Samples of Competitive Examination Questions: Part XXXXXX

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Ali I. Al-Mosawi

كتاب (نماذج أسئلة الإمتحان التنافسي/ إعداد علي إبراهيم الموسوي) الجزء الستون: ماجستير بستنة قسم البستنة وهندسة الحدائق كلية الزراعة جامعة البصرة ... ماجستير طرائق تدريس التربية الفنية كلية التربية الأساسية الجامعة المستنصرية ... ماجستير أحياء مجهرية كلية الطب جامعة بابل ... دكتوراه أحياء مجهرية كلية الطب جامعة بابل.

59‫اﻟﺗﻧﺎﻓﺳﻲ‬ ‫اﻹﻣﺗﺣﺎن‬ ‫أﺳﺋﻠﺔ‬ ‫ﻧﻣﺎذج‬~~~~~~~‫اﻟﻣوﺳوي‬ ‫إﺑراھﯾم‬ ‫ﻋﻠﻲ‬
‫اﻟﻔﺻل‬:‫ﺧطﺄ‬!‫اﻟﻣﺳﺗﻧد‬‫ﻓﻲ‬‫اﻟﻣﻌﯾن‬‫اﻟﻧﻣط‬‫ﻣن‬‫ﻧص‬‫ﯾوﺟد‬‫ﻻ‬.
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-‫راه‬‫د‬
‫ا‬‫ن‬‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬ ‫ا‬‫ن‬‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬
‫اد‬‫إ‬
‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
‫اد‬‫إ‬
‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬2
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬3
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬4
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬5
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬6
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬7
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬8
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬9
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬10
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬11
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬12
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬13
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬14
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬15
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬16
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬17
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬18
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬19
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬20
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬21
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬22
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬23
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬24
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬25
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬26
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬27
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬28
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬29
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬30
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬31
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

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‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

