course material

1. 4. Which one of the following statements accurately represents the
practice known as unbundling? A. Combination codes are assigned
separately in ICD-10-CM. B. Codes that should be grouped
QUESTIONMAY 16, 20194. Which one of the following statements accurately represents
the practice known as unbundling? A. Combination codes are assigned separately in ICD-
10-CM. B. Codes that should be grouped4. Which one of the following statements
accurately represents the practice known as unbundling? A. Combination codes are
assigned separately in ICD-10-CM. B. Codes that should be grouped into one code are
broken into separate codes to maximize physician reimbursement. C. ICD-10-PCS codes are
broken into separate codes for congruent assignment. D. Codes listed as separate
procedures are assigned individually. 5. Placing a catheter into the aorta or directly into an
artery or vein is called A. brachiocephalic manipulation. B. third order
placement. C. selective catheter placement. D. nonselective catheter placement. 6. What
ICD-10-CM code would be assigned for a patient with acute tubule-interstitial
nephritis? A. L50.0 B. Z02.6 C. N10 D. B96.2 7. The suffix -sis
means A. inflammation. B. drooping. C. condition. D. process. 8. The concept of
meaningful use pertains to A. medical office protocol and document
organization. B. electronic health record implementation. C. resource management in the
inpatient setting. D. categorization of patient information. 9. In what CPT code range is
Surgical Pathology found? A. 88400–80499 B. 88000–80299 C. 88300–88309 D. 88515–
88598 10. According to the CMS National Physician Fee Schedule, what is the conversion
factor for basic life support
mileage? A. $32.4726 B. $34.5741 C. $28.8457 D. $36.0666 11. A patient who was
involved in a motor vehicle accident is taken to the hospital by ambulance and admitted to
the hospital in critical care. The physician sees the patient for 74 minutes in critical care.
The physician leaves to attend to other patients in the ICU and the NICU of the same
hospital. Five hours later, the physician returns to the patient and continues to treat the
patient in critical care for an additional 30 minutes. The patient spends a total of 104
minutes in critical care. What codes are assigned? A. 99291, 99292 B. 99292,
99293 C. 99291, 99291 D. 99292, 99292, 99293 12. The prefix endo-
means A. beneath. B. outside of. C. adjacent to. D. within. 13. What is the CPT code for a
three-view x-ray of the mandible? A. 70200 B. 70100 C. 70150 D. 70240 14. Rules of
evidence control the A. amount of evidence that may be admitted during a civil

2. trial. B. processes and procedures for question and answer sessions. C.documents that can
be considered during jury trial. D. length of criminal court proceedings, but not civil court
proceedings. 15. The ampulla, isthmus, interstitium, and fimbria are examples
of A. implantation sites of ectopic pregnancy. B. incision sites for pacemaker
insertion. C. membranes in the abdomen. D. bones in the ankle. 16. Code J9165 is
assigned for intravenous diethylstilbestrol diphosphate. According to the code description,
what dosage was administered? A. 20 mg B. 50 mg C. Up to 0.5 mg D. 250
mg 17. Members of the uniformed services, their families and survivors, and retired
members and their families qualify for A. TRICARE. B. OIG
Recovery. C. Medicare. D. Medicaid. 18. A patient comes to the emergency room
complaining of abdominal pain. She was previously diagnosed with type I diabetes. She also
complains of watery eyes, congestion, pressure in the sinuses, and difficulty breathing. Her
final diagnoses are right lower quadrant abdominal pain, type I diabetes, acute sinusitis, and
asthma. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? A. 99222, R18.91, E16.9, J01.91,
J45.919 B. 99221, R17.41, E17.9, J01.90, J45.909 C. 99221, R10.31, E10.9, J01.90,
J45.909 D.99223, R14.31, E15.9, J01.90, J45.929 19. Under HIPAA, health care facilities
must A. follow up with patients who repeatedly miss scheduled appointments for
mandatory services. B. keep records of patients who refill prescriptions more than once
within a three-month timeframe. C. maintain a clean, safe working
environment. D. choose a privacy officer in accordance with HIPAA policies and
procedures. 20. What is the ICD-10-CM code for unspecified acute
pericarditis? A. I30.89 B. I30.9 C. I30 D. I30.79 21. What is the full code description for
25515? A. Open treatment of radial shaft fracture, includes internal fixation, when
performed B. Closed treatment of ulnar shaft fracture; without manipulation C. Closed
treatment of radial shaft fracture; without manipulation D. Open treatment of radial shaft
fracture, includes internal fixation, when performed, and open treatment of distal
