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Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
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Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning

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Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning

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  • 1. Analytical & Logical Reasoning
  • 2. Set - A Directions for questions 1 to 5: Compare XYZ Ltd., started a project with 12 stages, A through L. The following table gives the time required to complete each stage, and the necessary stages that should be completed before that stage can be started.
  • 3. Stage Stages necessary to be completed before starting the stage Time required to complete the stage (in days) A None 5 B A 16 C A 12 D C 10 E B, D 3 F B 4 G F 6 H E 8 I D 10 J G, H 18 K H, I 12 L K 8
  • 4. Any stage, once it is started, is implemented till is completion without any stoppages in between. However, it is possible that more than one stage is under implementation simultaneously. The Project is said to be completed only when all of the above listed 12 stages are completed. Assume that the day on which the project is started is the 1st day.
  • 5. days are required to complete the project ? 1. After completing stage E, at least how many more (1) 20 (2) 24 (3) 28 (4) 32 (5) None of the above
  • 6. 2. Stage J cannot be started before the (1) 26th day. (2) 27th day. (4) 39th day. (5) 40th day. (3) 32nd day.
  • 7. 3.If the project is to be completed in the least possible number of days, then after the completion of stage F, at least how many more days are required to complete the project ? (1) 20 (4) 26 (2) 22 (5) 33 (3) 24
  • 8. Additional information for question 4 and 5: After completing the above project, the company was awarded another two project, both exactly identical to the above project. However, the company had a constraint that there was only one team for each stage of the project, because of which no stage could be implemented simultaneously in both the projects. 4. What is the least time required, from the start of these new project, to complete stage G in both the projects ? (1) 36 days (2) 38 days (3) 43 days (4) 45 days (5) 47 days
  • 9. 5. What is the least time required, from the start of these new projects, to complete the implementation of stage E both the projects ? (1) 42 days (4) 43 days (2) 40 days (5) 46 days (3) 35 days
  • 10. Solutions for questions 1 to 5: Let us tabulate the number of days required to complete the project stage wise. Stage Earlier Stage Time form the beginning A - 5 B A 21 C A 17 D C 27 E B, D 30 F B 25 G F 31 H E 38 I D 37 J G, H 56 K H, I 50 L K 58
  • 11. 1. Number of days required = 58 – 30 = 28 days. Choice (3) 2. J depends upon G and H, among which 38 days is the longest time taken (i.e., by H). .·. J can start on 39th day. Choice (4) 3. The least possible number of days taken by the project is 58. Hence, F should have been completed by the most 34 days. Hence, 24 more days are needed. Choice (3)
  • 12. 4. The least time required is 47 days as shown below. Stage A B C D Implementation Days Project – 1 Project – II 1 to 5 6 to 10 6 to 21 22 to 37 22 to 25 38 to 41 26 to 31 42 to 47 Choice (5)
  • 13. 5. The least time required is as shown below. Stage A B C D Implementation Time Project – I 1 to 5 6 to 21 6 to 17 18 to 27 Project – II 6 to 10 22 to 37 18 to 29 30 to 39 E 28 to 30 40 to 42 It takes a total of 42 days. Choice (1)
  • 14. Set - B Directions for question 6 and 7: Each question contains six statements followed by four groups of three statements each. Find out the group(s) in which the three statements are logically related. 6. A. B. C. D E. F. All letter are alphabet. Some letters are characters. No letter is a number. Some alphabet are characters. No alphabet is a number. Some characters are numbers. (1) DFA (4) ACE (2) BCF (5) FAB (3) DEF
  • 15. Sol. DFA :BCF :DEF :ACE :- This is not a valid group as the total number of terms is more than three. This is not a valid group as exactly one of the statements is negative. This is not a valid group as exactly one of the statements is negative. This is a valid group as none of the rules is violated and here C is the conclusion drawn A and E. Choice (4)
  • 16. 7. A. All players are stars. B. Some players are artists. C. All artists are actors. D. Some stars are artists. E. Some artists are not starts. F. No actor is a star. (1) (4) EFA DCF (2) (5) CEF (3) CBA More than one of the above
  • 17. Sol. EFA :- This is not a valid group as the term ‘starts’ is present in each of the statements. CEF :- This is a valid group as none of the rules is violated and here E is the conclusion drawn from C and F. Choice (2)
  • 18. Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 3 4 3 5 5. 6. 7. 1 4 2
  • 19. Analytical & Logical Reasoning
  • 20. Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The following table gives the production capacity of the five refineries – P, Q, R, S and T – of the oil company SPCL, the demand at the company’s four outlets – A, B, C and D – and the transportation costs involved in transporting – and the transportation costs involved in transporting – and the transportation costs involved in transporting the oil from different refineries to different outlets. Transportation cost (in rupees/kilolitre) Refinery (Production capacity in kilolitres/day) Outlet (Demand in kilolitres/day) A (40) B (30) C (10) D (20) P (30) 500 300 600 200 Q (10) 600 400 400 100 R (30) 300 400 700 400 S (20) 200 300 400 200 T (10) 400 300 600 100
  • 21. In the above table, the number given in the brackets alongside each refinery gives the production capacity (in kilolitres per day) of that refinery and the number given in the brackets alongside each outlet. The number given in the brackets alongside each outlet gives the demand (in kilolitres per day) at that outlet. The number given in the cell corresponding to a refinery and an outlet, gives the transportation cost (in rupees per kilolitre) incurred for transporting oil from that refinery to that outlet. For example, the production capacity of refinery P is 30 kilolitres/day and the demand at outlet A is 40 kilolitres/day and the cost of transporting one kilolitre of oil from refinery P to outlet P to outlet A is Rs.500. Assume that the company currently operates only the refineries and outlets mentioned above and that the production at the refineries on any day is transported to the outlets such that the demand at all the outlets is met.
  • 22. 1.The daily of transportation of oil to all the outlets is at least (1) Rs.24,000 (2) Rs.26,000 (3) Rs.28,000 (4) Rs.29,000
  • 23. Solution : The lowest cost of transportation occurs when the oil is transported along the cheapest routes available, which are shown below. T – D  10 kl  10 x 100 = Rs.1000 Q – D  10 kl  10 x 100 = Rs.1000 P – B  30 kl  30 x 300 = Rs.9000 S – A  10 kl  10 x 200 = Rs.2000 R – A  30 kl  30 x 300 = Rs.9000 S – C  10 kl  10 x 400 = Rs.4000 Total = Rs.26,000 Choice (2)
  • 24. 2. If due to a disruption in the supply lines to some of the outlets, refinery P can supply oil to only outlets A and C then the daily cost of the transportation of oil to A and C, then the daily cost of transportation of oil to all the outlets is at least (1) Rs.29,000 (3) Rs.33,000 (2) Rs.30,000 (4) Rs.34,000
  • 25. Solution: As P can be used for supplying only to A or C, the minimum cost of transportation in this case would be P – C  10 kl  Rs.6,000 P – A  20 kl  Rs.10,000 Q – D  10 kl  Rs.1,000 T – D  10 kl  Rs.1,000 R – B  30 kl  Rs.12,000 S – A  20 kl  Rs.4,000 Total = Rs.34,000 Choice (4)
  • 26. Currently, the daily cost of transportation of oil to all the outlets is the outlets is the least possible. 3. The daily cost of transportation to all the outlets would increase by the maximum amount, if there is a disruption (blockage) in the supply line connecting. (1) P and B (3) Q and C (2) S and D (4) T and B
  • 27. Solution: The cheapest supply lines were already determined in the first question of the set. Now we have to determine in the supply line whose disruption would cause the transportation cost to increase by the maximum amount. Choices (2), (3) and (4) can be straight away ignored as they are not part of the cheapest route. Hence, the increase in transportation cost would be highest, if the supply line P – B is distributed. Choice (1)
  • 28. 4. If the company plans to decrease the daily cost of transportation of oil to all the outlets by doubling the production capacity of exactly one of the refineries, which refinery should it select so as to reduce the transportation cost by the maximum amount? (1) S (2) Q (3) R (4) P
  • 29. Solution: As far as the cost of transportation at each of the outlets is considered, most of the outlets receive the oil at a low transportation cost from the refinery S, hence if the capacity of refinery S is doubled, the saving in the expenditure will be more. Choice (1)
  • 30. Question - Eight county teams – Kent, Essex, Somerset, Durham, Hampshire, Yorkshire, Derbyshire and Lancashire Participated, Yorkshire, Derbyshire and Lancashire participated in a Twenty20 tournament held in London. In the first round, these eight teams were divided into two groups of four teams each. Each team has to Play two matches against each of the other teams in its group. The teams with the highest and the second Highest number of wins in both the group will move to the next round, i.e., semi-finals. It is known that, Essex, Yorkshire, Lancashire and Derbyshire reached the semi-finals. It is also known that, in the first round (i) No match ended in a tie and in each of the groups, each of the four teams won a different number of matches. (ii) Yorkshire lost both its matches against Derbyshire. (iii) Kent won the same number of matches that by Lancashire. (iv)In its group, Somerset lost both of its matched against all the other teams, except Durham, which in turn, won at least one match against each of the other teams, except one.
