3. What is a hypothesis?
A. the same thing as an unproven theory
B. a tentative explanation that can be tested by
experiments
C. a verifiable observation
D. an experiment that leads to a prediction
E. None of the other answer options is correct.
4. What is a hypothesis?
A. the same thing as an unproven theory
B. a tentative explanation that can be tested by
experiments
C. a verifiable observation
D. an experiment that leads to a prediction
E. None of the other answer options is correct.
5. When carrying out a controlled experiment, it is
important to:
A. change multiple variables at once to see the full
effect of the variables.
B. subject different groups to different conditions.
C. change only one variable at a time.
D. All of these choices are correct.
6. When carrying out a controlled experiment, it is
important to:
A. change multiple variables at once to see the full
effect of the variables.
B. subject different groups to different conditions.
C. change only one variable at a time.
D. All of these choices are correct.
7. A hypothesis is considered a theory when:
A. the results of a single experiment support the
hypothesis.
B. the hypothesis has been revised many times.
C. the results of several experiments do not support
the hypothesis.
D. the results of several experiments support the
hypothesis.
8. A hypothesis is considered a theory when:
A. the results of a single experiment support the
hypothesis.
B. the hypothesis has been revised many times.
C. the results of several experiments do not support
the hypothesis.
D. the results of several experiments support the
hypothesis.
9. Which one of the following is not part of the
scientific method?
A. experimentation
B. observation
C. prediction
D. assumption
E. hypothesis
10. Which one of the following is not part of the
scientific method?
A. experimentation
B. observation
C. prediction
D. assumption
E. hypothesis
11. Imagine you are standing in a field and you see a group of
butterflies. You notice that the butterflies are not identical
to each other even though they are all from the same
species and the same population. Which of the following
statements explains the variation you see in the butterflies?
Select all that apply.
A. differences that result from variation in the genetic
material among the butterflies
B. differences that result from variation in the environment
C. differences in the type of food each butterfly consumes
D. differences in the temperature in which each butterfly
developed
E. All of the above
12. Imagine you are standing in a field and you see a group of
butterflies. You notice that the butterflies are not identical
to each other even though they are all from the same
species and the same population. Which of the following
statements explains the variation you see in the butterflies?
Select all that apply.
A. differences that result from variation in the genetic
material among the butterflies
B. differences that result from variation in the environment
C. differences in the type of food each butterfly consumes
D. differences in the temperature in which each butterfly
developed
E. All of the above
13. Most of life’s diversity is:
A. acellular.
B. aerobic.
C. microbial.
D. terrestrial.
E. aquatic.
14. Most of life’s diversity is:
A. acellular.
B. aerobic.
C. microbial.
D. terrestrial.
E. aquatic.
15. The effect of increasing human populations can be seen
in many different ways. Which of the following
describes how human actions have caused evolutionary
changes in different organisms?
A. Increased use of antibiotics has caused many
bacterial strains to become resistant.
B. Planting different commercial crops has increased
their worldwide distribution.
C. Overhunting of the dodo caused its extinction.
D. Forests were cut down to acquire lumber for
construction
E. All of the above
16. The effect of increasing human populations can be seen
in many different ways. Which of the following
describes how human actions have caused evolutionary
changes in different organisms?
A. Increased use of antibiotics has caused many
bacterial strains to become resistant.
B. Planting different commercial crops has increased
their worldwide distribution.
C. Overhunting of the dodo caused its extinction.
D. Forests were cut down to acquire lumber for
construction
E. All of the above
17. Some plants are dependent upon animals for:
A. pollination.
B. seed dispersion.
C. respiration.
D. pollination and seed dispersion.
E. pollination, seed dispersion, and
respiration.
18. Some plants are dependent upon animals for:
A. pollination.
B. seed dispersion.
C. respiration.
D. pollination and seed dispersion.
E. pollination, seed dispersion, and
respiration.
20. In 1987, 18 black-footed ferrets, the last known
individuals of this species, were captured and
brought into a captive breeding program in
Wyoming. In 1989, the total ferret population, still
in captivity, was 120 animals. These 120 animals in
1989 represented:
A. N, the total population size.
B. ∆N, the change in population size from 1987
to 1989.
C. ∆N/∆t, the rate of change in population size.
D. r, the per capita change in population size.
E. r, the exponential rate of growth of the
population.
21. In 1987, 18 black-footed ferrets, the last known
individuals of this species, were captured and
brought into a captive breeding program in
Wyoming. In 1989, the total ferret population, still
in captivity, was 120 animals. These 120 animals in
1989 represented:
A. N, the total population size.
B. ∆N, the change in population size from 1987
to 1989.
C. ∆N/∆t, the rate of change in population size.
D. r, the per capita change in population size.
E. r, the exponential rate of growth of the
population.
22. Population size can fluctuate with many
different factors. Which of the following
would not affect population size?
A. change in primary predators on the
population
B. change in resource availability for the
population
C. change in birthrate in the population
D. change in death rate in the population
E. All of the answer choices would affect
population size.
23. Population size can fluctuate with many
different factors. Which of the following
would not affect population size?
A. change in primary predators on the
population
B. change in resource availability for the
population
C. change in birthrate in the population
D. change in death rate in the population
E. All of the answer choices would affect
population size.
24. You are studying a population of skunks of size N = 250. During a 1-
year period, you record 50 births and 25 deaths. You also record 5
immigrants and 5 emmigrants. Considering the estimate of r from
these data, project the population size in 5 years.
A. 403
B. 276
C. 500
D. 250
∆𝑵 = 𝑵 𝟏 − 𝑵 𝟎 = 𝑩 − 𝑫 + 𝑰 − 𝑬
r = (ΔN/N0 )/ ΔT
Nt = N0(1+r)t
Note that the 3rd edition uses the formula Nt = Noert, where e is Euler’s number (the base of natural logarithms).
