This document contains 63 multiple choice questions related to medical coding, terminology, regulations, and procedures. The questions cover topics such as ICD-10 codes, CPT codes, HIPAA privacy rules, anatomy, medical specialties, and documentation standards. The reader is instructed to answer all questions correctly and return the responses within 48 hours.
CPT Medical Coding Assigment My Nursing Assignment.docxstudywriters
This document contains a series of medical coding questions and answers related to CPT and ICD-10 coding. It includes questions testing knowledge of HIPAA privacy rules, medical terminology, anatomy, diagnostic and procedural coding, modifier usage, and other topics relevant to medical billing and coding. The questions are multiple choice and range from basic to more advanced concepts.
CPT Medical Coding Assigment My Nursing Experts.docxstudywriters
This document contains a series of medical coding questions and answers related to CPT and ICD-10 coding. It includes 62 multiple choice questions covering topics such as HIPAA privacy rules, medical terminology, anatomy, procedures, modifiers, and reimbursement. The questions assess knowledge of medical coding principles, guidelines, and code sets.
Which one of the following statements accurately represents the practice.docxwrite5
The document appears to be a set of questions about medical coding and terminology. Question 4 asks which statement accurately represents the practice of unbundling. The correct answer is that unbundling refers to breaking codes that should be grouped into separate codes to maximize physician reimbursement.
An indented CPT code includes the portion of the stand-alone code description preceding the semicolon, which specifies the extent of the service, specific anatomic site, and additional tests. Physical status modifiers are appended to codes in the Surgery section. When a panel test is performed with additional pathology/laboratory tests, the additional tests should be reported separately in addition to the panel code. A bronchoscopy can be either a surgical or diagnostic procedure and is sometimes performed unilaterally or bilaterally.
The document contains a competency appraisal exam with multiple choice questions covering various situations in perioperative nursing. It addresses topics like the roles and responsibilities of the surgical team members, preoperative and postoperative care of surgical patients, management of specific conditions like asthma and colostomy, safety protocols in the operating room, and maintenance of medical records. The exam evaluates the examinee's knowledge on providing efficient and quality patient care in the perioperative setting.
This document contains questions and answers related to conducting root cause analyses (RCAs). It discusses key aspects of the RCA process, including identifying causal statements, evaluating the effectiveness of corrective actions, and determining when an RCA is warranted. Several examples are provided of potential and actual severity of patient events. The document emphasizes that human error must have a preceding cause according to the Five Rules of Causation for RCAs. It also notes that violations of procedure are not root causes themselves, but should have an identified preceding cause.
Solutions manual for nursing assistant a nursing process approach 11th editio...Lokensgardr74
Solutions Manual for Nursing Assistant A Nursing Process Approach 11th Edition by Acello IBSN 9781133132387
Download at: http://downloadlink.org/p/solutions-manual-for-nursing-assistant-a-nursing-process-approach-11th-edition-by-acello-ibsn-9781133132387/
CPT Medical Coding Assigment My Nursing Assignment.docxstudywriters
This document contains a series of medical coding questions and answers related to CPT and ICD-10 coding. It includes questions testing knowledge of HIPAA privacy rules, medical terminology, anatomy, diagnostic and procedural coding, modifier usage, and other topics relevant to medical billing and coding. The questions are multiple choice and range from basic to more advanced concepts.
CPT Medical Coding Assigment My Nursing Experts.docxstudywriters
This document contains a series of medical coding questions and answers related to CPT and ICD-10 coding. It includes 62 multiple choice questions covering topics such as HIPAA privacy rules, medical terminology, anatomy, procedures, modifiers, and reimbursement. The questions assess knowledge of medical coding principles, guidelines, and code sets.
Which one of the following statements accurately represents the practice.docxwrite5
The document appears to be a set of questions about medical coding and terminology. Question 4 asks which statement accurately represents the practice of unbundling. The correct answer is that unbundling refers to breaking codes that should be grouped into separate codes to maximize physician reimbursement.
An indented CPT code includes the portion of the stand-alone code description preceding the semicolon, which specifies the extent of the service, specific anatomic site, and additional tests. Physical status modifiers are appended to codes in the Surgery section. When a panel test is performed with additional pathology/laboratory tests, the additional tests should be reported separately in addition to the panel code. A bronchoscopy can be either a surgical or diagnostic procedure and is sometimes performed unilaterally or bilaterally.
The document contains a competency appraisal exam with multiple choice questions covering various situations in perioperative nursing. It addresses topics like the roles and responsibilities of the surgical team members, preoperative and postoperative care of surgical patients, management of specific conditions like asthma and colostomy, safety protocols in the operating room, and maintenance of medical records. The exam evaluates the examinee's knowledge on providing efficient and quality patient care in the perioperative setting.
This document contains questions and answers related to conducting root cause analyses (RCAs). It discusses key aspects of the RCA process, including identifying causal statements, evaluating the effectiveness of corrective actions, and determining when an RCA is warranted. Several examples are provided of potential and actual severity of patient events. The document emphasizes that human error must have a preceding cause according to the Five Rules of Causation for RCAs. It also notes that violations of procedure are not root causes themselves, but should have an identified preceding cause.
Solutions manual for nursing assistant a nursing process approach 11th editio...Lokensgardr74
Solutions Manual for Nursing Assistant A Nursing Process Approach 11th Edition by Acello IBSN 9781133132387
Download at: http://downloadlink.org/p/solutions-manual-for-nursing-assistant-a-nursing-process-approach-11th-edition-by-acello-ibsn-9781133132387/
This document contains a set of 73 multiple choice questions intended as exercises for nursing assistants and comprehensive nurses. It was prepared by Samuel Dessu, a lecturer and researcher at Arba Minch Health Science College in Ethiopia. The questions cover topics related to geriatric care, medication administration, infection control, vital signs, pregnancy and childbirth, and more. Contact information is provided for Samuel Dessu.
1. Anesthesia administered to a normal, healthy patient undergcareyshaunda
1. Anesthesia administered to a normal, healthy patient undergoing an esophageal procedure is coded as
A.
00500-P1.
B.
00502-P1.
C.
00500-P2.
D.
00506-P1.
2. A new patient comes into the doctor's office for her annual gynecological exam. During the course of the exam, she undergoes a screening cervical cytopathology smear, which is performed by an automated system under the supervision of a physician. What HCPCS code is assigned?
A.
G0185
B.
G7869
C.
G7452
D.
G0147
3. A new patient is seen for a home visit that involves a comprehensive history, examination, and medical decision making of high complexity. What code should be assigned?
A.
99349
B.
99345
C.
99342
D.
99350
4. A prolonged evaluation and management service before and/or after direct patient care for one hour is coded as
A.
99359.
B.
99358.
C.
99361.
D.
99360.
5. A 57-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for a hip arthroscopy procedure. The patient is a normal healthy patient with no systemic disease. What anesthesia CPT code should be assigned?
A.
01242-P2
B.
01202-P1
C.
01202-P3
D.
01202-P5
6. Anesthesia for procedures performed on the larynx and trachea in an 11-month-old child would be assigned to code
A.
00620.
B.
00625.
C.
00326.
D.
00532.
7. A patient returns for a follow-up office visit regarding the repair of her fractured knee. The office visit consists of a detailed history, detailed examination, and medical decision making of moderate complexity. What CPT code is assigned?
A.
99213
B.
99212
C.
99211
D.
99214
8. Intramuscular nonhormonal antineoplastic chemotherapy administration would be assigned to code
A.
96402.
B.
96405.
C.
96406.
D.
96401.
9. Home infusion with specialty drug administration during a 6-hour visit would be assigned what codes?
A.
99606, 99607 ×3
B.
99601, 99602 ×4
C.
99604, 99605 ×2
D.
99603, 99604 ×2
10. A patient is seen for a psychiatric diagnostic evaluation. The physician obtains a complete history of the patient's mental status and does a complete biological and psychosocial assessment along with a complete physical examination. The physician's final diagnosis is recurrent episode of severe major depressive disorder, without any psychotic behavior involved. The patient also has a history of psychological trauma. What codes are assigned?
A.
F33.2, Z91.49
B.
F33.1, Z91.47
C.
F34.2, Z91.49
D.
F36.2, Z91.46
11. A 17-year-old patient is diagnosed with a severe form of nutritional anemia. What ICD-10-CM code should be assigned?
A.
D45.9
B.
D53.9
C.
D74.9
D.
D65.9
12. A 32-year-old patient receives anesthesia for spinal surgery. The anesthesia is complicated by utilization of controlled hypotension. What add-on anesthesia code would be assigned?
A.
99174
B.
92117
C.
9910 ...
This document contains questions and answers about various health insurance programs and terms. It discusses eligibility for Medicare and Medicaid based on age and medical conditions. One question addresses that patients with end-stage renal disease qualify for Medicare regardless of age. Another question identifies Blue Cross and Blue Shield as the first prepaid health insurance plans in the US. The document also contains multiple-choice questions about billing Medicaid, the Balanced Budget Act, reimbursement systems, PPO networks, Physician-Hospital Organizations, and which part of Medicare would cover a hospitalization for pneumonia.
The most appropriate self-care activity for the nurse to teach regarding prevention and early detection of pancreatic cancer is limiting meat in the diet and eating a diet low in fats (Option C). This focuses on primary prevention by modifying risk factors like a high-fat diet.
2. Answer: B
Rationale: The client understands the discharge instructions if they state they will write down
questions to ask the HCP. This shows the client is taking an active role in their care.
3. Answer: D
Rationale: Altered nutrition is a nursing diagnosis that requires interventions from the dietitian.
The nurse should refer the client to the dietitian for an assessment and plan of care to address the
Self assessment tool kit for NABH-converted.docxQASGR
This document provides a self-assessment toolkit for hospitals to evaluate their compliance with various quality standards across 10 chapters. It includes evaluation criteria where hospitals must score a minimum of 50% in all standards and in each chapter. For each element, hospitals must provide documentation, assess implementation, and evidence, and receive a score of 0, 5, or 10. The toolkit addresses areas like access to care, patient care processes, medication management, patient rights, infection control, quality improvement, facility management, human resources, and medical records.
Kindly assist with this questions QUESTION 1 Which of th.pdfABHISHEKREADYMADESKO
Kindly assist with this questions
QUESTION 1
Which of the following key trends influence the growth of telehealth care delivery?
a.Projected shortages in the health professional workforce
b.Growth of consumerism in health care and continuous innovation in the consumer technology
market
c.Reorganization in the delivery and financing of medical care
d.Continuous advancement in electronic health records and clinical decision support systems
e.All of the above
QUESTION 2
What is the Interstate Medical Licensure Compact?
a.An organization that provides licensing to telehealth solutions.
b.A telehealth protocol for the exchange of health information between patients and providers in
different states.
c.An agreement among participating U.S. states to work together to streamline the licensing
process for physicians who want to practice in multiple states.
d.An agreement among telehealth companies that allows them to provide remote care to patients
in different states.
e.A telehealth platform providing prevention and chronic disease management services to patients
in all states.
QUESTION 3
In response to the COVID-19 pandemic, the US Department of Health and Human Services
waived the requirement that both physicians and other healthcare professionals who offer
telehealth services hold licenses in the state in which they provide services.
True
False
QUESTION 4
Which of the following four distinct domains does telehealth encompass?
a.Live videoconferencing (synchronous), telemedicine, remote patient monitoring, and mobile
health.
b.Remote patient monitoring, store-and-forward (asynchronous), telemedicine, and mobile health.
c.Live videoconferencing (synchronous), store-and-forward (asynchronous), mobile health, and
remote patient monitoring
d.Videoconferencing (synchronous), patient portals, mobile health, and remote patient monitoring.
QUESTION 5
Before the COVID-19 pandemic, which of the following requirements had to be met for CMS to
reimburse Medicare telehealth services?
a.The originating site had to be located in a defined rural geographic area
b.The modality used to deliver services had to be two-way, interactive audio-video
c.The Medicare beneficiary had to be located in an authorized type of originating site when
receiving services via telehealth.
d.The service provided had to be on the list of approved Medicare telehealth services
e.All of the above.
QUESTION 6
What were the main regulatory hurdles that Doctor on Demand had to overcome in providing
services nationwide?
a.Medical licensing requirements
b.State-level business laws
c.Technical standards and protocols
d.All of the above
e.A and C
f.A and B
QUESTION 7
According to the US Department of Health and Human Services a covered healthcare provider
that wants to use audio or video communication technology to provide telehealth to patients during
COVID-19 nation-wide public health emergency can use any non-public facing remote
communication product that is available to communicate with patie.