  • 31. 5. Which team won the highest number of matches in the first round? (1) Yorkshire (2) Derbyshire (3) Essex (4) Cannot be determined 6. What was the total number of matches won by Durham in the first round? (1) Hampshire (2) Somerset (3) Durham (4) Cannot be determined 7. What was the total number of matches won by Durham in the first round? (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 8. Which team/s lost at least one match against Kent in the first round? (1) Only Hampshire (2) Only Yorkshire (3) Only Yorkshire and Hampshire (4) Only Hampshire and Derbyshire
  • 32. Solution: Given that, Essex, Yorkshire, Lancashire and Derbyshire reached the semi finals. Hence, Kent, Somerset, Durham and Hampshire are eliminated in the first round. It is also given, Yorkshire played against Derbyshire. Hence, Yorkshire and Derbyshire must be the two of one group. .ˈ. Lancashire and Essex must be the two teams of the other group. As Kent has same number of wins as Lancashire, they must be in different groups. .ˈ. Kent and Hampshire are the losing teams in the group from which Yorkshire and Derbyshire qualified and Durham and Somerset are the eliminated teams in the group from which Essex and Lancashire qualified. The groups can be classified and follows: Qualified for Semis Lancashire Essex Yorkshire Derbyshire Eliminated in 1st round Somerset Durham Kent Hampshire
  • 33. Total number of matches in each group = 12 Given, each of them has a different number of wins, so the possibilities are as follows. Number of wins Qualified teams Eliminated teams Highest (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 2nd highest 6 4 2 0 6 3 2 1 5 4 2 1 5 4 3 0 3rd highest 4th highest As Kent, which is eliminated has the same number of wins as Lancashire, which qualified, the only possibilities That can be considered are (ii) and (iv). In the group of Kent, Yorkshire must have lost only the matches against Derbyshire i.e. it must have won 4 matched. Derbyshire must Have won both the matches against Yorkshire, both against Hampshire and one against Kent.
  • 34. Kent won both the matches against Hampshire and one against Derbyshire and Hampshire lost all the matches. In the group of Lancashire, Essex won all the matches, Lancashire, Essex won all the matches, Lancashire won both the matches against Somerset and one against Durham. Durham Won one against Lancashire and one against Somerset and Somerset won against Durham. 5. Essex won the maximum number of matches in the first round. 6. Hampshire has the least number of wins. 7. The number of matches won by Durham is two. Choice (3) Choice (1) Choice (3) 5. Hampshire and Derbyshire lost at least one match against Kent. Choice (4)
  • 35. Key 1. 4 2. 2 3. 1 4. 1 5. 6. 7. 8. 3 1 3 4
  • 36. THANK YOU
  • 37. qcfinance.in COMPARISON OF RANKS, BLOOD RELATIONS, FAMILY TREE AND CONDITIONS & GROUPINGS
  • 38. qcfinance.in COMPARISON OF RANKS
  • 39. COMPARISON OF RANKS      The term ranks may include various objects such as age, height, marks, salary, weights, etc. A set of information is given in the questions. Solutions of such questions requires ranking of objects either in ascending or descending order, depending upon their characteristic. Position of one person is given: From both ends of the row or ranks from top and bottom are given and total number of persons is asked. Sometimes the position is altered by interchanging the seats of two persons, or some third person is seated between the two. Gap before Rank Gap after A 17 18th 9th 8
  • 40. COMPARISON OF RANKS Example: Monica is at 25th place from one end in group of 35 students. What is her position from the other end? Solution: 25th position means 24persons are before Monica, 1 position is occupied by herself and 10 people will be left behind her, as total are 35 students. So, 24 + 1 + 10 =35 (total persons) Monica 24 25th 11th 10 Shortcut…. (Total person + 1) – Position from one side = Position from other side (35 + 1) = 25 or means 36 – 25 = 11th, So, the answer is 11, her position is 11th from other end.
  • 41. COMPARISON OF RANKS Example: If position is 13th from the last. If there are 21 students in all in his class, what is his position from the beginning? Solution: (Total + 1) – position from one side. (21 + 1 ) – 13  22 – 13 = 9th
  • 42. qcfinance.in QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
  • 43. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: Kanmani ranked sixteenth from the top and twenty ninth from the bottom among those who passed an examination. Six boys did not participate in the competition and five failed in it. How many boys were there in the class? A. 35 B. 45 C. 50 D. 55 Answer: D Number of boys who passed = (15 + 1 + 28) = 44 Total number of boys in the class = 44 + 6 +5 = 55. Question: Murugan is sixth from the left end and Prasanna is tenth from the right end in a row of boys. If there are eight boys between Murugan and Prasanna, how many boys are there in the row? A. 21 B. 23 C. 24 D. 25 Answer: C Clearly, number of boys in the row = ( 6 + 10 + 8) = 24.
  • 44. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: In a row of girls facing North, Reena is 10th to the left of Pallavi, who is 21st from the right end. If Malini, who is 17th from the left end, is fourth to the right of Reena, how many girls are there in the row? A. 37 B. 41 C. 43 D. 49 Answer: C Pallavi is 21st from right and Reena is 10th to the left of Pallavi. So, Reena is 31st from right. Malini is 4th to the right of Reena. So, Malini is 27th from the right. Also, Malini is 17th from the left. Therefore number of girls in the row = ( 26 + 1 + 16 ) = 43.
  • 45. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: In a queue, Viji is fourteenth from the front and Jack is seventeenth from the end, while Mary is in between Viji and Jack. If Viji be ahead of Jack and there be 48 persons in the queue, how many persons are there between Viji and Mary? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 Answer: D Number of persons between Viji and Jack = 48 - (14 + 17) = 17. Now, Mary lies in middle of these 17 persons i.e., at the eighth position. So, number of persons between Viji and Mary = 7. Question: Murugan is sixth from the left end and Prasanna is tenth from the right end in a row of boys. If there are eight boys between Murugan and Prasanna, how many boys are there in the row? A. 21 B. 23 C. 24 D. 25 Answer: C. Clearly, number of boys in the row = ( 6 + 10 + 8) = 24.
  • 46. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: In a row of girls, Nithya and Suganya occupy the ninth place from the right end and tenth place from the left end, respectively. If they interchange their places, then Nithya and Suganya occupy seventeenth place from the right and eighteenth place from the left respectively. How many girls are there in the row? A. 22 B. 24 C. 26 D. 28 Answer: C. Since Nithya and Suganya exchange places, so Rita’s new position is the same as Monika’s earlier position. This position is 17th from the right and 10th from the left. Therefore Number of girls in the row = (16 + 1 + 9) = 26.
  • 47. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: In a queue of children, Arun is fifth from the left and Suresh is sixth from the right. When they interchange their places among themselves, Arun becomes thirteenth from the left. Then, what will be Suresh's position from the right? A. 8th B. 14th C. 15th D. 16th Answer: B. Since Arun and Suresh interchange places, so Arun’s new position (13th from left) is the same as Suresh’s earlier position (6th from right). So, number of children in the queue = (12 + 1 + 5) = 18. Now. Suresh’s new position is the same as Arun's earlier position fifth from left. Therefore Suresh’s position from the right = (18 - 4) = 14th.