Both equations are valid estimates – although they give slightly different values. In an exam situation, you will be
given the formula to use.
25. You are studying a population of skunks of size N = 250. During a 1-
year period, you record 50 births and 25 deaths. You also record 5
immigrants and 5 emmigrants. Considering the estimate of r from
these data, project the population size in 5 years.
A. 403
B. 276
C. 500
D. 250
∆𝑵 = 𝑵 𝟏 − 𝑵 𝟎 = 𝑩 − 𝑫 + 𝑰 − 𝑬
∆𝑵 = 50-25 + 5-5 = 25
r = (ΔN/N0 )/ ΔT = (25/250)/1 = 0.1/year
Nt = N0(1+r)t = 250(1.1)5 = 403 (pop size in 5 years)
Therefore the population size would be 403 in 5 years
Note that the 3rd edition uses the formula Nt = Noert, where e is Euler’s number (the base of natural logarithms).
Both equations are valid estimates – although they give slightly different values. In an exam situation, you will be
given the formula to use.
26. To understand past and predict future
changes in populations, ecologists use the
following important factors:
A. the population’s birth rate.
B. expected longevity of individuals in the
population.
C. the proportion of individuals in the
population able to reproduce.
D. All of the above
27. To understand past and predict future
changes in populations, ecologists use the
following important factors:
A. the population’s birth rate.
B. expected longevity of individuals in the
population.
C. the proportion of individuals in the
population able to reproduce.
D. All of the above
28. Population size can be influenced by:
A. births.
B. deaths.
C. immigration.
D. emigration.
E. All of the above.
29. Population size can be influenced by:
A. births.
B. deaths.
C. immigration.
D. emigration.
E. All of the above.
30. What are some factors that keep a population
under its carrying capacity?
A. predation
B. increased birth rate
C. decreased death rate
D. Parasitism
E. A & D
31. What are some factors that keep a population
under its carrying capacity?
A. predation
B. increased birth rate
C. decreased death rate
D. Parasitism
E. A & D
32. As a population approaches its carrying
capacity, its growth rate:
A. increases.
B. decreases.
C. stays the same.
D. stops.
33. As a population approaches its carrying
capacity, its growth rate:
A. increases.
B. decreases.
C. stays the same.
D. stops.
36. Examine the life table below for a species of rodent
that lives in the southwestern deserts of the United
States.
According to the table, at the end of 3 years the
population goes extinct.
A. true
B. false
37. Examine the life table below for a species of rodent
that lives in the southwestern deserts of the United
States.
According to the table, at the end of 3 years the
population goes extinct.
A. true
B. false
38. According to the table, which age class
contributes the most to the population
growth for these rodents?
A. females of age 1
B. females of age 2
C. females of age 3
39. According to the table, which age class
contributes the most to the population
growth for these rodents?
A. females of age 1
B. females of age 2
C. females of age 3
40. Giant clams synchronize their reproduction with
the phases of the moon. During these
reproductive bouts a single clam can release
approximately 500 million eggs to be fertilized in
the water column by sperm released from other
clams. However, the population sizes of giant
clams are very low because many of the fertilized
eggs and larvae will be eaten by fish in the local
area. Based on this information what can be said
of the reproductive strategy of the giant clam?
A. It is an r-strategist.
B. It is a K-strategist.
41. Giant clams synchronize their reproduction with
the phases of the moon. During these
reproductive bouts a single clam can release
approximately 500 million eggs to be fertilized in
the water column by sperm released from other
clams. However, the population sizes of giant
clams are very low because many of the fertilized
eggs and larvae will be eaten by fish in the local
area. Based on this information what can be said
of the reproductive strategy of the giant clam?
A. It is an r-strategist.
B. It is a K-strategist.
42. Giant clams synchronize their reproduction with
the phases of the moon. During these
reproductive bouts a single clam can release
approximately 500 million eggs to be fertilized in
the water column by sperm released from other
clams. However, the population sizes of giant
clams are very low because many of the fertilized
eggs and larvae will be eaten by fish in the local
area. What type of survivorship curve would you
expect to see in giant clams?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
43. Giant clams synchronize their reproduction with
the phases of the moon. During these
reproductive bouts a single clam can release
approximately 500 million eggs to be fertilized in
the water column by sperm released from other
clams. However, the population sizes of giant
clams are very low because many of the fertilized
eggs and larvae will be eaten by fish in the local
area. What type of survivorship curve would you
expect to see in giant clams?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
44. An age structure diagram that is broad at the
base and narrow at the top would indicate
A. a stable population
B. a growing population
C. a declining population
45. An age structure diagram that is broad at the
base and narrow at the top would indicate
A. a stable population
B. a growing population
C. a declining population
46. Females for many species vary in the number of offspring that they will have each year. Investment in
producing offspring and/or caring for offspring also varies. In an evolutionary sense the more offspring that
survive to reproductive maturity, the greater the fitness. The graph below shows the relationship between
number of offspring and offspring survival. What does the graph suggest about fitness of the parent?
A. With higher numbers of offspring, their survival also increases.
B. With lower numbers of offspring, there is a higher chance of survival.
C. Survival is unrelated to number of offspring.
D. The number of offspring that survive cannot be determined from the graph.
47. Females for many species vary in the number of offspring that they will have each year. Investment in
producing offspring and/or caring for offspring also varies. In an evolutionary sense the more offspring that
survive to reproductive maturity, the greater the fitness. The graph below shows the relationship between
number of offspring and offspring survival. What does the graph suggest about fitness of the parent?
A. With higher numbers of offspring, their survival also increases.
B. With lower numbers of offspring, there is a higher chance of survival.
C. Survival is unrelated to number of offspring.
D. The number of offspring that survive cannot be determined from the graph.
48. As described in section 46.2 and Figure 46.7 of your textbook (below), natural populations
are affected by both density-dependent and density-independent factors.