radioulnar joint dislocation (Galeazzi fracture/dislocation), includes internal fixation, when
performed, includes repair of triangular fibrocartilage complex 22. Which of the following
anatomical locations would contain the
diaphysis? A. Metatarsal B. Diaphragm C. Septum D. Tibia 23. A patient recently
became eligible for health insurance through her employer. Her health insurance is
considered to be an 80-20 policy. Under the terms of an 80-20 policy, the insurer pays 80
percent and the insured pays 20 percent of expenses. This 80-20 policy is an example
of A. coinsurance. B. prospective payment. C. capitation. D. case management. 24. The
Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS) pays A. an established rate for outpatient
services in specific hospitals. B. a percentage of the national average for the same surgery
performed in a different geographic location. C. 65% of the schedule C rate for all
surgeries. D. subsidies to contain health care costs in rural facilities. 25. The study of
disease is called A. physiology. B. pathology. C. urology. D. neurology. 26. Superficial
injuries such as abrasions or contusions are A. not coded when associated with more
severe injuries of the same site. B. queried to determine if the injuries are confined to the
same site. C. coded when associated with more severe injuries of the same site. D. coded
only when debridement is performed. 27. Another name for XXY syndrome is A. Turner’s

3. syndrome. B. Cooley’s anemia. C. Klinefelter syndrome. D. Huntington’s chorea. 28. The
method that physicians use to bill for each service or visit individually rather than on a pre-
paid basis is called A. fee-for-service. B. capitation. C. pre-paid care. D. managed
care. 29. A physician has a meeting with a pharmaceutical sales representative. During the
course of the conversation, the physician reveals the diagnosis and past family, medical, and
social history of a patient currently being treated with one of the medications that the sales
representative is selling. In this situation, the doctor could be sued for A. invasion of
privacy. B. malfeasance. C. undue harm and fraud. D. malice. 30. A patient is prescribed
a medication that narrows the blood vessels and raises her blood pressure. The medication
is most likely
a A. tranquilizer. B. cardiogenic. C. vasoconstrictor. D. cardiotonic 31. Physicians
typically refer to anatomical locations using directional terms, which are often A. paired in
opposites. B. used primarily by chiropractors. C. used to describe surgical
incisions. D. referenced horizontally. 32. The study of tissue disease using macroscopic or
microscopic analysis is
called A. immunology. B. histopathology. C. cytopathology. D. microbiology. 33. A
physician obtains cells from the bone marrow cavity using a needle and a syringe. How
would this procedure be coded? A. 36575 B. 37328 C. 38220 D. 35092 34. What is
Medicare Part D? A. The component of Medicare Part A that covers outpatient
surgeries B. Add-on coverage for prescription drugs provided through insurance
companies approved by Medicare C. Supplemental coverage for war veterans and their
dependents D. Add-on coverage for dental procedures 35. A female patient is seen for her
annual gynecological examination. During the examination, the physician performs a test to
detect cervical cancer. This test is called a/an A. immunoassay test. B. Pap
smear. C. carcinoembryonic antigen test. D. mycobacterial culture. 36. A physician is
called to the intensive care unit for a patient with second-degree burns sustained on 55% of
his body while cooking in the kitchen where he works. The physician sees the patient in the
critical care unit for two hours, leaves the unit, and returns later the same day to provide an
additional hour of critical care. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes would be
assigned? A. L91.8, 99291 × 2, 99292 × 4 B. R53.81, 99291, 99293 × 5 C. Z30.09, 99293,
99294 × 2 D. T31.50, 99291, 99292 × 4 37. A change in the tissues and cells within a
specific area on or in the body is called
a A. lesion. B. cyst. C. neoplasm. D. tumor. 38. Information about a patient can becan be
released for research under the terms of HIPAA, only if A. the patient signs an
authorization immediately upon admission. B. the research is critical for technological
development. C. the patient has authorized the release and only a limited amount of
information is released. D. researchers obtain authorization from the admitting
physician. 39. A patient is diagnosed with breast cancer and undergoes a partial
mastectomy. What CPT code would be
assigned? A. 19305 B. 19307 C. 19304 D. 19301 40. To conform to the HIPAA Privacy
Rule, which of the following safeguards must be maintained in health care