HOSPITAL AND IT'S ORGANIZATION (Hospital pharmacy) .pptxNaveedUrrehman44
The document discusses the organization and functions of hospitals. It describes how hospitals are classified based on type of services provided, length of stay, ownership, and bed capacity. The key functions of hospitals include patient care, teaching, research, and public health. The organizational structure of hospitals is also outlined, with boards of trustees governing and directors, associate directors, and department heads managing different clinical and administrative departments. The roles of different departments like nursing, dietary services, laboratories, and medical records are also summarized.
Answered national council exam mixed 1-2.docxRBGroup
This document contains a 41-page test with multiple choice questions about nursing. Some of the topics covered include placebos, autopsies, anesthesia, surgical procedures, vital signs, wound care, signs of shock, infection control, the nursing process, and community health measures. The questions require knowledge of anatomy, medical terminology, clinical skills, and nursing concepts.
1. Practitioners that have specialized training in the musculoskel.docxjackiewalcutt
1. Practitioners that have specialized training in the musculoskeletal system are called
A. occupational therapists.
B. physical therapists.
C. rehabilitation specialists.
D. chiropractors.
2. The Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010 was mandated under the
A. Office of the Inspector General.
B. American Health Information Management Association (AHIMA).
C. Medicare Act of 1965.
D. Affordable Care Act (ACA).
3. Which one of the following responsibilities is handled by a health information manager?
A. Communicating lab results to doctors
B. Creating employee work schedules
C. Maintaining records related to a patient's diagnosis
D. Posting employee job openings
4. What is the major reason for establishing National Patient Safety Goals (NPSGs)?
A. To improve health care outcomes and ensure patient safety
B. To make laws or rules within institutions
C. To find mistakes within an institution
D. To create a regulatory agency
5. A health care manager is overseeing a health care facility. What action can the health care manager take
to promote a positive working environment and improve patient outcomes?
A. Allow health care workers to arrive when their personal schedules permit
B. Encourage interdisciplinary collaboration
C. Encourage health care workers to skip their breaks to save the facility money
D. Allow health care workers to come in to work when they're sick
6. Patty has completed the occupational therapy aide program at Penn Foster. This means Patty's scope of
practice may include
A. assisting client to regain the skills of activities of daily living (ADL).
B. calling prescriptions in to a local pharmacy.
C. taking blood pressure.
D. compounding non-sterile mixtures.
7. Heat, water, sound, and ultrasound procedures are often administered by
A. dental assistants.
B. nurses aides.
C. medical assistants.
D. physical therapy aides.
8. What term is used to refer to the process of communicating with people from different health care
backgrounds?
A. Professional coarctation
B. Interprofessional or interdisciplinary collaboration
C. Health care interdisciplinary communication
D. Peer-to-peer review
9. Which one of the following statements indicates that a medical assistant understands his or her scope of
practice?
A. "I'll assist the pharmacist in non-sterile compounding."
B. "I'll assist the doctor in procedures and exams when asked to."
C. "I'll provide clients with only contact lenses when the doctor has given the patient a prescription."
D. "I'll prescribe medications only when the doctor is on vacation."
10. Which one of the following statements indicates that an individual understands how health insurance
coverage works?
A. "Because of the Affordable Care Act (ACA), I don't need to apply for health care insurance."
B. "Because I work in a hospital, I'm eligible for Medicaid coverage."
C. "Because I'm 60 years old, I can get Medicare coverage."
D. "Because my father served in the military, I'm eligible for TRICARE insurance."
11. ...
CPPS-qs_Collection...QUESTION OF CPPS EXAMssuser7e82f41
This document contains multiple choice questions related to patient safety and quality improvement. Topics include root cause analysis, safety culture assessment, human factors, disclosure of errors, and strategies for improving reporting of adverse events. As a patient safety professional, responsibilities may involve analyzing safety data, educating staff, and recommending system improvements to leadership.
CHAPTER 15 r Evaiuation and Management (EM) Services,fA,.docxbartholomeocoombs
CHAPTER 15 r Evaiuation and Management (E/M) Services
,/fA, four types of medical decision making, in order of complexity from most to
List the fi
least risk
,d--A-
A-
,lr,
-lr-
Inpatient time spent at the bedside or nursing station during or after
the visit is what kind of time?
21. Thepatient's will reflect the
. nrm-ber of systems examined by a brief statement of the findings.
/ZZ. I discussion with a patient andlor family concerning one or more of
the following areas: diagnostic results, impressions and/or
recommended diagnostic studies; prognosis; risks and benefits of
treatment; instruciions for treatment; importance of compliance with
treatment; risk factor reduction; and patient and family education is
23. The history is the
physician.
information the Patient tells the
Ol4r11bcrd .rasvl-crs are located in Appendix B, while the full answer key ls only available in the TEACE
Iffir Ecsorrrces on Erolve.
-4
,r{
/n.
,{
13. Complexity of medical decision making is based on three
ve types of presenting problems from the most risk and least recovery to
and most recovery:
19. Counseling and coordination of care are what kind of factors in most
cases?
U/O. ,r*"that is used as a guide for outpatient services is what kind of time?
Cop].right @ 2015 by Saunders, an impdnt of Elsevier Inc' A1I rights reserved'
CHAI{ER 15 r Evaluation and Management (E/l[l Sersices
6n. ,n"re is no distinction made between the new and established patients
in this service department of a hospital:
25. Those services rendered by a physician whose opinion or advice is
requested by another physician or agency in the evaluation and/or
treatment of a patient is a(n) whereas the
physician who has primary responsibility for the patient in the hospital
is called
r'26. Whencritically ill patients in medical emergencies require the constant
attendance of the physician (e.g., cardiac arrest, shock, bleeding, and
respiratory failure) to stabilize them, what kind of care is needed?
27. When care is provided
same patient by more
conditions, the care is
for similar services
than one physician
(e.g., hospital visits) to the
on the same day for different
,6. *nuris the name for the assumption of the total or speciflc care of a
patient from one physician to another that does not constitute a
consultation?
29. An inventory of body systems obtained
signs and/or symptoms that the patient
."{o. ,tthe physician who is standing by does so for 25 minutes, can he ot
she round the time up to 30 minutes for reporting purposes?
through questioning to identifY
may be experiencing is a(n)
of
Odd-numbered answers are located in Appendlx B, while the full answer key is only avaitrablc ir ft TEI'€E
Instructor Resources on Evolve.
Copyright @ 2015 by Saunders, an imprint of Elsevier Inc. A11 rights reserved.
CIL{PTER 15 r fyil*5on irnd Management (E/}vf) Services
PRACTICAT
Office or Other Outpatlent Services and Hospltal lnpatient Service
With the use of t.
This assignment requires Ambulatory Care Coding experience.You CAN.docxterirasco
This assignment requires Ambulatory Care Coding experience.
You CAN NOT google these questions for the answers.
Must be CPC, CCS, or RHIT certified coder.
Please check 40 that are answered, 40 that are unanswered.
Need by 09.16.2015
Ambulatory Care Coding
Patient had a left femoral hemiorraphy for a recurrent hernia, what is the correct code assignment?
C. 49555
A patient was taken to the endoscopy suite. The endoscopy was passed into the esophagus and continued into the duodenal bulb. Based on this documentation, what CPT code would be selected to represent this procedure?
43200
43234
43235
43260
Which of the following is not coded separately from the coronary artery bypass procedure?
Upper extremity artery
Upper extremity vein
Saphenous vein
Femoropoplitear segment of a vein
Which of the following CPT codes should be used for an emergency curettage due to retained placenta after normal vaginal delivery?
58120
59160
49320
59840
How do you code a retropubic subtotal prostatectomy?
B. 55831
Treatment of a missed abortion, completed surgically a 22 weeks is coded as?
C. 59821
Which of the following CPT codes describes the surgical removal of kidney stones through an incision in the body of the kidney.
D.50060
The patient undergoes the closure of a nephrocutaneous fistula, how is this coded?
B. 50520
The patient provides a kidney to a sibling who has renal failure. An open procedure is performed. How is this coded?
B. 50320
10. Principles of ICD-9-CM coding for ambulatory care encounters includes.
A. Ambulatory care diagnoses should be coded to the highest of certainly at the conclusion of the encounter.
B. Code suspected diagnoses as if the disease or injury existed.
C. conditions previously treated and no longer existing are coded.
D.Only the most significant diagnosis should be coded.
Level
2 codes of the HCPCS coding system are maintained by the:
D.Center for medicare and Medicaid services.
J1020 injection methylprednisolone acetate, 20 mg is an example of a
C. Level 2 code
Level one of HCPCS consists of
CPT codes
The inclusion of a code in COT indicates that the procedure is:
Commonly performed across the country
Endorsed by the AMA
Reimbursed by third party payers
The three key components used in defining the levels of E/M services are:
History, examination, medical decision making.
The differences between a new patient and an established patient is whether the patient received professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group of practice
Within the past three years
Mary Cole, who is recovering from pneumonia, returns to her physicians for follow up. Dr. Small reviews a recent x-ray, performs a problem focus examination followed by a short discussion of findings. CPT code assigned.
99212
Refer to the medical decision making table in your CPT book. Given the following information determine the type of medical decisi.
Understanding Healthcare Statistics1. Youre trying to determine.docxmarilucorr
Understanding Healthcare Statistics
1. You're trying to determine if Unit B can accommodate more patients based on the length of stay for that
unit. What information will probably be the most useful in making this determination?
A. Total inpatient service days
B. Bed turnover rate
C. Change in bed count
D. Complete master census
2. You're calculating statistics using the following formula:
Total autopsies on inpatient deaths for 2012 × 100
Total inpatient deaths for 2012
What rate are you trying to determine?
A. Net autopsy rate
B. Adjusted hospital autopsy rate
C. Gross autopsy rate
D. Fetal autopsy rate
3. During a consultation, a podiatrist notices that a patient has an infection from an IV tube that was
inserted into her arm just after gastric surgery. This infection would be included in which one of the
following rates?
A. Postoperative infection rate
B. Anesthesia rate
C. Consultation rate
D. Infection rate
4. You're looking at a census that shows the following information for September 15:
24 patients admitted
9 patients discharged
2 patients transferred
You're likely reviewing the _______ census.
A. daily inpatient
B. complete master
C. service days
D. inpatient
5. You're calculating the hospital's net death rate when you realize that two of the deaths occurred within
the first 12 and 36 hours of admission, respectively. How should these deaths be reflected in the net death
rate?
A. They should be subtracted from the total number of inpatient deaths.
B. They should be divided by 12 and then added to the net death rate.
C. They shouldn't be included in the calculation.
D. They should be added to the net death rate.
6. An infant dies three days after birth. This death is classified as a/an _______ death.
A. infant
B. perinatal
C. postneonatal
D. neonatal
7. You sit on a committee that's trying to determine whether or not the hospital is providing necessary
services in a cost-effective manner. Which one of the following statistics would be most useful to you?
A. Average length of stay
B. Occupancy rate
C. Bed occupancy ratio
D. Discharge days
8. What is the gross death rate for a hospital with 450 discharges, 4 inpatient deaths, and 3 newborn deaths
in a 30-day period?
A. 23.3%
B. 1.56%
C. 15%
D. 64.3%
9. A pregnant woman was hit by a car and died three days after admission to the hospital. Her death would
be included in which one of the following statistics?
A. Maternal death rate
B. Gross death rate
C. Obstetric death rate
D. Postoperative death rate
10. University Hospital has 244 staffed inpatient beds, 10 emergency room beds, and an additional 50 beds
that can be set up in an emergency. Today, 157 inpatient beds are occupied. What is the current bed count
for this hospital?
A. 304
B. 244
C. 157
D. 87
11. Review the following information for University Hospital:
March discharge days: 222
March discharges (including deaths): 44
March newborn discharges: 12
What is the average length of stay for March?
A. 4 days
B. 3 days
C. 5 days
D. ...
This document contains 35 multiple choice questions related to nursing care for clients with various cancers and psychiatric conditions. The questions cover topics like cancer treatments, side effects of chemotherapy drugs, risk factors for different cancers, nursing assessments and interventions.