In a population affected mainly by density-dependent factors, would you expect natural
selection to favor an r-selected or K-selected life history?
A. r-selected
B. K-selected
49. As described in section 46.2 and Figure 46.7 of your textbook (below), natural populations
are affected by both density-dependent and density-independent factors.
In a population affected mainly by density-dependent factors, would you expect natural
selection to favor an r-selected or K-selected life history?
A. r-selected
B. K-selected
50. A population that has a high mortality earlier
in the life cycle than later in the life cycle
would have a ____________ survivorship
curve.
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
51. A population that has a high mortality earlier
in the life cycle than later in the life cycle
would have a ____________ survivorship
curve.
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
52. In any one place, multiple species of the lizard
genus Anolis can coexist because they hunt
food in different ways and in different parts of
the vegetation.
A. true
B. false
53. In any one place, multiple species of the lizard
genus Anolis can coexist because they hunt
food in different ways and in different parts of
the vegetation.
A. true
B. false
55. The “realized niche” of Canada geese
depends on which of the following?
A. interspecific competition between Canada
geese and other birds
B. competitive exclusion of Canada geese by
other organisms
C. the distribution of Canada geese parasites
D. the climate of a given environment
E. All of these choices are correct.
56. The “realized niche” of Canada geese
depends on which of the following?
A. interspecific competition between Canada
geese and other birds
B. competitive exclusion of Canada geese by
other organisms
C. the distribution of Canada geese parasites
D. the climate of a given environment
E. All of these choices are correct.
57. Which of the following could be used to
define the ecological niche of a plant species?
A. the pH of its soil
B. the insects that eat it
C. the depth to which the soil freezes in the
winter
D. All of the above.
58. Which of the following could be used to
define the ecological niche of a plant species?
A. the pH of its soil
B. the insects that eat it
C. the depth to which the soil freezes in the
winter
D. All of the above.
59. When two species compete for similar resources, resource partitioning can
alter the niche of the species that compete. The figure below shows an
example of this.
Resource partitioning results in:
A. individuals of each species sharing the resources that they both
exploit.
B. individuals of each species hybridizing in the region of overlap.
C. a move from the fundamental niche to the realized niche for both
species.
D. a move from the realized niche to the fundamental niche for both
species.
60. When two species compete for similar resources, resource partitioning can
alter the niche of the species that compete. The figure below shows an
example of this.
Resource partitioning results in:
A. individuals of each species sharing the resources that they both
exploit.
B. individuals of each species hybridizing in the region of overlap.
C. a move from the fundamental niche to the realized niche for both
species.
D. a move from the realized niche to the fundamental niche for both
species.
61. In some rocky intertidal habitats, the barnacle Chthamalus can
survive across the same depths as can the barnacle Balanus.
However, where the two species occur together, Chthamalus adults
are found only in the more stressful upper portions of the habitat
where they are more able than Balanus to resist desiccation. This is
an example of:
A. a mutualistic symbiosis.
B. intraspecific competition reducing the size of Chthamalus’
fundamental niche to a smaller realized niche.
C. mutualism reducing the size of Balanus’ realized niche to a
smaller fundamental niche.
D. competitive exclusion reducing the size of Chthamalus’
fundamental niche to a smaller realized niche.
E. competitive exclusion expanding the size of Balanus’ realized
niche to a larger fundamental niche.
62. In some rocky intertidal habitats, the barnacle Chthamalus can
survive across the same depths as can the barnacle Balanus.
However, where the two species occur together, Chthamalus adults
are found only in the more stressful upper portions of the habitat
where they are more able than Balanus to resist desiccation. This is
an example of:
A. a mutualistic symbiosis.
B. intraspecific competition reducing the size of Chthamalus’
fundamental niche to a smaller realized niche.
C. mutualism reducing the size of Balanus’ realized niche to a
smaller fundamental niche.
D. competitive exclusion reducing the size of Chthamalus’
fundamental niche to a smaller realized niche.
E. competitive exclusion expanding the size of Balanus’ realized
niche to a larger fundamental niche.
63. The presence of bacteria that produce
essential amino acids in the bodies of aphids
is an example of:
A. obligate mutualism.
B. commensalism.
C. facultative mutualism.
D. antagonism.
64. The presence of bacteria that produce
essential amino acids in the bodies of aphids
is an example of:
A. obligate mutualism.
B. commensalism.
C. facultative mutualism.
D. antagonism.
65. When sea otters are present in a kelp forest
community, there are more than 12 species in
the community. If sea otters are removed,
there are 5–7 species that remain in the
community. These data suggest that sea
otters are:
A. a keystone species.
B. top predators.
C. primary consumers.
D. secondary consumers.
66. When sea otters are present in a kelp forest
community, there are more than 12 species in
the community. If sea otters are removed,
there are 5–7 species that remain in the
community. These data suggest that sea
otters are:
A. a keystone species.
B. top predators.
C. primary consumers.
D. secondary consumers.
67. You decide to grow hibiscus flowers and surround
them with mulch. For a couple of months the
hibiscus grow well and when you weed the garden,
you see hummingbirds in your backyard feeding on
the nectar in the hibiscus flowers. You’ve never seen
hummingbirds in your yard before. Their occurrence
after you plant the hibiscus flowers illustrates that:
A. communities are shaped by interactions among
organisms.
B. communities are shaped by the physical
environment.
C. communities are shaped by both interactions
among organisms and the physical environment.
D. A & C are correct
68. You decide to grow hibiscus flowers and surround
them with mulch. For a couple of months the
hibiscus grow well and when you weed the garden,
you see hummingbirds in your backyard feeding on
the nectar in the hibiscus flowers. You’ve never seen
hummingbirds in your yard before. Their occurrence
after you plant the hibiscus flowers illustrates that:
A. communities are shaped by interactions among
organisms.