facilities? A. Immunization and injection safeguards B. Reasonable administrative,
technical, and physical safeguards C. ICD-7 provisional safeguards D. Hazardous waste

4. protection safeguards 41. A patient sustains a fracture of the femur while playing football
in a nearby park. What ICD-10-CM code would be
assigned? A. S72.001A B. S72.009A C. S72.003A D. S49.006A 42. According to the
guidelines for medical records outlined in the Health Insurance Portability and
Accountability Act (HIPAA), patients A. have the right to have errors reviewed by a hospital
administrator. B. have the right to correct errors in identification data only. C.have the
right to have errors in their medical records corrected. D. do not have the right to have
errors corrected, as the data has been previously verified by the physician. 43. Modifier -
23 indicates that A. two surgeons performed a procedure. B. a procedure was performed
bilaterally. C. a physician reviewed and interpreted a radiology procedure. D. the patient
received general anesthesia for a procedure that would ordinarily be performed with local
or no anesthesia. 44. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) was
created for the purpose of A. streamlining claims processing and reducing paperwork
through electronic transmission. B. stabilizing administrative costs and
productivity. C. decreasing employee turnover and reducing the volume of new hire
paperwork. D. modifying legal and ethical issues surrounding medical records
retention. 45. A patient is seen in the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain in
the left lower quadrant. It’s determined that the patient is experiencing inflammation of the
pancreas, which is also called A. pancreaticoduodonal
arcade. B. pancreatitis. C. pancreatolysis. D. pancreatonia. 46. A 55-year-old patient was
injured while working as a carpenter on a construction site. While framing the roof of a two-
story house, he fell and hit his head. He was diagnosed with a concussion to the left side of
his head, and underwent a right frontal parietal craniotomy with removal of a subdural
hematoma. During the patient’s period of recovery, he was given a medication that resulted
in a rash on his abdomen. The physician conducted an expanded problem focused history
and exam, with straightforward medical decision making. What CPT code(s) should be
assigned? A. 99251 B. 99252 C. 99292, 99291 D. 99253 47. Taking certain steps to
protect PHI from being accidentally released to individuals who don’t need to know the
information is called the A. minimum necessary standard. B. privacy management
statute. C. health information guardianship guideline. D. information provision
standard. 48. The main term represents the most basic aspect of a disease or condition. For
example, the main term of a diagnosis involving a broken arm
is A. broken. B. break. C. fracture. D. arm. 49. Performing a daily check for viruses and
malware is one of the A. requirements of the Help Desk. B. routine aspects of software
maintenance. C. sensible guidelines for Internet use in health care facilities. D. functions of
HIM encoders. 50. A coder overhears a confidential statement made outside of the court,
and then, when called to testify, repeats the statement as being truth. This is an example
of A. cross-examination. B. hearsay. C. speculation. D. a direct quote. 51. A patient
receives two venous pressure clamps for hemodialysis. What HCPCS Level II code is
assigned? A. A4751 B. A4751 × 2 C. A4918 × 2 D. A4918 52. The process of removing
tissue for histopathology is
called A. shaving. B. debridement. C. excision. D. biopsy. 53. A coder would assign
modifier -53 to report A. dental procedures. B. repeat procedures. C. anesthesia

5. administration. D. procedures cancelled due to the patient’s condition. 54. Alternative
dispute resolution (ADR) allows A. resolving medical malpractice suits by submitting
pretrial depositions. B. lawyer-to-lawyer mediation during trial recess. C.mediating
disputes with a judge in the presence of the bailiff. D. litigants to resolve disputes prior to
or after the start of litigation. 55. Code range 99231–99233 pertains to A. initial hospital
care. B. subsequent hospital care. C. consultation services. D. hospital discharge
services. 56. A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain,
nausea, and intractable vomiting. Unable to pinpoint the source of the patient’s complaints,
the physician decides to admit the patient to the hospital. After conducting a complete
history and examination, the patient’s final diagnosis is determined to be chronic duodenal
ulcer. The patient remains hospitalized for three days. The physician sees the patient on the
day of discharge. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned? A. 99234, N17.9 B. 99223,