  • 48. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: In a class of 35 students, Kamal is placed seventh from the bottom whereasa Sunil is placed ninth from the top. Manoj is placed exactly in between the two. What is Kamal’s position from Manoj? A. 7 B. 9 C. 10 D. 12 Answer: C. Number of students between Kamal and Sunil = 35 - ( 7 + 9) = 19. Clearly, there are 9 students between Kamal and Manoj, as well as Manoj and Sunil. So Kamal is 10th from Manoj.
  • 49. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: Vimal is 7 ranks ahead of Sathish in a class of 39. If Sathish’s rank is seventeenth from the last, what is Vimal’s rank from the start? A. 11th B. 13th C. 16th D. 18th Answer: C. Sathish is 17th from the last and Vimal is 7 ranks ahead of Sathish. So, Vimal is 24th from the last. Number of students ahead of Vimal in rank = (39 - 24) = 15. So, Vimal is 16th from the start. Question: Ram ranked ninth from the top and thirty–eighth from the bottom in a class. How many students are there in the class? A. 44 B. 45 C. 46 D. 47 Answer: Clearly, number of students in the class = ( 8 + 1 + 37 ) = 46.
  • 50. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: Kiran is taller than Sameer but shorter than Pramod. John is taller than Urmila. Sameer is taller than John. Who is the tallest in the group? a)Kiran b)Sameer c)Pramod d)John Answer: C. Question: Prabir remembers that his father's birthday is between thirteenth and sixteenth of May whereas his sister remembers that their father's birthday is between fourteenth and eighteenth of May. On which day of may is their father's birthday? a)15th b)16th c)14th d)Seventeenth Answer: C.
  • 51. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: The coach arrived at the playground at 8.35. Rakesh arrived 45 minutes later and was 15 minutes late for the training. By how much time did the coach come early than the scheduled time? a) 35 minutes b) 45 minutes c) 15 minutes d) None of these Answer: d. Question: Five children were administered psychological tests to know their intellectual levels. In the report, psychologists pointed out that the child A is less intelligent than the child B. The child C is less intelligent than the child D. The child B is less intelligent than the child C and child A is more intelligent then the child E. Which child is the most intelligent ? a) A b) B c) D d) E Answer: c.
  • 52. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: Five boys participated in a competition. Rohit was ranked lower than Sanjay. Vikas was ranked higher than Dinesh. Kamal`s rank was between Rohit and Vikas. Who was ranked highest? A. Sanjay B. Vikas C. Dinesh D. Kamal E. None of These Answer: A. Question: Ramesh is taller than Vinay who is not as tall as Karan. Sanjay is taller than Anupam but shorter than Vinay. Who among them is the tallest? a)Ramesh b)Karan c)Vinay d)Cannot be determined Answer: d.
  • 53. BLOOD RELATIONS
  • 54. RELATIONS      Questions on Blood Relationship are related to our day to day life. We are bound by our kith and kin through a chain of relationships. The examiner defines the simple relationships by using rather complicated set of definitions and expects from us to comprehend these definitions rather quickly. In order to solve these problems, analyse the given statements carefully and systematically. For examples : (i) My father's only child means I (Myself). (ii) Ritu's husband's father-in-law's only daughter means Ritu (Herself). You should have a sound knowledge of the blood relation in order to solve these questions. To remember easily, the relations may be divided into two sides as given below: 1. Relations of Paternal side 2. Relations of Maternal side
  • 55. RELATIONS 1. Relations of Paternal side:  Father's father → Grandfather  Father's mother → Grandmother  Father's brother → Uncle  Father's sister → Aunt  Children of uncle → Cousin  Wife of uncle → Aunt  Children of aunt → Cousin  Husband of aunt → Uncle 2. Relations of Maternal side:  Mother's father → Maternal grandfather  Mother's mother → Maternal grandmother  Mother's brother → Maternal uncle  Mother's sister → Aunt  Children of maternal uncle → Cousin  Wife of maternal uncle → Maternal aunt
  • 56. RELATIONS FROM ONE GENERATION TO NEXT:
  • 57. RELATIONS      Pay particular attention to the information given in the question itself without your personal biases and conceived notions and assumptions coming to the fore. While attempting questions on Blood Relationship, first read all the pieces of information as quickly as possible and then point out the two persons between whom relationship is to be established. Finally, try to co-relate the given relationships. While concluding relationship between two persons be careful about the genders of the persons involved. Majority of the students tend to define or derive relationship without caring for gender of the persons. It is not possible to define relationship between two persons without knowing their gender. Consider the following illustration: Example: A is the child of P and Q.  From this statement can we conclude that P is the father of A. No, it is not possible. Without knowing the gender of either P or Q, it is not possible to conclude that P is the father of A. What we can conclude from the above statement is that P and Q are parents of A. Thus, we see that the knowledge about the gender of persons is necessary to conclude relationship between the two persons.
  • 58. TYPES OF RELATIONS   In these tests, the success of a candidate depends upon the knowledge of blood relations. Here we will discuss 3 types of relations: Type 1: Deciphering jumbled up descriptions  Type 2: Relation puzzle  Type 3: Coded Puzzles 
  • 59. TYPE 1: DECIPHERING JUMBLED UP DESCRIPTIONS  Type 1: In this type of questions, a round about description is given in the form of certain small relationships and direct relationship between the persons concerned is to be deciphered Example1: Pointing out to a lady, Rajan said, “she is the daughter of the woman who is the mother of the husband of my mother.”.Who is the lady to Rajan? Solution: The relations may be analyzed as follows: Mothers husband-Father, Fathers mother-Grandmother, Grandmothers daughter-fathers sister; fathers sister-Aunt. So the lady is Rajan’s aunt
  • 60. TYPE 1: DECIPHERING JUMBLED UP DESCRIPTIONS Example2: Pointing to a man in the photograph, Asha said “His mothers only daughter is my mother.”How is Asha related to that man? Solution: Asha’s mother’s mother is man’s mother I.e. Asha’s mother is man’s sister or Asha is man’s niece. Example3: Pointing to an old man, Kailash said, “his son is my son’s uncle”, how is the old man related to Kailash? Solution: Kailash’s son’s uncle – Kailash’s brother. So , the old man’s son is Kailash’s brother I.e. the old man is Kailash’s father.
  • 61. TYPE 2: RELATION PUZZLE  In this type, mutual blood relations or other information's of more than two persons are mentioned and information about any two is mentioned. Example1: A and B are brothers. C and D are sisters. A’s son is D’s brother. How is B related to C? Solution: Clearly B is the brother of A; A’s son is D’s brother. This means D is the daughter of A. Since C and D are sisters, C is also the daughter of A. So B is the uncle of C. Example2: A is B’s sister. C is B’s mother. D is C’s father. E is D’s mother. Then how is A related to D? Solution: A is the sister of B and B is the daughter of C. So , A is the daughter of C. Also , D is the father of C. So , A is the granddaughter of D.
  • 62. TYPE 3: CODED PUZZLES   Here the relationships are represented by certain codes or symbols such as +,-,* etc. Then relationships between certain persons, given in the form of these codes are to be analyzed. Example1: If A+B means A is the sister of B; A-B means A is the brother of B; A*B means A is the daughter of B Which of the following shows the relation that E is the maternal uncle of D? a) b) c) d) D+F*E D-F*E D*F+E D*F-E Solution: Clearly , E is the maternal uncle of D means D is the daughter of the sister of E, i.e. option c) D*F+E
  • 63. TYPE 3: CODED PUZZLES If, A+B means A is the son of B A-B means A is the wife of B A*B means A is the brother of B A/B means A is the mother of B A=B means A is the sister of B Example2: What does P+R-Q mean? Solution: Clearly, P+R-Q means P is the son of R who is the wife of Q, i.e. Q is the father of P. Example3: What does P*R/Q mean? Solution: P*R/Q means P is the brother of R who is the mother of Q, i.e. P is the uncle of Q.