CHAPTER 16 r AnesthesiaPRACTICATWith the use of the CP.docxbartholomeocoombs
CHAPTER 16 r Anesthesia
PRACTICAT
With the use of the CPT manual, identify the following physical status modifiers:
9. Patient with a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.
Modifier:
10. Normal healthy patient.
11. Patient with a severe systemic disease.
Modifier: f 3
12. Declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor
purpo$es.
Modifier: V b
Patient with mild systemic disease.
Modifier: Pe
Moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation.
Modifier: P(
Loca in the CPT manual index under the entry
"A then subtermed by the anatomic site. Write the CPT index
location olp the line provided (e.g., Anesthesia, Thyroid). Then locate the code
identified ln the anesthesia section of the CPT manual. Choose the correct code
and writelthe code on the line provided.
15. Dia ic arthroscopic procedure of knee joint.
CPT Code:
16. Radical hysterectomy.
Index location:
cPTCode: '10,?t{'r;
17. Corneal transplant.
Index location:
CPT Code:
Odd-numbered answers are located in Appendix B, while the full answer key is only available in the TEACH
Instructor Resources on Evolve.
13.
14.
Copyright O 2015 by Saunders, an imprint of Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved
19.
20.
27.
18. Cesarean deliverY onIY'
Index location:
CHAIJ'IER 16 r Airesthesia
patient having mild systemic
late effect of Fen-Phen, taken as
cPr code: f"tq b I
OtoscoPY used
Index location:
in procedure for middle ear'
CPT Code:
Transurethral resection of the prostate.
Index location:
Anesthesia for a cardiac catheterization
disease.
CPT Code:
cPr code: n 01lq
Mitral valve regurgitation as a
prescribed, initial encounter.
qyr'rdc*n
22. Anesthesia for aggiqgqtomy on a healthy S-year-old patient.
CPT Code: 00 f e D
Assign the diagnosis code(s) for Questions 23-26.
23. Diverticulitis of colon with hemorrhage.
ICD-10-CM Code:
(ICD-9-CM Code:
24. Atherosclerosis of coronary artery bypass graft utilizing internal
mammary artery.
ICD-10-CM Code:
(ICD-9-CM Code:
25. Toxic diffuse goiter with thyrotoxic crisis.
ICD-10-CM Code:
(ICD-9-CM Code:
26.
ICD-L0-CM Codes:
(ICD-9-CM Codes:
Odd-numbered answers are located tn Appendtx B, while the full answer key is only available ln the TEACE
Instructor Resources on D,volve.
Copyright @ 2015 by Saunders, an imprint of Elsevier hc. AII riShts reserved.
Surgery Guidelines and
General Surgery
THEORY
Without the use of reference material, answer the following:
1. The more complex subsections referred to in the text are
Integumentary, Musculoskeletal, Respiratory, Cardiovascular, Digestive,
and
2. The information in the
is necessary to correctly
repeated elsewhere.
code in the section,
contains information that
and the information is not
3. Notes may appear before subsections, subheadings,
and subcategories within the CPT manual.
4. When a note is present, that note must be read and
if the coding is to be accurate.
5. Within the Surgery Guidelin.
This document contains a 62-item quiz on fundamentals of nursing. The questions cover topics such as nursing definitions, nursing process, patient assessment, nursing diagnoses, interventions, medications, and more. The answer key is provided at the end.
This document contains questions about nursing history, roles, education, and trends. It addresses topics like the development of nursing from early civilizations through modern times; defining characteristics of nursing as both an art and a science; influential figures like Florence Nightingale and Clara Barton; levels of nursing education and licensure required for different roles; the use of standards and regulatory bodies; and current trends affecting nursing practice, such as an increasing elderly population and rise of chronic conditions.
Utilizing research software can be daunting for a What.docxwrite22
Utilizing research software can be intimidating for novices but deciding what software to use involves considering the type of research (qualitative vs. quantitative) and embedding course concepts and citations. The document discusses choosing research software and the differences between qualitative and quantitative types while citing sources.
To Prepare Reflect on your own community and consider the.docxwrite22
This document discusses economic trends in a small town in Mississippi. It notes that the town has major employers like warehouses, stores, and restaurants. It also has a mixture of housing, schools, and people of all races. The community has both urban and economic diversity.
Watch this video about Joseph concept of Creative.docxwrite22
The document discusses Joseph Schumpeter's concept of creative destruction and how new technologies can disrupt existing industries. Specifically, it mentions how self-driving cars may disrupt the job market for drivers. Students are instructed to write a paper on this topic using at least three sources from the Danforth Library databases, including three direct quotes from these sources cited in APA format.
write a 700 word psychoanalytic criticism research about the.docxwrite22
The document provides instructions for writing a 700-word psychoanalytic criticism essay about Edgar Allan Poe's short story "The Tell-Tale Heart". It outlines that the essay should include an introductory paragraph with a thesis statement, multiple body paragraphs with topic sentences and supporting details, and a concluding paragraph. It also provides guidance on formatting quotations and citations, including providing examples of how to cite sources in-text and create a works cited page.
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Similar to ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS SURE THEY ARE ALL CORRECTSEND BACK.docx
This document contains a set of 73 multiple choice questions intended as exercises for nursing assistants and comprehensive nurses. It was prepared by Samuel Dessu, a lecturer and researcher at Arba Minch Health Science College in Ethiopia. The questions cover topics related to geriatric care, medication administration, infection control, vital signs, pregnancy and childbirth, and more. Contact information is provided for Samuel Dessu.
1. Anesthesia administered to a normal, healthy patient undergcareyshaunda
1. Anesthesia administered to a normal, healthy patient undergoing an esophageal procedure is coded as
A.
00500-P1.
B.
00502-P1.
C.
00500-P2.
D.
00506-P1.
2. A new patient comes into the doctor's office for her annual gynecological exam. During the course of the exam, she undergoes a screening cervical cytopathology smear, which is performed by an automated system under the supervision of a physician. What HCPCS code is assigned?
A.
G0185
B.
G7869
C.
G7452
D.
G0147
3. A new patient is seen for a home visit that involves a comprehensive history, examination, and medical decision making of high complexity. What code should be assigned?
A.
99349
B.
99345
C.
99342
D.
99350
4. A prolonged evaluation and management service before and/or after direct patient care for one hour is coded as
A.
99359.
B.
99358.
C.
99361.
D.
99360.
5. A 57-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for a hip arthroscopy procedure. The patient is a normal healthy patient with no systemic disease. What anesthesia CPT code should be assigned?
A.
01242-P2
B.
01202-P1
C.
01202-P3
D.
01202-P5
6. Anesthesia for procedures performed on the larynx and trachea in an 11-month-old child would be assigned to code
A.
00620.
B.
00625.
C.
00326.
D.
00532.
7. A patient returns for a follow-up office visit regarding the repair of her fractured knee. The office visit consists of a detailed history, detailed examination, and medical decision making of moderate complexity. What CPT code is assigned?
A.
99213
B.
99212
C.
99211
D.
99214
8. Intramuscular nonhormonal antineoplastic chemotherapy administration would be assigned to code
A.
96402.
B.
96405.
C.
96406.
D.
96401.
9. Home infusion with specialty drug administration during a 6-hour visit would be assigned what codes?
A.
99606, 99607 ×3
B.
99601, 99602 ×4
C.
99604, 99605 ×2
D.
99603, 99604 ×2
10. A patient is seen for a psychiatric diagnostic evaluation. The physician obtains a complete history of the patient's mental status and does a complete biological and psychosocial assessment along with a complete physical examination. The physician's final diagnosis is recurrent episode of severe major depressive disorder, without any psychotic behavior involved. The patient also has a history of psychological trauma. What codes are assigned?
A.
F33.2, Z91.49
B.
F33.1, Z91.47
C.
F34.2, Z91.49
D.
F36.2, Z91.46
11. A 17-year-old patient is diagnosed with a severe form of nutritional anemia. What ICD-10-CM code should be assigned?
A.
D45.9
B.
D53.9
C.
D74.9
D.
D65.9
12. A 32-year-old patient receives anesthesia for spinal surgery. The anesthesia is complicated by utilization of controlled hypotension. What add-on anesthesia code would be assigned?
A.
99174
B.
92117
C.
9910 ...
This document contains questions and answers about various health insurance programs and terms. It discusses eligibility for Medicare and Medicaid based on age and medical conditions. One question addresses that patients with end-stage renal disease qualify for Medicare regardless of age. Another question identifies Blue Cross and Blue Shield as the first prepaid health insurance plans in the US. The document also contains multiple-choice questions about billing Medicaid, the Balanced Budget Act, reimbursement systems, PPO networks, Physician-Hospital Organizations, and which part of Medicare would cover a hospitalization for pneumonia.
The most appropriate self-care activity for the nurse to teach regarding prevention and early detection of pancreatic cancer is limiting meat in the diet and eating a diet low in fats (Option C). This focuses on primary prevention by modifying risk factors like a high-fat diet.
2. Answer: B
Rationale: The client understands the discharge instructions if they state they will write down
questions to ask the HCP. This shows the client is taking an active role in their care.
3. Answer: D
Rationale: Altered nutrition is a nursing diagnosis that requires interventions from the dietitian.
The nurse should refer the client to the dietitian for an assessment and plan of care to address the
Self assessment tool kit for NABH-converted.docxQASGR
This document provides a self-assessment toolkit for hospitals to evaluate their compliance with various quality standards across 10 chapters. It includes evaluation criteria where hospitals must score a minimum of 50% in all standards and in each chapter. For each element, hospitals must provide documentation, assess implementation, and evidence, and receive a score of 0, 5, or 10. The toolkit addresses areas like access to care, patient care processes, medication management, patient rights, infection control, quality improvement, facility management, human resources, and medical records.
Kindly assist with this questions QUESTION 1 Which of th.pdfABHISHEKREADYMADESKO
Kindly assist with this questions
QUESTION 1
Which of the following key trends influence the growth of telehealth care delivery?
a.Projected shortages in the health professional workforce
b.Growth of consumerism in health care and continuous innovation in the consumer technology
market
c.Reorganization in the delivery and financing of medical care
d.Continuous advancement in electronic health records and clinical decision support systems
e.All of the above
QUESTION 2
What is the Interstate Medical Licensure Compact?
a.An organization that provides licensing to telehealth solutions.
b.A telehealth protocol for the exchange of health information between patients and providers in
different states.
c.An agreement among participating U.S. states to work together to streamline the licensing
process for physicians who want to practice in multiple states.
d.An agreement among telehealth companies that allows them to provide remote care to patients
in different states.
e.A telehealth platform providing prevention and chronic disease management services to patients
in all states.
QUESTION 3
In response to the COVID-19 pandemic, the US Department of Health and Human Services
waived the requirement that both physicians and other healthcare professionals who offer
telehealth services hold licenses in the state in which they provide services.
True
False
QUESTION 4
Which of the following four distinct domains does telehealth encompass?
a.Live videoconferencing (synchronous), telemedicine, remote patient monitoring, and mobile
health.
b.Remote patient monitoring, store-and-forward (asynchronous), telemedicine, and mobile health.
c.Live videoconferencing (synchronous), store-and-forward (asynchronous), mobile health, and
remote patient monitoring
d.Videoconferencing (synchronous), patient portals, mobile health, and remote patient monitoring.
QUESTION 5
Before the COVID-19 pandemic, which of the following requirements had to be met for CMS to
reimburse Medicare telehealth services?
a.The originating site had to be located in a defined rural geographic area
b.The modality used to deliver services had to be two-way, interactive audio-video
c.The Medicare beneficiary had to be located in an authorized type of originating site when
receiving services via telehealth.
d.The service provided had to be on the list of approved Medicare telehealth services
e.All of the above.
QUESTION 6
What were the main regulatory hurdles that Doctor on Demand had to overcome in providing
services nationwide?
a.Medical licensing requirements
b.State-level business laws
c.Technical standards and protocols
d.All of the above
e.A and C
f.A and B
QUESTION 7
According to the US Department of Health and Human Services a covered healthcare provider
that wants to use audio or video communication technology to provide telehealth to patients during
COVID-19 nation-wide public health emergency can use any non-public facing remote
communication product that is available to communicate with patie.