I48.91 C. 99238, K26.7 D. 99291, D63.1 57. The specific guidelines that constitute a valid
release of information under the HIPAA Privacy Rule are described as A. OIG
specifications. B. E/M levels. C. considerations in relation to risk management. D. core
elements. 58. The suffix –centesis means A. abnormal condition. B. calculus or stone. C. a
surgical puncture for fluid removal. D. separation, breakdown, destruction. 59. The code
for an ESWL would be found in the A. Urinary and Male Genital Systems of
CPT. B. Chemotherapy section of HCPCS. C. Digestive System of CPT. D. Cardiovascular
System of CPT. 60. A female patient is diagnosed with breast cancer of the lower-inner
quadrant of the right breast. The patient undergoes a modified radical mastectomy of the
right breast in an attempt to circumvent the spread of the cancer to any secondary
anatomical sites. The procedure was performed in three stages. In addition to the radical
mastectomy, the physician also performed a right breast biopsy to treat the breast tumor in
the lower-inner quadrant. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes are assigned? A. 19307-58-RT,
19101-59-RT, C50.311 B. 15852-58, Z48.01 C. 11602, 15240, C50.312 D. 19307-RT,
19101-RT, C50.211 61. A patient comes to the ambulatory surgery center for a fusion of
the cervical spine. Prior to the beginning of the surgery, the patient suffers an allergic
reaction to the anesthesia shortly after it’s administered. Because of this reaction, the
surgery is not performed. What code would be assigned as the first-listed diagnosis? A. The
observation code B. The reason that the surgery was scheduled to be performed C. The
allergy code D. The anesthesia administration 62. Anti-inflammatory drugs applied to the
skin to relieve skin disorders are called A. topical
corticosteroids. B. antiseptics. C. keratolytics. D. astringents. 63. The _______ nerve sends
visual data to the occipital lobe of the
brain. A. abducens B. trochlear C. optic D. oculomotor 64. The root word OBSTETR/O
means A. pregnancy. B. cesarean. C. midwife. D. birth. 65. The root word ENTER/O
means A. tooth. B. stomach. C. intestine. D. secretion. 66. What code would be assigned
for gastropathy? A. K29.7 B. K41.31 C. K31.9 D. K41.2 67. A patient comes to the
physician’s office complaining of neck irritation. The physician examines her neck and notes
that she has a 15 cm neck scar. Upon further examination, the physician notes that the neck
scar requires extensive debridement and retention sutures. The physician performs a
dermabrasion to treat the neck scar and then closes the complex wound with the sutures.

6. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned? A. 13132, 13133 × 2, L90.5 B. 13132, 13133 ×
3, H81.09, L92.9 C. 13133-51, 13131-79, L60.0 D. 13132, L76.82 68. The bulbourethral
gland is found in the _______ system. A. neurological B. cardiovascular C. male
genital D. female genital 69. A tethered health record allows patients to A. restructure
insurance copayments. B. use a secure portal to access their own records. C. compare
their health records to the records of patients with similar diagnoses. D. amend the
diagnoses listed in the health record. 70. A patient is diagnosed with lymphocytic
lymphoma. Another patient is seen several weeks later and is diagnosed with histiocytic
lymphoma. Both of these diagnoses are examples of _______
lymphoma. A. basic B. Hodgkin’s C. non-Hodgkin’s D. Burkitt’s 71. A patient receives a
blood glucose monitor. What HCPCS Level II code would be
assigned? A. E0976 B. E0607 C. E0562 D. E4752 72. A good compliance program in the
health care setting includes A. HHS surveillance. B. regular tracking and monitoring of
coding activities. C. meetings with compliance officers. D. regular audit consultations with
trustees of the AAPC. 73. A patient with numerous symptoms is seen in the laboratory for a
general health panel to gauge her overall physical well-being. What CPT code would be
assigned for a general health panel? A. 80051 B. 82136 C. 84135 D. 80050 74. Code
71030-TC indicates a/an A. complete chest x-ray, four views, technical component
only. B. incomplete chest x-ray, two views, technical and professional
component. C. complete chest x-ray, two views, technical component only. D. incomplete
chest x-ray, three views, technical and professional component 75. If patients choose to
obtain copies of their medical records, under the terms of HIPAA, providers can A. also
fulfill requests for prescription data. B. reschedule office visits to allow time to update
medical records. C. complete employee paperwork. D. charge a reasonable fee for
providing copies of those records. 76. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of fever,
diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. The patient is diagnosed with salmonella meningitis. What
ICD-10-CM code would be assigned? A. A23.24 B. A02.21 C. A05.26 D. A07.21 77. A
patient comes to the emergency room complaining of right knee pain. He states that he was
playing baseball the previous evening and accidentally fell when sliding into first base. The
physician obtains an expanded problem focused history and examination, as well as a two-
view x-ray of the right knee. The physician reviews the x-ray, as well as the notes in the
medical record, and renders a diagnosis of osteoarthritis of the knee. The physician
performs a patellofemoral arthroplasty to repair the knee. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes
are assigned? A. 27477, M17.12 B. 27506-RT, N17.11 C. 27477-RT, D17.39 D. 27447-RT,
M17.11 78. Provision of security against a hurt, loss, or damage with specific cash
payments is called A. copayment. B. protection. C. indemnity. D. secured
loss. 79. HCPCS modifier –E2 indicates that the patient had a surgical procedure performed
on the A. lower left eyelid. B. upper left eyelid. C. upper right eyelid. D. lower right
eyelid. 80. When is code 58120 assigned? A. The code is assigned for permanent
pacemaker insertion. B. The code has been deleted and cannot be assigned. C. The code is
assigned for a patient undergoing dilatation and curettage. D. The code is assigned as an
add-on code. 81. Epithelial tissue that secretes its products directly into the bloodstream
is made of A. extracellular matrix. B. endocrine gland cells. C. endoplasmic

7. reticulum. D. columnar epithelial cells. 82. Which of the following modifiers would be
assigned for a moribund patient? A. P4 B. P1 C. P5 D. P3 83. The anatomical location of
the calyx is the A. spine. B. brain. C. arm. D. kidney. 84. Which one of the following
requirements is outlined in the guidelines established in HIPAA’s Privacy Rule? A. Hospital
administrators must encrypt data within older data files. B. Physicians must not disclose
patient information to consulting physicians. C. Patients must receive notice if their
information will be used or disclosed to third parties. D. Managers must secure medical
records immediately following patient admission. 85. The I-10 helps coders classify
patient A. morbidity and mortality. B. management information. C. evaluation
files. D. reimbursement data. 86. During a routine examination, a male patient is
diagnosed with an elevated PSA. The physician performs a biopsy of the prostate with a
rectal ultrasound to pinpoint the source of the problem. Which CPT and ICD-10-CM codes
would be assigned? A. 55725, 76000-26, R93.6 B. 55700, 76872-26, R97.2 C. 55734,
73200-26, R97.2 D. 55720, 74000-26, R97.3 87. Health care practitioners must maintain
records of privacy policy practices and procedures for A. 20 years. B. 10 months. C. 2
years. D. 6 years. 88. A patient comes to the emergency department of a rural hospital. He
complaints of problems sleeping, foot swelling, and insomnia. After a detailed review of the
patient’s history and a detailed examination, the patient is diagnosed with chronic renal
insufficiency, nephrotic syndrome, and anemia, based on the values listed in his blood test.
The patient undergoes a biopsy of the left and right kidneys under physician guidance. A CT
scan is also used for guidance and needle placement. A follow-up CT scan with physician
review and interpretation is also performed. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are
assigned? A. 50500-73, 51200-LT, C79.2, C61 B. 50200-RT-LT, 50310-RT, 51252-26, E46,
N18.9, N04.9 C. 51000, 50310-59-LT, J90, Z90.12, E85.4 D. 50200-50, 50200-59-RT,
77012.26, N18.9, N04.9, D64.9 89. Data stored in a health care facility must A. comply
with HIPAA rules and must be maintained securely. B. adhere to OIG policies and
procedures. C. be organized in accordance with state standards for electronic data
interchange. D. conform to the physician’s expectations for data storage. 90. Health care
practitioners who submit fraudulent bills to increase reimbursement may A. be blacklisted
according to geographic location. B. be listed in the Coding Directory of Fraudulent Billing
published annually by the Department of Health and Human Services. C. be reported to the
Office of the Attorney General. D. face financial penalties or, in some cases,
imprisonment. 91. Which of the following anesthesia modifiers indicates a normal, healthy
patient? A. P3 B. P1 C. P4 D. P2 92. When coding burns, coders should A. classify all
burns as acute burns. B. assign separate codes for each burn site. C. assign the code for
third-degree burns. D.assign the code for chronic burns. 93. A 65-year-old patient is
admitted to the hospital for 48 hours to receive treatment from her physician. This patient