  • 64. qcfinance.in QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
  • 65. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 1. Introducing a girl, Santhosh said, “Her mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law”. How is Santhosh related to the girl? (1) Uncle (2) Husband (3) Brother (4) Father (5) None of these Solution: (4) Only daughter of mother-in-law  wife i.e. girl’s mother is Santhosh’s wife. Santhosh is the father of the girl. 2. Pointing to a lady a man said, “the son of her only brother is the brother of my wife”. How is the lady related to the man? (1) Mother’s sister (2) Grandmother (3) Mother-in-law (4) Sister of the Man’s father-in-law (5) None of these Solution: (4) Brother of wife  brother-in-law. Son of lady’s brother is his brotherin-law. So the lady’s brother is man’s father-in-law i.e. the lady is the sister of man’s father-in-law.
  • 66. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 3. Pointing to an old man, Kailas said, “his son is my son’s uncle”. How is the old man related to Kailas? (1) Brother (2) Uncle (3) Father (4) Grandfather (5) None of these Solution: (3) Old man’s son is Kailas brother. So old man is Kailas father. 4. Pointing to a lady on the platform Geetha said, “she is the sister of the father of my mother’s son”. What is the lady to Geetha? (1) Mother (2) Sister (3) Aunt (4) Niece (5) None of these Solution: (3) Mother’s son  brother, My brother’s father  my father My father’s sister  my aunt So the lady is Geetha’s aunt.
  • 67. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 5. Pointing to a lady a girl said, she is the only daughter-in-law of the grandmother of my father’s son”. How is the lady related to the girl? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) Sister-in-law Mother Niece Mother-in-law Cousin Solution: (2) My father’s son  my brother Grandmother of my brother  my grandmother Only daughter-in-law of my grandmother means my mother. So the lady is the girl’s mother
  • 68. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 6. Q's mother is sister of P and dauhter of M. S is daughter of P and sister of T. How is M related to T? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) Father Grandfather Grandmother Either grandfather of grandmother None of these Solution: (4) Q's mother is sister of P. (gender of P is not clear). Q's mother is daughter of M. (gender of M is not clear). S is daughter of P and sister of T. (The gender of P and T is not clear) M's Children : Q's mother and P. P's children : S (female) and T. Therefore, M is either grandfather or grandmother of T.
  • 69. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Five persons are sitting around dinning table. - K, L, M, N and O - K is the mother of M, who is the wife of O. N is the brother of K and L is the husband of K. Ex.7. How is L related to O? (1) Father (2) Mother-in-law (3) Brother-in-law (4) Father-in-law (5) Niece Ex.8. How is K related to O? (1) Sister (2) Mother (3) Mother-in-law (4) Brother-in-law (5) Aunt Ex.9. How is N related to L? (1) Son (2) Cousin (3) Brother (4)Brother-in-law (5) Uncle Ex.10. How is M related to L ? (1) Aunt (2) Niece (3) Daughter (4) Daughter-in-law (5) Mother
  • 70. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Solution:  K is the mother of M. M is the wife of O. So, K is the mother-in-law of O, who is the husband of M. N is the brother of K. L is the husband of K.  Therefore, N is the brother-in-law of L. L is the father-in-law of O. M is the daughter of L and K. 7. (4) L is the father-in-law of O 8. (3) K is the mother-in-law of O 9. (4) N is the brother-in-law of L 10. (3) M is the daughter of L
  • 71. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 11. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A x B means A is the father of B; A $ B means A is the brother of B and A @ B means A is the sister of B then which of the following means P is the son of Q? (1) Q + R @ P @ N (2) Q + R * P @ N (3) Q x R $ P @ N (4) Q x R $ P $ N Solution: (D) Q x R = Q is the mother of R [-Q, ±R] R $ P = R is the brother of P [+ R, ±P] P $ N = P is the brother of N [+ P, ±N] Therefore P is the son of Q.
  • 72. qcfinance.in FAMILY TREE
  • 73. FAMILY TREE    The very basics to solve the family tree problems are to know the various relations between the family members. The actual problem is when simple relation is defined in a typical way. So to make yourself able to deal with, study some common relations and the manner in which they may be presented, given next.
  • 74. SOME COMMON RELATIONS Sibling: Person having one or both parents in common with another. Sibling can either be:  Brother  Sister First Cousin:  First cousins are commonly known as cousin. Can be defined in following ways:  Child of one's aunt or uncle.  A relative descended from a common ancestor, such as a grandparent, by two or more steps in a diverging line. Second Cousin:    Child of one's first cousin. Child of a first cousin of one's parents.
  • 75. SOME COMMON RELATIONS Grandparent:  The father of one's mother or father is called grandfather/grandpa.  The mother of one's mother or father is called grandmother/grandma. Uncle:  The brother of one's mother or father.  The husband of one's aunt. Aunt:  The sister of one's father or mother.  The wife of one's uncle Nephew:  Son of one's brother or sister. Niece:  Daughter of one's brother or sister.
  • 76. SOME COMMON RELATIONS Brother-in-law    The brother of one's spouse. The husband of one's sister. The husband of the sister of one's spouse. Sister-in-law    The sister of one's spouse. The wife of one's brother. The wife of the brother of one's spouse.
  • 77. CHARACTER NOTATIONS   Relations are endless and to understand them properly, family trees need to be build with certain notations. It is always better to solve these questions diagrammatically and to do the same, you can use below mentioned notations. First Level     Denoting a Male (rectangle) and a female (circle) separately Denoting a Husband-Wife relationship with a single line Denoting a Brother-Sister relationship with double lines Denoting a parent and child relationship in a T structure ( using a circle to denote a female child and rectangle for a male child)
  • 78. CHARACTER NOTATIONS First Level
  • 79. CHARACTER NOTATIONS Second Level (Multiple Generations)    Denoting a Grand Parents relationship with their grandchild is only a repetition of the above structure (parent-child) Now here we can see three generations of the same family, A is the son of X and Y, B is the daughter-in-law of X and Y, C is the grandchild, E is the maternal aunt of C. Grandfather X and grandmother Y with son A, who in turn is husband (A) to wife B and child C.
  • 80. CHARACTER NOTATIONS Example: B is F’s daughter in law. D is A’s only grand child . C is D’s only uncle. A has only 2 children F and C, one of them is male and another is female. E is the father of C. Solution:
  • 81. CHARACTER NOTATIONS
  • 82. qcfinance.in QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
  • 83. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question2: M, N, O, P, Q and R are two sets of triplets, not necessarily in the order given. (i) None of the six is married to a sibling or to someone of the same sex. (ii) Four of the six are male and two are female. (iii)Neither set of triplets contains 3 siblings of the same sex. (iv)M and P are married to each other. (v) N is Q’s only brother. 1. Who cannot be sister and brother? a) M and Q b) O and R c) P and R d) R and Q Answer: d. R and Q From conditions (II) and (III), we can definitely say that one set of siblings has 2 males. From condition (V), N should be a male. Therefore, one set of sibling must contain N and Q and a female either M or P. Hence, option (a) is false. (b) is false as both O and R belong to the second set. (c) is false as P and R may both belong to the second set. But R and Q cannot be brother and sister as they are of different sets. Hence, option (d) is the correct choice.
  • 84. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2. R must be a female if : a) M and Q are siblings b) P and Q are siblings c) O is P’s sister in law d) O is P’s brother in law Answer: d. O is P’s brother in law Option (a) is false since it does not conclusively determine R’s sex. Option (b) is false since they do not conclusively determine R’s sex. Option (c) is false as it establishes O as a female and since we know that only M or P can be the other female, hence option (d) is the correct choice. 3. Which of the following statements must be false? a) O is P’s sister in law b) Q is P’s sister in law c) N is P’s brother in law d) Q is P’s brother in law Answer: b. Q is P’s sister in law Option (b) is false as in the second set, we have established that Q is a male.