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The document discusses the organization and functions of hospitals. It describes how hospitals are classified based on type of services provided, length of stay, ownership, and bed capacity. The key functions of hospitals include patient care, teaching, research, and public health. The organizational structure of hospitals is also outlined, with boards of trustees governing and directors, associate directors, and department heads managing different clinical and administrative departments. The roles of different departments like nursing, dietary services, laboratories, and medical records are also summarized.
Answered national council exam mixed 1-2.docxRBGroup
This document contains a 41-page test with multiple choice questions about nursing. Some of the topics covered include placebos, autopsies, anesthesia, surgical procedures, vital signs, wound care, signs of shock, infection control, the nursing process, and community health measures. The questions require knowledge of anatomy, medical terminology, clinical skills, and nursing concepts.
1. Practitioners that have specialized training in the musculoskel.docxjackiewalcutt
1. Practitioners that have specialized training in the musculoskeletal system are called
A. occupational therapists.
B. physical therapists.
C. rehabilitation specialists.
D. chiropractors.
2. The Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010 was mandated under the
A. Office of the Inspector General.
B. American Health Information Management Association (AHIMA).
C. Medicare Act of 1965.
D. Affordable Care Act (ACA).
3. Which one of the following responsibilities is handled by a health information manager?
A. Communicating lab results to doctors
B. Creating employee work schedules
C. Maintaining records related to a patient's diagnosis
D. Posting employee job openings
4. What is the major reason for establishing National Patient Safety Goals (NPSGs)?
A. To improve health care outcomes and ensure patient safety
B. To make laws or rules within institutions
C. To find mistakes within an institution
D. To create a regulatory agency
5. A health care manager is overseeing a health care facility. What action can the health care manager take
to promote a positive working environment and improve patient outcomes?
A. Allow health care workers to arrive when their personal schedules permit
B. Encourage interdisciplinary collaboration
C. Encourage health care workers to skip their breaks to save the facility money
D. Allow health care workers to come in to work when they're sick
6. Patty has completed the occupational therapy aide program at Penn Foster. This means Patty's scope of
practice may include
A. assisting client to regain the skills of activities of daily living (ADL).
B. calling prescriptions in to a local pharmacy.
C. taking blood pressure.
D. compounding non-sterile mixtures.
7. Heat, water, sound, and ultrasound procedures are often administered by
A. dental assistants.
B. nurses aides.
C. medical assistants.
D. physical therapy aides.
8. What term is used to refer to the process of communicating with people from different health care
backgrounds?
A. Professional coarctation
B. Interprofessional or interdisciplinary collaboration
C. Health care interdisciplinary communication
D. Peer-to-peer review
9. Which one of the following statements indicates that a medical assistant understands his or her scope of
practice?
A. "I'll assist the pharmacist in non-sterile compounding."
B. "I'll assist the doctor in procedures and exams when asked to."
C. "I'll provide clients with only contact lenses when the doctor has given the patient a prescription."
D. "I'll prescribe medications only when the doctor is on vacation."
10. Which one of the following statements indicates that an individual understands how health insurance
coverage works?
A. "Because of the Affordable Care Act (ACA), I don't need to apply for health care insurance."
B. "Because I work in a hospital, I'm eligible for Medicaid coverage."
C. "Because I'm 60 years old, I can get Medicare coverage."
D. "Because my father served in the military, I'm eligible for TRICARE insurance."
11. ...
CPPS-qs_Collection...QUESTION OF CPPS EXAMssuser7e82f41
This document contains multiple choice questions related to patient safety and quality improvement. Topics include root cause analysis, safety culture assessment, human factors, disclosure of errors, and strategies for improving reporting of adverse events. As a patient safety professional, responsibilities may involve analyzing safety data, educating staff, and recommending system improvements to leadership.
CHAPTER 15 r Evaiuation and Management (EM) Services,fA,.docxbartholomeocoombs
CHAPTER 15 r Evaiuation and Management (E/M) Services
,/fA, four types of medical decision making, in order of complexity from most to
List the fi
least risk
,d--A-
A-
,lr,
-lr-
Inpatient time spent at the bedside or nursing station during or after
the visit is what kind of time?
21. Thepatient's will reflect the
. nrm-ber of systems examined by a brief statement of the findings.
/ZZ. I discussion with a patient andlor family concerning one or more of
the following areas: diagnostic results, impressions and/or
recommended diagnostic studies; prognosis; risks and benefits of
treatment; instruciions for treatment; importance of compliance with
treatment; risk factor reduction; and patient and family education is
23. The history is the
physician.
information the Patient tells the
Ol4r11bcrd .rasvl-crs are located in Appendix B, while the full answer key ls only available in the TEACE
Iffir Ecsorrrces on Erolve.
-4
,r{
/n.
,{
13. Complexity of medical decision making is based on three
ve types of presenting problems from the most risk and least recovery to
and most recovery:
19. Counseling and coordination of care are what kind of factors in most
cases?
U/O. ,r*"that is used as a guide for outpatient services is what kind of time?
Cop].right @ 2015 by Saunders, an impdnt of Elsevier Inc' A1I rights reserved'
CHAI{ER 15 r Evaluation and Management (E/l[l Sersices
6n. ,n"re is no distinction made between the new and established patients
in this service department of a hospital:
25. Those services rendered by a physician whose opinion or advice is
requested by another physician or agency in the evaluation and/or
treatment of a patient is a(n) whereas the
physician who has primary responsibility for the patient in the hospital
is called
r'26. Whencritically ill patients in medical emergencies require the constant
attendance of the physician (e.g., cardiac arrest, shock, bleeding, and
respiratory failure) to stabilize them, what kind of care is needed?
27. When care is provided
same patient by more
conditions, the care is
for similar services
than one physician
(e.g., hospital visits) to the
on the same day for different
,6. *nuris the name for the assumption of the total or speciflc care of a
patient from one physician to another that does not constitute a
consultation?
29. An inventory of body systems obtained
signs and/or symptoms that the patient
."{o. ,tthe physician who is standing by does so for 25 minutes, can he ot
she round the time up to 30 minutes for reporting purposes?
through questioning to identifY
may be experiencing is a(n)
of
Odd-numbered answers are located in Appendlx B, while the full answer key is only avaitrablc ir ft TEI'€E
Instructor Resources on Evolve.
Copyright @ 2015 by Saunders, an imprint of Elsevier Inc. A11 rights reserved.
CIL{PTER 15 r fyil*5on irnd Management (E/}vf) Services
PRACTICAT
Office or Other Outpatlent Services and Hospltal lnpatient Service
With the use of t.
This assignment requires Ambulatory Care Coding experience.You CAN.docxterirasco
This assignment requires Ambulatory Care Coding experience.
You CAN NOT google these questions for the answers.
Must be CPC, CCS, or RHIT certified coder.
Please check 40 that are answered, 40 that are unanswered.
Need by 09.16.2015
Ambulatory Care Coding
Patient had a left femoral hemiorraphy for a recurrent hernia, what is the correct code assignment?
C. 49555
A patient was taken to the endoscopy suite. The endoscopy was passed into the esophagus and continued into the duodenal bulb. Based on this documentation, what CPT code would be selected to represent this procedure?
43200
43234
43235
43260
Which of the following is not coded separately from the coronary artery bypass procedure?
Upper extremity artery
Upper extremity vein
Saphenous vein
Femoropoplitear segment of a vein
Which of the following CPT codes should be used for an emergency curettage due to retained placenta after normal vaginal delivery?
58120
59160
49320
59840
How do you code a retropubic subtotal prostatectomy?
B. 55831
Treatment of a missed abortion, completed surgically a 22 weeks is coded as?
C. 59821
Which of the following CPT codes describes the surgical removal of kidney stones through an incision in the body of the kidney.
D.50060
The patient undergoes the closure of a nephrocutaneous fistula, how is this coded?
B. 50520
The patient provides a kidney to a sibling who has renal failure. An open procedure is performed. How is this coded?
B. 50320
10. Principles of ICD-9-CM coding for ambulatory care encounters includes.
A. Ambulatory care diagnoses should be coded to the highest of certainly at the conclusion of the encounter.
B. Code suspected diagnoses as if the disease or injury existed.
C. conditions previously treated and no longer existing are coded.
D.Only the most significant diagnosis should be coded.
Level
2 codes of the HCPCS coding system are maintained by the:
D.Center for medicare and Medicaid services.
J1020 injection methylprednisolone acetate, 20 mg is an example of a
C. Level 2 code
Level one of HCPCS consists of
CPT codes
The inclusion of a code in COT indicates that the procedure is:
Commonly performed across the country
Endorsed by the AMA
Reimbursed by third party payers
The three key components used in defining the levels of E/M services are:
History, examination, medical decision making.
The differences between a new patient and an established patient is whether the patient received professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group of practice
Within the past three years
Mary Cole, who is recovering from pneumonia, returns to her physicians for follow up. Dr. Small reviews a recent x-ray, performs a problem focus examination followed by a short discussion of findings. CPT code assigned.
99212
Refer to the medical decision making table in your CPT book. Given the following information determine the type of medical decisi.
Understanding Healthcare Statistics1. Youre trying to determine.docxmarilucorr
Understanding Healthcare Statistics
1. You're trying to determine if Unit B can accommodate more patients based on the length of stay for that
unit. What information will probably be the most useful in making this determination?
A. Total inpatient service days
B. Bed turnover rate
C. Change in bed count
D. Complete master census
2. You're calculating statistics using the following formula:
Total autopsies on inpatient deaths for 2012 × 100
Total inpatient deaths for 2012
What rate are you trying to determine?
A. Net autopsy rate
B. Adjusted hospital autopsy rate
C. Gross autopsy rate
D. Fetal autopsy rate
3. During a consultation, a podiatrist notices that a patient has an infection from an IV tube that was
inserted into her arm just after gastric surgery. This infection would be included in which one of the
following rates?
A. Postoperative infection rate
B. Anesthesia rate
C. Consultation rate
D. Infection rate
4. You're looking at a census that shows the following information for September 15:
24 patients admitted
9 patients discharged
2 patients transferred
You're likely reviewing the _______ census.
A. daily inpatient
B. complete master
C. service days
D. inpatient
5. You're calculating the hospital's net death rate when you realize that two of the deaths occurred within
the first 12 and 36 hours of admission, respectively. How should these deaths be reflected in the net death
rate?
A. They should be subtracted from the total number of inpatient deaths.
B. They should be divided by 12 and then added to the net death rate.
C. They shouldn't be included in the calculation.
D. They should be added to the net death rate.
6. An infant dies three days after birth. This death is classified as a/an _______ death.
A. infant
B. perinatal
C. postneonatal
D. neonatal
7. You sit on a committee that's trying to determine whether or not the hospital is providing necessary
services in a cost-effective manner. Which one of the following statistics would be most useful to you?
A. Average length of stay
B. Occupancy rate
C. Bed occupancy ratio
D. Discharge days
8. What is the gross death rate for a hospital with 450 discharges, 4 inpatient deaths, and 3 newborn deaths
in a 30-day period?
A. 23.3%
B. 1.56%
C. 15%
D. 64.3%
9. A pregnant woman was hit by a car and died three days after admission to the hospital. Her death would
be included in which one of the following statistics?
A. Maternal death rate
B. Gross death rate
C. Obstetric death rate
D. Postoperative death rate
10. University Hospital has 244 staffed inpatient beds, 10 emergency room beds, and an additional 50 beds
that can be set up in an emergency. Today, 157 inpatient beds are occupied. What is the current bed count
for this hospital?
A. 304
B. 244
C. 157
D. 87
11. Review the following information for University Hospital:
March discharge days: 222
March discharges (including deaths): 44
March newborn discharges: 12
What is the average length of stay for March?
A. 4 days
B. 3 days
C. 5 days
D. ...
This document contains 35 multiple choice questions related to nursing care for clients with various cancers and psychiatric conditions. The questions cover topics like cancer treatments, side effects of chemotherapy drugs, risk factors for different cancers, nursing assessments and interventions.
CHAPTER 16 r AnesthesiaPRACTICATWith the use of the CP.docxbartholomeocoombs
CHAPTER 16 r Anesthesia
PRACTICAT
With the use of the CPT manual, identify the following physical status modifiers:
9. Patient with a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.
Modifier:
10. Normal healthy patient.
11. Patient with a severe systemic disease.
Modifier: f 3
12. Declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor
purpo$es.
Modifier: V b
Patient with mild systemic disease.
Modifier: Pe
Moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation.