would be covered under A. Medicare Part D. B. Medicare Part A. C. Medicare Part
B. D. Medicare Part C. 94. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of ongoing headaches.
The headaches began one week prior and have persisted ever since. A lumbar spinal tap is
performed to pinpoint the source of the patient’s headaches. What CPT and ICD-10-CM
codes are assigned? A. 62270, G44.1 B. 62270, G74.3 C. 62141, G46.8 D. 62272,
G46.9 95. What code would be assigned for a tube

8. pericardiostomy? A. 33210 B. 33026 C. 33015 D. 33050 96. What is the code
description for 65101-LT? A. Removal of ocular implant performed laterally B. Fine
needle aspiration of orbital contents on the left third of the orbit C. Biopsy of cornea
performed on the lower third of the cornea D. Enucleation of eye, without implant,
performed on the left side of the body 97. Another name for diazepam
is A. Flexeril. B. Valium. C. Norflex. D. Myolastan.98. The gatekeeper concept refers to
the operation of A. prospective payment organizations. B. retrospective payment
organizations. C. ambulatory payment surgery centers. D. health maintenance
organizations. 99. The CPT code for thrombolysis
is A. 93000. B. 92975. C. 92920. D. 93797. 100. According to HIPAA, a patient’s
information may be released for A. paternity testing. B. research. C. determining
premiums based on a patient’s past medical history. D. transferring electronic medical
records to remote locations. 101. Which of the following statements is true of the
Affordable Care Act? A. It includes a provision for military service members who served in
Afghanistan. B. It requires health care facilities to maintain health records for at least 10
years. C. It makes it mandatory for patients to carry health insurance. D. It offers parents
supplementary coverage for dependents with chronic illness 102. A patient is seen in the
physician’s office after the results of an earlier mammogram demonstrated
microcalcification in the right breast as well as a breast lesion. The lesion is excised using
needle localization. The patient’s final diagnosis is fibrosclerosis of the right breast. What
CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? A. 19120-RT, L10.11 B. 19125-RT,
N60.31 C. 19126-LT, M25.1 D. 19123-RT, H16.11 103. A coder would assign a Q code as a
temporary code for A. holistic treatments for spinal procedures. B. durable medical
equipment only. C. procedures or services only. D. procedures, services, and
supplies 104. Which of the following forms is used to bill outpatient charges? A. HCFA-
1350 or CMS-650 B. HCFA-1400 or CMS-1540 C. AMA-14 or UCF-1250 D. CMS-1500 or
UCF-1500. 105. During a routine examination, a patient indicates that she is taking an
antihypertensive medication that causes her kidneys to excrete more urine. These
antihypertensive medications are called A. calcium-channel
blockers. B. anticoagulants. C. beta blockers. D. diuretics. 106. A patient comes to the
emergency room complaining of postnasal drip, frequent nosebleeds, headaches, and
difficulty breathing. She is diagnosed with a deviated nasal septum, hypertrophy of the
turbinate, and inflammation of the ethmoid sinuses. The physician performs an endoscopic
ethmoidectomy of the left nasal sinus, septoplasty, and turbinate excision. What ICD-10-CM
and CPT codes are assigned? A. 31255, 30520, 30130, J34.2, J34.3, J32.2 B. 31255-LT,
30520-51, 30130-51, J34.2, J34.3, J32.2 C. 31230, 30520, J34.2, J34.3, J32.2 D. 31230-51,
30520-LT, J34.2 107. A physician is analyzing specific organs in a particular region of the
patient’s body. In her notes, she refers to the transverse or cross-sectional plane, which
divides the body A. inferiorly. B. vertically. C. horizontally. D. bilaterally. 108. A patient
comes to the emergency room after having dinner at a restaurant, where she began to
experience chest tightness during the meal. She is seen for a cardiology consultation in the
outpatient setting for a diagnosis of chest tightness. Which CPT and ICD-10-CM codes would
be assigned? A. 99245, R07.89 B. 99244, R07.59 C. 99242, R17.52 D. 99243,

9. R25.96 109. Providers that receive reimbursement after health care services have been
provided are being compensated under the _______ system. A. prospective
payment B. retrospective payment C. capitation D. UCR 110. The regulations in HIPAA
apply to three groups of individual and corporate entities, each involved in electronic
medical records transfer. These groups are collectively referred to as A. health care
administrators. B. covered entities. C. provisional health care data
collectors. D. protected personnel. 111. The largest salivary glands are called the _______
glands. A. amylase B. parotid C. sublingual D. submandibular 112. Which modifier
indicates a staged or related procedure performed during the postoperative period? A. -
59 B. -57 C. -58 D. -54 113. The voluntary program that’s financed through a
combination of payments from general federal revenues and premiums paid by
beneficiaries who elect to participate is called A. CHAMPVA. B. Medicare Part
B. C. Medicaid. D. TRICARE. 114. What is the full code description for 33536? A. Repair
of postinfarction ventricular septal defect, with or without myocardial
resection B. Coronary artery bypass, using arterial graft(s); 4 or more coronary arterial
grafts C. Repair of double outlet right ventricle with intraventricular tunnel
repair D. Closure of atrioventricular valve (mitral or tricuspid) by suture or
patch 115. Categorically needy and medically needy patients may qualify
for A. Medicaid. B. CHAMPVA. C. Champus. D. Medicare Advantage 116. ICD-10-CM
code S50.351A indicates that the patient has a superficial foreign body of the right elbow.