  • 85. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 4. If Q and R are married to each other, which of the following must be true? a) b) c) d) O is a male R is a male M is a female N is a female Answer: a. O is a male If Q and R married, it implies that R is a female in one of the sets. We know that Q is a male. Hence, option (b) is false. Option (a) is the only option which must be true as one of the sets has R as a female and, therefore, the other two (either O, M or P) are males.
  • 86. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS There is a family of six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U. they are Engineer, Doctor, Teacher, Salesman, Manager and Lawyer. (i) There are two married couples in the family. (ii) The manager is the grandfather of U, who is an Engineer. (iii) R, the Salesman, is married to the lady Teacher. (iv) Q is the mother of U and T. (v) The Doctor S, is married to the Manager. 1. How many male members are there in the family? A. Two C. Four B. Three D. Data inadequate
  • 87. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Answer: d. Data inadequate From the information given in the question, it is clear that there is a family tree of three generations. I II III P (Manager) R S (Doctor) Q (Salesman) (Teacher) (Engg.) (Lawyer) U T It is clear from the information that two married couples will be (P – S) and (R – Q). Gender of U and T cannot be determined from the information. The gender of U and T cannot be determined. Therefore, we cannot how many male members are there.
  • 88. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2. How P is related to T? A. Father B. Grandfather C. Mother D. Grandmother Answer: Grandfather From the information given in the question, it is clear that there is a family tree of three generations. I P S (Manager) (Doctor) II R Q (Salesman) (Teacher) III U T (Engg.) (Lawyer) It is clear from the information that two married couples will be (P – S) and (R – Q). Sex of U and T cannot be determined from the information. (b) : P is the grandfather of T.
  • 89. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 3. What is the profession of P? A. Lawyer B. Lawyer or Teacher C. Manager D. None Answer: Manager (c) : P is the Manager. 4. Who are the two married couples in the family? A. PQ and SR B. RU and ST C. PT and SR D. PS and RQ Answer: PS and RQ (d) : Two married couples are (P S) and (R Q).
  • 90. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question1: In a family of six, there are three men L, M and N and three women R, S and T. The six are Architect, Lawyer, C.A., Professor, Doctor and Engineer by profession but not in same order. (i) There are two married couples and two unmarried persons. (ii) N is not R’s husband. (iii) The Doctor is married to a lawyer. R’s grandfather is professor. (iv) M is not L’s son, nor he is an Architect or Professor (v) The Lawyer is T’s daughter in law. (vi) N is T.’s son and the Engineer’s father. (vii) L is married to C.A. 1. Which among the following is the correct pair of married couples? A. LS and NT B. LR and NM C. LT and NS D. SM and NR Answer: C. LT and NS
  • 91. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2. Who among the following are two unmarried persons? A. B. C. D. LS LM LT RM Answer: D. RM 3. Who is an Architect? A. B. C. D. R M N T Answer: A. R
  • 92. qcfinance.in CONDITIONS & GROUPINGS
  • 93. INTRODUCTION      Selecting a part out of whole. Infer from the statements without Assumptions Apply condition and select. Conditions are given based on which the action takes place. There are four basic conditions. Based on them the decisions are made.
  • 94. CONDITIONS  Based on this conditions the groups are formed.  If A occurs then B also will occur  If A occurs then B will not occur  If A has not occurred then B will occur  If A has not occurred then B also will not occur
  • 95. qcfinance.in QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
  • 96. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: From a group of six boys M, N, O, P, Q, R and five girls G, H, I, J, K a team of six is to be selected. Some of the criteria of selection are as follows: M and J go together O cannot be placed with N I cannot go with J N goes with H P and Q have to be together K and R go together
  • 97. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 1. If the team consists of two girls and I is one of them, the other members are? a) GMRPQ b) HNOPQ c) KOPQR d) KRMNP Answer: c) KOPQR 2. If four members are boys, which of the following cannot constitute the team? a) GJMOPQ b) HJMNPQ c) JKMNOR d) JKMPQR Answer: c) JKMNOR 3. If the team has three girls including J and K, the members of the team are? a) GHNR b) MNOG
  • 98. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: Final year students plan to go for project which consist of 5 members ( 3 from A group and 2 from B group) based on the condition. There are two groups, group A consist of 6 members M N O P Q R and group B consist of 5 members V W X Y Z. conditions for selection are, i) M does not come , Z & O should come ii) X and Y remains together iii) R and V cannot go together iv) N is always go with Z v) Q always go with W vi) O can go with V vii) O and P are together 1. If M is not there in the team, the team consist of? Answer: OPNZV a) X & Y 2. If Q is there, who cannot be there in that team? a) X & Y b) R & V c) V & W Answer: a) X & Y
  • 99. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: From a group of 6 boys A,B,C,D,E,F and 5 girls L,M,N,O,P a group of 6 is to be selected based on the following conditions: 1.O and P have to be together 2.C cannot go with O 3.A and D have to be together 4.D cannot go with L 5.C and M have to be together 6.Band N have to be together 7.B and E cannot be together
  • 100. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 1. If the team consists of four girls the members of the team are: i) BELNOP ii) EFLNOP iii) BFLNOP Answer: D and A cannot be there. So (iii)BFLNOP 2. If the team consist of 5 boys and 1 girl that girl would be: i) L ii) M iii) N iv) O Answer: If B is selected, you cannot select E, without E you cannot form 5 boys team. So reject B, then you have A, C, D, E, F. If C is selected M will be there in that team. ii) M.
  • 101. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: Coach Balkishan is trying to put together a team of four players for a tennis tournament. He has seven players available: males A, B, C and females M,N, O and P. All players are of equal ability, and there must be at least two males in the team. For a team of four, all players must be able to play with each other player. Player B cannot play with player M, player C cannot play with player P, player M cannot play with player O. If player O is selected and player B is rejected, the team will consist of which foursome? Answer: A, C, O and N. 1. 2.If player M is in the team, which other players must be in the team as well? Answer: A, C and N.
  • 102. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: Mr. Pict must accommodate seven tour group passengers in two four – person cabins on the S.S. Gallia. Each passenger in a cabin must be able to converse with at least one passenger, though not necessarily in the same language A, an Etruscan, also speaks Gothic and Hittite B and F are Hittites and speak only that language C, an Etruscan also speaks Gothic D and G are Goths and speak only Gothic E, an Etruscan also speaks Hittite Hittites refuse to share rooms with Goths 1. Which combinations of passengers in one of the cabins will result in a rooming arrangement that satisfies all conditions for both cabins? a. B, C, F b. D, E, G c. C, D, E, G d. B, D, F, G Answer: c. C, D, E, G 2. How many different combinations of cabin mates satisfy all conditions? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6 Answer: a. 2
  • 103. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: 2 collectors, Frank and Gloria are each selecting a group of three wildlife prints from a group of 7 prints T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z. No print can be in both groups. The selections made by Frank and Gloria are subject to the following restrictions. a)If U is in Frank’s group, W must be in Gloria’s group b)If X is in Frank’s group, Z must be in Gloria’s group. c)T and Z cannot be in the same group. d)W and Y cannot be in the same group.
  • 104. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 1. If X is in Frank’s group, of the following could be in Gloria’s group except a) T b) U c) V d) W e) Z Answer: a) T 2. Which of the following pairs of groups selected by Frank and Gloria conform to the restrictions? a) Fr – TUV Gl - WXY b) Fr - TUZ Gl – VWX c) Fr – UXZ Gl – TWY d) Fr – VWX Gl – UYZ Answer: d) Fl – VWX Gl – UYZ 3. If U is in Frank’s group, which of the following is true? a) T must be in Frank’s group b) Y must be in Frank’s group c) Y cannot be in Frank’s group Answer: b) Y must be in Frank’s group.
  • 105. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: There are five men A, B, C, D and E and six women P, Q, R, S, T and U. A, B and R are advocates; C, D, P, Q and S are doctors and the rest are teachers. Some teams are to be selected from amongst these eleven persons subject to the following conditions; i) ii) iii) iv) v) vi) A, P and U have to be together B cannot go with D or R. E and Q have to be together C and T have to be together D and P cannot go together C cannot go with Q.