Modifier: P(
Loca in the CPT manual index under the entry
"A then subtermed by the anatomic site. Write the CPT index
location olp the line provided (e.g., Anesthesia, Thyroid). Then locate the code
identified ln the anesthesia section of the CPT manual. Choose the correct code
and writelthe code on the line provided.
15. Dia ic arthroscopic procedure of knee joint.
CPT Code:
16. Radical hysterectomy.
Index location:
cPTCode: '10,?t{'r;
17. Corneal transplant.
Index location:
CPT Code:
Odd-numbered answers are located in Appendix B, while the full answer key is only available in the TEACH
Instructor Resources on Evolve.
13.
14.
Copyright O 2015 by Saunders, an imprint of Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved
19.
20.
27.
18. Cesarean deliverY onIY'
Index location:
CHAIJ'IER 16 r Airesthesia
patient having mild systemic
late effect of Fen-Phen, taken as
cPr code: f"tq b I
OtoscoPY used
Index location:
in procedure for middle ear'
CPT Code:
Transurethral resection of the prostate.
Index location:
Anesthesia for a cardiac catheterization
disease.
CPT Code:
cPr code: n 01lq
Mitral valve regurgitation as a
prescribed, initial encounter.
qyr'rdc*n
22. Anesthesia for aggiqgqtomy on a healthy S-year-old patient.
CPT Code: 00 f e D
Assign the diagnosis code(s) for Questions 23-26.
23. Diverticulitis of colon with hemorrhage.
ICD-10-CM Code:
(ICD-9-CM Code:
24. Atherosclerosis of coronary artery bypass graft utilizing internal
mammary artery.
ICD-10-CM Code:
(ICD-9-CM Code:
25. Toxic diffuse goiter with thyrotoxic crisis.
ICD-10-CM Code:
(ICD-9-CM Code:
26.
ICD-L0-CM Codes:
(ICD-9-CM Codes:
Odd-numbered answers are located tn Appendtx B, while the full answer key is only available ln the TEACE
Instructor Resources on D,volve.
Copyright @ 2015 by Saunders, an imprint of Elsevier hc. AII riShts reserved.
Surgery Guidelines and
General Surgery
THEORY
Without the use of reference material, answer the following:
1. The more complex subsections referred to in the text are
Integumentary, Musculoskeletal, Respiratory, Cardiovascular, Digestive,
and
2. The information in the
is necessary to correctly
repeated elsewhere.
code in the section,
contains information that
and the information is not
3. Notes may appear before subsections, subheadings,
and subcategories within the CPT manual.
4. When a note is present, that note must be read and
if the coding is to be accurate.
5. Within the Surgery Guidelin.
This document contains a 62-item quiz on fundamentals of nursing. The questions cover topics such as nursing definitions, nursing process, patient assessment, nursing diagnoses, interventions, medications, and more. The answer key is provided at the end.
This document contains questions about nursing history, roles, education, and trends. It addresses topics like the development of nursing from early civilizations through modern times; defining characteristics of nursing as both an art and a science; influential figures like Florence Nightingale and Clara Barton; levels of nursing education and licensure required for different roles; the use of standards and regulatory bodies; and current trends affecting nursing practice, such as an increasing elderly population and rise of chronic conditions.
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- Dr. Jones has implemented a Total Quality Management (TQM) team at the ESKCC medical clinic to examine processes and address increased patient complaints.
- The TQM team is presented with monthly complaint data showing the most common complaints are related to quality of service, wait times, and follow-up care availability.
- The current patient process involves registering at the front desk, seeing a nurse for exams/tests in an examination room if available, seeing the physician, and paying at the front desk before leaving.
What were American and British strategies for winning the.docxwrite22
The document asks several questions about strategies and challenges facing America and Britain during the Revolutionary War, the political philosophies of the Federalists and Antifederalists, key events and documents in early American history like the Whiskey Rebellion and Common Sense, and the emergence of political parties during Washington's presidency. It seeks concise explanations of the chief military and logistical issues confronting both sides in the war, the underlying principles of the Federalist and Antifederalist positions, and how formative incidents reflected the ongoing debate between strong central government and states' rights.
What is the process involving movement of mantle rock that.docxwrite22
Convection currents in the mantle cause rock to slowly rise and fall, controlled by gravity. Undulation or waves in stratified rocks of Earth's crust are folds in layered rock formations. A fracture or zone of fractures between blocks of rock that allows movement is called a fault.
Unit Learning Outcomes ULO Explain job and.docxwrite22
This document outlines unit learning outcomes for a course. It explains that students will learn about job rotation, coaching, and mentoring and how these help with employee development. Students will also evaluate and synthesize scholarly research to complete assignments, such as a 2-3 page APA formatted report answering questions about a case study on Market Research Inc.
Timeline of events what was happening that was important.docxwrite22
The document provides a timeline of important events and influences on fashion from 1800-1899. During this period, several major political and industrial developments helped shape fashion trends. The Empire and Romantic eras saw the rise of Napoleon in France and the Industrial Revolution in England. In the late 19th century, the Victorian era was characterized by Queen Victoria's rule in Britain, the American Civil War, and the growth of industrialization globally. Major fashion influences included Napoleon and his wife Josephine, Beau Brummel, and Charles Frederick Worth. Silhouettes for both men's and women's fashion evolved dramatically over the century from the Empire waistline to bustles and crinolines under Victoria. New technologies also industrialized textile production
To what degree did the emergence of a large union.docxwrite22
This document examines the relationship between the emergence of large unions in the mid-20th century and the advancement of civil rights and economic well-being of African Americans and Latinos. It also considers the extent to which unions and labor laws of that era were problematic for civil rights movements or diminished by growing rights consciousness in the 1960s. The document prompts consideration of how Wagner-era labor laws and 1960s-era civil rights laws impacted these relationships.
This you will begin to synthesize the information you.docxwrite22
This week, students will complete a recommendation analysis to synthesize the information gathered about their selected technology. The analysis should include an introduction explaining the technology, a thesis outlining the main arguments, identification of ethical dilemmas posed by the technology with examples and recommendations to address each dilemma. It should also cite at least three academic sources and be 3-4 pages following APA style. The assignment will be graded based on critical thinking, communication, information literacy, technology literacy, cultural competence, and global awareness demonstrated.
This is for Understanding the behavior of infection.docxwrite22
Cholera is a disease that can spread catastrophically if not controlled. To understand its spread and mitigate it, methods have been used to control growth and spread, though implementation faces challenges. Additional methods could be considered, and engaging reluctant populations is important to disease prevention.
The use of devices within information technology has increased exponentially....write22
The document discusses how information technology devices have increased exponentially over the last two decades and asks the reader to analyze how two specific types of devices are interconnected in a trusted environment and how they could create vulnerabilities in an existing enterprise network.
Steven Smith was employed by the Avon School District as.docxwrite22
Steven Smith, a high school English teacher, posted photos of his students' writing mistakes on Facebook along with comments about the errors. Though only visible to a group of his Facebook friends, someone found the posts inappropriate and notified the local newspaper. The school district was then anonymously tipped off about the upcoming newspaper article regarding the teacher's posts.
Students will assume the situation of an individual with.docxwrite22
Students are asked to put themselves in the shoes of a person with disabilities or access needs to identify three challenges they would face in a quick evacuation due to a disaster. They then must research and explain at least two resources for each challenge that would provide important information to help overcome the difficulties of evacuating.
The company that all students will use for their final.docxwrite22
The students will use Ford Motor Company for their final individual project. A virtual tour of Ford Motor Company will take place instead of a live visit. Students are expected to view the virtual tour of Ford Motor Company at the provided link.
the following critical elements must be Lens.docxwrite22
This document provides guidelines for a milestone assignment analyzing a popular culture artifact through two lenses: the natural/applied sciences lens and the social sciences lens. Students are instructed to analyze the movie "13 Going on 30" through these two lenses, explaining how each lens provides insight into the artifact's social impact and how it is informed by social issues. The analysis for each lens must be supported by at least two credible sources and cited in APA style. The entire submission should be 2 to 4 pages double-spaced with 12-point Times New Roman font and one-inch margins.
Leveraging Generative AI to Drive Nonprofit InnovationTechSoup
In this webinar, participants learned how to utilize Generative AI to streamline operations and elevate member engagement. Amazon Web Service experts provided a customer specific use cases and dived into low/no-code tools that are quick and easy to deploy through Amazon Web Service (AWS.)
বাংলাদেশের অর্থনৈতিক সমীক্ষা ২০২৪ [Bangladesh Economic Review 2024 Bangla.pdf] কম্পিউটার , ট্যাব ও স্মার্ট ফোন ভার্সন সহ সম্পূর্ণ বাংলা ই-বুক বা pdf বই " সুচিপত্র ...বুকমার্ক মেনু 🔖 ও হাইপার লিংক মেনু 📝👆 যুক্ত ..
আমাদের সবার জন্য খুব খুব গুরুত্বপূর্ণ একটি বই ..বিসিএস, ব্যাংক, ইউনিভার্সিটি ভর্তি ও যে কোন প্রতিযোগিতা মূলক পরীক্ষার জন্য এর খুব ইম্পরট্যান্ট একটি বিষয় ...তাছাড়া বাংলাদেশের সাম্প্রতিক যে কোন ডাটা বা তথ্য এই বইতে পাবেন ...
তাই একজন নাগরিক হিসাবে এই তথ্য গুলো আপনার জানা প্রয়োজন ...।
বিসিএস ও ব্যাংক এর লিখিত পরীক্ষা ...+এছাড়া মাধ্যমিক ও উচ্চমাধ্যমিকের স্টুডেন্টদের জন্য অনেক কাজে আসবে ...
LAND USE LAND COVER AND NDVI OF MIRZAPUR DISTRICT, UPRAHUL
This Dissertation explores the particular circumstances of Mirzapur, a region located in the
core of India. Mirzapur, with its varied terrains and abundant biodiversity, offers an optimal
environment for investigating the changes in vegetation cover dynamics. Our study utilizes
advanced technologies such as GIS (Geographic Information Systems) and Remote sensing to
analyze the transformations that have taken place over the course of a decade.
The complex relationship between human activities and the environment has been the focus
of extensive research and worry. As the global community grapples with swift urbanization,
population expansion, and economic progress, the effects on natural ecosystems are becoming
more evident. A crucial element of this impact is the alteration of vegetation cover, which plays a
significant role in maintaining the ecological equilibrium of our planet.Land serves as the foundation for all human activities and provides the necessary materials for
these activities. As the most crucial natural resource, its utilization by humans results in different
'Land uses,' which are determined by both human activities and the physical characteristics of the
land.
The utilization of land is impacted by human needs and environmental factors. In countries
like India, rapid population growth and the emphasis on extensive resource exploitation can lead
to significant land degradation, adversely affecting the region's land cover.
Therefore, human intervention has significantly influenced land use patterns over many
centuries, evolving its structure over time and space. In the present era, these changes have
accelerated due to factors such as agriculture and urbanization. Information regarding land use and
cover is essential for various planning and management tasks related to the Earth's surface,
providing crucial environmental data for scientific, resource management, policy purposes, and
diverse human activities.
Accurate understanding of land use and cover is imperative for the development planning
of any area. Consequently, a wide range of professionals, including earth system scientists, land
and water managers, and urban planners, are interested in obtaining data on land use and cover
changes, conversion trends, and other related patterns. The spatial dimensions of land use and
cover support policymakers and scientists in making well-informed decisions, as alterations in
these patterns indicate shifts in economic and social conditions. Monitoring such changes with the
help of Advanced technologies like Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems is
crucial for coordinated efforts across different administrative levels. Advanced technologies like
Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems
9
Changes in vegetation cover refer to variations in the distribution, composition, and overall
structure of plant communities across different temporal and spatial scales. These changes can
occur natural.
ISO/IEC 27001, ISO/IEC 42001, and GDPR: Best Practices for Implementation and...PECB
Denis is a dynamic and results-driven Chief Information Officer (CIO) with a distinguished career spanning information systems analysis and technical project management. With a proven track record of spearheading the design and delivery of cutting-edge Information Management solutions, he has consistently elevated business operations, streamlined reporting functions, and maximized process efficiency.
Certified as an ISO/IEC 27001: Information Security Management Systems (ISMS) Lead Implementer, Data Protection Officer, and Cyber Risks Analyst, Denis brings a heightened focus on data security, privacy, and cyber resilience to every endeavor.