The A indicates that A. code S50.351A should be assigned to page 1 of the medical record,
but not subsequent pages. B. this is the patient’s first encounter. C. this is the patient’s
second encounter for the same original diagnosis. D. code S50.351A should be sequenced
before secondary codes. 117. The foramen ovale is found in which anatomical
location? A. Fibula B. Heart C. Pancreas D. Liver 118. A new patient is seen in a clinic
for complaints of shortness of breath, fever, difficulty swallowing, runny nose, and cough.
The physician performs a detailed history, detailed examination, and medical decision
making of low complexity. The physician also obtains a chest x-ray and lab workup. Based
on the results of the diagnostic tests, the physician renders a diagnosis of upper respiratory
tract infection and lymphadenopathy. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned? A. 99203,
J06.9, R59.0 B. 99202, D63.1, J45.909 C. 99213, R06.82, F10.229 D. 99215, M19.011,
R13.10 119. A patient has a disorder in which the bone marrow produces an
overabundance of white blood cells. What is this disorder
called? A. Leukemia B. Hemophilia C. Coagulation D. Septicemia 120. A patient is
diagnosed with acne. What ICD-10-CM code would be
assigned? A. L74.2 B. L72.3 C. L70.0 D. L73.1 121. A coder assigns a HCPCS Level II
code to a patient’s medical record. The code description reads as follows: Enteral feeding
supply kit; syringe fed, per day, includes but not limited to feeding/flushing syringe,
administration set tubing, dressings, tape. Based on this description, which HCPCS Level II
code was assigned? A. B4072 B. B4125 C. B4034 D. B4278 122. The Health Insurance
Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) standards were developed to A. ensure that
coders could easily access each medical record. B. determine the structure of insurance
carrier payments for health care practitioners. C. protect patient confidentiality when

10. health information is transferred electronically. D. define XLTM standards for health
records management. 123. Another name for third-party contractors who have access to
medical information is A. business associates. B. insurance administrators. C. healthcare
vendors. D. covered entities. 124. Bones inside the nose are
called A. maxillae. B. turbinates. C. ethmoids. D. septal mucosa. 125. The
atrioventricular (tricuspid) valve is located in
the A. fibula. B. lung. C. heart. D. brain. 126. Another term for disease evolution
is A. exacerbation. B. remission. C. pathogenesis. D. morphology. 127. The vitreous
humor can be found in the A. ear. B. tongue. C. nose. D. eye. 128. The codes for
pacemakers and implantable defibrillators would be found in what section of
CPT? A. 33202–33273 B. 33200–33205 C. 33437–33537 D. 33533–33799 129. The
HIPAA Privacy Rule indicates that A. practitioners should disclose only the minimum
amount of health information necessary for the purpose of the disclosure. B.physicians
may release medical information at their own discretion. C. restrictions on information
disclosure exist only for patients with life-threatening illnesses. D. the level of information
disclosure permitted is based on the nature of the procedure. 130. The abbreviation INH
indicates what route of drug administration? A. Inhaled and intrathecal
administration B. Inhaled and intravenous administration C. Intrathecal
injection D. Inhalant solution 131. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of nausea,
vomiting, fever, dizziness, and intermittent confusion. The physician conducts a detailed
history and examination and reviews the patient’s lab results. The patient is diagnosed with
pyelonephritis and is scheduled for an ultrasound to review the state of the kidneys and
other organs. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? A. 76775-TC, N15 B. 76775-
26, N10 C. 73256-TC, M11 D. 71010-26, B12 132. What happens when HIPAA rules
conflict with state law? A. Conflicting state rules are overridden by federal law. B. The
interpretation of HIPAA rules is left to the physician’s discretion. C.State laws overrule
federal law. D. The Supreme Court’s decision becomes final in binding
arbitration 133. Which of the following statements is true of the olfactory nerve? A. It’s
susceptible to erosion due to Peyronie’s disease. B. It’s located in the mitral valve and helps
to circulate blood throughout the heart. C. It conveys the fluid from lymph glands to other
areas of the body. D. It’s found in the nose and allows the senses to detect and distinguish
odors. 134. The first step in EHR implementation is A. structuring the timeline for EHR
implementation. B. analyzing the content of the traditional medical record. C. conducting
an assessment of the goals, needs, and financial stability of the health care
practice. D. reviewing the list of established patients currently being seen in the
practice. 135. The outcome of delivery code should be A. omitted from the maternal
record for stillborn delivery. B. assigned to the newborn record only. C. assigned to the
maternal record when a delivery occurs. D. assigned to both the maternal and newborn
records. 136. A patient is seen in the office for complaints of dizziness and insomnia. The
physician records a chronological description of specific elements of the patient’s condition.