1
Answer all of the following questions by putting a circle around the most
appropriate answer: (1 mark each, 60 marks total)
1) Psychrophilic bacteria are those which grow best:
A. In oxygen-free environments
B. At pH levels of 8 or above
C. At cold temperatures
D. Only in the presence of viruses
2) The laboratory medium for bacteria can be enriched by:
A. Adding ATP B. Adding blood
C. Including salt in the medium D. Increasing the level of potassium
3) Microaerophilic bacteria are distinguished by their ability to grow:
A. In high concentration of salt
B. In low concentration of oxygen
C. Without ATP or glucose
D. Only in the presence of viruses
4) Which of the following dyes is used in Gram stain technique:
A. Methylene blue and Congo red B. Nigrosin and Carbol fuchsin
C. Safranin and Crystal violet D. Congo red and safranin
5) Most human pathogens are grow best in laboratory culture media when
incubated at:
A. 15-20 °C B. 30-37 °C
C. 38-50 °C D. 50-55 °C
6) Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotes except:
A. DNA lacking a nuclear membrane
B. Chromosome number is one
C. Size of ribosome (70S)
D. Cell wall not containing peptidoglycan
7) Which of the following bacterial structures is most involved in adherence:
A. Capsule B. Lipopolysaccharide
C. Ordinary pili D. O-specific side-chain
8) Which of the following are incapable to produce toxins in the body:
A. Gram-positive bacteria B. Gram-negative bacteria
C. Bacterial rods D. Viruses
9) A pure culture is a culture in which:
A. Only one species of microorganism is present
B. Only one nutrient is required by the bacterium
C. Only one organism other than the main organism is present
D. There are no waste products in the culture.
10) Haemolysins:
A. Permit penetration of microorganisms through the tissues
B. Destroy red blood cells
C. Destroy white blood cells
D. cause spasms of the muscles.
11) Pasteurization of milk using heat accomplishes
A. Killing all microbes in the milk
B. Reduction in the total number of organisms but no reduction or elimination
of pathogens in the milk
C. Elimination of mesophilic and thermophilic bacteria but no reduction in
psychrotrophs
D. Killing all potential pathogens in milk except Mycobacterium tuberculosis
‫ﺃ‬‫ﺳﺌﻠﺔ‬‫ﺍﻟﺘﻨﺎﻓﺴﻲ‬ ‫ﺍﻹﻣﺘﺤﺎﻥ‬/‫ﻣ‬‫ﺎﺟﺴﺘﲑ‬‫ﻟﻠﻌﺎﻡ‬ ‫ﺑﺎﺑﻞ‬ ‫ﺟﺎﻣﻌﺔ‬ ‫ﺍﻟﻄﺐ‬ ‫ﻛﻠﻴﺔ‬ ‫ﳎﻬﺮﻳﺔ‬ ‫ﺃﺣﻴﺎء‬2010
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E. Reduction in the total number of microbes and elimination of potential
pathogens in the milk
12) Gram-negative bacteria are typically less susceptible to penicillin than are
Gram-positive bacteria because
A. They lack a transport system for penicillin
B. They lack teichoic acids in the cell wall
C. They lack peptidoglycan in their cell wall
D. Their peptidoglycan is chemically modified to be resistant to attack by
penicillin
E. Their outer membrane is an effective permeability barrier to penicillin.
13) The temperature and time necessary to sterilize a substance in the autoclave is
A. 72o
/30 minutes B. 100o
/30 minutes
C. 121o
/15 minutes D. 160o
/2 hours
E. 180o
/1 hour
14) Which tissue in a human is free from colonization by microbes (normal flora)
because the organisms lack normal access to the tissue?
A. blood (vascular system) B. colon
C. stomach D. lower respiratory tract
E. urinary tract (urethra)
15) The main carrier site on the human body for strains of potentially pathogenic
Neisseria meningitidis is the
A. nasal membranes B. throat (posterior nasopharynx)
C. oral cavity D. gastrointestinal tract
E. vagina
16) The predominant bacteria in the mouth, GI tract (colon), and skin,
respectively, are
A. staphylococci, streptococci, and corynebacteria
B. streptococci, E. coli, and staphylococci
C. lactic acid bacteria, Bacteroides, and staphylococci
D. staphylococci, E. coli, and streptococci
E. neisseriae, enterococci, and clostridia
17) In the pathogenesis of Helicobacter pylori what is the colonization site in the
host?
A. nasal sinuses B. stomach
C. lower intestine D. throat E. respiratory tract
18) The main effect of E. coli and Vibrio cholerae enterotoxin on host cells of
the gastrointestinal tract that leads to the pathology of the diseases, is to
A. inhibit protein synthesis
B. cause fluid and electrolyte imbalance
C. cleave host cell membranes
D. act as superantigens to trigger an overwhelming immunological reaction
E. initiate a localized inflammatory response in the intestine.
19) R plasmids are medically important because they:
A- encode for enterotoxin production.
B- carry genes specifying resistance to certain antibiotics.
C- convert non-pathogenic bacteria to pathogens.
D- can transform eukaryotic cells into tumor cells.
E- cause certain types of bacterial diseases.
20) An E. coli strain that requires the amino acid lysine for growth is termed a/an
A- prototroph B- autotroph
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C- lysotroph D- auxotroph E- prototype
21) Which of the following is cocci:
A- Klebsiella B- Closteridium
C- Mycobacterium D- Neisseria
22) Which of the following is Gram-positive:
A- Staph aureus B- Closteridium tetani
C- Corynebacterium D- All of the above
23) Peptidoglycan is more in the cell wall of:
A- Parasites B- Gram-negative bacteria
C- Viruses D- Gram-positive bacteria
24) Bacteria were first observed and described by:
A- Robert Koch B- Louis Pasteur
C- Lister D- Leeuwenhock
25) Which of the following bacteria form spores:
A- Klebsiella pneumoniae B- Clost. perfringens
C- Coryn. diphtheriae D- N. gonorrhoeae
26) Number of chromosomes in bacteria is:
A- Four B- Three
C- Two D- One
27) Most of the medically important bacteria are:
A- Mesophilic B- Thermophilic
C- Psychrophilic D- All of the above.
28) Bacteria which can grow in absence of O2 are:
A- Strict aerobes B- Facultative anaerobes
C- Strict anaerobes D- Microaerophiles
29) Following diseases are transmitted by sexual contact Except:
A- Soft core B- Syphilis
C- Hepatitis-A D- Gonorroea
30) Which of the following culture media used for isolation of Staph. aureus:
A- Mannitol salt agar B- TCBS medium
C- MacConkey's agar D- L-J medium
31) Infection acquired in hospital setting is referred as:
A- Hospital infection B- Hospital acquired infection
C- Nosocomial infection D- All of these
32) Sporulation of bacteria occurs in:
A- Lag phase B- Log phase
C- Stationary phase D- decline phase.
33) Which of the following is the organ of locomotion in bacteria:
A- Pili B- Cilia
C- Flagella D- Pseudopodia.
34) Which of the following is prokaryotes:
A- Slime molds B- Blue-green algae
C- Protozoa D- None of these
35) Which of the following is abscent in prokaryotes::
A- chromosome B- Muramic acid
C- Chlorophyll D- None of these
36) All of the following represent specific mechanism of body defense EXCEPT:
A. Opsonizing antibodies B. Stomach acid
C. ADCC D. IgM
37) The transplacental immunoglobulin is:
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A. IgG B. IgG & IgM C. IgG & IgA
D. IgG & IgD E. None of the above.
38) Which type of immunoglobulin mediates the allergic reaction:
A-IgG B-IgA C-IgE D-IgM
39) Which of the following characteristics distinguishes B lymphocytes from other
mononuclear cells?
A-synthesis of antibodies B-antigen presentation and processing
C-large cytoplasmic granules D-production of cytokines
40) T-helper lymphocytes carry:
A-CD4 B-CD8 C-MHC I D-MHC-II
41) Classical pathway of complement activation is involved in:
A-innate immunity B-non-specific immunity
C-specific immunity D-natural immunity
42) The predominant type of immunoglobulins in the circulation and mucosal
layer during normal condition are:
A-IgG and S-IgA respectively B-IgG in both
C-IgG and IgA respectively D-IgM and S-IgA respectively
43) The main immunologic mechanism against intracellular infection is:
A-cell mediated immunity B-humoral iommunity
C-tolerance D-non of above
44) Which of the following can act as APCs:
A-neutrophile B-Tcells C-eosinophil D-dendritic cells
45) Which of the following is a secondary lymphoid organ:
A-spleen B-Liver C-thymus D-bone marrow
46) Delayed type hypersensitivity is represented by:
A-allergy B-arthus reaction C-tuberculosis D-cytolysis
47) HIV causes :
A-primary immunodeficiency B-secondary immunodeficiency
C-congenital immunodeficiency C-hypersensitivity
48) BCG is a:
A-Killed vaccine against Bordetella-Corynebacterium-Gonococci
B-Attenuated vaccine against Bordetella-Corynebacterium-Gonococci
C- Attenuated vaccine against Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D- Killed vaccine against Mycobacterium tuberculosis
49) memory is a characteristic feature of :
A-innate immunity B-specific immunity C-natural immunity D-neutrophile
50) Drug like penicillins can induce immune response by acting as:
A-hapten B-complete immunogen C-complete antigen D-allergen.
51) Natural (innate) immunity include all the following points except:
A- is specific B- All the physical barrier
C- is non-specific D- Digestive enzymes
52) Macrophage is important in the following except:
A- Activation of immune system B- Natural (innate) immunity
C- Specific immunity D- None of above
53) Vaccine is important in the following except:
A- Activation of specific immunity
B- Activation of non-specific immunity
C- Education of T lymphocyte
D- Education of B lymphocyte
54) Primary lymphoid system include all the following except:
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A- Bursa of fabricioius B- Bone marrow
C- Spleen D- All the above
55) Humoral immunity include all the following except:
A- Immunoglobulins B- Helper T cells
C- B-cells D- Plasma cells
56) Which of the following infection routes is most often involved in the neonatal
transmission of hepatitis B virus (HBV)?
A. Blood transfusion
B. Fetal contact with infected blood during childbirth
C. Ingestion of the virus via maternal breast milk
D. Transmission of the virus from hospital personnel during childbirth
E. None of the above.
57) Viral family most commonly causing septic meningitis:
A. Orthomyxovirus B. Arboviruses C. Herpes viruses
D. Enteroviruses E. Rhabdoviruses.
58) Concerning viral surface proteins, identify the NOT CORRECT statement:
A. They protect the genetic material against nucleases.
B. They elicit antibody that neutralize infectivity of the virus.
C. They participate in active transport of nutrients across the viral envelope
membrane
D. They determine the species specificity of the virus-cell interaction.
E. None of the above.
59) Concerning viruses, identify the NOT CORRECT statement of the following:
A. Viruses can reproduce only within cells
B. Viruses replicate by binary fission
C. Viruses replicate by binary fission
D. Neutralizing antibody is directed against proteins on the surface of the virus
E. The proteins on the surface of the virus mediate the entry of the virus into
the host cell.
60) Concerning interferon, identify the LEAST ACCURATE statement:
A. Interferons are synthesized only by virus-infected cells
B. Interferons inhibit a broad range of viruses, not just the virus that induced
the interferon
C. Synthesis of several host enzymes is induced by interferon in target cells
D. Interferons are proteins that influence host defenses in many ways, one of
which is the induction of an antiviral state
E. None of the above.
61) Which of the following viruses is NOT likely to establish chronic or latent
infection?.
A. herpes simplex virus B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Hepatitis A virus D. Cytomegalovirus E. Rabies virus
62) Each of the following statements concerning viral serotypes is correct
EXCEPT:
A. in naked nucleocapsid viruses, the serotype is usually determined by the
outer capsid proteins.
B. in enveloped viruses, the serotype is usually determined by the outer
envelope proteins, especially the spike proteins
C. Some viruses have multiple serotypes
D. Some viruses have an RNA polymerase that determines the serotype
E. Serotypes can be diagnosed by serological tests.
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63) Most DNA viruses replicate in nucleus except:
A- Cytomegalovirus B- Hepatitis virus
C- Pox virus D- Herpes virus
64) Mode of Acyclovir action:
A- Inhibition of early events of viral replication
B- Inhibition of viral protein synthesis
C- Inhibition of viral N.A. synthesis
D- Inhibition of viral release.
65) Which of the following tumors is caused by Epstein-Barr virus?
A- Skin warts B- Kaposi carsinoma
C- Burkits lymphoma D- Genital condyloma
66) The following virus family contains a human cancer virus with an RNA
genome:-
A-Adenoviridae. B-Herpesviridae. C-Hepadnaviridae.
D-Papillomaviridae. E-Flaviviridae.
67) The organ most commonly exhibiting signs of mumps is:-
A-Lungs. B-Ovary. C-Parotid glands.
D-Skin. E-Testes.
68) For which of the following paramyxoviruses is there an effective vaccine
available that would prevent pneumonia?
A-Parainfluenza v type 1. B-Measles v.
C-Respiratory syncytial v. D-Mumps v. E-All of the above.
69) Influrnza is characterized by which of the following symptoms?
A-Fever. B-Muscular aches. C-Malaise.
D-Dry cough. E-All of the above.
70) The principal reservoir for the antigenic shift variants of influenza virus
appears to be which of the following?
A-Chronic human carriers of the virus. B-Sewage.
C-Pigs ,horses,and fowl. D-Mosquitoes. E-Rodents.
71) Arboviruses are transimitted by bloodsucking arthropods from one vertebrate
host to another.Arboviruses are found in the following virus families except:
A-Togaviridae. B-Flaviviridae.
C-Bunyaviridae. D-Reoviridae. E-Arenaviridae.
72) This virus is the most important cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young
children.It causes infections that are often severe and may be life-threatening ,
especially in infants:-
A-Echovirus. B-Norwalk virus. C-Rotavirus ,group A.
D-Orbivirus. E-Parvovirus.
73) Which of the following is an example of virus that enters through skin
abrasions?
A-Adinovirus. B- Enfluenza virus. C-Rotavirus
D-Rhinovirus. E-Papillovirus.
74) Virus is composed of the following except:
A-Cell wall B-Capsid.
C-Genome. D-matrix proteins
75) Which of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to
be life-long?
A- Passive immunity B- Passive active immunity
C- Active immunity D- cell-mediated immunity
76) The main agent that causes Amoebiasis:
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
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A- Entamoeba coli B- Entamoeba histolytica
C- Entamoeba gingivalis D- Entamoeba dispar
77) Kala-azar is caused by:
A- Leishmania donovani B- Trypanosoma
C- Entamoeba D- Toxoplasma
78) Malaria parasite is transmitted by:
A- sand fly B- Mosquitoes
C- House fly D- Ticks
79) One of the following statements is incorrect:
A- Giardia can cause giardiasis in man
B- Dog is the definitive host for hydatid cyst worm
C- Man is the definitive host for malaria
D- Cat is the definitive host for Toxoplasma.
80) Trichomoniasis is caused by:
A- Trichomonas tenax B- Trichomonas hominis
C- Trichomonas vaginalis D- All the above
81) Pin worm is the common name of :
A- Ascaris B- Enterobius vermicularis
C- Entamoeba D- Ancylostoma duodenale
82) Which of the following parasites contain two nuclei
A- Balantidium coli B- Trichomonas
C- Entamoeba D- Leishmania
83) Hook worm is:
A- Ascaris B- Ancylostoma
C- Taenia D- Fasciola
84) Urinary Bilharizia is caused by:
A- Fasciola B- Balantidium
C- Schistosoma haematobium D- Entamoeba dispar
85) Malignant malaria is caused by:
A- Plasmodium vivax B- Plasmodium falciparum
C- Plasmodium malariae D- Plasmodium ovale
86) Tape worm is;
A- Sporozoa B- Cestoda
C- Trematoda D- Nematoda
87) Sarcodina is motile by:
A- Flagella B- Cilia
C- Pseudopodia D- None of above
88) The mode of reproduction in Giardia is by:
A- Binary fission B- Conjugation
C- Both A and B D- Non A, non B
89) The drug of choice for treatment of malaria is:
A- Oxytetracycline B- Chloroquine
C- Flagyl D- meBendazole.
90) Malaria parasite takes up residence in human:
A- red blood cells B- Saliva
C- White blood cells D-Lymph nodesd
91) The sample used for recovery of Entamoeba histolytica:
A- Blood B- Stool
C- White blood cells D-Lymph nodes
92) The infective stage in leishmaniasis:
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A- Sporozoite B- Cyst
C- Promastigote D- Amastigote
93) Blood film done for malaria patient is stained by:
A- Gram stain B- Albert stain
C- Negative stain D- Giemsa stain
94) One of the following parasites is non-pathogenic to man:
A- Schistosoma B- Toxoplasma gondii
C- Entamoeba coli D- Trichomonas vaginalis
95) Sexual cycle of malaria parasite occurs in:
A- Human body B- Mosquitoe
C- Both in A and B D- Non A, Non B
96) Which of the following is a component of fungal cell wall:
A- Teichoic acid B- Lipopolysaccharide
C- Chitin D- Peptidoglycan
97) KOH is used in direct microscopic examination of specimen for fungal
because:
A- It digests keratin B- It is a disinfectant
C- It stains fungal element D- It avoids drying
98) Function of vegetative mycelium is:
A- Nutritive B- Reproductive
C- Both A and B D- None of them
99) Fungal spores formed by fragmentation of hyphae are called:
A- Arthrospores B- Blastospores
C- Chlamydospores D- Basidiospores
100) Budding is seen in:
A- candida albicas B- Dermatophytes
C- Aspergillus D- Mucor
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Answer all of the following questions by putting a circle around the most
appropriate answer: (1 mark each, 60 marks total)
1) Which of the following is NOT part of bacterial cell wall:
A. Peptidoglycan B. Lipid A
C. LPS D. Ribosome
2) Which of the following types of media would be used to isolate halophilic
bacteria:
A. Minimal growth media B. Complex growth media
C. Differential growth media D. Selective growth media
3) The ribosome of prokaryotic cell:
A. Are found in the nucleus
B. Exist free in the cytoplasm
C. Are located along the endoplasmic reticulum
D. Can be seen with light microscope
4) The degree of pathogenicity in microorganism is defined as its:
A. Toxemia B. Intoxication
C. Endemic potential D. Virulence
5) Each of the following structures are related to bacterial virulence factor
except:
A. Capsule B. Intracellular inclusions
C. Leukocidin D. Haemolysin
6) Bacterial murein is a polymer consisting of the following chemical
constituents:
A. lipopolysaccharide and protein B. lipoprotein and teichoic acids
C. amino sugars and amino acids D. phospholipids and protein
E. polyglycerol or polyribitol substituted with various sugars and amino acids
7) The occurrence of what enzyme adapts certain aerobic bacteria to life in the
presence of O2?
A. nitrogenase B. RUBP carboxylase
C. catalase D. superoxide dismutase E. Two of the above
8) Bacterial growth in a chemostat (continuous culture) relieves the
environmental conditions that restrict exponential growth by
A. continuously supplying nutrients to the cells for growth
B. continuous removal of waste substances from the medium
C. constant removal of cells from the culture medium
D. none of the above
E. all of the above
9) During heterotrophic respirations in procaryotes
A. the TCA cycle is employed for the complete oxidation of an organic
substrate
B. ATP is produced by the process of electron transport phosphorylation
C. ATP (or GTP) is produced by the process of substrate-level
phosphorylation
D. oxygen may not be used as a final electron acceptor
E. all of the above
10) A chemical substance found in bacterial endospores that is not found in
vegetative cells is
A. diaminopimelic acid B. dipicolinic acid
C. ketodeoxyoctonoic acid D. D-glutamate E. L-lysine
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11) The antimicrobial activity of the sulfa drugs (e.g. sulfanilamide, trimethoprim)
is due to
A. interference with procaryotic vitamin metabolism
B. disruption of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria
C. interference with DNA synthesis
D. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
E. inhibition of protein synthesis
12) Ethambutol, isoniazid (INH) and para-amino-salicylic acid (PAS), used in the
treatment of tuberculosis, are examples of
A. antiseptics B. chemotherapeutic agents
C. broad-spectrum antibiotics D. narrow spectrum antibiotics
E. none of the above
13) Two important features of bacterial cells that make them selective targets for
the action of most clinically-useful antibiotics are
A. absence of mitochondria and chloroplasts
B. cell wall composition and ribosome structure
C. presence of saturated fatty acids and absence of sterols in membranes
D. DNA (chromosome) structure and absence of a nuclear membrane
E. size and type of nutrition
14) Chemical modification of the substituent groups of a naturally-produced beta
lactam molecule leads to the industrial development of
A. semisynthetic penicillins B. sulfa drugs
C. tetracyclines D. chloramphenicol
E. beta lactamase enzymes
15) The selective toxicity of rifamycin is achieved on this basis.
A. It specifically inhibits an enzyme involved in an early step in the synthesis
of bacterial murein.
B. It combines with yeast sterols (ergosterol) and thereby disrupts membranes.
C. It binds selectively to the bacterial ribosome and blocks peptide bond
formation between amino acids during the translation process.
D. It transfers ADP-ribose from NAD to eukaryotic Elongation Factor 2
thereby inhibiting its activity during protein synthesis.
E. It blocks the activity of bacterial, but not eukaryotic, RNA polymerase.
16) Schaeffer–Fulton stain is an example of :
A- Capsule stain B- Flagellar stain
C- Spore stain D- Simple stain
17) Each of the following methods is used for estimation of protein concentration
Except:
A- Lowry method B- biuret method
C- Sheffield method D- Bradford method
18) The role of clinical microbiologist in identification of a specific etiologic
agent includes each of the following except:
A-The type and timing of specimens to be collected.
B- Prescription of appropriate therapy to patients
C-Microbial detection and isolation.
D- Determination of microbial susceptibility to antimicrobial agents.
19) For antibiotic susceptibility testing (disk diffusion test), the optimal number of
antibiotic disks applied to the agar plate is;
A- Four B- Five C- Six D- Eight
20) Covac's reagent is used in which one of the following biochemical tests?
A- Voges-Proskauer test B- Oxidase production test
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C- Uraese production test. D- Indole production test
21) the ELISA test can be used for the diagnosis of toxoplasmosis as:
A-confirmatory tests B-less sensitive test
C-screening test D-both A&C
22) Kahn test is a serologic test for the diagnosis of :
A-syphilis B-Bordetella C-Corynebacterium D-Clostridium.
23) the specificity of serologic test means:
A-ability to detect very small quantities of antigens
B- ability to detect very small quantities of antibodies
C- the ability of the test to identify the infectious agent with no false
positive results
D-non of the above
24) the level of IFN-γ increases during
A-intracellular infection B-extra cellular infection
C-humoral immune response D-toxigenic bacterial infection
25) the window period refers to :
A-period after acute infection before the chronic stage
B-period after infection but prior to Ab production
C-period of chronic infection
D-period of persisting IgG
26) The final outcome of most host-parasite relationships is dependent on
A- the number of organisms present in or on the host
B- the virulence of the organism
C- the host's defenses
D- all of these
E- Two of the above
27) Which of the following areas of the human body are normally free of
microorganisms?
A-Lower respiratory tract B-kidneys
C-eyes D-all of these E-just A and B
28) If an animal undergoes infection by a pathogenic bacterium:
A. infectious disease will inevitably result
B. infectious disease will result only if the bacterium is virulent
C. infectious disease will result if the bacterium is invasive
D. infectious disease will result unless the host is immune
E. whether infectious disease will occur depends upon many properties of both
the bacterium and the host.
29) The most important benefit that the human gastrointestinal flora provide for
their host is:
A. digestion of dietary cellulose
B. production of endotoxin that produces toxemia
C. production of dietary protein
D. antagonism against colonization by potential pathogens
E. production of antibodies
30) The portion of the bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that is responsible for
the toxicity of the molecule is:
A. lipid A B. lipoteichoic acid
C. O polysaccharide D. Omp A
E. N-acetylglucosamine (NAG)
31) A reason not to administer beta lactam antibiotics for a Gram-negative
septicemia (blood-borne infection), unless there is no other alternative, is
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A. the antibiotic eliminates the normal flora
B. beta lactam antibiotics are ineffective against Gram-negative bacteria
C. the lysis of bacterial cells increases the activity of bacterial LPS
D. Complement activation cannot occur in the presence of the antibiotic
E. the antibiotic suppresses the immune response necessary to eliminate the
pathogen.
32) Which is one of the most common bacterial infections of humans?
A- Streptococcal pneumonia B- pharyngitis
C- tuberculosis D- whooping cough
33) Some bacteria do not require iron because:
A- Metabolism is strictly fermentative
B- Iron plays no role in their infection
C- Other metals are the cofactors of their enzymes
D- None of the above.
34) The mechanism of action of cholera toxin is similar to that of
A- Eneropathogenic E. coli B- Enerotoxogenic E. coli
C- Enerohemorrhagic E. coli D- Shigella sonnie
35) Which one of the following is an examples of phase variation in bacteria:
A- Production of diphtheria toxin by Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B- The specificity of O antigens in Salmonella
C- Production of botulinum toxin by Clostridium botulinum
D- Changing of Salmonella flagella in response to the immune systems' attack.
36) Which one of the following chemical makes the medium selective for Staph.
aureus:
A- 10% sodium chloride B- 8% sodium azide
C- 0.5% crystal violet D- 2% citric acid
37) Which one of the following organism causes scalded skin syndrome:
A- Strept. pyogenes B- R. rickettsiae
C- Bacillus subtilis D- Staph. aureus
38) Which test is used to detect the susceptibility to scarlet fever:
A- Schick test B- Dick test
C- Ascoli D- CAMP test
39) Which one of the following is virulence factor of gonococci:
A- O-antigen B- Pili
C- M-protein D- H-antigen
40) Which of the following test is used to identify Cl.welchii:
A- Elek's test B- Nagler reaction
C- String of pearls reaction D- Quellung reaction
41) Which of the following symptoms is seen in Cl. Botulinum food poisoning:
A- Diplopia B- Disphagia
C- Respirotary paralysis D- All of these
42) Which of the following bacterium shows bipolar staining:
A- Yersinia pestis B- Haemophilus ducreyi
C- Both of these D- None of these
43) In which week of enteric fever 90% blood cultures are positive:
A- First B- Second C- Third D- Fourth
44) ASO titer is associated with:
A- Staph. aureus B- Salmonella typhi
C- Strept. pyogenes D- Strept. pneumoniae
45) Following are the agent of non-specific urethritis except:
A- Mycoplasma hominis B- Chlamydia trachomatis
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C- Neisseria gonorrhoeae D- Cytomegalovirus
46) Each of the following statements concerning viral surface proteins is correct
Except:
A. They protect the genetic material against nucleases.
B. They elicit antibody that neutralize infectivity of the virus.
C. They participate in active transport of nutrients across the viral envelope
membrane
D. They determine the species specificity of the virus-cell interaction.
E. None of the above
47) Each of the following statements concerning viruses is correct Except:
A. Viruses can reproduce only within cells
B. Viruses replicate by binary fission
C. Neutralizing antibody is directed against proteins on the surface of the virus
D. The proteins on the surface of the virus mediate the entry of the virus into the
host cell.
48) Each of the following statements concerning interferon is correct Except:
A. Interferon inhibits the growth of both DNA and RNA viruses
B. Interferon is induced by double-stranded RNA
C. Interferon made by cells of one species act more effectively in the cells of
that species than in the cells of other species
D. Interferons acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell.
49) Each of the following statements concerning lysogeny is correct Except:
A. Viral genes responsible for lysis are repressed
B. Viral genes replicate independently of bacterial genes
C. Viral DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA
D. Some lysogenic bacteriophages encode toxins that cause human diseases.
50) Viroids:
A. Are defective viruses that are missing the DNA coding for the matrix protein
B. Consist of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat
C. Cause tumors in experimental animals
D. Require an RNA polymerase in the particle for replication to occur.
51) Which of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to
be life-long?
A- Passive immunity B- Passive active immunity
C- Active immunity D- cell-mediated immunity
52) Latency is an outcome particularly characteristics of which one of the
following virus group:
A- Polioviruses B- Herpes viruses
C- Rhinoviruses Influenza viruses
53) The ability of virus to produce disease can result from each of the following
mechanisms Except:
A. Cytopathic effect in infected cells
B. Malignant transformation of infected cells
C. Immune response to virus-induced antigens on the surface of infected cells
D. Production of exotoxin that activates adenylate cyclase.
54) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, Each of the following statements
concerning this fact is correct Except:
A. Viruses cannot generate energy outside of the cell
B. Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside of the cell
C. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides
D. Enveloped viruses require host cell membrane to obtain their envelopes.
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55) Each of the following statements concerning slow infections caused by
conventional viruses is correct Except:
A. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infects brain macrophages and
causes a “slow infection” manifested by dementia
B. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) occurs in individuals who were
infected with measeles virus several years earlier
C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy`(PML) is caused by a
papovavirus Infection with papovavirus is very common, but disease
occurs primarily in immunocompromised individuals.
D. in both PML and SSPE, the long latent period of the disease is attributed to
integration of the viral DNA into the host cell DNA
E. Rhabdoviruses were the causative of slow virus infection.
56) A primary immune response in an adult human produce detectable Ab levels
in the blood is approximately:
A. 3 weeks B. 1 week
C. 12 hours. D. 3 days
57) Craft and tumor rejection are mediated primarily by:
A. Phagocytic cell B. Cytotoxic cells
C. Helper T cells D. Non-complement-fixing antibodies.
58) Which class of antibody has the ability to across the placenta:
A- IgG B- IgA C- IgM D- IgE
59) Which one of the following substances is not released by activated helper T
cells:
A- Alpha interferon B- Gamma interferon
C- IL-2 D- IL-4
60) The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of complement
with:
A- Antigen B- Factor B
C- Antigen-IgG complex D- Bacterial LPS
61) Aids is caused by a human retrovirus that kills:
A- B-lymphocytes B- Lymphocyte stem cell
C- CD4+ T lymphocytes D- CD8+ T lymphocytes
62) The class of antibody present in highest concentration in the blood of human
newborn is:
A- IgG B- IgA C- IgM D- IgE E- IgD
63) Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cells must express which one of
the following on their surfaces:
A- IgE B- Gamma interferon
C- Class І MHC antigens D- Class ІІ MHC antigens
64) the designsation" MALT" refers to:
A-Monocyte Activating Lymphokine Tissue
B-lymphoid tissues of mucosa
C-vaccine against Measeles and Adenoviruses
D-Membrane Attack Lymphoid Tissues
65) Which of the following clinical features is not associated with immuno-
deficiency:
A-chronic inflammation B-skin rashes
C-diarrhea D-signs and symptoms of autoimmune diseases
66) the induction of SLE is mediated by:
A-allergic reaction B-cytotoxic
C-soluble immune complex D-cell mediated hypersensitivity
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67) Grave's disease is an example of which of the following immunologic
processes?
A-autoimmune disease associated with HLA –B27
B- autoimmune disease associated with HLA –DR3
C- immune deficiency associated with HLA –DR2
D- immune deficiency associated with HLA –DR4
68) the IL-12 is:
A-produced by dendritic cells and macrophages to activate NK cells
B- produced by NK cells to activate TH1 cells
C- produced by NK cells to activate TH2 cells
D- produced by NK cells to stimulate the immunoglobulin isotype switching
69) the IgG4 is induced during the infection with:
A-viruses B-Gram positive bacteria
C-Gram negative bacteria D-helminths
70) the CTLA-4 is expressed on:
A-APCs and enhances the immune response
B-TH cells and enhances the immune response
C- APCs and inhibits the immune response
D- TH cells and inhibits the immune responsee
71) Following are the surface fungal infections except:
A-Tinea versicolor B-Tinea nigra
C-Piedra D-Dermatophytosis
72) Fungal spores formed by fragmentation of hyphae are called:
A- Arthrospores B- Blastospores
C- Chlamydospores D- Basidiospores
73) Which of the following is the most common fungus involved in causation of
otomycosis:
A- Candida B- Mucor C- Aspergillus D- Cryptococcus
74) Tinea cruris is dermatophyte infection of:
A- Foot B- Nails C- Groin D- Head
75) Sterol is a component of cytoplasmic membrane in:
A- Rickettsia B- Fungi
C- Chlamydia D- Both B and C
76) Which of the following is the initiation codon:
A- UGA B- AGG C- AGA D- AUG
77) Which of the following enzymes catalyses the synthesis of DNA from RNA
template:
A- Endonuclease B- Transcriptase
C- Ligase D- Reverse transcriptase
78) Which of the following mechanisms amplifies genetic transfer:
A- Transformation B- Transposition
C- Translocation D- Transduction
79) Which of the following enzymes is used for cutting DNA at specific site:
A- Helicase B- Invertase
C- Endonuclease D- Reductase
80) Polymerase chain reaction is used for the detection of:
A- Antibody B- Antigen
C- Nucleic acid D- All of these
81) One of the following statements is incorrect:
A- Transduction is mediated by bacteriophge
B- Conjugation depends on fertility pilus
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C- Somatic pili is used for mating of bacteria
D- Competent cells are used for transformation
82) One of the following enzymes have no role uric acid biosynthesis:
A- Xanthine oxidase B- Adenosine deaminase
C- Nucleotidase D- Urease E- None of above
83) The enzyme produced normally in culture media without stimulation is called:
A- Inducible enzyme B- Constitutive enzyme
C- Coenzyme D- Cofactor E- Apoenzyme
84) The technique used for purification of proteins according to their molecular
weight is:
A- Gel filteration B- Ion-exchange chromatography
C- Gel electrophoresis D- PCR E- Salting-out
85) Proteolytic enzymes belong to:
A- Oxidoreductase B- Hydrolyase
C- Lyases D- Transferases E- Isomerases
86) Black water fever is caused by:
A- Leishmania donovani B- Plasmodium vivax
C- Plasmodium falciparum C- Leishmania braziliensis
E- Schistosoma haematobium
87) Probe is a small DNA piece which used in:
A- PCR B- cDNA C- FISH
D- All the above E- None of the above
88) Ori T is present in:
A- Chromosome B- Non-conjugative plasmids
C- Transposone D- Conjugative plasmids E- Insertion sequences
89) Steatorrhoea is associated with:
A- Amoebiasis B- Giardiasis
C- Balantidiasis D- Malaria
90) The common name of Trichuris trichura is:
A- Trichina worm B- Whip worm
C- Hook worm D- Pin worm E- Liver fluke
91) Nephrotic syndrome is seen mainly with:
A- Benign tertian malaria B- Malignant tertian malaria
C- Ovale malaria D- Quartan malaria
E- All the above
92) Which of the following parasites has a role in renal carcinoma;
A- Cryptosporidium parvum B- Schistosoma haematobium
C- Paragonimus westermanii D- Ancylostoma duodenale
E- Taenia solium
93) One of the following is not used as a cloning vector:
A- Phage B- Plasmid C- Insertion sequence
D- Cosmid E- Charon
94) All of the following statements concerning Insertion sequences are correct
except:
A- Has a role in DNA-DNA attachment
B- Has no function
C- Present within transposone structure
D- Present within cDNA component
E- Has a role in conjugation
95) Cysticercosis is caused by:
A- Larva of Taenia solium
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B- Larva of Taenia saginata
C- Larva of Hymenolepis nana
D- Larva of Hymenolepis diminuta
E- All the above
96) Competitive inhibition of enzyme can be overcome by:
A- Increasing the concentration of enzyme
B- Increasing the concentration of inhibition
C- Increasing the concentration of substrate
D- Increasing the concentration of enzyme and substrate
E- Decreasing the concentration of enzyme and substrate
97) The specimen of choice for recovery of Leishmania donovani is:
A- CSF B- Bone marrow C- Sputum
D- Skin scraping E- All the above
98) The cells of acute inflammation are:
A- Basophil B- Eosinophil C- Mesophil
D- Neutrophil E- Lymphocytes
99) The cardinal signs of acute inflammation are:
A- Tumor B- Ruber C- Dolar
D- Calore E- All the above
100) The basic components of chronic inflammation are:
A- Lymphocytes B- Macrophages C- Granulation tissue
D- All the above E- None of the above
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Part Ι: Answer by “TRUE” or “FALSE” for each of the following questions:
(1 mark each, 30 marks total)
1- ( )A condition of bacteria in the bloodstream that do not multiply is called
bacteremia.
2- ( ) One of the major causes of traveler's diarrhea is Escherichia coli, of which six
categories are now recognized.
3- ( ) Staphylococcal food poisoning is caused by the ingestion of improperly stored
or cooked food in which Staphylococcus aureus has grown.
4- ( ) IgE is produced by basophile and mast cells
5- ( ) IL-10 produced by TH2 cells enhances the cell-mediated immunity
6- ( ) the predominant immunoglobulin in acute infection is IgM
7- ( ) secondary immunodefeciencies are commoner than primary type
8- ( ) C3b is an effective anaphylatoxin.
9- ( ) CSF is the specimen of choice for Cryptococcosis.
10-( )Tinea cruris, the disease involves any where in the body.
11-( ) Candida can reproduce by Sexual spore formation.
12-( ) The common type of mycoses is Superficial mycoses.
13-( ) “Fungal ball” can be found in patients with Cryptococcosis.
14-( )The tuberculin test is used to detect effectiveness of vaccine
15-( ) non-specific urithritis is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis
16-( ) The route of administration of BCG vaccine is subcutaneous.
17-( ) Corynebacterium diphtheriae can grow well on chocolate agar medium.
18-( ) Bordetella pertussis requires V-factor for growth.
19-( ) Lipid A is the portion of the exotoxin molecule that is responsible for its
toxic properties.
20-( ) Stomach is the colonization site of Helicobacter pylori in the host.
21-( ) Amoebic appendicitis is occasionally seen in extra-intestinal amoebiasis.
22-( ) Blantidiasis clinically resembles amoebic dysentery.
23-( ) Parasitaemia is very rare in Leishmania donovani infections.
24-( )The presence of Trypanosoma brucei in the blood is characteristically a
symptomless stage.
25-( ) Trophozoite-induced malaria is more severe than sporozoite-induced malaria.
26-( ) Virus genome is enclosed within capsid protein.
27-( ) Virus can replicate by binary fission.
28-( ) Virus is active outside host cell thus cause infection.
29-( ) Virus is like bacteria can be treated with antibiotics.
30-( ) Virus causes inhibition of infected cell activities.
Part П MCQs : Answer all of the following questions by putting a circle around
the most appropriate answer: (1 mark each, 50 marks total)
1. Bacterial murein is a polymer consisting of the following chemical constituents:
A. lipopolysaccharide and protein B. lipoprotein and teichoic acids
C. amino sugars and amino acids D. phospholipids and protein.
2. Which of the following antibiotics inhibits bacterial transcription?
A. Beta lactams B. Rifamycins
C. Macrolides (e.g. erythromycin) D. Aminoglycosides (e.g. streptomycin)
3. The disease caused by Streptococcus mutans is:
A. trachoma B. dental caries
C. atypical pneumonia D. sore throat E. None of the above
‫ﺃ‬‫ﺳﺌﻠﺔ‬‫ﺍﻟﺘﻨﺎﻓﺴﻲ‬ ‫ﺍﻹﻣﺘﺤﺎﻥ‬/‫ﻣ‬‫ﺎﺟﺴﺘﲑ‬‫ﻟﻠﻌﺎﻡ‬ ‫ﺑﺎﺑﻞ‬ ‫ﺟﺎﻣﻌﺔ‬ ‫ﺍﻟﻄﺐ‬ ‫ﻛﻠﻴﺔ‬ ‫ﳎﻬﺮﻳﺔ‬ ‫ﺃﺣﻴﺎء‬2007-2008
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
8
‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬50