His expertise extends across a diverse spectrum of reporting, database, and web development applications, underpinned by an exceptional grasp of data storage and virtualization technologies. His proficiency in application testing, database administration, and data cleansing ensures seamless execution of complex projects.
What sets Denis apart is his comprehensive understanding of Business and Systems Analysis technologies, honed through involvement in all phases of the Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC). From meticulous requirements gathering to precise analysis, innovative design, rigorous development, thorough testing, and successful implementation, he has consistently delivered exceptional results.
Throughout his career, he has taken on multifaceted roles, from leading technical project management teams to owning solutions that drive operational excellence. His conscientious and proactive approach is unwavering, whether he is working independently or collaboratively within a team. His ability to connect with colleagues on a personal level underscores his commitment to fostering a harmonious and productive workplace environment.
Date: May 29, 2024
Tags: Information Security, ISO/IEC 27001, ISO/IEC 42001, Artificial Intelligence, GDPR
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Find out more about ISO training and certification services
Training: ISO/IEC 27001 Information Security Management System - EN | PECB
ISO/IEC 42001 Artificial Intelligence Management System - EN | PECB
General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) - Training Courses - EN | PECB
Webinars: https://pecb.com/webinars
Article: https://pecb.com/article
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For more information about PECB:
Website: https://pecb.com/
LinkedIn: https://www.linkedin.com/company/pecb/
Facebook: https://www.facebook.com/PECBInternational/
Slideshare: http://www.slideshare.net/PECBCERTIFICATION
Reimagining Your Library Space: How to Increase the Vibes in Your Library No ...Diana Rendina
Librarians are leading the way in creating future-ready citizens – now we need to update our spaces to match. In this session, attendees will get inspiration for transforming their library spaces. You’ll learn how to survey students and patrons, create a focus group, and use design thinking to brainstorm ideas for your space. We’ll discuss budget friendly ways to change your space as well as how to find funding. No matter where you’re at, you’ll find ideas for reimagining your space in this session.
How to Make a Field Mandatory in Odoo 17Celine George
In Odoo, making a field required can be done through both Python code and XML views. When you set the required attribute to True in Python code, it makes the field required across all views where it's used. Conversely, when you set the required attribute in XML views, it makes the field required only in the context of that particular view.
Walmart Business+ and Spark Good for Nonprofits.pdfTechSoup
"Learn about all the ways Walmart supports nonprofit organizations.
You will hear from Liz Willett, the Head of Nonprofits, and hear about what Walmart is doing to help nonprofits, including Walmart Business and Spark Good. Walmart Business+ is a new offer for nonprofits that offers discounts and also streamlines nonprofits order and expense tracking, saving time and money.
The webinar may also give some examples on how nonprofits can best leverage Walmart Business+.
The event will cover the following::
Walmart Business + (https://business.walmart.com/plus) is a new shopping experience for nonprofits, schools, and local business customers that connects an exclusive online shopping experience to stores. Benefits include free delivery and shipping, a 'Spend Analytics” feature, special discounts, deals and tax-exempt shopping.
Special TechSoup offer for a free 180 days membership, and up to $150 in discounts on eligible orders.
Spark Good (walmart.com/sparkgood) is a charitable platform that enables nonprofits to receive donations directly from customers and associates.
Answers about how you can do more with Walmart!"
How to Fix the Import Error in the Odoo 17Celine George
An import error occurs when a program fails to import a module or library, disrupting its execution. In languages like Python, this issue arises when the specified module cannot be found or accessed, hindering the program's functionality. Resolving import errors is crucial for maintaining smooth software operation and uninterrupted development processes.
This slide is special for master students (MIBS & MIFB) in UUM. Also useful for readers who are interested in the topic of contemporary Islamic banking.
Chapter 4 - Islamic Financial Institutions in Malaysia.pptx
ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS SURE THEY ARE ALL CORRECTSEND BACK.docx
1. ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS -MAKE SURE THEY ARE ALL CORRECTSEND
BACK TO ME WITHIN 48 HOURS1. Which one of the following
requirements is outlined in the guidelines established in HIPAA’s Privacy
Rule?
QUESTIONJUN 07, 2019ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS -MAKE SURE THEY ARE ALL
CORRECTSEND BACK TO ME WITHIN 48 HOURS1. Which one of the following
requirements is outlined in the guidelines established in HIPAA’s Privacy Rule?ANSWER
ALL THE QUESTIONS -MAKE SURE THEY ARE ALL CORRECTSEND BACK TO ME WITHIN 48
HOURS1. Which one of the following requirements is outlined in the guidelines established
in HIPAA’s Privacy Rule? A. Hospital administrators must encrypt data within older data
files. B. Managers must secure medical records immediately following patient
admission. C. Patients must receive notice if their information will be used or disclosed to
third parties. D. Physicians must not disclose patient information to consulting
physicians.2. A tethered health record allows patients to A. amend the diagnoses listed in
the health record. B. use a secure portal to access their own records. C. restructure
insurance copayments. D. compare their health records to the records of patients with
similar diagnoses.3. A patient sustains a fracture of the femur while playing football in a
nearby park. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned? A. S72.003A B. S72.001A C.
S49.006A D. S72.009A4. Which one of the following structures is part of the male
secondary genitalia? A. Gonads B. Urethra C. Testes D. Vulva5. What is the full code
description for 25515? A. Open treatment of radial shaft fracture, includes internal
fixation, when performed, and open treatment of distal radioulnar joint dislocation
(Galeazzi fracture/dislocation), includes internal fixation, when performed, includes repair
of triangular fibrocartilage complex B. Open treatment of radial shaft fracture, includes
internal fixation, when performed C. Closed treatment of radial shaft fracture; without
manipulation D. Closed treatment of ulnar shaft fracture; without manipulation6. Another
name for XXY syndrome is A. Turner’s syndrome. B. Huntington’s chorea. C. Cooley’s
anemia. D. Klinefelter syndrome.7. The hammer-shaped bone in the middle ear is called
the A. cochlea. B. stapes. C. malleus. D. incus.8. Codes beginning with the letter K are
related to the _______ system. A. circulatory B. digestive C. endocrine D.
sensory9. Which of the following statements is true of the olfactory nerve? A. It’s located
in the mitral valve and helps to circulate blood throughout the heart. B. It’s found in the
nose and allows the senses to detect and distinguish odors. C. It’s susceptible to erosion
2. due to Peyronie’s disease. D. It conveys the fluid from lymph glands to other areas of the
body.10. A patient has a Foley catheter inserted prior to a planned surgical procedure. How
is this coded? A. 55520 B. 52630 C. 51702 D. 5260111. What is the CPT code for
simple drainage of a finger abscess? A. 26010 B. 26020 C. 26034 D. 2601112. Usually,
a comprehensive EHR includes A. secure standalone cluster controllers for hospitals in
rural environments. B. software, hardware, implementation, and future program
upgrades. C. coaxial cable connections between mainframe servers only. D. customizable
XHRLT processes for ambulatory surgery centers.13. What ICD-10-CM code would be
assigned for a patient with acute tubule-interstitial nephritis? A. Z02.6 B. B96.2 C.
L50.0 D. N1014. An echocardiogram shows that the wall of a patient’s artery has dilated.
The dilation has resulted in a saclike swelling. This swelling is called a/an A. aneurysm. B.
cyst. C. mesenteric venous thrombosis. D. benign tumor.15. What is Medicare Part D? A.
The component of Medicare Part A that covers outpatient surgeries B. Supplemental
coverage for war veterans and their dependents C. Add-on coverage for dental
procedures D. Add-on coverage for prescription drugs provided through insurance
companies approved by Medicare16. The suffix –stasis means A. flow. B. stopping and
controlling. C. breakdown. D. kinetic.17. The outcome of delivery code should be A.
omitted from the maternal record for stillborn delivery. B. assigned to the newborn record
only. C. assigned to both the maternal and newborn records. D. assigned to the maternal
record when a delivery occurs.18. A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident
is taken to the hospital by ambulance and admitted to the hospital in critical care. The
physician sees the patient for 74 minutes in critical care. The physician leaves to attend to
other patients in the ICU and the NICU of the same hospital. Five hours later, the physician
returns to the patient and continues to treat the patient in critical care for an additional 30
minutes. The patient spends a total of 104 minutes in critical care. What codes are
assigned? A. 99292, 99292, 99293 B. 99291, 99291 C. 99291, 99292 D. 99292,
9929319. The root word OBSTETR/O means A. cesarean. B. pregnancy. C. birth. D.
midwife.20. Coders can use the Microsoft Office suite to create spreadsheets in A.
Excel. B. Lotus 1-2-3. C. PowerPoint. D. Word.21. A patient undergoes an appendectomy
and later returns to the operating room for a related procedure the same day. Which
modifier should be assigned to the CPT code? A. -51 B. -AA C. -76 D. -7822. The
concept of meaningful use pertains to A. categorization of patient information. B. medical
office protocol and document organization. C. resource management in the inpatient
setting. D. electronic health record implementation.23. The study of disease is called A.
pathology. B. urology. C. physiology. D. neurology.24. Modifier -23 indicates that A. a
procedure was performed bilaterally. B. the patient received general anesthesia for a
procedure that would ordinarily be performed with local or no anesthesia. C. a physician
reviewed and interpreted a radiology procedure. D. two surgeons performed a
procedure.25. Releasing genetic information is forbidden under the terms of HIPAA
because it may A. indicate susceptibility to a future illness, without the patient actually
being diagnosed with the condition. B. allow immediate family members to have access to a
patient’s medical records. C. not be successfully transmitted to all health care facilities. D.
require physicians to fulfill contractual obligations for treatments provided in ambulatory
3. surgery centers.26. Provision of security against a hurt, loss, or damage with specific cash
payments is called A. protection. B. secured loss. C. copayment. D.
indemnity.27. Physicians typically refer to anatomical locations using directional terms,
which are often A. used primarily by chiropractors. B. used to describe surgical
incisions. C. referenced horizontally. D. paired in opposites.28. The code for an ESWL
would be found in the A. Digestive System of CPT. B. Urinary and Male Genital Systems of
CPT. C. Chemotherapy section of HCPCS. D. Cardiovascular System of CPT.29. What code
would be assigned for a tube pericardiostomy? A. 33015 B. 33050 C. 33026 D.
3321030. HCPCS modifier –E2 indicates that the patient had a surgical procedure
performed on the A. upper left eyelid. B. upper right eyelid. C. lower left eyelid. D. lower
right eyelid.31. Providers that receive reimbursement after health care services have been
provided are being compensated under the _______ system. A. UCR B. capitation C.
retrospective payment D. prospective payment32. What happens when HIPAA rules
conflict with state law? A. The interpretation of HIPAA rules is left to the physician’s
discretion. B. The Supreme Court’s decision becomes final in binding arbitration. C.
Conflicting state rules are overridden by federal law. D. State laws overrule federal
law.33. The method that physicians use to bill for each service or visit individually rather
than on a pre-paid basis is called A. pre-paid care. B. managed care. C. fee-for-service. D.
capitation.34. The suffix -sis means A. process. B. drooping. C. inflammation. D.
condition.35. A new patient is seen in a clinic for complaints of shortness of breath, fever,
difficulty swallowing, runny nose, and cough. The physician performs a detailed history,
detailed examination, and medical decision making of low complexity. The physician also
obtains a chest x-ray and lab workup. Based on the results of the diagnostic tests, the
physician renders a diagnosis of upper respiratory tract infection and lymphadenopathy.
What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned? A. 99215, M19.011, R13.10 B. 99203, J06.9,
R59.0 C. 99213, R06.82, F10.229 D. 99202, D63.1, J45.90936. A physician is called to the
intensive care unit for a patient with second-degree burns sustained on 55% of his body
while cooking in the kitchen where he works. The physician sees the patient in the critical
care unit for two hours, leaves the unit, and returns later the same day to provide an
additional hour of critical care. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes would be assigned? A.
L91.8, 99291 × 2, 99292 × 4 B. T31.50, 99291, 99292 × 4 C. Z30.09, 99293, 99294 × 2 D.