  • 106. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 1. If the team is to consist of two male advocates, two lady doctors and one teacher, the members of the team are? Answer: A B P U S 2. a) b) c) If the team is to consist of one advocate, two doctors, three teachers and C may not go with T, the members of the team are? AEPQSU AEPQTU BEQSTU Answer: b) A E P Q T U 3. If the team is to consist of one advocate, three doctors and one male teacher, the member of the team are? Answer: D E Q R S
  • 107. qcfinance.in THANK YOU.
  • 108. qcfinance.in
  • 109. INTRODUCTION: Analytical Reasoning represents judgments made upon statements that are based on the virtue of the statements own content. No particular experience beyond an understanding of the meanings of words used is necessary for analytical reasoning. These days analytical reasoning has become an important part of any competitive exams. So today we will discuss the most important and interesting topic of analytical reasoning that is sitting arrangement.
  • 110. Sitting Arrangement can be explained under two categories: 1. Circular 2. Linear As the name indicates circular arrangement means we have to arrange given number of persons in circular order. Whereas in linear arrangement in a single line or parallel lines.
  • 111. HOW TO SOLVE SITTING ARRANGEMENT PROBLEMS? Sitting arrangement or seating plan is just a diagram or a set of written instructions that determines where people should take their seats. This is one of the crucial and promising sections of banks and other competitive exams. Sitting arrangement is not any new word which directly invented /introduced for competitive exams. Its just picked up from our daily life. We follow this strategy in formal dinners, weddings, theaters etc to avoid chaos and confusion upon entrance.
  • 112. But in competitive exams we should arrange given people in specific shape. Most widely asked shapes are circular, parallel lines etc. Generally as soon as seeing the question people tend to draw the shape mentioned in the question and latter put dots or lines according to the given details. Its not good practice because it ruins your valuable time and often leads to extra confusion. So better use straight lines instead of circles and shapes.
  • 113. Drawing straight lines instead of circles also make it easier to find who is sitting opposite to whom. Lets have a look at below diagram for detailed understandings. Assume that you have been asked to draw a circular arrangement of six people:
  • 114. A B A B C F F C E D E D
  • 115. In the above mentioned figure the simpler and easier way to assign is to draw through lines. Drawing circle and then assigning places accordingly will be time consuming. so the simpler way is to draw lines as mentioned in second figure and then assign places to persons instead of drawing shape and then assigning.
  • 116. NOW TRY TO REMEMBER SOME IMPORTANT POINTS: 1. If A is sitting immediate left of B, that means B is on immediate right of A. 2. To avoid confusion of left and right in circular and other shapes seating arrangement problems you should assume that all people are facing to the center.(unless and until they specify the direction) 3. Its always better idea to assume you are one among them so that it will be easier for you to get an idea of the arrangement. 4. If you are unable to get the idea from a line then better skip that line and go to next line. You can revisit to the skipped line after getting another clue.
  • 117. Now lets have a look at some problems on seating arrangement so that you will get the concept clear: QUE: 6 persons A,B,C,D,E and F are sitting around a circular table, B sitting to the immediate right of E. C is not sitting next to F, F is sitting opposite to B and D is sitting opposite to E. Who is to immediate left of D? SOL: Its given that there are 6 people sitting around the table, 6 persons that means you should represent 6 points, That means 3 lines.
  • 118. Now its given that B is sitting to the immediate right of E, so we shall start with E , just choose any of the end of the line and mark it as E. And B is sitting immediate right to E , so put B at the right side of F. Now arrangement will look like the figure shown in next slide:
  • 119. Draw 3 lines as shown in below figure : A B E start from here
  • 120. Later its given that C is not sitting next to F . We don’t have any idea about this statement at present , so skip to next statement that is F is sitting opposite to B . We know where B is , so mark F to opposite to B. Its also given that D is sitting opposite to E, so mark D as opposite to E. Now the arrangement will look like:
  • 121. B E D F
  • 122. So only A and C are available , now go to the previous statement which we have skipped. C is not sitting next to F. With this statement its clearly known that we can’t place C besides F, so we can place A there. And now there is only one gap between D and B. We can place C there. So the final arrangement of seating will be appear like this:
  • 123. C D F B E A
  • 124. QUE: 8 persons P,Q,R,S,T,U,V and W are sitting around a circular table. S is to the immediate right of W. V is not next to either R or T W is to the immediate right of T who is sitting opposite to R. U and W are sitting opposite to each other. SOL: Here are 8 persons, that means 4 lines. Given that S sat immediately right of W, so start with W. V is not next to either R and T (no clue about this statement so skip it)
  • 125. W is to immediate right of T, who is sitting opposite to R. We know where W is, given that it is immediate right of T. That means T should be immediate left of W. Now from the above statement we came to know that T is sitting opposite to R . So place R opposite to T, now the arrangement will appear like this:
  • 126. R S W T
  • 127. Now check the skipped statement V is not next to either R or T. That means we can’t place V neither on both sides of R nor at the single side of T. So the only vacant place remaining was opposite to S. U and V are sitting opposite to each other , so just place U opposite to W. Now there are 2 vacancies and 2 people (P and Q) are pending. There is no specific clue to find their exact places so there are equal chances for them to place any of the side . Usually they leave blanks like this to make you confused.
  • 128. In these cases its better to write P/Q (P or Q) at both sides, in fact they won’t ask question about P/Q because they left them clueless. So finally the arrangement will appear like this: P/Q R S U W V P/Q T
  • 129. QUE: A) Who is sitting opposite to S? 1. V 2. R 3. T 4. U 5. NONE OF THESE ANS: V B) Who is sitting 2 places to the right of W? 1.P
  • 130. 2. S 3. V 4. Can’t Say 5. None of these ANS: Can’t say C) If R and V interchange their places then who is opposite to T? 1. P 2. S
  • 131. 3. R 4. V 5. None of these ANS: V D) If V is to the immediate left of P, then who is to the immediate left of R? 1. U 2.P 3.Q
  • 132. 4. Can’t say 5. None of these ANS: Q So these were question based on circular arrangement. Now let us discuss about linear arrangement As the name indicates it includes arrangement linearly where single or parallel lines are given on which arrangements have to be done. Lets understand it through example:
  • 133. QUE: A) A, P, R, X, S, and Z are sitting in a row . S and Z are in the center. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to right of P? 1. A 2. X 3. S 4. Z SOL: X Given S and Z are in the center and A and P are at the ends but the question lies which amongst A and P are at the right and left end.
  • 134. But if we read ahead then its given that R is sitting to left of A, that means A is to extreme right, and P to extreme left. That means arrangement is like: P X S Z R So the answer is X. A
  • 135. QUE: A, B, C, D, E are sitting on a bench, A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together , in which position A is sitting? 1. Between B and D 2. Between B and C 3. Between E and D 4. Between C and E
  • 136. ANS: Between B and C Now in this question its given C is sitting next to D, and D is not sitting with E which is at the left, C is on the second position from right, so it can be represented as: E C D now A is to right of B and E that means E B C D Also given A and C are together so finally it can be framed as: EBACD So answer is Between B and C.
  • 137. So this was all about the discussion on sitting arrangement including circular and linear arrangement. To conclude with in both the arrangements its very necessary to analyze the given conditions and plan arrangements accordingly. Take the best possible clue from the question and try to arrange them as quick as possible to complete on time with accuracy.