4. Two important features of bacterial cells that make them selective targets for the
action of most clinically-useful antibiotics are:
A. absence of mitochondria and chloroplasts
B. cell wall composition and ribosome structure
C. presence of saturated fatty acids and absence of sterols in membranes
D. DNA (chromosome) structure and absence of a nuclear membrane
5. A promoter at the beginning of a genetic operon is a(n):
A. enzyme that facilitates the transcription of DNA
B. site where DNA replication begins
C. site on DNA where RNA polymerase binds
D. site on RNA where translation starts
E. gene that codes for RNA polymerase
6. The most important benefit that the human gastrointestinal flora provide for their host
is:
A. production of antibodies
B. production of endotoxin that produces toxemia
C. production of dietary protein
D. antagonism against colonization by potential pathogens
7. Pasteurization of milk using heat accomplishes:
A. killing all microbes in the milk
B. reduction in total number of organisms but no reduction or elimination of pathogens in
milk.
C. killing all potential pathogens in milk except Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. reduction in the total number of microbes and elimination of potential pathogens
in the milk.
8- Food poisoning caused by S. aureus is due to a production of :
A. Hemolysin B. Endotoxin C. Enterotoxin D. Coagulase.
9- The most dangerous and rapidly fatal form of puerperal sepsis is caused by:
A. Staphyllococcus aureus B. Viridance group streptococci
C. Str.Pneumoniae D. group A-hemolytic streptococci.
10- The most common infection due to β-hemolytic streptococci:
A. Acute endocarditis B. Rheumatic fever.
C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. Sore throat.
11- Hemophilus ducreyi is the causative agent of :
A- Hard chancer B- Soft chancer
C- Granuloma inguinale D- Urithritis.
12- Microscopic morphology of Yersinia pestis reveals:
A- Gram- ve bacilli with a tendency toward bipolar staining.
B- Gram- ve bacilli with a tendency toward spore formation.
C- Colonies with a droplike appearance D- Gram- ve bacilli arranged in long chains.
13- All of the following statements describe plague except:
A- The etiologic agent is Y. pestis.
B- the pneumonic form is transmitted by bite of an infected fleas.
C- there are predominantly three clinical types.
D- Formalin-killed Y. pestis vaccine is effective for 6 months.
14- Bacillus anthracis:
A- Causes anthracosis which is caused exclusively by inhalation.
B- Form spores that are extremely heat-sensitive.
C- Causes wool sorter’s disease which is spread by contaminated woo, hair, and hides.
D- Is anaerobic.
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬51