R53.81, 99291, 99293 × 537. A physician who cares for a patient throughout an entire
pregnancy, from beginning to end, is providing A. comprehensive prenatal
management. B. routine global obstetric care. C. puerperal obstetric care. D. antenatal
global supervision.38. A patient is seen in the emergency room complaining of abdominal
pain in the left lower quadrant. It’s determined that the patient is experiencing
inflammation of the pancreas, which is also called A. pancreaticoduodonal arcade. B.
pancreatonia. C. pancreatolysis. D. pancreatitis.39. The covering on the brain and spinal
cord in the dorsal cavity is called the A. sheath. B. peritoneum. C. ganglia. D.
meninges.40. The regulations in HIPAA apply to three groups of individual and corporate
entities, each involved in electronic medical records transfer. These groups are collectively
referred to as A. health care administrators. B. protected personnel. C. provisional health
care data collectors. D. covered entities.41. The retention period is the amount of time
4. that A. insurance billing documents must be retained in filing cabinets. B. medications
must be kept in the medical office. C. records must be kept. D. HIM employee files must be
retained upon termination or resignation.42. A physician has a meeting with a
pharmaceutical sales representative. During the course of the conversation, the physician
reveals the diagnosis and past family, medical, and social history of a patient currently being
treated with one of the medications that the sales representative is selling. In this situation,
the doctor could be sued for A. invasion of privacy. B. undue harm and fraud. C.
malice. D. malfeasance.43. Epithelial tissue that secretes its products directly into the
bloodstream is made of A. endoplasmic reticulum. B. endocrine gland cells. C.
extracellular matrix. D. columnar epithelial cells.44. A physician obtains cells from the
bone marrow cavity using a needle and a syringe. How would this procedure be coded? A.
38220 B. 36575 C. 35092 D. 3732845. The vitreous humor can be found in the A.
eye. B. nose. C. tongue. D. ear.46. The study of tissue disease using macroscopic or
microscopic analysis is called A. microbiology. B. histopathology. C. immunology. D.
cytopathology.47. Placing a catheter into the aorta or directly into an artery or vein is
called A. selective catheter placement. B. brachiocephalic manipulation. C. third order
placement. D. nonselective catheter placement.48. A patient is diagnosed with acne. What
ICD-10-CM code would be assigned? A. L74.2 B. L70.0 C. L72.3 D. L73.149. Members of
the uniformed services, their families and survivors, and retired members and their families
qualify for A. OIG Recovery. B. Medicaid. C. Medicare. D. TRICARE.50. A 35-year-old
male is brought to the emergency department with memory disturbance after being
accidentally exposed to lead paint. What ICD-10-CM codes should be assigned? A.
T42.4X1A, R40.0 B. T23.009A, R23.8 C. T56.0X1A, R41.3 D. T57.0X1A, R10.951. Health
care practitioners who submit fraudulent bills to increase reimbursement may A. be listed
in the Coding Directory of Fraudulent Billing published annually by the Department of
Health and Human Services. B. be reported to the Office of the Attorney General. C. be
blacklisted according to geographic location. D. face financial penalties or, in some cases,
imprisonment.52. A patient comes to the ambulatory surgery center for a fusion of the
cervical spine. Prior to the beginning of the surgery, the patient suffers an allergic reaction
to the anesthesia shortly after it’s administered. Because of this reaction, the surgery is not
performed. What code would be assigned as the first-listed diagnosis? A. The anesthesia
administration B. The allergy code C. The reason that the surgery was scheduled to be
performed D. The observation code53. The root word ENTER/O means A. secretion. B.
intestine. C. stomach. D. tooth.54. When coding burns, coders should A. assign separate
codes for each burn site. B. assign the code for chronic burns. C. classify all burns as acute
burns. D. assign the code for third-degree burns.55. Which of the following forms is used
to bill outpatient charges? A. CMS-1500 or UCF-1500. B. AMA-14 or UCF-1250 C. HCFA-
1400 or CMS-1540 D. HCFA-1350 or CMS-65056. A significant, separately identifiable
E/M service performed by the same physician in conjunction with another service
performed on the same day would be reported using what modifier? A. -TC B. -47 C. -
90 D. -2557. Which of the following modifiers would be assigned for a moribund
patient? A. P5 B. P1 C. P4 D. P358. Taking certain steps to protect PHI from being
accidentally released to individuals who don’t need to know the information is called
5. the A. minimum necessary standard. B. information provision standard. C. privacy
management statute. D. health information guardianship guideline.59. Codes for plastic
repair of the perineum are found in which code range? A. 57000–57426 B. 57000–
57010 C. 57150–57180 D. 56800–5681060. A coder overhears a confidential statement
made outside of the court, and then, when called to testify, repeats the statement as being
truth. This is an example of A. speculation. B. hearsay. C. a direct quote. D. cross-
examination.61. A nurse sustains an accidental needle pinprick to the right third finger
while administering an injection. If an employee has an occupational exposure, what must
happen? A. An in-service meeting should be held for all employees who may potentially be
exposed to the same occupational hazard. B. The employee should contact the proper
authorities. C. Hospital administrators must maintain the nurse’s medical record for the
remainder of her employment plus an additional 30 years. D. The guidelines for OSHA
should be included in the employment file.62. Another name for third-party contractors
who have access to medical information is A. healthcare vendors. B. insurance
administrators. C. covered entities. D. business associates.63. A patient receives two
venous pressure clamps for hemodialysis. What HCPCS Level II code is assigned? A.
A4751 B. A4918 × 2 C. A4751 × 2 D. A491864. The anatomical location of the calyx is
the A. arm. B. kidney. C. spine. D. brain.65. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of
ongoing headaches. The headaches began one week prior and have persisted ever since. A
lumbar spinal tap is performed to pinpoint the source of the patient’s headaches. What CPT
and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? A. 62270, G74.3 B. 62270, G44.1 C. 62141, G46.8 D.
62272, G46.966. A coder assigns a HCPCS Level II code to a patient’s medical record. The
code description reads as follows: Enteral feeding supply kit; syringe fed, per day, includes
but not limited to feeding/flushing syringe, administration set tubing, dressings, tape. Based
on this description, which HCPCS Level II code was assigned? A. B4278 B. B4125 C.
B4072 D. B403467. To conform to the HIPAA Privacy Rule, which of the following
safeguards must be maintained in health care facilities? A. ICD-7 provisional
safeguards B. Immunization and injection safeguards C. Reasonable administrative,
technical, and physical safeguards D. Hazardous waste protection safeguards68. A patient
receives a blood glucose monitor. What HCPCS Level II code would be assigned? A.
E0976 B. E0562 C. E4752 D. E060769. Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) allows A.
lawyer-to-lawyer mediation during trial recess. B. mediating disputes with a judge in the
presence of the bailiff. C. resolving medical malpractice suits by submitting pretrial
depositions. D. litigants to resolve disputes prior to or after the start of litigation.70. A 65-
year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for 48 hours to receive treatment from her
physician. This patient would be covered under A. Medicare Part B. B. Medicare Part
A. C. Medicare Part D. D. Medicare Part C.71. Another term for disease evolution is A.
remission. B. pathogenesis. C. morphology. D. exacerbation.72. In relation to HIPAA
regulations regarding the manner in which information can be disclosed, which of the
following statements is true? A. Protected health information must be disclosed only when
the patient is unable to testify in a court proceeding. B. Protected health information may
never be disclosed. C. Protected health information may be disclosed in a judicial or
administrative proceeding if the request is made through an order from a court or
6. administrative tribunal. D. Protected health information may be disclosed only within a
deposition.73. The gatekeeper concept refers to the operation of A. ambulatory payment
surgery centers. B. prospective payment organizations. C. retrospective payment
organizations. D. health maintenance organizations.74. Which of the following procedures
would be performed to treat prostate cancer? A. Transurethral resection of the prostate
(TURP) B. Meniscectomy C. Vasoconstriction D. Arthroscopy75. What diagnosis code
would be assigned for a patient diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic
nephropathy? A. E11.21 B. E11.01 C. E11.22 D. E11.976. Another name for Medicare
Advantage is A. Medicare Part A. B. Medicare Part C. C. Medicare Part B. D. Medicare
Part D.77. The codes for pacemakers and implantable defibrillators would be found in
what section of CPT? A. 33200–33205 B. 33437–33537 C. 33202–33273 D. 33533–
3379978. A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain. She was
previously diagnosed with type I diabetes. She also complains of watery eyes, congestion,
pressure in the sinuses, and difficulty breathing. Her final diagnoses are right lower
quadrant abdominal pain, type I diabetes, acute sinusitis, and asthma. What CPT and ICD-
10-CM codes are assigned? A. 99222, R18.91, E16.9, J01.91, J45.919 B. 99221, R17.41,
E17.9, J01.90, J45.909 C. 99223, R14.31, E15.9, J01.90, J45.929 D. 99221, R10.31, E10.9,
J01.90, J45.90979. What is considered to be protected health information (PHI)? A. Any
health information that can identify the individual to whom it refers B. Records pertaining
to ancestry C. Statistical data compiled for research purposes only D. Census data80. In
what CPT code range is Surgical Pathology found? A. 88515–88598 B. 88300–88309 C.
88400–80499 D. 88000–8029981. The federal law that requires a patient’s written
consent prior to disclosure of certain medical information by government agencies is called
the A. Health Care Amendment of 1976. B. Privacy Act of 1974. C. Health Information
Law of 2002. D. Medical Consent Act of 1965.82. Data stored in a health care facility
must A. be organized in accordance with state standards for electronic data
interchange. B. adhere to OIG policies and procedures. C. conform to the physician’s
expectations for data storage. D. comply with HIPAA rules and must be maintained
securely.83. Under HIPAA, health care facilities must A. maintain a clean, safe working
environment. B. choose a privacy officer in accordance with HIPAA policies and
procedures. C. keep records of patients who refill prescriptions more than once within a
three-month timeframe. D. follow up with patients who repeatedly miss scheduled
appointments for mandatory services.84. What CPT code would be assigned for a
colpocentesis? A. 57135 B. 57859 C. 57600 D. 5702085. A patient is prescribed a
medication that narrows the blood vessels and raises her blood pressure. The medication is
most likely a A. tranquilizer. B. vasoconstrictor. C. cardiotonic. D. cardiogenic.86. If
patients choose to obtain copies of their medical records, under the terms of HIPAA,
providers can A. complete employee paperwork. B. charge a reasonable fee for providing
copies of those records. C. reschedule office visits to allow time to update medical
records. D. also fulfill requests for prescription data.87. According to the CMS National
Physician Fee Schedule, what is the conversion factor for basic life support mileage? A.
$34.5741 B. $32.4726 C. $28.8457 D. $36.066688. According to HIPAA, a patient’s
information may be released for A. determining premiums based on a patient’s past
7. medical history. B. paternity testing. C. research. D. transferring electronic medical
records to remote locations.89. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of fever, diarrhea,
nausea, and vomiting. The patient is diagnosed with salmonella meningitis. What ICD-10-
CM code would be assigned? A. A07.21 B. A02.21 C. A05.26 D. A23.2490. Which of the
following anatomical locations would contain the diaphysis? A. Metatarsal B. Tibia C.
Septum D. Diaphragm91. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of nausea, vomiting,
fever, dizziness, and intermittent confusion. The physician conducts a detailed history and
examination and reviews the patient’s lab results. The patient is diagnosed with
pyelonephritis and is scheduled for an ultrasound to review the state of the kidneys and
other organs. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? A. 76775-TC, N15 B. 71010-
26, B12 C. 76775-26, N10 D. 73256-TC, M1192. A female patient is diagnosed with breast
cancer of the lower-inner quadrant of the right breast. The patient undergoes a modified
radical mastectomy of the right breast in an attempt to circumvent the spread of the cancer
to any secondary anatomical sites. The procedure was performed in three stages. In
addition to the radical mastectomy, the physician also performed a right breast biopsy to
treat the breast tumor in the lower-inner quadrant. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes are
assigned? A. 15852-58, Z48.01 B. 19307-58-RT, 19101-59-RT, C50.311 C. 19307-RT,
19101-RT, C50.211 D. 11602, 15240, C50.31293. The concept of confidentiality can be
substantiated based on the right of A. easement. B. constitutionality. C. totality. D.
privacy.94. The abbreviation INH indicates what route of drug administration? A. Inhaled
and intrathecal administration B. Intrathecal injection C. Inhalant solution D. Inhaled and
intravenous administration95. A patient is seen in the physician’s office after the results of
an earlier mammogram demonstrated microcalcification in the right breast as well as a
breast lesion. The lesion is excised using needle localization. The patient’s final diagnosis is
fibrosclerosis of the right breast. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? A. 19123-
RT, H16.11 B. 19126-LT, M25.1 C. 19125-RT, N60.31 D. 19120-RT, L10.1196. What is
the code description for 65101-LT? A. Removal of ocular implant performed laterally B.