  • 138. THANK YOU
  • 139. STATEMENT AND ARGUMENTS, PASSAGE AND CONCLUSION, STATEMENT AND COURSE OF ACTION
  • 140. STATEMENT AND ARGUEMENTS Here in such type of topic each question consists of statement followed by arguments.  By arguments we mean an exchange of diverging or opposite views, or a support or set of reasons given in support of an idea, action or theory.  So after analyzing the given arguments you have to decide which of the arguments is a strong one and which is a weak.  qcfinance.in
  • 141.  Lets understand with an e.g.: Statement:- Should India encourage exports when most things are insufficient for internal use itself. Arguments: 1. Yes, we have to earn foreign exchange to pay for our imports. 2. No, even selective encouragement would lead to shortages. qcfinance.in
  • 142. Answer: Option 1, Clearly India can export only the surplus and that which can be saved after fulfilling its own needs, to pay for its imports. Encouragement to exports cannot lead to shortages as it shall provide the resources for imports. So only argument 1 holds. qcfinance.in
  • 143.  Lets consider another e.g.: Statement:- Should all the drugs patented and manufactured in western countries be first tried out on sample basis before giving license for sale to general public in India. Arguments: 1. Yes, many such drugs require different doses and duration for Indian population and hence it is necessary. qcfinance.in
  • 144. 2. No, this just not feasible and hence cannot be implemented. Answer: Option 1, Clearly health of the citizens is an issue of major concern for the government. So a product like drugs must be first studied and tested in the Indian context before giving license for its sale. So only argument 1 holds strong. qcfinance.in
  • 145. PASSAGE AND CONCLUSION Here in this type of question a passage is given followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage.  You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.  Lets understand through an e.g.:  qcfinance.in
  • 146. Passage: In the absence of an integrated sugar-field to sale policy, the Indian sugar industry has become a victim of surplus production and price mismatch of sugarcane and finished sugar. Despite a lower estimated sugar production at around 12.8 million tones for 1996-97 against 16.7 million tones in the previous year, the total availability is put to 20.8 million tones including qcfinance.in
  • 147. a carryover stock of 8 million tones from the previous year. Of this the domestic consumption may not exceed 13.5 million tones, though the industry could export 10.5 million tones to different countries during 1995-96, this years export policy existing norms and international market conditions may bring down the export quality to half a million tones. qcfinance.in
  • 148. Conclusion 1: India need not import sugar during the next few years. Answer: If the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of facts given. Explanation: Since there has been surplus production of sugar, hence it is likely that India will not require to import sugar during next few years. qcfinance.in
  • 149. Conclusion 2: There may be a fall in the sugar price during 1997-98. Answer: If the inference is definitely true i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given. Explanation: Conclusion speaks of probability of the fall in price for the year 1997-98. It is given in the passage that there has been surplus production in the year 1996-97. qcfinance.in
  • 150. Conclusion 3: India’s export policy has made the sugar price non competitive in the international market. Answer: The data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you can say whether the inference is likely to be true or false. Explanation: Data given in the passage is not adequate to say anything about the conclusion. qcfinance.in
  • 151. STATEMENT AND COURSE OF ACTION Here in such kind of situation question follows a statement with courses of action.  You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.  Lets understand from an e.g.:  qcfinance.in
  • 152. Statement: A large number of people in ward X of the city are diagnosed to be suffering from a fatal malaria type. Course of Action: 1. The city municipal authority should take immediate steps to carry out extensive fumigation in ward X. 2. The people in the area should be advised to take steps to avoid mosquito bites. qcfinance.in
  • 153. Answer: Both 1 and 2 follows. Explanation: Clearly, prevention from mosquitoes and elimination of mosquitoes are the two ways to prevent malaria. So both the courses of action follows. Lets consider another e.g.: qcfinance.in
  • 154. Statement: Severe drought is reported to have set in several parts of country. Courses of Action: 1. Government should immediately make arrangement for providing financial assistance to those affected. 2. Food, water and fodder should immediately be sent to all these areas to save the people and cattle. qcfinance.in
  • 155. Answer: Option 2 follows Explanation: In the break out of a natural calamity the basic duty of the government becomes to provide the basic amenities essential to save the lives of people and cattle, providing financial assistance to all would put undue burden on country’s resources. So only 2nd course of action follows. qcfinance.in
  • 156. REFERENCE www. indiabix.com  Exam2win.com  qcfinance.in
  • 157. SYLLOGISM, STATEMENT AND CONCLUSION, STATEMENT AND ASSUMPTION
  • 158. SYLLOGISM A syllogism is a logical argument composed of 3 parts:  Major premise  Minor premise  Conclusion  Each part is composed of 2 categorical terms linked in the form “SOME/ all A is / are[not] B”  Each of the premises has 1 term in common with conclusion.  qcfinance.in
  • 159. The major term in the major premise which forms the predicate of the conclusion.  The minor term in the minor premise which forms the subject of conclusion.  The categorical term in common in the premises is called the middle term.  For e.g.: major premise: All birds are animals.  Minor premise : All parrots are birds.  qcfinance.in
  • 160. Conclusion: All parrots are animals.  In this e.g. “animal” is the major term and predicate of the conclusion ,” parrot” is the minor term and subject of the conclusion, and “bird” is the middle term.  The premises and conclusion of a syllogism can be any of 4 types, which are labeled by letters as follows:  qcfinance.in
  • 161. All subjects are predicate is denoted by "a”  No subjects are predicate is denoted by ”e”  Some subjects are predicate is denoted by “ I”  Some subjects are not predicate is denoted by “o”.  Letter “a” is called universal affirmatives.  Letter “ e” is called universal negatives.  Letter “I” is called particular affirmatives.  Letter “ o” is called particular negatives.  qcfinance.in
  • 162. Now consider a following e.g. Statement: All harmonium are instruments. All instruments are flutes. Conclusion: All flutes are instruments. All harmonium are flutes. qcfinance.in
  • 163. Now to solve this we have to prepare Venn diagram: FLUTE INSTRUMENT HARMONIUM qcfinance.in
  • 164. From above we can conclude that all harmonium are flutes. But all flutes are not instruments because from the diagram it is clear that all instruments are flute and some flute are instruments. So only conclusion 2 follows. qcfinance.in
  • 165. Considering another e.g. : Statement: Some mangoes are yellow Some twigs are mango Conclusion: Some mangoes are green Twigs is a yellow Now to solve this again we have to make Venn diagram: qcfinance.in
  • 166. Twigs Mango Yellow qcfinance.in
  • 167. Now in the above Venn diagram according to the statement we have made the relationship.  Now conclusion can be drawn that some mangoes are yellow, but its given some mangoes are green which is not followed.  Then next some mangoes are twigs, but its given that twigs is a yellow which is false.  So from above Venn diagram no conclusion follows, both are false.  qcfinance.in
  • 168. STATEMENT AND CONCLUSION Statement conclusion refer to situation where we are provided with a statement followed by conclusion.  Assuming everything in the statement to be true consider both the conclusion together.  Then decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.  qcfinance.in
  • 169.  Now understand through an e.g.: Statement: In a one day cricket match the total runs made by a team were 200. Out of those 160 runs were made by spinners. Conclusion: 1. 80% of the team consists of spinners. 2. The opening batsmen were spinners. qcfinance.in
  • 170. Ans is none follows  According to statement 80% of total runs were made by spinners so, first conclusion does not follow.  Nothing about the opening batsmen is mentioned in the statement so second conclusion also does not follow.  qcfinance.in
  • 171. Statement: The old order changed yielding place to new. Conclusion: Change is the law of nature. Discard old ideas because they are old.  Here first conclusion follows as clearly it is mentioned that old ideas are replaced by new ones, as thinking changes with the progressing time .  So second conclusion does not follow.  qcfinance.in
  • 172. STATEMENT AND ASSUMPTION Assumption which means a thing that is acceptable as true or as certain to happen without proof  Similarly statement assumption refer to a situation where statement followed by assumptions  You have to consider the statement and following assumption and decide which of the assumption is implicit in the statement.  qcfinance.in