B. communities are shaped by the physical
environment.
C. communities are shaped by both interactions
among organisms and the physical environment.
D. A & C are correct
69. You ignore the garden during the second
summer and notice that sunflowers have
begun to grow. The sunflowers thrive but they
are surrounded by grassy weeds. It is likely
that the weeds are _____ plant species.
A. r-selected
B. K-selected
C. a keystone
70. You ignore the garden during the second
summer and notice that sunflowers have
begun to grow. The sunflowers thrive but they
are surrounded by grassy weeds. It is likely
that the weeds are _____ plant species.
A. r-selected
B. K-selected
C. a keystone
71. The volcanic oceanic island of Krakatoa is located
in Indonesia. In 1883, this island experienced a
massive volcanic explosion that killed most of the
plants and animals living on the island. After a
very, very long time period of recovery from the
eruption, which group of organisms would we
expect to have the most representation among
native species on the island?
A. lizards
B. birds
C. butterflies
D. beetles
72. The volcanic oceanic island of Krakatoa is located
in Indonesia. In 1883, this island experienced a
massive volcanic explosion that killed most of the
plants and animals living on the island. After a
very, very long time period of recovery from the
eruption, which group of organisms would we
expect to have the most representation among
native species on the island?
A. lizards
B. birds
C. butterflies
D. beetles
73. An ecosystem includes:
A. the interacting organisms in the area.
B. abiotic factors of the area.
C. predators in the area.
D. All of the above
74. An ecosystem includes:
A. the interacting organisms in the area.
B. abiotic factors of the area.
C. predators in the area.
D. All of the above
75. In general a larger biomass in primary producers
for a trophic pyramid:
A. can support more biomass at higher trophic
levels because more energy is available
between the level of primary producer and
primary consumer.
B. does not affect the amount of biomass that
can be supported at the level of primary
producer.
C. can support less biomass at higher levels
because more energy is lost between the
level of primary producer and primary
consumer.
76. In general a larger biomass in primary producers
for a trophic pyramid:
A. can support more biomass at higher trophic
levels because more energy is available
between the level of primary producer and
primary consumer.
B. does not affect the amount of biomass that
can be supported at the level of primary
producer.
C. can support less biomass at higher levels
because more energy is lost between the
level of primary producer and primary
consumer.
78. Is the nitrogen cycle different in marine than
in terrestrial biomes?
A. Yes, because one is in water and one is
on land.
B. Yes, because the organisms living in
each area are different.
C. No, because nitrogen cycles between
and within all biomes.
D. No, because all nitrogen ultimately
comes from the atmosphere.
79. Is the nitrogen cycle different in marine than
in terrestrial biomes?
A. Yes, because one is in water and one is
on land.
B. Yes, because the organisms living in
each area are different.
C. No, because nitrogen cycles between
and within all biomes.
D. No, because all nitrogen ultimately
comes from the atmosphere.
80. Which of the following is a process
responsible for removing CO2 from the
atmosphere?
A. respiration
B. photosynthesis
C. weight loss by dieters
D. decay
81. Which of the following is a process
responsible for removing CO2 from the
atmosphere?
A. respiration
B. photosynthesis
C. weight loss by dieters
D. decay
82. The largest reservoir of the nutrient
phosphorus is:
A. lakes.
B. air.
C. organisms.
D. rocks
83. The largest reservoir of the nutrient
phosphorus is:
A. lakes.
B. air.
C. organisms.
D. rocks
84. Patterns of primary productivity in marine environments
are not delineated in the same way as in terrestrial
environments. Why are there regions of high primary
productivity at 60° N and 60° S in the oceans, when these
are not regions of high productivity on land?
A. The ocean at those latitudes is warmer, so more
primary producers live there.
B. There is little ocean movement at these latitudes,
so primary producers can concentrate there.
C. There is higher nutrient availability at these
latitudes, supporting more primary producers.
D. More sunlight is absorbed at these latitudes by the
water than by the land.
85. Patterns of primary productivity in marine environments
are not delineated in the same way as in terrestrial
environments. Why are there regions of high primary
productivity at 60° N and 60° S in the oceans, when these
are not regions of high productivity on land?
A. The ocean at those latitudes is warmer, so more
primary producers live there.
B. There is little ocean movement at these latitudes,
so primary producers can concentrate there.
C. There is higher nutrient availability at these
latitudes, supporting more primary producers.
D. More sunlight is absorbed at these latitudes by the
water than by the land.
86. The latitudinal diversity gradient refers to what
pattern of species diversity?
A. For many kinds of organisms, species diversity is
greatest near the equator and lowest near the
poles.
B. For many kinds of organisms, species diversity is
greatest near the poles and lowest near the
equator.
C. For many kinds of organisms, species diversity is
greatest at low elevation and lowest at high
elevation.
D. For many kinds of organisms, species diversity is
greatest at high elevation and lowest at low
elevation.
E. Plants are most diverse near the equator while
animals are most diverse toward the poles.
87. The latitudinal diversity gradient refers to what
pattern of species diversity?
A. For many kinds of organisms, species diversity is
greatest near the equator and lowest near the
poles.
B. For many kinds of organisms, species diversity is
greatest near the poles and lowest near the
equator.
C. For many kinds of organisms, species diversity is
greatest at low elevation and lowest at high
elevation.
D. For many kinds of organisms, species diversity is
greatest at high elevation and lowest at low
elevation.
E. Plants are most diverse near the equator while
animals are most diverse toward the poles.
88. Why is the inspection of fossils from a specific
area useful for understanding the
evolutionary history of a region?
A. Fossils show the ancestors of present-
day organisms in the region.
B. Fossils show how species turnover has
occurred.