Biopsy of cornea performed on the lower third of the cornea C. Enucleation of eye, without
implant, performed on the left side of the body D. Fine needle aspiration of orbital contents
on the left third of the orbit97. The foramen ovale is found in which anatomical
location? A. Fibula B. Heart C. Liver D. Pancreas98. During a routine examination, a
patient indicates that she is taking an antihypertensive medication that causes her kidneys
to excrete more urine. These antihypertensive medications are called A. calcium-channel
blockers. B. anticoagulants. C. diuretics. D. beta blockers.99. Code range 99231–99233
pertains to A. initial hospital care. B. hospital discharge services. C. consultation
services. D. subsequent hospital care.100. A 7-year-old patient is seen in follow-up after
an earlier diagnosis of excessive daytime sleepiness. The physician obtains a sleep study
and then reviews and interprets the results. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are
assigned? A. 95810-26, R40.0 B. 95811-TC, J14.0 C. 95815-TC, G45.0 D. 95812-26,
H40.0101. If a physician provides preoperative management only to a patient prior to
surgery, which modifier would be added to the surgery code? A. -56 B. -44 C. -32 D. -
91102. The HIPAA Privacy Rule indicates that A. restrictions on information disclosure
exist only for patients with life-threatening illnesses. B. the level of information disclosure
8. permitted is based on the nature of the procedure. C. practitioners should disclose only the
minimum amount of health information necessary for the purpose of the disclosure. D.
physicians may release medical information at their own discretion.103. The
atrioventricular (tricuspid) valve is located in the A. fibula. B. lung. C. heart. D.
brain.104. A physician is analyzing specific organs in a particular region of the patient’s
body. In her notes, she refers to the transverse or cross-sectional plane, which divides the
body A. horizontally. B. vertically. C. inferiorly. D. bilaterally.105. A health care
practitioner who knowingly submits false statements to obtain federal health care
reimbursement is guilty of A. Medicare fraud. B. DHS claim misrepresentation. C. Health
Insurance Privacy and Portability misuse. D. Medicaid omission.106. According to the
guidelines for medical records outlined in the Health Insurance Portability and
Accountability Act (HIPAA), patients A. have the right to have errors reviewed by a
hospital administrator. B. do not have the right to have errors corrected, as the data has
been previously verified by the physician. C. have the right to have errors in their medical
records corrected. D. have the right to correct errors in identification data only.107. The
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) standards were developed
to A. ensure that coders could easily access each medical record. B. determine the
structure of insurance carrier payments for health care practitioners. C. protect patient
confidentiality when health information is transferred electronically. D. define XLTM
standards for health records management.108. A coder would assign modifier -53 to
report A. procedures cancelled due to the patient’s condition. B. anesthesia
administration. C. dental procedures. D. repeat procedures.109. A patient is diagnosed
with breast cancer and undergoes a partial mastectomy. What CPT code would be
assigned? A. 19305 B. 19301 C. 19304 D. 19307110. Which of the following anesthesia
modifiers indicates a normal, healthy patient? A. P1 B. P4 C. P3 D. P2111. A coder
searching for codes pertaining to tissue expanders would find them in what section of
CPT? A. 16200–16799 B. 12000–12300 C. 11960–11971 D. 15000–15999112. A
patient comes to the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain, nausea, and
intractable vomiting. Unable to pinpoint the source of the patient’s complaints, the
physician decides to admit the patient to the hospital. After conducting a complete history
and examination, the patient’s final diagnosis is determined to be chronic duodenal ulcer.
The patient remains hospitalized for three days. The physician sees the patient on the day of
discharge. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned? A. 99223, I48.91 B. 99238, K26.7 C.
99234, N17.9 D. 99291, D63.1113. What is the code for excision of Meckel’s
diverticulum? A. 44820 B. 44700 C. 44800 D. 44850114. The Health Insurance
Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) was created for the purpose of A. modifying
legal and ethical issues surrounding medical records retention. B. stabilizing
administrative costs and productivity. C. decreasing employee turnover and reducing the
volume of new hire paperwork. D. streamlining claims processing and reducing paperwork
through electronic transmission.115. The voluntary program that’s financed through a
combination of payments from general federal revenues and premiums paid by
beneficiaries who elect to participate is called A. CHAMPVA. B. Medicare Part B. C.
Medicaid. D. TRICARE.116. The I-10 helps coders classify patient A. management
9. information. B. morbidity and mortality. C. evaluation files. D. reimbursement
data.117. A patient recently became eligible for health insurance through her employer.
Her health insurance is considered to be an 80-20 policy. Under the terms of an 80-20
policy, the insurer pays 80 percent and the insured pays 20 percent of expenses. This 80-20
policy is an example of A. coinsurance. B. capitation. C. prospective payment. D. case
management.118. Performing a daily check for viruses and malware is one of the A.
requirements of the Help Desk. B. routine aspects of software maintenance. C. sensible
guidelines for Internet use in health care facilities. D. functions of HIM
encoders.119. Bones inside the nose are called A. septal mucosa. B. maxillae. C.
turbinates. D. ethmoids.120. A group of doctors who belong to the same network and
provide discounted services to enrollees is called a/an A. Managed Care Organization
(MCO). B. Individual Practice Association (IPA). C. Health Maintenance Organization
(HMO). D. Preferred Provider Organization (PPO).121. A female patient is seen for her
annual gynecological examination. During the examination, the physician performs a test to
detect cervical cancer. This test is called a/an A. Pap smear. B. carcinoembryonic antigen
test. C. mycobacterial culture. D. immunoassay test.122. Businesses that provide support
services, like administration, to individual physicians are called A. integrated provider
organizations. B. medical foundations. C. management services organizations. D.
physician-hospital organizations123. What is the full code description for 33536? A.
Repair of double outlet right ventricle with intraventricular tunnel repair B. Repair of
postinfarction ventricular septal defect, with or without myocardial resection C. Closure of
atrioventricular valve (mitral or tricuspid) by suture or patch D. Coronary artery bypass,
using arterial graft(s); 4 or more coronary arterial grafts124. The CPT code for
thrombolysis is A. 93000. B. 92920. C. 93797. D. 92975.125. Which of the following
statements is true of the Affordable Care Act? A. It offers parents supplementary coverage
for dependents with chronic illness. B. It makes it mandatory for patients to carry health
insurance. C. It includes a provision for military service members who served in
Afghanistan. D. It requires health care facilities to maintain health records for at least 10
years.126. A qualifying circumstance indicates a A. situation that makes anesthesia
administration more difficult. B. condition that reduces the average recovery time for a
particular type of surgery. C. situation that may extend a patient’s length of stay in the
hospital setting. D. condition that impacts the outcome of surgery.127. The portion of
health insurance that an insured pays before he or she is entitled to receive benefits from an
insurance plan is called the A. capitation. B. OPPS reimbursement. C. coinsurance. D.
deductible.128. A good compliance program in the health care setting includes A. regular
audit consultations with trustees of the AAPC. B. HHS surveillance. C. meetings with
compliance officers. D. regular tracking and monitoring of coding activities.129. A 55-
year-old patient was injured while working as a carpenter on a construction site. While
framing the roof of a two-story house, he fell and hit his head. He was diagnosed with a
concussion to the left side of his head, and underwent a right frontal parietal craniotomy
with removal of a subdural hematoma. During the patient’s period of recovery, he was given
a medication that resulted in a rash on his abdomen. The physician conducted an expanded
problem focused history and exam, with straightforward medical decision making. What
10. CPT code(s) should be assigned? A. 99253 B. 99252 C. 99292, 99291 D.
99251130. During a routine examination, a male patient is diagnosed with an elevated PSA.
The physician performs a biopsy of the prostate with a rectal ultrasound to pinpoint the
source of the problem. Which CPT and ICD-10-CM codes would be assigned? A. 55720,
74000-26, R97.3 B. 55700, 76872-26, R97.2 C. 55734, 73200-26, R97.2 D. 55725, 76000-
26, R93.6131. When is code 58120 assigned? A. The code is assigned for a patient
undergoing dilatation and curettage. B. The code has been deleted and cannot be
assigned. C. The code is assigned for permanent pacemaker insertion. D. The code is
assigned as an add-on code.132. A patient is seen for 167 minutes of critical care. What
CPT codes would be assigned? A. 99291, 99292 × 4 B. 99291, 99292 × 2 C. 99291, 99292
× 3 D. 99291, 99292 × 5133. The prefix endo- means A. outside of. B. within. C.
beneath. D. adjacent to.134. A patient comes to the emergency room after having dinner
at a restaurant, where she began to experience chest tightness during the meal. She is seen
for a cardiology consultation in the outpatient setting for a diagnosis of chest tightness.
Which CPT and ICD-10-CM codes would be assigned? A. 99243, R25.96 B. 99242,
R17.52 C. 99244, R07.59 D. 99245, R07.89135. The prefix sub- means A. above. B.
horizontal. C. under. D. lateral.136. What CPT code range is used to code for a limited
lymphadenectomy? A. 38700–38780 B. 38562–38564 C. 39501–39599 D. 37501–
37650137. The process of removing tissue for histopathology is called A. excision. B.
shaving. C. debridement. D. biopsy.138. Which of the following anatomical locations
would contain the superior vena cava? A. Heart B. Nose C. Hip D. Lungs139. A patient
is seen in the office for complaints of dizziness and insomnia. The physician records a
chronological description of specific elements of the patient’s condition. This chronological
description is called the A. chief complaint. B. review of systems. C. examination. D.
history of present illness.140. A patient comes to the physician’s office complaining of neck
irritation. The physician examines her neck and notes that she has a 15 cm neck scar. Upon
further examination, the physician notes that the neck scar requires extensive debridement
and retention sutures. The physician performs a dermabrasion to treat the neck scar and
then closes the complex wound with the sutures. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are
assigned? A. 13132, 13133 × 3, H81.09, L92.9 B. 13133-51, 13131-79, L60.0 C. 13132,
13133 × 2, L90.5 D. 13132, L76.82141. The first step in EHR implementation is A.
analyzing the content of the traditional medical record. B. conducting an assessment of the
goals, needs, and financial stability of the health care practice. C. structuring the timeline
for EHR implementation. D. reviewing the list of established patients currently being seen
in the practice.142. A patient is seen in follow-up two weeks after undergoing
cholecystectomy. During the follow-up examination, the physician notes that the abdominal
wound has not yet healed. The patient undergoes a split-thickness autograft due to a
nonhealing left lower abdominal wound that’s 10 square centimeters. Which CPT and ICD-
10-CM codes would be assigned? A. 15200, L85.64 B. 15250, L34.74 C. 15350, L52.64 D.
15100, L76.82143. A patient is diagnosed with severe sepsis and septic shock after
experiencing a severe drop in blood pressure. What ICD-10-CM code would be
assigned? A. T79.4 B. T81.12 C. R65.21 D. R65.10144. A patient has a disorder in
which the bone marrow produces an overabundance of white blood cells. What is this
11. disorder called? A. Septicemia B. Coagulation C. Leukemia D. Hemophilia145. Which
modifier indicates a staged or related procedure performed during the postoperative
period? A. -59 B. -54 C. -57 D. -58146. The Female Genital System subsection covers
which CPT code range? A. 56203–56303 B. 56405–58999 C. 56607–56809 D. 56300–
56499147. A patient with numerous symptoms is seen in the laboratory for a general
health panel to gauge her overall physical well-being. What CPT code would be assigned for
a general health panel? A. 82136 B. 84135 C. 80051 D. 80050148. A patient undergoes
a sigmoidoscopy. The coder would assign CPT code A. 45919. B. 45852. C. 45330. D.
45397.149. Code 71030-TC indicates a/an A. complete chest x-ray, four views, technical
component only. B. incomplete chest x-ray, three views, technical and professional
component. C. complete chest x-ray, two views, technical component only. D. incomplete
chest x-ray, two views, technical and professional component.150. Health care
practitioners must maintain records of privacy policy practices and procedures for A. 2
years. B. 20 years. C. 6 years. D. 10 months.