15- Secondary syphilis is characterized by all of the following except:
A- Cutaneous lesions B- Joint pain
C- Eye invation D- Inability to detect spirochetes from lesions.
16-which of the following predispose to superficial Candida albicans infection:
a-pregnancy b-lymphoma c- diabetes mellitus
d- broad-spectrum antibiotics e- all above
17-which of the following is a live vaccine :
a-toxoid b-diphtheria c-tetanus d- BCG e-hepatitis B
18- a baby boy is born with hypoglycemia and cardiac abnormalities ,which of the
following immunodeficiencies should be suspected in this patients:
a- Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome b-SCID c-Digeorge sundrome
d-chronic granulomatous disease e-adenine deaminase deficiency
19-hereditary angioderma is caused by immunodeficiency in :
a- C1 esterase inhibitor b-C1q c-C1r d-C3b e-C5b
20-immunoglobulins of this type can cross the placenta to the fetus;
A-IgG1 B-IgG3 C-both (A & B) D-IgM E-IgA
21-renal failure is a common cause of dearth in patients with :
a-Sjogren's syndrome b-rheumatoid arthritis c-SLE
d-rheumatic fever e- Pemphigus vulgaris
22-penicillin –induced haemolytic anaemia is an example of hypersensitivity type:
a-I b-II c-III d-both (a & b) e-IV
23- the leukocytes that mediate the host defense against helminthes is:
a-eosinophil b-basophil c-monocyte d- neutrophile e-NK cells
24-cyclosporin inhibits the gene transcription of:
a-IL-1 b-IL-2 c-BCl2 d- IFN-γ e-TNF-α
25-extracellular bacteria can be effectively cleared through ;
a- antibody –mediated opsonization and complement activation b-apoptosis
c-delayed type hypersensitivity d-NK cells e-histamine release by mast cells
26- a substance that reacts with an antibody, but will not stimulate antibody production in
its native state is called:
a-antigen b-immunogen c- hapten d- adjuvant e-allergen
27-which of the following is an example of passive immunization;
A-injection of adjuvant alone B-in utero infection
C- injection of β-globulin D-injection of bacterial DNA
E-transplacental antibodies
28-regarding S-IgA,the cell(s) involve(s)in ther production is (are):
a-B-cells b-epithelial cells c-TH1 cells d-both(a&b) e- basophile
29-virally infected cells can be recognized and killed by:
a- NK cells b-mast cells c-TH2 cells d-dendritic cell e-none of above
30- C-reactive proteins act as :
a-integrins b-signaling receptor d-cytokine d-addressin e-opsonine.
31- Each of the following clinical manifestation is associated with acute form of
Giardiasis except:
A- Abdomonal cramps B- Low grade fever
C- Periodic constipation D- Mucous in stool.
32- Each of the following statements concerning west African sleeping sickness is correct
except:
A- Man is the reservoir of infection B- Winterbottom's sign is present.
C-Parasitaemia rarely occurs because of strong Ab response.
D- A primary reaction occurs.
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬52