C. Fossils may show adaptations to
climatic conditions that were present at
earlier times in the region.
D. All of these choices are correct.
89. Why is the inspection of fossils from a specific
area useful for understanding the
evolutionary history of a region?
A. Fossils show the ancestors of present-
day organisms in the region.
B. Fossils show how species turnover has
occurred.
C. Fossils may show adaptations to
climatic conditions that were present at
earlier times in the region.
D. All of these choices are correct.
90. Why are the bottom waters of some lakes
anoxic?
A. The respiration of sinking organic particles
reduces oxygen in deep waters.
B. Physical stratification keeps bottom waters
from mixing with oxygen-rich surface waters.
C. Runoff of fertilizers from agriculture can
increase the amount of primary production
and hence respiration in the lake.
D. All of these choices are correct.
91. Why are the bottom waters of some lakes
anoxic?
A. The respiration of sinking organic particles
reduces oxygen in deep waters.
B. Physical stratification keeps bottom waters
from mixing with oxygen-rich surface waters.
C. Runoff of fertilizers from agriculture can
increase the amount of primary production
and hence respiration in the lake.
D. All of these choices are correct.
92. Climate has been proposed to play a role in the
latitudinal diversity gradient. Specifically, some
have hypothesized that:
A. the warm climate of the tropics promotes
high speciation rates.
B. the warm climate of the tropics promotes
niche diversification.
C. relatively few species are able to adapt to the
harsher, more variable climates of the high
latitudes.
D. the harsh, more variable climates of the high
latitudes reduce speciation rates.
E. None of the other answer options is correct.
93. Climate has been proposed to play a role in the
latitudinal diversity gradient. Specifically, some
have hypothesized that:
A. the warm climate of the tropics promotes
high speciation rates.
B. the warm climate of the tropics promotes
niche diversification.
C. relatively few species are able to adapt to
the harsher, more variable climates of the
high latitudes.
D. the harsh, more variable climates of the high
latitudes reduce speciation rates.
E. None of the other answer options is correct.
94. High biomass of primary producers in surface
waters is important:
A. because it forms the basis for many
aquatic food webs and supports
primary consumers.
B. to decrease global warming.
C. because there are so many viruses that
they need high numbers in order for
the different species to survive.
95. High biomass of primary producers in surface
waters is important:
A. because it forms the basis for many
aquatic food webs and supports
primary consumers.
B. to decrease global warming.
C. because there are so many viruses that
they need high numbers in order for
the different species to survive.
97. What is the greenhouse effect?
The greenhouse effect is a natural
process on Earth.
A. true
B. false
98. What is the greenhouse effect?
The greenhouse effect is a natural
process on Earth.
A. true
B. false
99. What is the greenhouse effect?
Without the greenhouse effect, life on
Earth as we know it would not be
possible.
A. true
B. false
100. What is the greenhouse effect?
Without the greenhouse effect, life on
Earth as we know it would not be
possible.
A. true
B. false
101. What is the greenhouse effect?
Which of the following are greenhouse
gases?
A. carbon dioxide
B. methane
C. water vapor
D. carbon dioxide and methane
E. carbon dioxide, methane, and water
vapor
102. What is the greenhouse effect?
Which of the following are greenhouse
gases?
A. carbon dioxide
B. methane
C. water vapor
D. carbon dioxide and methane
E. carbon dioxide, methane, and water
vapor
103. What effects can greenhouse gases
have?
Increasing levels of carbon dioxide can result in greater levels of
photosynthesis and therefore greater crop yields.
A. true
B. false
C. It depends.
104. What effects can greenhouse gases
have?
Increasing levels of carbon dioxide can result in greater levels of
photosynthesis and therefore greater crop yields.
A. true
B. false
C. It depends.
As noted in the text: “Experimental evidence indicates that many plants
also show a direct growth response to elevated CO2. Where nitrogen in
the soil is abundant, increased carbon dioxide levels tend to stimulate
growth. In most terrestrial environments, however, soil nitrogen levels
are low, limiting any growth response to elevated CO2. Moreover,
increased drought stress and more frequent outbreaks of insect pests
may counteract any capacity for accelerated growth.”
105. What effects can greenhouse gases have?
How is the increase in greenhouse gases related to global
climate change?
A. The greenhouse effect is the process driving global
warming.
B. In recent history the increase in global warming parallels
that of the increase in greenhouse gases.
C. Both answers A and B are correct.
106. What effects can greenhouse gases have?
How is the increase in greenhouse gases related to global
climate change?
A. The greenhouse effect is the process driving global
warming.
B. In recent history the increase in global warming parallels
that of the increase in greenhouse gases.
C. Both answers A and B are correct.
107. What will be the consequences of climate
change?
Global warming
will likely be
greatest at the
equator.
A. true
B. false
108. What will be the consequences of climate
change?
Global warming
will likely be
greatest at the
equator.
A. true
B. false
As noted in Figure 49.5 and in the text:
“In most parts of the world mean annual temperature during the
decade 1999–2008 was warmer than 1940–1980 averages. In
some places the temperature change has been slight, but in
others, especially at high latitudes, the increase has been as
much as 2⁰C.”
109. A college student spent the week hiking on the Appalachian Trail and he saw
only one other hiker the entire time. Now he is walking in New York City’s
Times Square on a Friday night. The streets are packed with people and the
skyscrapers are lit by thousands of lights. In which environment are humans
having a significant impact and why?
A. In New York City because the population density of humans is very
high compared to other visible types of life.
B. In New York City because of the scarcity of the natural environment
compared to man-made structures.
C. In both New York City and on the Appalachian Trail because the
student was present in both places and thus impacted the
environment.
D. In both New York City and on the Appalachian Trail because the
large ecological footprint of humans affects the entire planet.
E. In both New York City and on the Appalachian Trail because at some
point in history both areas have been inhabited by humans.
