins
e) Bacitracin
f) b and d are correct
15 the following is/are involves in
second step cell wall synthesis
inhibition
a) Peptidoglycan synthetase
b) Fosfomycin
c) Cycloserine
d) Vancomycin
e) a and d are correct
f) all above are involves
16. The following is/are involved
in first step cell wall synthesis
a) fosfomycin
b) aztreonam
Commented [T8]:
Commented [T9]:

4. CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18
c) pyrivyltransferase
d) ciprofloxacin
e) a and c are correct
f) none are correct
17. The following are involves in pre-
step of cell wall synthesis except
a) cycloserine
b) phospholipase
c) bacitracin
d) racemase
e) transpeptidase
f) all above
18. The following is in the second
generation cephalosporin antibiotics
except
a) cefepim
b) Cefaclor
c) Cefprozil
d) Cefuroxime
e) Cefoxitin
19 T/F penicillin V is orally
administered while penicillin G is
injectable
20 T/F Penicillins V and G have
narrow sprectrum while meticillin
have broad spectrum.
21. Regarding cephalosporins,the
following statement are correct
except
a) Cephalosporins are similar to
penicillins chemically, in
mechanism of action, and in
toxicity.
b) Cephalosporins are more
stable than penicillins to many
bacterial β-lactamases and
have a broader spectrum of
activity.
c) Cephalosporins are not active
against enterococci and
Listeria monocytogenes.
d) Cephalosporins can be
classified into four generations,
depending mainly on the
spectrum of antimicrobial
activity.
e) As a general rule, first-
generation compounds have
better activity against gram-
Commented [T10]:
Commented [T11]:

5. CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18
negative organisms gram-
negative aerobic organisms
f) All are correct
22. Regarding Cephalosporins which
is correct
a) They are cross sensitized as
penicillins to patient
b) They cross placenta and
known as teratogen
c) They are commonly
administered orally
d) Cefotaxime is indicated on
meningitis caused by H.
influenzae
e) a and d are correct
f) all above are true
23. Regarding carbapenems
imipenem which is incorrect
a) they are responsible of
nephrotoxity for non-
combination therapy
b) dehydropeptidase enzyme is
responsible for it toxicity
c) it is broad spectrum antibiotics
d) cilastatin is used in
combination therapy for
detoxification
e) are responsible for phlebitis
24.T/F Ertapenem is less active
than meropenem and imipenem
against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
and acinetobacter species and was
proven that not degraded by renal
dehydropeptidase as aztreonam
25.T/F Bacitracin has serious toxic
effects on the kidney and is
therefore only used topically for
infections of mouth, nose, eye and
skin
26. Regarding bacterial protein
synthesis which statement is true
a) chloramphenicol is responsible
for peptidation
b) demoxycycline is responsible
for initiations
c) streptomycin is responsible for
decodation
Commented [T12]: oCephalosporins are similar to
penicillins chemically, in mechanism of action, and in
toxicity.
oCephalosporins are more stable than penicillins to many
bacterial β-lactamases and therefore usually have a
broader spectrum of activity.
oCephalosporins are not active against enterococci and
Listeria monocytogenes.
oCephalosporins can be classified into four major groups
or generations, depending mainly on the spectrum of
antimicrobial activity.
As a general rule, first-generation compounds have better
activity against gram-positive organisms and the later
compounds exhibit improved activity against gram-negative
aerobic organisms
Commented [T13]: oSome orally, most IV or IM
because of their poor oral absorption.
oAll distribute very well into body fluids
–adequate therapeutic levels in the CSF - only with the
third-generation
•ceftriaxone or cefotaxime effective in the treatment
of neonatal and childhood meningitis caused by H.
influenzae ...
Commented [T14]: oBroad-spectrum including
penicillase producing G+/-, anaerobes and P. aeruginosa
oAdministered i.v., penetrates well into CNS.
oExcreted by glomerular filtration : Dose adjust in renal
insufficiency
oImipenem undergoes cleavage by a dehydropeptidase
found in the brush border of the proximal renal tubule to
form an inactive metabolite that is potentially
nephrotoxic – ...
Commented [T15]: oMeropenem is similar to
imipenem but has slightly greater activity against gram-
negative aerobes and slightly less activity against gram-
positives.
oErtapenem is less active than meropenem or imipenem
against Pseudomonas aeruginosa and acinetobacter
species. It is not degraded by renal dehydropeptidase.
oAdverse effects:
–nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea ...
Commented [T16]: oBacitracin inhibits cell wall
formation by interfering with dephosphorylation in
cycling of the lipid carrier that transfers peptidoglycan
subunits to the growing cell wall. There is no cross-
resistance between bacitracin and other antimicrobial
drugs.
oIt is most active against G-pos. organisms including
staphylococci producing β-lactamase ...
Commented [T17]: oTetracyclines
–Doxycycline ,-Minocycline,-Demoxycyline,Tetracycline
oMacrolides
–Erythromycin,-Clarithromycin
–Azithromycin,-Telithromycin
oLincosamides
–Lincomycin,-Clindamycin ...

6. CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18
d) erythromycin is responsible for
translocation
e) clindamycin is responsible for
elongations
f) all statement are correct
g) all statement are incorrect
27. T/F Tetracyclines cross the
placenta to reach the fetus and
are also excreted in milk. As a
result of chelation with calcium,
Tetracyclines are bound to and
damage growing bones and teeth.
28. T/F Chloramphenicol is a
potent inhibitor of microbial
protein synthesis acting on
peptidyl transferase
30. Regarding chloramphenicol
,select the right answer
a) binds reversibly to the 50S
subunit of the bacterial
ribosome
b) Chloramphenicol commonly
causes a dose-related
reversible suppression of red
cell production at dosages
exceeding 50 mg/kg/d after
1–2 weeks
c) Newborn infants lack an
effective glucuronic acid
conjugation mechanism for
the degradation and
detoxification of
chloramphenicol
d) when infants are given
dosages above 50 mg/kg/d,
the drug may accumulate,
resulting in the gray baby
syndrome
e) all statements are correct
31. T/F There is no reports on
linezolid inhibition of MAO activity
thus patients are cautioned not to
consume large quantities of
tyramine-containing foods (early
oxazolidinones showed to inhibit
MAO activity, reversible increase in
the pressor effects of
pseudoephedrine was shown).
32. T/F Clarithromycin is derived
from erythromycin by addition of a
Commented [T18]: oChloramphenicol is a potent
inhibitor of microbial protein synthesis. It binds reversibly
to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. It inhibits
the peptidyl transferase step of protein synthesis.
oChloramphenicol commonly causes a dose-related
reversible suppression of red cell production at dosages
exceeding 50 mg/kg/d after 1–2 weeks. Aplastic anemia is
a rare consequence of chloramphenicol administration by
any route. It is an idiosyncratic reaction unrelated to
dose, though it occurs more frequently with prolonged
use. It tends to be irreversible and can be fatal.
oNewborn infants lack an effective glucuronic acid
conjugation mechanism for the degradation and
detoxification of chloramphenicol. Consequently, when
infants are given dosages above 50 mg/kg/d, the drug
may accumulate, resulting in the gray baby syndrome,
with vomiting, flaccidity, hypothermia, gray color, shock,
and collapse.
o To avoid this toxic effect, chloramphenicol should be
used with caution in infants and the dosage limited to 50
mg/kg/d or less (during the first week of life) in full-term
infants and 25 mg/kg/d in premature infants.

7. CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18
methyl group and has improved acid
stability and oral absorption
compared with erythromycin. Its
mechanism of action is the same as
that of erythromycin
33. T/F Spectinomycin is an
aminocyclitol antibiotic that is
structurally related to
aminoglycosides, lacks amino
sugars and glyosidic bonds
34. Regarding gentamycin
antibiotics which is not correct
a) it is in aminoglycoside class
b) penetration through the cell
membrane of the bacterium
depends partialy on oxygen-
dependent active transport
c) its dosage interval are
estimated reffering to
creatinine clearance
d) all statement are false
e) all statement are true
35. The following antibiotics inhibit
the bacterial protein synthesis
except
a) amphotericin
b) sulfonamide
c) Erythromycin
d) trimethoprim
e) ciprofloxacin
f) quinolone
g) a and c
36. The following are active in
antibacterial activity for bacteria
depend on exogenous sources of
folate except.
a) Trimethoprim
b) Quinolones
c) Sulfonamide
d) Pyrimethamine
e) Paracetamol
f) c and e
37. Short answer about drugs and
enzymes inhibitions
a) drug inhibit DNA Gyrase
b) drug inhibit DHFR
c) drug inhibit transpeptidase
Commented [T19]: oCLGE is highly correlated with CLCR
oCLCR or creatininemia is used for prediction of the
individual dosage regimen in patients with renal
impairment
oAnother possibility how to predict the dosage regimen is
TDM (therapeutic drug monitoring - see below)
oThe dose is calculated according to the body weight
(mg/kg), the interval between the doses is adjusted
according to clearance of creatinine (CLcr) or
creatininemia
Commented [T20]: o
o
o
oSusceptible microorganisms require extracellular PABA
in order to form dihydrofolic acid an essential step in the
production of purines and the synthesis of nucleic acids.
oSulfonamides are structural analogs of PABA that
competitively inhibit dihydropteroate synthase. They
inhibit growth by reversibly blocking folic acid synthesis.
Mammalian cells (and some bacteria) lack the enzymes
required for folate synthesis and depend upon exogenous
sources of folate; therefore, they are not susceptible to
sulfonamides.
oSulfonamide resistance may occur as a result of
mutations that cause overproduction of PABA, cause
production of a folic acid-synthesizing enzyme that has
low affinity for sulfonamides, or cause a loss of
permeability to the sulfonamide.
oSulfonamides inhibit both gram-positive and gram-
negative bacteria, nocardia, Chlamydia trachomatis, and
some protozoa. Some enteric bacteria, such as E coli,
klebsiella, salmonella, shigella, and enterobacter, are
inhibited.
oInterestingly, rickettsiae are not inhibited by
sulfonamides but are actually stimulated in their growth.

8. CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18
d) drug inhibit DHPS
e) drug inhibit pyrivyltransferase
f) drug inhibit peptidoglycans
synthase
38. What is the combination therapy
of the component of the following?
a) Bactrim
b) Augmentin
c) Cotrimox.
39. Regarding quinolones, choose
the incorrect statement
a) Quinolones block bacterial
DNA synthesis by inhibiting
bacterial topoisomerase II
and topoisomerase IV.
b) Inhibition of DNA gyrase
prevents the relaxation of
positively supercoiled DNA
that is required for normal
transcription and
replication.
c) Inhibition of topoisomerase
IV interferes with separation
of replicated chromosomal
DNA into the respective
daughter cells during cell
division.
d) Earlier quinolones (nalidixic
acid, oxolinic acid,
cinoxacin) achieve systemic
antibacterial levels.
e) Fluorinated derivatives
(ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin,
and others have greatly
improved antibacterial
activity compared with
nalidixic acid and achieve
bactericidal levels in blood
and tissues
40.T/F Fluoroquinolone are
routinely recommended for use in
patients under 18 years of age.
41.T/F.Enter the bacteriua by
passive diffusion
42.T/F Fluoroquinolones are
effective in treatment of both
Gonorrhea and syphilis
43.T/F.The second, third- and
fourth-generation inhibition of drug
metabolism - may raise the serum
Commented [T21]: oCombination (AntiPABA+ IDHFR)
–Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim (BactrimR,
cotrimoxazole)
–Sulfadoxine + Pyrimethamine (FansidarR)
Commented [T22]: oQuinolones block bacterial DNA
synthesis by inhibiting bacterial topoisomerase II (DNA
gyrase) and topoisomerase IV.
oInhibition of DNA gyrase prevents the relaxation of
positively supercoiled DNA that is required for normal
transcription and replication.
oInhibition of topoisomerase IV interferes with
separation of replicated chromosomal DNA into the
respective daughter cells during cell division.
oEarlier quinolones (nalidixic acid, oxolinic acid,
cinoxacin) did not achieve systemic antibacterial levels.
oThese agents were useful only for treatment of lower
urinary tract infections; nalidixic acid and cinoxacin are
still available.
Fluorinated derivatives (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, and
others have greatly improved antibacterial activity
compared with nalidixic acid and achieve bactericidal levels
in blood and tissues

9. CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18
levels of warfarin, theophylline,
caffeine, and cyclosporine.
44.T/F.Cimetidine interferes with
elimination of the fluoroquinolones.
45. Regarding nitrofurantoin,
choose incorrect statement.
a) no cross-resistance
b) bacteriostatic and bactericidal
c) antagonist of nalidixic acid
d) all are correct
44.write the mechanism of action of
the following
a) metronidazole
b) fusidic acid
45. Regarding anti- TB drug, the
following are first line anti-TB drug
except
a) Isoniazid
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Rifampin
d) Pyrazinamide
e) Ethambutol
f) Streptomycin
46. the most powerful anti-TB drug
in combinations are:
a) Isoniazid
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Rifampin
d) Pyrazinamide
e) Ethambutol
f) Streptomycin
g) a and c are correct
47. Regarding the tuberculosis
treatment, choose the correct
statement
a) the first line anti-TB drug
combination used are isoniazid
,rifampicin ,pyrazinamide and
kanamycin or ethambutol
b) the most powerful anti-TB in
combination are Rifampin and
pyrazinamide that cure up to
98% patient
c) Ethambutol is an inhibitor of
mycobacterial arabinosyl
transferases, which are
Commented [T23]:
1st line
oIsoniazid 300 mg/d
oRifampin 600 mg/d
oPyrazinamide 25 mg/kg/d
oEthambutol 15–25 mg/kg/d
oStreptomycin 15 mg/kg/d
2nd line
oAmikacin 15 mg/kg/d
oAminosalicylic acid 8–12 g/d
oCapreomycin 15 mg/kg/d
oCiprofloxacin 1500 mg/d
oClofazimine 200 mg/d
oCycloserine 500-1000 mg/d
oEthionamide 500–750 mg/d
oLevofloxacin 500 mg/d
oRifabutin 300 mg/d2
oRifapentine 600 mg once or twice weekly

10. CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18
encoded by the embCAB
operon
d) addition of pyrazinamide to an
rifampin-pyrazinamide
combination for the first 2
months allows the total
duration of therapy to be
reduced to 6 months without
loss of efficacy
e) therapy is initiated with a five-
drug regimen of isoniazid,
rifampin pyrazinamide,
ethambutol and streptomycin
for 6 month treatment period
48. Regarding the treatment of
tuberculosis choose the incorrect
statement
a) for the 6 month treatment , the
4 drug combination rifampicin,
isoniazid, pyrazinamide and
ethambutol initiate the
treatment in 2months.
b) for eight month treatment
period rifampicin, isoniazid
,pyrazinamide ,ethambutol and
streptomycin initiate the
treatment in first two
months(resistant case)
c) in last months of 6month
treatment period ,rifampicin
and isoniazid combination is
taken twice per week
d) 3rd month of 8months
treatment period is a copy of 2
first month of the 6months
treatment period
e) All are correct
f) All are incorrect
49.give the drug used in leprosy tx
50. Regarding the viral
chemotherapy choose the correct
statement
a) Both HIV1 and 2 are
responsible for CD4 cell
reduction
b) The people without cd4 cell are
not get opportunistic infection
caused by HIV virus
Commented [T24]: oIsoniazid (INH), rifampin,
pyrazinamide, ethambutol, and streptomycin are the
five first-line agents for treatment of tuberculosis .
oIsoniazid and rifampin are the two most active drugs. An
isoniazid-rifampin combination administered for 9
months will cure 95–98% of cases of tuberculosis caused
by susceptible strains.
oThe addition of pyrazinamide to an isoniazid-rifampin
combination for the first 2 months allows the total
duration of therapy to be reduced to 6 months without
loss of efficacy.
oIn practice, therapy is initiated with a four-drug regimen
of isoniazid, rifampin pyrazinamide, and either
ethambutol or streptomycin until susceptibility of the
clinical isolate has been determined.
oEthambutol is an inhibitor of mycobacterial arabinosyl
transferases, which are encoded by the embCAB operon.
Arabinosyl transferases are involved in the
polymerization reaction of arabinoglycan, an essential
component of the mycobacterial cell wall. Resistance to
ethambutol is due to mutations resulting in
overexpression of emb gene products or within the embB
structural gene.
oMost patients with tuberculosis can be treated entirely
as outpatients, with hospitalization being required only
for those who are seriously ill or who require diagnostic
evaluation.
Commented [T25]:
Commented [T26]: •Dapsone & Other Sulfones
•Clofazimine

11. CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18
c) Infected CD4 has a half-life of
1.6 days compared to several
weeks for a non-infected.
d) All are correct
Regarding mechanism of antiviral
drugs
51. The following is responsible for
reverse transcriptase inhibitor
a) Zidovudine
b) Amantadine
c) Fomivisen
d) Acyclovir
e) Saquinavir
52. The following are responsible for
fusion inhibition
a) Saquinavir
b) Enfuvirtide
c) Foscarnet
d) Oseltamivir
e) Palivizumab
53.the following are responsible
for antibody against viral
infection
a) Saquinavir
b) Acyclovir
c) Palivizumab
d) Oseltamivir
e) None
54. responsible for DNA polymerase
inhibitor and RNA polymerase
inhibitor
a) Saquinavir(tenofavir) and
oseltamivir
b) Reverse transcriptase an acyclovir
c) Foscarnet and zidovudine
d) Acyclovir and Foscarnet
e) None above are correct.
55. Why antiretroviral monotherapy
treatment is prohibited
56. How can you confirm the change
of treatment in a given patient
under antiretroviral therapy?
57. Give one drug each of the
following viruses
a) Hepatitis B
b) Hepatatis C
c) CMV
d) VZV
Commented [T27]:
Commented [T28]:
Commented [T29]: Zidovudine inhibits DNA polymerase
and the reverse transcriptase, thymidine
cannot be combined with members of the same class such
as stavudine
Commented [T30]: lamivudine &adefovir &interferon
alpha 2b
Commented [T31]: •Hepatitis c
•Interferon alfa-2b
•Interferon alfa-2a
Interferon alfacon-1
Commented [T32]: Cmv
Foscarnet , Cidofovir
Commented [T33]: Acyclovir, Ganciclovir, Cidofovir

12. CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18
e) HSV1
f) HSV2
g) Influenza virus
58. Describe 4 antifungal drugs you
know
59. The following are target of anti-
parasite except
a) DNA damage
b) Voltage ions channels
c) Unique essential enzymes found
only in the parasite
d) similar enzymes found in both
host and parasite but
indispensable for either parasite
or host to inhibit protein
synthesis
e) Common biochemical or neuronal
functions found in both parasite
and host but with different
pharmacologic properties
60.give indications for the following
drugs
a) Quinine
b) Coartem
c) Primaquine
61. Give the drug to treat the
following
a) Amoebasis
b) Leishmaniasis
c) Trychomoniasis vaginalis
d) sleeping sickness
e) chaga,s disease
63. The following is artemisinin
(Coartem) based combined therapy
a) Arthemeter + lumefantrin
b) Artesunate+ mefloquine
c) Artesunate + amodiaquine
d) Artesunate+ piperaquine
e) Artemether + pyronaridine
66.T/F Melarsoprol is a trivalent
arsenical , is first-line therapy for
advanced central nervous system
African trypanosomiasis.
Commented [T34]: Anti influenza
Amantadine Zanamivir and Oseltamivir
Palivizumab
Commented [T35]: 1)Unique essential enzymes found
only in the parasite; or similar enzymes found in both
host and parasite but indispensable only for the parasite;
inhibition of protein synthesis
Commented [T36]: A=cerebral malaria/ blood
schizonticid
B=blood malarial /blood schizonticid
C=liver malaria/ tissue schizontacid and gametocid
Depend o location
Commented [T37]: A=metronidazole
B= Amphotericin , Paromomycin
C=metronidazole,tindazole
D= Suramin , Melarsoprol
E= Nifurtimox
Commented [T38]:
Commented [T39R38]:

13. CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18
67 T/F Pentamidine is an
alternative to suramin for the early
hemolymphatic stage of disease
caused by Trypanosoma brucei
(especially T brucei gambiense
68T/F Pentamidine is an alternative
to sodium stibogluconate for the
treatment of visceral leishmaniasis
68. The following drugs are
indicated in treatment of amoebiasis
in vegetative form except
a) Paromomycine
b) Metronidazole
c) Chloroquine
d) Tetracycline
e) Tinidazole
f) Secnidazole
g) Ornidazole
h) a and c
69. Which is false statement.
a) Metronidazole is the treatment
of choice for giardiasis
b) Metronidazole has a
disulfiram-like effect
c) Metronidazole has been
reported to potentiate the
anticoagulant effect of
coumarin-type anticoagulants
d) Lithium toxicity may occur
when the drug is used with
metronidazole
e) None.
70.what are the drug used in
treating the following
a) Ascariosis
b) Ankylostomiasis
c) Filariasis
d) Oncocercosis
71. Regarding the mechanism of
action of the ant helminthes,
which is not true
a) Unmyelinated motor neuron help
produce only neurotoxicity to the
parasite
b) Muscle fibers are coordinated by
alternation of glutamate as
excitatory neuromediator and
Commented [T40]: Intestinal (Cysts)
Diloxanide furoate
Iodoquinol
Paromomycine
Intestinal(vegetative)
Metronidazole
Tetracycline
Tinidazole
Secnidazole
Ornidazol
Tissues (Liver,Lungs,Brain)
Chloroquine
Dihydroemetine
Combination also allowed
Commented [T41]:
Commented [T42]:

14. CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18
GABA as inhibitory
neuromediator
c) Cholinergic nerves are
concentrated in the central
nervous system
d) Neurotoxicant anti-helmintics
must be administered
systemically to mammalian hosts
to reach the parasitic nematodes.
Therefore, if absorbed, they must
be nontoxic to the nervous
system of the host.
e) None.
72.T/F Mebendazole was among the
first such anthelmintics found to act
primarily by blocking transport of
secretory granules and movement of
other subcellular organelles in the
parasitic nematode Ascaris
lumbricoides
73. What are the factors are
responsible for cancer induction
74T/FThese genes contribute to
unregulated cell division if they are
present in a mutant oncogenic form.
The mutant proteins often retain
some of their capabilities but are no
longer sensitive to the normal
control mechanisms.
75T/F Tumor suppressors produce
products that inhibit the division of
cells if conditions for growth are not
met (DNA damage, a lack of growth
factors or defects in the division
apparatus).
76.List the types of cancer
77.laydown the type of cancer txs
Commented [T43]: –Carcinoma: a tumor derived
from epithelial cells, those cells that line the surface of
our skin and organs (80-90% of all cancer cases
reported)
–Sarcoma: a tumor derived from muscle, bone,
cartilage, fat or connective tissues.
–Leukemia: a cancer derived from white blood cells or
their precursors.
–Lymphoma: a cancer of bone marrow derived cells
that affects the lymphatic system.
–Myelomas: a cancer involving the white blood cells
responsible for the production of antibodies (B
lymphocytes).

15. CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18
78. Cancer cells resist to
chemotherapy by
a) reducing cellular uptake of
drugs
b) increasing cellular efflux
c) deletion of enzyme which activate
the drug
d) increased detoxication of the
drug
e) increased concentration of the
target enzyme
f) rapid repair of drug-induced
lesion
g) decreased number of receptors
for the drug
h) All are true
79 when high dose was given to
cancer patients, the following can be
done as Supportive therapy to
reduce toxicity
a) bone marrow transplantation
b) growth factors
c) antifolate
d) donor of –SH groups
e) chelates iron
f) all above are possible
80.distinguish Adjuvant therapy
from Neoadjuvant therapy
81. Cell cycle and specificity of
anticancer drug choose the wrong
statements
a) class 1 anticancer is non cell
cycle specific
b) class 2 anticancer is cell cycle
specific and phase specific
c) class 1 anticancer contain
alkylating agents
d) class 3 anticancer are cell
cycle specific and non-phase
specific
e) class 1 anticancer drug kill
normal and cancer cell
82. The following are antimetabolite
anticancer drug except
a) methotrexate
b) 5fluorouracil
c) Thioguanine
d) Mercaptopurine
e) Cytarabine
f) None
Commented [T44]: oAdjuvant therapy: courses of
cytostatic drugs are given when the cancer has
apparently been destroyed by surgery or radiotherapy. Its
objective is to eradicate micrometastases.
oNeoadjuvant therapy: is defined as a preoperative
cytostatic treatment in patients with locally advanced
solid tumors; The aims of neoadjuvant chemotherapy +
radiotherapy are: the potentiality of curative resection,
the reduction of surgical measures, and an increase in life
span.

16. CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18
83. List 2 drugs indicated for
Prostate cancer and 2 for ovarian
cancer
84. Regarding alkylating
agents,choose the wrong statement.
a) They are known as
cancerogenic and metagenic
b) The cross link the guanine and
stope uncoil of DNA molecule
c) Is the first class chemotherapy
agents
 This document covers some part
of the lecturer note but not well
 It can be better if you read
notes first before trying self-
exercising and reminding
 Communicate with the relative
for any error or bad questioned
question before there are more
mistakes in document
 This document does not cover
well the anticancer drugs
chemotherapy= check more
from the note
 PREPARED BY M.T.E
 UNIVERSITY OF RWANDA
 CMHS
 MEDICINES AND PHAR
 PHARMACY
 PHARMACY III, 2017-2018
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Success to you all,
happy New Year 2018
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