33- Sexual parasitic diseases are all of the following except:
A- Giardiasis B- Trichomoniasis
C- Cryptosporidiasis D- Blastocytosis.
34- Old world cutaneous Leishmaniasis is caused by :
A- Leishmania donovani B- Leshmania tropica
C- Leshmania braziliensis D- All of the above.
35- Each of the following statements concerning Kala-azaris is correct except:
A- Early stage of disease may resemble malaria B- Skin lesions are present
C-Chronic cases rarely leads to death D- It's so called Espundia.
36- The mode of transmission for the protozoan that cause babesiosis are:
A- Mosquitoes B- Ticks
C- Flies D- Flees E- Mites.
37- “Swimmer’s itch” is caused by:
A- Ancylostosoma B- Schistosoma
C- Ascaris D- Hymenolopsis
38- Congenital transmission is proved in the case of:
A- Toxoplasmosis B- Ancylostosomiasis
C- Balantidiasis D- All of the above.
39- Cyst is NOT present in the life cycle of:
A- Giardia lamblia B- Trichomonas
C- Entamoeba coli D- Chilomastix E. None of the above.
40- Hydatidosis is caused by:
A- Hymenolepsis nana B- Echinococcus granulosis
C- Taenia saginata D- Ascaris lumbricoides.
41- Each of the following statements concerning Trichomonas homonis is correct except:
A- There is no known cyst stage B- It has short undulating membrane.
C-Peripheral chromatin is not present D- The nucleus is located in the anterior region
42- "Falling -leaf motility" is diagnostic featurefor:
A- Balantidium coli B- Trichomonas vaginalis
C- Giardia lamblia D- Entamoeba histolytica.
43- Sub-microscopic parasitaemia is common in the case of infection with:
A- Plasmodium vivax B- Plasmodium ovale
C- Plasmodium falciparum D- Plasmodium malariae.
44- Each of the following statements concerning Plasmodium falciparum is correct
except:
A- Two ring stages can be found at the same RBC.
B- Erythrocytic schizogony occurs in the peripheral blood.
C-It tends to invade all ages of RBCs
D- Mature schizont contains 36 merozoites.
45- Each of the following statements concerning Cryptosporidiasis is correct except:
A- Cholera-like diarrhoeal disease
B- Immuocomponent persons will have self-limited infection
C- Chronic infection is occurred in immunocompromised patients
D- IFA test is used to detect the oocyst in blood smear.
46- Each of the following statements concerning viruses is correct except:
A. Viruses can reproduce only within cells
B. Viruses replicate by binary fission
C. Neutralizing antibody is directed against proteins on the surface of the virus
D. The proteins on the surface of the virus mediate the entry of the virus into the
host cell.
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬53

47- Concerning interferon, identify the LEAST ACCURATE statement:
A. Interferons are synthesized only by virus-infected cells
B. Interferons inhibit a broad range of viruses, not just the virus that induced the
interferon
C. Synthesis of several host enzymes is induced by interferon in target cells
D. Interferons are proteins that influence host defenses in many ways, one of
which is the induction of an antiviral state
48- A primary immune response in an adult human produce detectable Ab levels in
the blood is approximately:
A-12 hours B- 3 days C-1 weeks D- 3 week.
49- if an individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s)
would be affected?
A- IgG B- IgM C- IgA D- IgG and IgM.
50- Natural killer cells are:
A- B cells that can kill without complement B- Cytotoxic T cells
C- Increased by immunization.
D- Able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization.
Part ш Matching Questions:
Match between list A and B by putting the number of list A with the corresponding
letter of list B: (1 mark each, 20 marks total)
_______ A______________ _______ _B___________
1-type I diabetic mellitus a- evading the immune system
2-CD40 ligand deficiency b- O157:H7
3-immunological anergy c- HLA/DR3-DR4
4-Schistosoma d- Brucella melitensis
5-allergy e- eggs with terminal spine
6- Schick test f- Pin worm
7- Leishmania g- Rickettsial infections
8- Whooping cough h- Neisseria
9- Malaria-like disease i- Salmonella
10- Thayer- Martin medium j- Hyaluronidase
11- Malta fever k- Diphtheria
12- Heat labile toxin l- Pertussis
13- Weil_Flex test m- Anthrax
14- Autoclave n- CTLA-4
15- Enterobius vermicularis o- histamine
16- Mycoplasma pneumoniae p- Sand fly
17- Enterohemorrahgic E. coli q- Lecithinase
18- widal test r- Whip worm
19- Ascoli test s-121o
C/15 minutes
20- Schistosoma haematobium t- insensitive to beta lactam antibiotics
u- Babesiosis
v- Reduvid bug
w- hyper-IgM syndrome
“With our best wishes”
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬54

Answer all of the following questions by putting a circle around the most
appropriate answer: (1 mark each, 60 marks total)
1) Which of the following is NOT part of bacterial cell wall:
A. Peptidoglycan B. Lipid A
C. LPS D. Ribosome
2) Which of the following types of media would be used to isolate halophilic
bacteria:
A. Minimal growth media B. Complex growth media
C. Differential growth media D. Selective growth media
3) The ribosome of prokaryotic cell:
A. Are found in the nucleus
B. Exist free in the cytoplasm
C. Are located along the endoplasmic reticulum
D. Can be seen with light microscope
4) The degree of pathogenicity in microorganism is defined as its:
A. Toxemia B. Intoxication
C. Endemic potential D. Virulence
5) Each of the following structures are related to bacterial virulence factor
except:
A. Capsule B. Intracellular inclusions
C. Leukocidin D. Haemolysin
6) Bacterial murein is a polymer consisting of the following chemical
constituents:
A. lipopolysaccharide and protein B. lipoprotein and teichoic acids
C. amino sugars and amino acids D. phospholipids and protein
E. polyglycerol or polyribitol substituted with various sugars and amino acids
7) The occurrence of what enzyme adapts certain aerobic bacteria to life in the
presence of O2?
A. nitrogenase B. RUBP carboxylase
C. catalase D. superoxide dismutase E. Two of the above
8) Bacterial growth in a chemostat (continuous culture) relieves the
environmental conditions that restrict exponential growth by
A. continuously supplying nutrients to the cells for growth
B. continuous removal of waste substances from the medium
C. constant removal of cells from the culture medium
D. none of the above
E. all of the above
9) During heterotrophic respirations in procaryotes
A. the TCA cycle is employed for the complete oxidation of an organic
substrate
B. ATP is produced by the process of electron transport phosphorylation
C. ATP (or GTP) is produced by the process of substrate-level
phosphorylation
D. oxygen may not be used as a final electron acceptor
E. all of the above
10) A chemical substance found in bacterial endospores that is not found in
vegetative cells is
A. diaminopimelic acid B. dipicolinic acid
C. ketodeoxyoctonoic acid D. D-glutamate E. L-lysine
‫ﺃ‬‫ﺳﺌﻠﺔ‬‫ﺍﻟﺘﻨﺎﻓﺴﻲ‬ ‫ﺍﻹﻣﺘﺤﺎﻥ‬/‫ﺩﻛﺘﻮﺭﺍﻩ‬‫ﻟﻠﻌﺎﻡ‬ ‫ﺑﺎﺑﻞ‬ ‫ﺟﺎﻣﻌﺔ‬ ‫ﺍﻟﻄﺐ‬ ‫ﻛﻠﻴﺔ‬ ‫ﳎﻬﺮﻳﺔ‬ ‫ﺃﺣﻴﺎء‬2008-2009
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬55