110. A college student spent the week hiking on the Appalachian Trail and he saw
only one other hiker the entire time. Now he is walking in New York City’s
Times Square on a Friday night. The streets are packed with people and the
skyscrapers are lit by thousands of lights. In which environment are humans
having a significant impact and why?
A. In New York City because the population density of humans is very
high compared to other visible types of life.
B. In New York City because of the scarcity of the natural environment
compared to man-made structures.
C. In both New York City and on the Appalachian Trail because the
student was present in both places and thus impacted the
environment.
D. In both New York City and on the Appalachian Trail because the
large ecological footprint of humans affects the entire planet.
E. In both New York City and on the Appalachian Trail because at some
point in history both areas have been inhabited by humans.
111. In general, what is the relationship between a
country’s ecological footprint and its overall standard
of living?
A. As the standard of living increases, so does the
ecological footprint.
B. As the standard of living decreases, the
ecological footprint increases.
C. It depends on country―in developed countries,
the ecological footprint and standard of living are
positively correlated; in developing countries,
they are negatively correlated.
D. It depends on the country―in developing
countries, the ecological footprint and standard
of living are positively correlated; in developed
countries, they are negatively correlated.
E. None of the other answer options is correct.
112. In general, what is the relationship between a
country’s ecological footprint and its overall standard
of living?
A. As the standard of living increases, so does the
ecological footprint.
B. As the standard of living decreases, the
ecological footprint increases.
C. It depends on country―in developed countries,
the ecological footprint and standard of living are
positively correlated; in developing countries,
they are negatively correlated.
D. It depends on the country―in developing
countries, the ecological footprint and standard
of living are positively correlated; in developed
countries, they are negatively correlated.
E. None of the other answer options is correct.
113. Natural gas is a form of fossil fuel, but many
scientists prefer to use it rather than coal in meeting
societal needs. What advantage does natural gas
have, relative to coal?
A. Burning natural gas does not add CO2 to the
atmosphere.
B. Burning natural gas releases less CO2 per kilowatt
of energy obtained than burning coal does.
C. Natural gas is available in unlimited supply.
D. Development of natural gas fields via fracking
has no potential consequences for the
environment.
114. Natural gas is a form of fossil fuel, but many
scientists prefer to use it rather than coal in meeting
societal needs. What advantage does natural gas
have, relative to coal?
A. Burning natural gas does not add CO2 to the
atmosphere.
B. Burning natural gas releases less CO2 per
kilowatt of energy obtained than burning coal
does.
C. Natural gas is available in unlimited supply.
D. Development of natural gas fields via fracking
has no potential consequences for the
environment.
115. Remember that, as a rule, temperatures decrease
with an increase in altitude. If you were studying the
effects of climate change on the geographic ranges
of species living in the mountains and your climate
records showed that mean temperatures were
increasing, you would predict that species ranges
would show a shift toward:
A. higher elevations.
B. lower elevations.
C. intermediate elevations.
D. unpredictable elevations―the precise response
would depend on individual species, with no
clear trends or averages.
E. None of the other answer options is correct.
116. Remember that, as a rule, temperatures decrease
with an increase in altitude. If you were studying the
effects of climate change on the geographic ranges
of species living in the mountains and your climate
records showed that mean temperatures were
increasing, you would predict that species ranges
would show a shift toward:
A. higher elevations.
B. lower elevations.
C. intermediate elevations.
D. unpredictable elevations―the precise response
would depend on individual species, with no
clear trends or averages.
E. None of the other answer options is correct.
117. You are given 100 acres of land and asked to use the land for long-
term reduction of atmospheric CO2 levels. Which of the following is
the best use of the land for this purpose?
A. Plant a rapidly growing grass that can be harvested every
year and used to make ethanol that is added to gasoline.
B. Plant slow-growing, bristle-cone pine trees that are known
to live for thousands of years and reach a height of about 6
feet.
C. Plant corn that is used to feed pigs that are then harvested
for sausage meat that is sold at the grocery store.
D. Plant a regular lawn and use the land as a park to
encourage the local population to exercise more.
E. Plant trees that grow rapidly, reach a large size, and live for
a long time.
118. You are given 100 acres of land and asked to use the land for long-
term reduction of atmospheric CO2 levels. Which of the following is
the best use of the land for this purpose?
A. Plant a rapidly growing grass that can be harvested every
year and used to make ethanol that is added to gasoline.
B. Plant slow-growing, bristle-cone pine trees that are known
to live for thousands of years and reach a height of about 6
feet.
C. Plant corn that is used to feed pigs that are then harvested
for sausage meat that is sold at the grocery store.
D. Plant a regular lawn and use the land as a park to
encourage the local population to exercise more.
E. Plant trees that grow rapidly, reach a large size, and live
for a long time.
119. Alternatives to fossil fuel–based energy—wind,
sun, tidal energy, and nuclear power—offer what
potential benefits?
A. They reduce the amount of CO2 emitted per
kilowatt hour of energy produced.
B. They conserve finite resources.
C. They help contain the cost of energy
production.
D. All of the above
120. Alternatives to fossil fuel–based energy—wind,
sun, tidal energy, and nuclear power—offer what
potential benefits?
A. They reduce the amount of CO2 emitted per
kilowatt hour of energy produced.
B. They conserve finite resources.
C. They help contain the cost of energy
production.
D. All of the above
121. Which of the following is a result of excess
greenhouse gases added to the atmosphere
by human activities?
A. an increase in Earth’s surface temperature
B. an decrease in the pH of Earth’s oceans
C. changes in Earth’s precipitation patterns
D. changes in the behavior of different
plant/animal species
E. All of these choices are correct.
122. Which of the following is a result of excess
greenhouse gases added to the atmosphere
by human activities?