  • 173. Let us understand with an e.g.:  Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so. Assumption: At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn. The schools do not admit children after 6 years of age.  qcfinance.in
  • 174. Now here in given assumption first follows as statement talks of putting the child in school at the age of 5.  It means that the child is mentally prepared for the same at this age, so first assumption is implicit.  But nothing about admission after 6 years of age is mentioned in the statement, so assumption 2 is not implicit.  qcfinance.in
  • 175.  Lets take another e.g.: Statement: If you trouble me, I will slap you- A mother warns her child. Assumption: With the warning the child may stop troubling her. All children are basically naughty. qcfinance.in
  • 176. Here in this case assumption first is implicit.  The mother warns her child with the expectation that he would stop troubling her, so first assumption is implicit.  Whereas the general nature of children cannot be derived from the statement.  So second assumption is not implicit.  qcfinance.in
  • 177. REFERENCE www.wikihow.com  en.wikipedia.org  www.indiabix.com  qcfinance.in
  • 178. THANK YOU qcfinance.in
  • 179. Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The following table gives the production capacity of the five refineries – P, Q, R, S and T – of the oil company SPCL, the demand at the company’s four outlets – A, B, C and D – and the transportation costs involved in transporting – and the transportation costs involved in transporting – and the transportation costs involved in transporting the oil from different refineries to different outlets. Transportation cost (in rupees/kilolitre) Refinery (Production Outlet (Demand in kilolitres/day) capacity in kilolitres/day) A (40) B (30) C (10) D (20) P (30) 500 300 600 200 Q (10) 600 400 400 100 R (30) 300 400 700 400 S (20) 200 300 400 200 T (10) 400 300 600 100 qcfinance.in
  • 180. In the above table, the number given in the brackets alongside each refinery gives the production capacity (in kilolitres per day) of that refinery and the number given in the brackets alongside each outlet. The number given in the brackets alongside each outlet gives the demand (in kilolitres per day) at that outlet. The number given in the cell corresponding to a refinery and an outlet, gives the transportation cost (in rupees per kilolitre) incurred for transporting oil from that refinery to that outlet. For example, the production capacity of refinery P is 30 kilolitres/day and the demand at outlet A is 40 kilolitres/day and the cost of transporting one kilolitre of oil from refinery P to outlet P to outlet A is Rs.500. Assume that the company currently operates only the refineries and outlets mentioned above and that the production at the refineries on any day is transported to the outlets such that the demand at all the outlets is met. qcfinance.in
  • 181. 1. The daily of transportation of oil to all the outlets is at least (1) Rs.24,000 (2) Rs.26,000 (3) Rs.28,000 (4) Rs.29,000 qcfinance.in
  • 182. Solution : The lowest cost of transportation occurs when the oil is transported along the cheapest routes available, which are shown below. T – D  10 kl  10 x 100 = Rs.1000 Q – D  10 kl  10 x 100 = Rs.1000 P – B  30 kl  30 x 300 = Rs.9000 S – A  10 kl  10 x 200 = Rs.2000 R – A  30 kl  30 x 300 = Rs.9000 S – C  10 kl  10 x 400 = Rs.4000 Total = Rs.26,000 Choice (2) qcfinance.in
  • 183. 2. If due to a disruption in the supply lines to some of the outlets, refinery P can supply oil to only outlets A and Cm then the daily cost of the transportation of oil to A and C, then the daily cost of transportation of oil to all the outlets is at least (1) Rs.29,000 (3) Rs.33,000 (2) Rs.30,000 (4) Rs.34,000 qcfinance.in
  • 184. Solution: As P can be used for supplying only to A or C, the minimum cost of transportation in this case would be P – C  10 kl  Rs.6,000 P – A  20 kl  Rs.10,000 Q – D  10 kl  Rs.1,000 T – D  10 kl  Rs.1,000 R – B  30 kl  Rs.12,000 S – A  20 kl  Rs.4,000 Total = Rs.34,000 Choice (4) qcfinance.in
  • 185. Currently, the daily cost of transportation of oil to all the outlets is the outlets is the least possible. 3. The daily cost of transportation to all the outlets would increase by the maximum amount, if there is a disruption (blockage) in the supply line connecting. (1) P and B (3) Q and C (2) S and D (4) T and B qcfinance.in
  • 186. Solution: The cheapest supply lines were already determined in the first question of the set. Now we have to determine in the supply line whose disruption would cause the transportation cost to increase by the maximum amount. Choices (2), (3) and (4) can be straight away ignored as they are not part of the cheapest route. Hence, the increase in transportation cost would be highest, if the supply line P – B is distributed. Choice (1) qcfinance.in
  • 187. 4. If the company plans to decrease the daily cost of transportation of oil to all the outlets by doubling the production capacity of exactly one of the refineries, which refinery should it select so as to reduce the transportation cost by the maximum amount? (1) S (2) Q (3) R (4) P qcfinance.in
  • 188. Solution: As far as the cost of transportation at each of the outlets is considered, most of the outlets receive the oil at a low transportation cost from the refinery S, hence if the capacity of refinery S is doubled, the saving in the expenditure will be more. Choice (1) qcfinance.in
  • 189. Eight county teams – Kent, Essex, Somerset, Durham, Hampshire, Yorkshire, Derbyshire and Lancashire Participated, Yorkshire, Derbyshire and Lancashire participated in a Twenty20 tournament held in London. In the first round, these eight teams were divided into two groups of four teams each. Each team has to Play two matches against each of the other teams in its group. The teams with the highest and the second Highest number of wins in both the group will move to the next round, i.e., semi-finals. It is known that, Essex, Yorkshire, Lancashire and Derbyshire reached the semi-finals. It is also known that, in the first round (i) No match ended in a tie and in each of the groups, each of the four teams won a different number of matches. (ii) Yorkshire lost both its matches against Derbyshire. (iii) Kent won the same number of matches that by Lancashire. (iv) In its group, Somerset lost both of its matched against all the other teams, except Durham, which in turn, won at least one match against each of the other teams, except one. qcfinance.in
  • 190. 5. Which team won the highest number of matches in the first round? (1) Yorkshire (2) Derbyshire (3) Essex (4) Cannot be determined 6. What was the total number of matches won by Durham in the first round? (1) Hampshire (2) Somerset (3) Durham (4) Cannot be determined 7. What was the total number of matches won by Durham in the first round? (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 8. Which team/s lost at least one match against Kent in the first round? (1) Only Hampshire (2) Only Yorkshire (3) Only Yorkshire and Hampshire (4) Only Hampshire and Derbyshire qcfinance.in
  • 191. Solution: Given that, Essex, Yorkshire, Lancashire and Derbyshire reached the semi finals. Hence, Kent, Somerset, Durham and Hampshire are eliminated in the first round. It is also given, Yorkshire played against Derbyshire. Hence, Yorkshire and Derbyshire must be the two of one group. .ˈ. Lancashire and Essex must be the two teams of the other group. As Kent has same number of wins as Lancashire, they must be in different groups. .ˈ. Kent and Hampshire are the losing teams in the group from which Yorkshire and Derbyshire qualified and Durham and Somerset are the eliminated teams in the group from which Essex and Lancashire qualified. The groups can be classified and follows: Qualified for Semis Lancashire Essex Yorkshire Derbyshire Eliminated in 1st round Somerset Durham Kent Hampshire qcfinance.in
  • 192. Total number of matches in each group = 12 Given, each of them has a different number of wins, so the possibilities are as follows. Number of wins Qualified teams Eliminated teams Highest 2nd highest 3rd highest 4th highest (i) 6 4 2 0 (ii) 6 3 2 1 (iii) 5 4 2 1 (iv) 5 4 3 0 As Kent, which is eliminated has the same number of wins as Lancashire, which qualified, the only possibilities That can be considered are (ii) and (iv). In the group of Kent, Yorkshire must have lost only the matches against Derbyshire i.e. it must have won 4 matched. Derbyshire must Have won both the matches against Yorkshire, both against Hampshire and one against Kent.qcfinance.in
  • 193. Kent won both the matches against Hampshire and one against Derbyshire and Hampshire lost all the matches. In the group of Lancashire, Essex won all the matches, Lancashire, Essex won all the matches, Lancashire won both the matches against Somerset and one against Durham. Durham Won one against Lancashire and one against Somerset and Somerset won against Durham. 5. Essex won the maximum number of matches in the first round. Choice (3) 6. Hampshire has the least number of wins. Choice (1) 7. The number of matches won by Durham is two. Choice (3) 5. Hampshire and Derbyshire lost at least one match against Kent. Choice (4) qcfinance.in
  • 194. Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 4 2 1 1 5. 6. 7. 8. 3 1 3 4 qcfinance.in

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