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11) The antimicrobial activity of the sulfa drugs (e.g. sulfanilamide, trimethoprim)
is due to
A. interference with procaryotic vitamin metabolism
B. disruption of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria
C. interference with DNA synthesis
D. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
E. inhibition of protein synthesis
12) Ethambutol, isoniazid (INH) and para-amino-salicylic acid (PAS), used in the
treatment of tuberculosis, are examples of
A. antiseptics B. chemotherapeutic agents
C. broad-spectrum antibiotics D. narrow spectrum antibiotics
E. none of the above
13) Two important features of bacterial cells that make them selective targets for
the action of most clinically-useful antibiotics are
A. absence of mitochondria and chloroplasts
B. cell wall composition and ribosome structure
C. presence of saturated fatty acids and absence of sterols in membranes
D. DNA (chromosome) structure and absence of a nuclear membrane
E. size and type of nutrition
14) Chemical modification of the substituent groups of a naturally-produced beta
lactam molecule leads to the industrial development of
A. semisynthetic penicillins B. sulfa drugs
C. tetracyclines D. chloramphenicol
E. beta lactamase enzymes
15) The selective toxicity of rifamycin is achieved on this basis.
A. It specifically inhibits an enzyme involved in an early step in the synthesis
of bacterial murein.
B. It combines with yeast sterols (ergosterol) and thereby disrupts membranes.
C. It binds selectively to the bacterial ribosome and blocks peptide bond
formation between amino acids during the translation process.
D. It transfers ADP-ribose from NAD to eukaryotic Elongation Factor 2
thereby inhibiting its activity during protein synthesis.
E. It blocks the activity of bacterial, but not eukaryotic, RNA polymerase.
16) Schaeffer–Fulton stain is an example of :
A- Capsule stain B- Flagellar stain
C- Spore stain D- Simple stain
17) Each of the following methods is used for estimation of protein concentration
Except:
A- Lowry method B- biuret method
C- Sheffield method D- Bradford method
18) The role of clinical microbiologist in identification of a specific etiologic
agent includes each of the following except:
A-The type and timing of specimens to be collected.
B- Prescription of appropriate therapy to patients
C-Microbial detection and isolation.
D- Determination of microbial susceptibility to antimicrobial agents.
19) For antibiotic susceptibility testing (disk diffusion test), the optimal number of
antibiotic disks applied to the agar plate is;
A- Four B- Five C- Six D- Eight
20) Covac's reagent is used in which one of the following biochemical tests?
A- Voges-Proskauer test B- Oxidase production test
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬56

3
C- Uraese production test. D- Indole production test
21) the ELISA test can be used for the diagnosis of toxoplasmosis as:
A-confirmatory tests B-less sensitive test
C-screening test D-both A&C
22) Kahn test is a serologic test for the diagnosis of :
A-syphilis B-Bordetella C-Corynebacterium D-Clostridium.
23) the specificity of serologic test means:
A-ability to detect very small quantities of antigens
B- ability to detect very small quantities of antibodies
C- the ability of the test to identify the infectious agent with no false
positive results
D-non of the above
24) the level of IFN-γ increases during
A-intracellular infection B-extra cellular infection
C-humoral immune response D-toxigenic bacterial infection
25) the window period refers to :
A-period after acute infection before the chronic stage
B-period after infection but prior to Ab production
C-period of chronic infection
D-period of persisting IgG
26) The final outcome of most host-parasite relationships is dependent on
A- the number of organisms present in or on the host
B- the virulence of the organism
C- the host's defenses
D- all of these
E- Two of the above
27) Which of the following areas of the human body are normally free of
microorganisms?
A-Lower respiratory tract B-kidneys
C-eyes D-all of these E-just A and B
28) If an animal undergoes infection by a pathogenic bacterium:
A. infectious disease will inevitably result
B. infectious disease will result only if the bacterium is virulent
C. infectious disease will result if the bacterium is invasive
D. infectious disease will result unless the host is immune
E. whether infectious disease will occur depends upon many properties of both
the bacterium and the host.
29) The most important benefit that the human gastrointestinal flora provide for
their host is:
A. digestion of dietary cellulose
B. production of endotoxin that produces toxemia
C. production of dietary protein
D. antagonism against colonization by potential pathogens
E. production of antibodies
30) The portion of the bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that is responsible for
the toxicity of the molecule is:
A. lipid A B. lipoteichoic acid
C. O polysaccharide D. Omp A
E. N-acetylglucosamine (NAG)
31) A reason not to administer beta lactam antibiotics for a Gram-negative
septicemia (blood-borne infection), unless there is no other alternative, is
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬57

4
A. the antibiotic eliminates the normal flora
B. beta lactam antibiotics are ineffective against Gram-negative bacteria
C. the lysis of bacterial cells increases the activity of bacterial LPS
D. Complement activation cannot occur in the presence of the antibiotic
E. the antibiotic suppresses the immune response necessary to eliminate the
pathogen.
32) Which is one of the most common bacterial infections of humans?
A- Streptococcal pneumonia B- pharyngitis
C- tuberculosis D- whooping cough
33) Some bacteria do not require iron because:
A- Metabolism is strictly fermentative
B- Iron plays no role in their infection
C- Other metals are the cofactors of their enzymes
D- None of the above.
34) The mechanism of action of cholera toxin is similar to that of
A- Eneropathogenic E. coli B- Enerotoxogenic E. coli
C- Enerohemorrhagic E. coli D- Shigella sonnie
35) Which one of the following is an examples of phase variation in bacteria:
A- Production of diphtheria toxin by Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B- The specificity of O antigens in Salmonella
C- Production of botulinum toxin by Clostridium botulinum
D- Changing of Salmonella flagella in response to the immune systems' attack.
36) Which one of the following chemical makes the medium selective for Staph.
aureus:
A- 10% sodium chloride B- 8% sodium azide
C- 0.5% crystal violet D- 2% citric acid
37) Which one of the following organism causes scalded skin syndrome:
A- Strept. pyogenes B- R. rickettsiae
C- Bacillus subtilis D- Staph. aureus
38) Which test is used to detect the susceptibility to scarlet fever:
A- Schick test B- Dick test
C- Ascoli D- CAMP test
39) Which one of the following is virulence factor of gonococci:
A- O-antigen B- Pili
C- M-protein D- H-antigen
40) Which of the following test is used to identify Cl.welchii:
A- Elek's test B- Nagler reaction
C- String of pearls reaction D- Quellung reaction
41) Which of the following symptoms is seen in Cl. Botulinum food poisoning:
A- Diplopia B- Disphagia
C- Respirotary paralysis D- All of these
42) Which of the following bacterium shows bipolar staining:
A- Yersinia pestis B- Haemophilus ducreyi
C- Both of these D- None of these
43) In which week of enteric fever 90% blood cultures are positive:
A- First B- Second C- Third D- Fourth
44) ASO titer is associated with:
A- Staph. aureus B- Salmonella typhi
C- Strept. pyogenes D- Strept. pneumoniae
45) Following are the agent of non-specific urethritis except:
A- Mycoplasma hominis B- Chlamydia trachomatis
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬58

5
C- Neisseria gonorrhoeae D- Cytomegalovirus
46) Each of the following statements concerning viral surface proteins is correct
Except:
A. They protect the genetic material against nucleases.
B. They elicit antibody that neutralize infectivity of the virus.
C. They participate in active transport of nutrients across the viral envelope
membrane
D. They determine the species specificity of the virus-cell interaction.
E. None of the above
47) Each of the following statements concerning viruses is correct Except:
A. Viruses can reproduce only within cells
B. Viruses replicate by binary fission
C. Neutralizing antibody is directed against proteins on the surface of the virus
D. The proteins on the surface of the virus mediate the entry of the virus into the
host cell.
48) Each of the following statements concerning interferon is correct Except:
A. Interferon inhibits the growth of both DNA and RNA viruses
B. Interferon is induced by double-stranded RNA
C. Interferon made by cells of one species act more effectively in the cells of
that species than in the cells of other species
D. Interferons acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell.
49) Each of the following statements concerning lysogeny is correct Except:
A. Viral genes responsible for lysis are repressed
B. Viral genes replicate independently of bacterial genes
C. Viral DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA
D. Some lysogenic bacteriophages encode toxins that cause human diseases.
50) Viroids:
A. Are defective viruses that are missing the DNA coding for the matrix protein
B. Consist of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat
C. Cause tumors in experimental animals
D. Require an RNA polymerase in the particle for replication to occur.
51) Which of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to
be life-long?
A- Passive immunity B- Passive active immunity
C- Active immunity D- cell-mediated immunity
52) Latency is an outcome particularly characteristics of which one of the
following virus group:
A- Polioviruses B- Herpes viruses
C- Rhinoviruses Influenza viruses
53) The ability of virus to produce disease can result from each of the following
mechanisms Except:
A. Cytopathic effect in infected cells
B. Malignant transformation of infected cells
C. Immune response to virus-induced antigens on the surface of infected cells
D. Production of exotoxin that activates adenylate cyclase.
54) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, Each of the following statements
concerning this fact is correct Except:
A. Viruses cannot generate energy outside of the cell
B. Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside of the cell
C. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides
D. Enveloped viruses require host cell membrane to obtain their envelopes.
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬59