A. an increase in Earth’s surface temperature
B. an decrease in the pH of Earth’s oceans
C. changes in Earth’s precipitation patterns
D. changes in the behavior of different
plant/animal species
E. All of these choices are correct.
123. Which of the following statements is true
regarding the process of eutrophication?
A. It is the result of the natural accumulation of
nitrogen in bodies of water.
B. It increases the species diversity and health
of bodies of water.
C. It can result in “dead zones” devoid of aquatic
animal life.
D. It increases the oxygen content of water by
promoting bacterial growth.
E. All of these choices are correct.
124. Which of the following statements is true
regarding the process of eutrophication?
A. It is the result of the natural accumulation of
nitrogen in bodies of water.
B. It increases the species diversity and health
of bodies of water.
C. It can result in “dead zones” devoid of
aquatic animal life.
D. It increases the oxygen content of water by
promoting bacterial growth.
E. All of these choices are correct.
125. What steps can humans take to reduce the
amount of (man-made) CO2 released into the
atmosphere?
A. increase reforestation efforts
B. invest in wind or nuclear power
C. employ “scrubbers” for smokestacks
D. reduce the consumption of fossil fuels
E. All of these choices are correct.
126. What steps can humans take to reduce the
amount of (man-made) CO2 released into the
atmosphere?
A. increase reforestation efforts
B. invest in wind or nuclear power
C. employ “scrubbers” for smokestacks
D. reduce the consumption of fossil fuels
E. All of these choices are correct.
127. Nutrients from croplands are carried by the
Mississippi River into the Gulf of Mexico. If
nutrients are good for growth, why are scientists
concerned about this nutrient influx?
A. Higher productivity may support greater
numbers of sharks.
B. Higher productivity may support greater
diversity of phytoplankton species.
C. Higher productivity may result in increased
respiration on sinking algal material,
depleting oxygen within gulf waters.
D. The nutrient runoff depletes nitrate, which
cannot be made industrially.
128. Nutrients from croplands are carried by the
Mississippi River into the Gulf of Mexico. If
nutrients are good for growth, why are scientists
concerned about this nutrient influx?
A. Higher productivity may support greater
numbers of sharks.
B. Higher productivity may support greater
diversity of phytoplankton species.
C. Higher productivity may result in increased
respiration on sinking algal material,
depleting oxygen within gulf waters.
D. The nutrient runoff depletes nitrate, which
cannot be made industrially.
129. So-called “dead zones” in coastal oceans are associated
with nutrient runoff and oxygen-depleted bottom waters.
What causes the oxygen depletion?
A. Nutrient runoff causes population growth of
cyanobacteria and algae, which consume oxygen via
aerobic respiration.
B. Nutrient runoff causes population growth of
cyanobacteria and algae which, in turn, support the
growth of fish populations. Fish consume oxygen via
aerobic respiration.
C. Nutrient runoff causes population growth of algae,
which consume oxygen via aerobic respiration.
D. Nutrient runoff causes algae and cyanobacteria
populations to grow. When they die, they are
consumed by heterotrophic bacteria that consume
oxygen via aerobic respiration.
E. Nutrient runoff causes the waters to warm, which
causes them to lose oxygen.
130. So-called “dead zones” in coastal oceans are associated
with nutrient runoff and oxygen-depleted bottom waters.
What causes the oxygen depletion?
A. Nutrient runoff causes population growth of
cyanobacteria and algae, which consume oxygen via
aerobic respiration.
B. Nutrient runoff causes population growth of
cyanobacteria and algae which, in turn, support the
growth of fish populations. Fish consume oxygen via
aerobic respiration.
C. Nutrient runoff causes population growth of algae,
which consume oxygen via aerobic respiration.
D. Nutrient runoff causes algae and cyanobacteria
populations to grow. When they die, they are
consumed by heterotrophic bacteria that consume
oxygen via aerobic respiration.
E. Nutrient runoff causes the waters to warm, which
causes them to lose oxygen.
131. A rise in aquatic nitrogen and phosphorus
levels leads to a strong increase in the
population growth rate of algae and
cyanobacteria. This suggests that nitrogen
and phosphorus are typically _____ in aquatic
habitats.
A. always abundant
B. not at all present
C. limiting factors for planktonic grow
D. unnecessary for planktonic growth
132. A rise in aquatic nitrogen and phosphorus levels
leads to a strong increase in the population
growth rate of algae and cyanobacteria. This
suggests that nitrogen and phosphorus are
typically _____ in aquatic habitats.
A. always abundant
B. not at all present
C. limiting factors for planktonic grow
D. unnecessary for planktonic growth
133. Potential costs associated with increasing
crop yield are that it requires:
A. increasing the use of fertilizer.
B. increasing the use of fossil fuels to power
machinery.
C. losing biological diversity as more natural
habitat is converted to cropland.
D. Both A & B
134. Potential costs associated with increasing
crop yield are that it requires:
A. increasing the use of fertilizer.
B. increasing the use of fossil fuels to power
machinery.
C. losing biological diversity as more natural
habitat is converted to cropland.
D. Both A & B
135. Every few years a new drug is developed to treat
malaria. The need for new drugs arises because
malaria parasites acquire resistance to drugs
through time. Since the 1940s there has been a
back and forth between malaria and the drugs
developed to treat it. The continued evolution of
resistance to successive malaria drugs is an
example of the:
A. Red Queen hypothesis.
B. superiority of malaria parasites.
C. slow development of antimalarial drugs.
D. lack of health care in areas with malaria.
136. Every few years a new drug is developed to treat
malaria. The need for new drugs arises because
malaria parasites acquire resistance to drugs
through time. Since the 1940s there has been a
back and forth between malaria and the drugs
developed to treat it. The continued evolution of
resistance to successive malaria drugs is an
example of the:
A. Red Queen hypothesis.
B. superiority of malaria parasites.
C. slow development of antimalarial drugs.
D. lack of health care in areas with malaria.
137. Consider the figure below showing calculated sustainable yield for Peruvian anchovy.
[Data from: FAO, Production of fish meal and oil, Fisheries Technical Paper - 142, 1986
(http://www.fao.org/DOCREP/003/X6899E/X6899E00.HTM)]
For years Peruvian anchovy were fished at their estimated sustainable yield. Which of the following is the
best explanation for why the population crashed?