This chronological description is called the A. history of present
illness. B. examination. C. review of systems. D. chief complaint. 137. What is the CPT
code description for 64483? A. Injection(s) anesthetic agent and/or steroid, transforaminal

11. epidural, with imaging guidance (fluoroscopy or CT); lumbar or sacral, single
level B. Injection, anesthetic agent, sphenopalatine ganglion C. Injection(s) anesthetic
agent and/or steroid, transforaminal epidural, with imaging guidance (fluoroscopy or CT);
lumbar or sacral, multiple levels D. Transforaminal epidural injection under ultrasound
guidance 138. Releasing genetic information is forbidden under the terms of HIPAA
because it may A. allow immediate family members to have access to a patient’s medical
records. B. require physicians to fulfill contractual obligations for treatments provided in
ambulatory surgery centers. C. indicate susceptibility to a future illness, without the
patient actually being diagnosed with the condition. D. not be successfully transmitted to
all health care facilities. 139. Prescribing combination drugs that contain multiple
medications to cut down on the number of pillspatients take on a daily basis A. compounds
the drugs’ effectiveness. B. increases the likelihood of compliance. C. decreases the
frequency of drug interactions. D. supports good body function. 140. A patient who has
paralysis of all four limbs is
called A. quadriplegic. B. paraplegic. C. tetraplegic. D. hemiplegic. 141. Which of the
following is true about HIPAA national standards? A. The national standards apply to any
electronic data interchange. B. The national standards apply only to data exchange within a
specified geographical region. C. The national standards do not apply to surgical
procedures in the inpatient setting. D. The national standards do not apply to data
exchanged within a claim clearinghouse. 142. A patient undergoes an appendectomy and
later returns to the operating room for a related procedure the same day. Which modifier
should be assigned to the CPT code? A. -51 B. -AA C. -78 D. -76 143. The portion of
health insurance that an insured pays before he or she is entitled to receive benefits from an
insurance plan is called the A. deductible. B. OPPS
reimbursement. C. capitation. D. coinsurance. 144. A patient is seen in follow-up two
weeks after undergoing cholecystectomy. During the follow-up examination, the physician
notes that the abdominal wound has not yet healed. The patient undergoes a split-thickness
autograft due to a nonhealing left lower abdominal wound that’s 10 square centimeters.
Which CPT and ICD-10-CM codes would be assigned? A. 15350, L52.64 B. 15250,
L34.74 C. 15200, L85.64 D. 15100, L76.82 145. The Female Genital System subsection
covers which CPT code range? A. 56203–56303 B. 56607–56809 C. 56300–
56499 D. 56405–58999 146. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned for unilateral
primary osteoarthritis of the right
hip? A. M16.12 B. M16.30 C. M16.11 D. M16.10 147. Which of the following anatomical
locations would contain the superior vena
cava? A. Hip B. Nose C. Lungs D. Heart 148. A patient receives an injection of
nandrolone decanoate. What HCPCS Level II code would be
assigned? A. J2323 B. J3530 C. J2320 D. J2300 149. The suffix –stasis
means A. breakdown. B. stopping and controlling. C. kinetic. D. flow. 150. A patient
undergoes a sigmoidoscopy. The coder would assign CPT
code A. 45852. B. 45330. C. 45397. D. 45919.