A. Individuals stopped eating anchovy, so anchovies lowered their reproductive rates.
B. The estimated sustainable yield was calculated at the maximum population size of Peruvian
anchovy.
C. Predators of Peruvian anchovy increased in population size.
D. All of these choices are correct.
138. Consider the figure below showing calculated sustainable yield for Peruvian anchovy.
[Data from: FAO, Production of fish meal and oil, Fisheries Technical Paper - 142, 1986
(http://www.fao.org/DOCREP/003/X6899E/X6899E00.HTM)]
For years Peruvian anchovy were fished at their estimated sustainable yield. Which of the following is the
best explanation for why the population crashed?
A. Individuals stopped eating anchovy, so anchovies lowered their reproductive rates.
B. The estimated sustainable yield was calculated at the maximum population size of Peruvian
anchovy.
C. Predators of Peruvian anchovy increased in population size.
D. All of these choices are correct.
139. Wheat is a group of grass species that originated in the
eastern Mediterranean and are now cultivated
worldwide. In comparing wheat to other organisms,
how would you evaluate the success of this species on
the planet?
A. examine the diversity of environments in which
it is found
B. examine the total biomass of wheat present on
the planet
C. examine the amount of variation of its genome
D. examine its ability to grow outside of an
agricultural setting
E. All of these choices are correct.
140. Wheat is a group of grass species that originated in the
eastern Mediterranean and are now cultivated
worldwide. In comparing wheat to other organisms,
how would you evaluate the success of this species on
the planet?
A. examine the diversity of environments in which
it is found
B. examine the total biomass of wheat present on
the planet
C. examine the amount of variation of its genome
D. examine its ability to grow outside of an
agricultural setting
E. All of these choices are correct.
141. Which of the following have been the result
(in part) of human activities?
A. the introduction of invasive species into
new environments
B. the evolution of antibiotic-resistant
bacteria
C. the increase in the amount of greenhouse
gases in the atmosphere
D. eutrophication of certain bodies of water
E. All of these choices are correct.
142. Which of the following have been the result
(in part) of human activities?
A. the introduction of invasive species into
new environments
B. the evolution of antibiotic-resistant
bacteria
C. the increase in the amount of greenhouse
gases in the atmosphere
D. eutrophication of certain bodies of water
E. All of these choices are correct.
143. Zoos play a critical role in the conservation of
biodiversity through:
A. maintaining individuals of endangered
species in different zoos.
B. maintaining breeding populations of
endangered species for potential
release to the wild.
C. maintaining populations of endangered
species in zoos for people to see.
D. maintaining breeding populations that
can survive in the captive environment
of zoos.
144. Zoos play a critical role in the conservation of
biodiversity through:
A. maintaining individuals of endangered
species in different zoos.
B. maintaining breeding populations of
endangered species for potential
release to the wild.
C. maintaining populations of endangered
species in zoos for people to see.
D. maintaining breeding populations that
can survive in the captive environment
of zoos.
145. Biological reserves are an important tool in
maintaining biodiversity because:
A. a reserve designed for a single species will also
protect other species in the reserve.
B. a reserve will not change over time so all the
species will be conserved as long as the reserve
exists.
C. a reserve will generate income when people visit
to see the biodiversity protected in the reserve.
D. a reserve designed to protect the species there
will always be maintained as a reserve.
146. Biological reserves are an important tool in
maintaining biodiversity because:
A. a reserve designed for a single species will also
protect other species in the reserve.
B. a reserve will not change over time so all the
species will be conserved as long as the reserve
exists.
C. a reserve will generate income when people visit
to see the biodiversity protected in the reserve.
D. a reserve designed to protect the species there
will always be maintained as a reserve.
147. Conservation biology concentrates on preserving levels of
species diversity in communities to maintain ecosystem services
provided by the species in that community.
A. True
B. False
148. Conservation biology concentrates on preserving levels of
species diversity in communities to maintain ecosystem services
provided by the species in that community.
A. True
B. False
P. 1091: “There is good evidence that biodiversity provides
important ecosystem services – that is, benefits to humans –
including cleaner air and water, greater primary productivity
and improved resilience to environmental disruption, and
untapped sources of food and molecular compounds for use in
medicine and agriculture.
149. Biologists who study biodiversity describe new species and monitor
species of which we are aware. Why is the study of biodiversity
important in the Anthropocene?
A. The study of biodiversity is important because it provides
information about the number of species that go extinct every
1000 years.
B. The study of biodiversity is important because it helps
quantify the effects of human actions on changes in the traits
of many populations (size, density, distribution).
C. The study of biodiversity is important because many
politicians are biologists and they can influence government
policy.
D. The study of biodiversity is important because if we don’t
count all the species on the planet, then we won’t be able to
identify more potential sources of food.
150. Biologists who study biodiversity describe new species and monitor
species of which we are aware. Why is the study of biodiversity
important in the Anthropocene?
A. The study of biodiversity is important because it provides
information about the number of species that go extinct every
1000 years.
B. The study of biodiversity is important because it helps
quantify the effects of human actions on changes in the
traits of many populations (size, density, distribution).
C. The study of biodiversity is important because many
politicians are biologists and they can influence government
policy.
D. The study of biodiversity is important because if we don’t
count all the species on the planet, then we won’t be able to
identify more potential sources of food.