6
55) Each of the following statements concerning slow infections caused by
conventional viruses is correct Except:
A. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infects brain macrophages and
causes a “slow infection” manifested by dementia
B. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) occurs in individuals who were
infected with measeles virus several years earlier
C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy`(PML) is caused by a
papovavirus Infection with papovavirus is very common, but disease
occurs primarily in immunocompromised individuals.
D. in both PML and SSPE, the long latent period of the disease is attributed to
integration of the viral DNA into the host cell DNA
E. Rhabdoviruses were the causative of slow virus infection.
56) A primary immune response in an adult human produce detectable Ab levels
in the blood is approximately:
A. 3 weeks B. 1 week
C. 12 hours. D. 3 days
57) Craft and tumor rejection are mediated primarily by:
A. Phagocytic cell B. Cytotoxic cells
C. Helper T cells D. Non-complement-fixing antibodies.
58) Which class of antibody has the ability to across the placenta:
A- IgG B- IgA C- IgM D- IgE
59) Which one of the following substances is not released by activated helper T
cells:
A- Alpha interferon B- Gamma interferon
C- IL-2 D- IL-4
60) The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of complement
with:
A- Antigen B- Factor B
C- Antigen-IgG complex D- Bacterial LPS
61) Aids is caused by a human retrovirus that kills:
A- B-lymphocytes B- Lymphocyte stem cell
C- CD4+ T lymphocytes D- CD8+ T lymphocytes
62) The class of antibody present in highest concentration in the blood of human
newborn is:
A- IgG B- IgA C- IgM D- IgE E- IgD
63) Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cells must express which one of
the following on their surfaces:
A- IgE B- Gamma interferon
C- Class І MHC antigens D- Class ІІ MHC antigens
64) the designsation" MALT" refers to:
A-Monocyte Activating Lymphokine Tissue
B-lymphoid tissues of mucosa
C-vaccine against Measeles and Adenoviruses
D-Membrane Attack Lymphoid Tissues
65) Which of the following clinical features is not associated with immuno-
deficiency:
A-chronic inflammation B-skin rashes
C-diarrhea D-signs and symptoms of autoimmune diseases
66) the induction of SLE is mediated by:
A-allergic reaction B-cytotoxic
C-soluble immune complex D-cell mediated hypersensitivity
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
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7
67) Grave's disease is an example of which of the following immunologic
processes?
A-autoimmune disease associated with HLA –B27
B- autoimmune disease associated with HLA –DR3
C- immune deficiency associated with HLA –DR2
D- immune deficiency associated with HLA –DR4
68) the IL-12 is:
A-produced by dendritic cells and macrophages to activate NK cells
B- produced by NK cells to activate TH1 cells
C- produced by NK cells to activate TH2 cells
D- produced by NK cells to stimulate the immunoglobulin isotype switching
69) the IgG4 is induced during the infection with:
A-viruses B-Gram positive bacteria
C-Gram negative bacteria D-helminths
70) the CTLA-4 is expressed on:
A-APCs and enhances the immune response
B-TH cells and enhances the immune response
C- APCs and inhibits the immune response
D- TH cells and inhibits the immune responsee
71) Following are the surface fungal infections except:
A-Tinea versicolor B-Tinea nigra
C-Piedra D-Dermatophytosis
72) Fungal spores formed by fragmentation of hyphae are called:
A- Arthrospores B- Blastospores
C- Chlamydospores D- Basidiospores
73) Which of the following is the most common fungus involved in causation of
otomycosis:
A- Candida B- Mucor C- Aspergillus D- Cryptococcus
74) Tinea cruris is dermatophyte infection of:
A- Foot B- Nails C- Groin D- Head
75) Sterol is a component of cytoplasmic membrane in:
A- Rickettsia B- Fungi
C- Chlamydia D- Both B and C
76) Which of the following is the initiation codon:
A- UGA B- AGG C- AGA D- AUG
77) Which of the following enzymes catalyses the synthesis of DNA from RNA
template:
A- Endonuclease B- Transcriptase
C- Ligase D- Reverse transcriptase
78) Which of the following mechanisms amplifies genetic transfer:
A- Transformation B- Transposition
C- Translocation D- Transduction
79) Which of the following enzymes is used for cutting DNA at specific site:
A- Helicase B- Invertase
C- Endonuclease D- Reductase
80) Polymerase chain reaction is used for the detection of:
A- Antibody B- Antigen
C- Nucleic acid D- All of these
81) One of the following statements is incorrect:
A- Transduction is mediated by bacteriophge
B- Conjugation depends on fertility pilus
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
6 ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬61

8
C- Somatic pili is used for mating of bacteria
D- Competent cells are used for transformation
82) One of the following enzymes have no role uric acid biosynthesis:
A- Xanthine oxidase B- Adenosine deaminase
C- Nucleotidase D- Urease E- None of above
83) The enzyme produced normally in culture media without stimulation is called:
A- Inducible enzyme B- Constitutive enzyme
C- Coenzyme D- Cofactor E- Apoenzyme
84) The technique used for purification of proteins according to their molecular
weight is:
A- Gel filteration B- Ion-exchange chromatography
C- Gel electrophoresis D- PCR E- Salting-out
85) Proteolytic enzymes belong to:
A- Oxidoreductase B- Hydrolyase
C- Lyases D- Transferases E- Isomerases
86) Black water fever is caused by:
A- Leishmania donovani B- Plasmodium vivax
C- Plasmodium falciparum C- Leishmania braziliensis
E- Schistosoma haematobium
87) Probe is a small DNA piece which used in:
A- PCR B- cDNA C- FISH
D- All the above E- None of the above
88) Ori T is present in:
A- Chromosome B- Non-conjugative plasmids
C- Transposone D- Conjugative plasmids E- Insertion sequences
89) Steatorrhoea is associated with:
A- Amoebiasis B- Giardiasis
C- Balantidiasis D- Malaria
90) The common name of Trichuris trichura is:
A- Trichina worm B- Whip worm
C- Hook worm D- Pin worm E- Liver fluke
91) Nephrotic syndrome is seen mainly with:
A- Benign tertian malaria B- Malignant tertian malaria
C- Ovale malaria D- Quartan malaria
E- All the above
92) Which of the following parasites has a role in renal carcinoma;
A- Cryptosporidium parvum B- Schistosoma haematobium
C- Paragonimus westermanii D- Ancylostoma duodenale
E- Taenia solium
93) One of the following is not used as a cloning vector:
A- Phage B- Plasmid C- Insertion sequence
D- Cosmid E- Charon
94) All of the following statements concerning Insertion sequences are correct
except:
A- Has a role in DNA-DNA attachment
B- Has no function
C- Present within transposone structure
D- Present within cDNA component
E- Has a role in conjugation
95) Cysticercosis is caused by:
A- Larva of Taenia solium
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
6 ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬62

9
B- Larva of Taenia saginata
C- Larva of Hymenolepis nana
D- Larva of Hymenolepis diminuta
E- All the above
96) Competitive inhibition of enzyme can be overcome by:
A- Increasing the concentration of enzyme
B- Increasing the concentration of inhibition
C- Increasing the concentration of substrate
D- Increasing the concentration of enzyme and substrate
E- Decreasing the concentration of enzyme and substrate
97) The specimen of choice for recovery of Leishmania donovani is:
A- CSF B- Bone marrow C- Sputum
D- Skin scraping E- All the above
98) The cells of acute inflammation are:
A- Basophil B- Eosinophil C- Mesophil
D- Neutrophil E- Lymphocytes
99) The cardinal signs of acute inflammation are:
A- Tumor B- Ruber C- Dolar
D- Calore E- All the above
100) The basic components of chronic inflammation are:
A- Lymphocytes B- Macrophages C- Granulation tissue
D- All the above E- None of the above
‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
6 ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬63

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‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
‫اء‬‫ا‬‫روا‬‫ا‬‫ن‬:
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‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
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‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬
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TỔNG ÔN TẬP THI VÀO LỚP 10 MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN (NGỮ Â...

Key note speaker Neum_Admir Softic_ENG.pdf

Key note speaker Neum_Admir Softic_ENG.pdf

Key note speaker Neum_Admir Softic_ENG.pdf

Application orientated numerical on hev.ppt

Application orientated numerical on hev.ppt

Application orientated numerical on hev.ppt

This PowerPoint helps students to consider the concept of infinity.

This PowerPoint helps students to consider the concept of infinity.

This PowerPoint helps students to consider the concept of infinity.

psychiatric nursing HISTORY COLLECTION .docx

psychiatric nursing HISTORY COLLECTION .docx

psychiatric nursing HISTORY COLLECTION .docx

Mixin Classes in Odoo 17 How to Extend Models Using Mixin Classes

Mixin Classes in Odoo 17 How to Extend Models Using Mixin Classes

Mixin Classes in Odoo 17 How to Extend Models Using Mixin Classes

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Unit-IV; Professional Sales Representative (PSR).pptx

Unit-IV; Professional Sales Representative (PSR).pptx

Unit-IV- Pharma. Marketing Channels.pptx

Unit-IV- Pharma. Marketing Channels.pptx

Unit-IV- Pharma. Marketing Channels.pptx

Advanced Views - Calendar View in Odoo 17

Advanced Views - Calendar View in Odoo 17

Advanced Views - Calendar View in Odoo 17

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Z Score,T Score, Percential Rank and Box Plot Graph

Z Score,T Score, Percential Rank and Box Plot Graph

microwave assisted reaction. General introduction

microwave assisted reaction. General introduction

microwave assisted reaction. General introduction

Beyond the EU: DORA and NIS 2 Directive's Global Impact

Beyond the EU: DORA and NIS 2 Directive's Global Impact

Beyond the EU: DORA and NIS 2 Directive's Global Impact

Measures of Dispersion and Variability: Range, QD, AD and SD

Measures of Dispersion and Variability: Range, QD, AD and SD

Measures of Dispersion and Variability: Range, QD, AD and SD

Samples of Competitive Examination Questions: Part XXXXXX

1. See discussions, stats, and author profiles for this publication at: https://www.researchgate.net/publication/305335487 Samples of Competitive Examination Questions: Part XXXXXX Technical Report · July 2016 DOI: 10.13140/RG.2.1.1653.6565 READS 3 1 author: Ali I. Al-Mosawi Free Consultation 371 PUBLICATIONS 656 CITATIONS SEE PROFILE Available from: Ali I. Al-Mosawi Retrieved on: 15 July 2016

2. 59‫اﻟﺗﻧﺎﻓﺳﻲ‬ ‫اﻹﻣﺗﺣﺎن‬ ‫أﺳﺋﻠﺔ‬ ‫ﻧﻣﺎذج‬~~~~~~~‫اﻟﻣوﺳوي‬ ‫إﺑراھﯾم‬ ‫ﻋﻠﻲ‬ ‫اﻟﻔﺻل‬:‫ﺧطﺄ‬!‫اﻟﻣﺳﺗﻧد‬‫ﻓﻲ‬‫اﻟﻣﻌﯾن‬‫اﻟﻧﻣط‬‫ﻣن‬‫ﻧص‬‫ﯾوﺟد‬‫ﻻ‬. 0 -‫راه‬‫د‬ ‫ا‬‫ن‬‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬ ‫ا‬‫ن‬‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬ ‫اد‬‫إ‬ ‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫اد‬‫إ‬ ‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

3. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬1 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬ ‫ت‬‫را‬ ‫ا‬ ‫ن‬‫ا‬ ‫أ‬  )‫ا‬ ‫راه‬‫وا‬(‫ا‬‫و‬ ‫ا‬‫ا‬ ‫ت‬‫ا‬   ‫درا‬ ‫ا‬‫وا‬‫ا‬‫د‬‫أن‬‫أر‬. ‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬  ResearchGate : www.researchgate.net/profile/Ali_Al-Mosawi  LinkedIn: www.linkedin.com/pub/ali-i-al-mosawi/61/364/654  Academia.edu: www.independent.academia.edu/AliIAlMosawi  ORCiD : http://orcid.org/0000-0002-8688-3208  Publons: https://publons.com/author/551123/ali-i-al-mosawi#profile  ResearcherID: www.researcherid.com/AuthorizeWorkspace.action  Facebook: www.facebook.com/ali.ibrahim.12177276  Twitter: https://twitter.com/aliibrahim2008  Google+ :https://plus.google.com/+AliIAlMosawi/posts ‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ Ali Ibrahim Al-Mosawi Ali I.Al-Mosawi

4. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬2 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

5. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬3 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

6. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬4 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

7. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬5 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

8. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬6 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

9. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬7 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

10. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬8 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

11. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬9 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

12. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬10 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

13. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬11 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

14. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬12 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

15. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬13 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

16. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬14 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

17. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬15 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

18. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬16 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

19. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬17 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

20. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬18 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

21. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬19 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

22. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬20 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

23. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬21 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

24. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬22 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

25. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬23 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

26. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬24 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

27. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬25 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

28. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬26 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

29. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬27 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

30. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬28 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

31. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬29 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

32. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬30 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

33. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬31 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

34. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬32 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬

35. 1 Answer all of the following questions by putting a circle around the most appropriate answer: (1 mark each, 60 marks total) 1) Psychrophilic bacteria are those which grow best: A. In oxygen-free environments B. At pH levels of 8 or above C. At cold temperatures D. Only in the presence of viruses 2) The laboratory medium for bacteria can be enriched by: A. Adding ATP B. Adding blood C. Including salt in the medium D. Increasing the level of potassium 3) Microaerophilic bacteria are distinguished by their ability to grow: A. In high concentration of salt B. In low concentration of oxygen C. Without ATP or glucose D. Only in the presence of viruses 4) Which of the following dyes is used in Gram stain technique: A. Methylene blue and Congo red B. Nigrosin and Carbol fuchsin C. Safranin and Crystal violet D. Congo red and safranin 5) Most human pathogens are grow best in laboratory culture media when incubated at: A. 15-20 °C B. 30-37 °C C. 38-50 °C D. 50-55 °C 6) Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotes except: A. DNA lacking a nuclear membrane B. Chromosome number is one C. Size of ribosome (70S) D. Cell wall not containing peptidoglycan 7) Which of the following bacterial structures is most involved in adherence: A. Capsule B. Lipopolysaccharide C. Ordinary pili D. O-specific side-chain 8) Which of the following are incapable to produce toxins in the body: A. Gram-positive bacteria B. Gram-negative bacteria C. Bacterial rods D. Viruses 9) A pure culture is a culture in which: A. Only one species of microorganism is present B. Only one nutrient is required by the bacterium C. Only one organism other than the main organism is present D. There are no waste products in the culture. 10) Haemolysins: A. Permit penetration of microorganisms through the tissues B. Destroy red blood cells C. Destroy white blood cells D. cause spasms of the muscles. 11) Pasteurization of milk using heat accomplishes A. Killing all microbes in the milk B. Reduction in the total number of organisms but no reduction or elimination of pathogens in the milk C. Elimination of mesophilic and thermophilic bacteria but no reduction in psychrotrophs D. Killing all potential pathogens in milk except Mycobacterium tuberculosis ‫ﺃ‬‫ﺳﺌﻠﺔ‬‫ﺍﻟﺘﻨﺎﻓﺴﻲ‬ ‫ﺍﻹﻣﺘﺤﺎﻥ‬/‫ﻣ‬‫ﺎﺟﺴﺘﲑ‬‫ﻟﻠﻌﺎﻡ‬ ‫ﺑﺎﺑﻞ‬ ‫ﺟﺎﻣﻌﺔ‬ ‫ﺍﻟﻄﺐ‬ ‫ﻛﻠﻴﺔ‬ ‫ﳎﻬﺮﻳﺔ‬ ‫ﺃﺣﻴﺎء‬2010 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬33

36. 2 E. Reduction in the total number of microbes and elimination of potential pathogens in the milk 12) Gram-negative bacteria are typically less susceptible to penicillin than are Gram-positive bacteria because A. They lack a transport system for penicillin B. They lack teichoic acids in the cell wall C. They lack peptidoglycan in their cell wall D. Their peptidoglycan is chemically modified to be resistant to attack by penicillin E. Their outer membrane is an effective permeability barrier to penicillin. 13) The temperature and time necessary to sterilize a substance in the autoclave is A. 72o /30 minutes B. 100o /30 minutes C. 121o /15 minutes D. 160o /2 hours E. 180o /1 hour 14) Which tissue in a human is free from colonization by microbes (normal flora) because the organisms lack normal access to the tissue? A. blood (vascular system) B. colon C. stomach D. lower respiratory tract E. urinary tract (urethra) 15) The main carrier site on the human body for strains of potentially pathogenic Neisseria meningitidis is the A. nasal membranes B. throat (posterior nasopharynx) C. oral cavity D. gastrointestinal tract E. vagina 16) The predominant bacteria in the mouth, GI tract (colon), and skin, respectively, are A. staphylococci, streptococci, and corynebacteria B. streptococci, E. coli, and staphylococci C. lactic acid bacteria, Bacteroides, and staphylococci D. staphylococci, E. coli, and streptococci E. neisseriae, enterococci, and clostridia 17) In the pathogenesis of Helicobacter pylori what is the colonization site in the host? A. nasal sinuses B. stomach C. lower intestine D. throat E. respiratory tract 18) The main effect of E. coli and Vibrio cholerae enterotoxin on host cells of the gastrointestinal tract that leads to the pathology of the diseases, is to A. inhibit protein synthesis B. cause fluid and electrolyte imbalance C. cleave host cell membranes D. act as superantigens to trigger an overwhelming immunological reaction E. initiate a localized inflammatory response in the intestine. 19) R plasmids are medically important because they: A- encode for enterotoxin production. B- carry genes specifying resistance to certain antibiotics. C- convert non-pathogenic bacteria to pathogens. D- can transform eukaryotic cells into tumor cells. E- cause certain types of bacterial diseases. 20) An E. coli strain that requires the amino acid lysine for growth is termed a/an A- prototroph B- autotroph ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬34

37. 3 C- lysotroph D- auxotroph E- prototype 21) Which of the following is cocci: A- Klebsiella B- Closteridium C- Mycobacterium D- Neisseria 22) Which of the following is Gram-positive: A- Staph aureus B- Closteridium tetani C- Corynebacterium D- All of the above 23) Peptidoglycan is more in the cell wall of: A- Parasites B- Gram-negative bacteria C- Viruses D- Gram-positive bacteria 24) Bacteria were first observed and described by: A- Robert Koch B- Louis Pasteur C- Lister D- Leeuwenhock 25) Which of the following bacteria form spores: A- Klebsiella pneumoniae B- Clost. perfringens C- Coryn. diphtheriae D- N. gonorrhoeae 26) Number of chromosomes in bacteria is: A- Four B- Three C- Two D- One 27) Most of the medically important bacteria are: A- Mesophilic B- Thermophilic C- Psychrophilic D- All of the above. 28) Bacteria which can grow in absence of O2 are: A- Strict aerobes B- Facultative anaerobes C- Strict anaerobes D- Microaerophiles 29) Following diseases are transmitted by sexual contact Except: A- Soft core B- Syphilis C- Hepatitis-A D- Gonorroea 30) Which of the following culture media used for isolation of Staph. aureus: A- Mannitol salt agar B- TCBS medium C- MacConkey's agar D- L-J medium 31) Infection acquired in hospital setting is referred as: A- Hospital infection B- Hospital acquired infection C- Nosocomial infection D- All of these 32) Sporulation of bacteria occurs in: A- Lag phase B- Log phase C- Stationary phase D- decline phase. 33) Which of the following is the organ of locomotion in bacteria: A- Pili B- Cilia C- Flagella D- Pseudopodia. 34) Which of the following is prokaryotes: A- Slime molds B- Blue-green algae C- Protozoa D- None of these 35) Which of the following is abscent in prokaryotes:: A- chromosome B- Muramic acid C- Chlorophyll D- None of these 36) All of the following represent specific mechanism of body defense EXCEPT: A. Opsonizing antibodies B. Stomach acid C. ADCC D. IgM 37) The transplacental immunoglobulin is: ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬35

38. 4 A. IgG B. IgG & IgM C. IgG & IgA D. IgG & IgD E. None of the above. 38) Which type of immunoglobulin mediates the allergic reaction: A-IgG B-IgA C-IgE D-IgM 39) Which of the following characteristics distinguishes B lymphocytes from other mononuclear cells? A-synthesis of antibodies B-antigen presentation and processing C-large cytoplasmic granules D-production of cytokines 40) T-helper lymphocytes carry: A-CD4 B-CD8 C-MHC I D-MHC-II 41) Classical pathway of complement activation is involved in: A-innate immunity B-non-specific immunity C-specific immunity D-natural immunity 42) The predominant type of immunoglobulins in the circulation and mucosal layer during normal condition are: A-IgG and S-IgA respectively B-IgG in both C-IgG and IgA respectively D-IgM and S-IgA respectively 43) The main immunologic mechanism against intracellular infection is: A-cell mediated immunity B-humoral iommunity C-tolerance D-non of above 44) Which of the following can act as APCs: A-neutrophile B-Tcells C-eosinophil D-dendritic cells 45) Which of the following is a secondary lymphoid organ: A-spleen B-Liver C-thymus D-bone marrow 46) Delayed type hypersensitivity is represented by: A-allergy B-arthus reaction C-tuberculosis D-cytolysis 47) HIV causes : A-primary immunodeficiency B-secondary immunodeficiency C-congenital immunodeficiency C-hypersensitivity 48) BCG is a: A-Killed vaccine against Bordetella-Corynebacterium-Gonococci B-Attenuated vaccine against Bordetella-Corynebacterium-Gonococci C- Attenuated vaccine against Mycobacterium tuberculosis D- Killed vaccine against Mycobacterium tuberculosis 49) memory is a characteristic feature of : A-innate immunity B-specific immunity C-natural immunity D-neutrophile 50) Drug like penicillins can induce immune response by acting as: A-hapten B-complete immunogen C-complete antigen D-allergen. 51) Natural (innate) immunity include all the following points except: A- is specific B- All the physical barrier C- is non-specific D- Digestive enzymes 52) Macrophage is important in the following except: A- Activation of immune system B- Natural (innate) immunity C- Specific immunity D- None of above 53) Vaccine is important in the following except: A- Activation of specific immunity B- Activation of non-specific immunity C- Education of T lymphocyte D- Education of B lymphocyte 54) Primary lymphoid system include all the following except: ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬36

39. 5 A- Bursa of fabricioius B- Bone marrow C- Spleen D- All the above 55) Humoral immunity include all the following except: A- Immunoglobulins B- Helper T cells C- B-cells D- Plasma cells 56) Which of the following infection routes is most often involved in the neonatal transmission of hepatitis B virus (HBV)? A. Blood transfusion B. Fetal contact with infected blood during childbirth C. Ingestion of the virus via maternal breast milk D. Transmission of the virus from hospital personnel during childbirth E. None of the above. 57) Viral family most commonly causing septic meningitis: A. Orthomyxovirus B. Arboviruses C. Herpes viruses D. Enteroviruses E. Rhabdoviruses. 58) Concerning viral surface proteins, identify the NOT CORRECT statement: A. They protect the genetic material against nucleases. B. They elicit antibody that neutralize infectivity of the virus. C. They participate in active transport of nutrients across the viral envelope membrane D. They determine the species specificity of the virus-cell interaction. E. None of the above. 59) Concerning viruses, identify the NOT CORRECT statement of the following: A. Viruses can reproduce only within cells B. Viruses replicate by binary fission C. Viruses replicate by binary fission D. Neutralizing antibody is directed against proteins on the surface of the virus E. The proteins on the surface of the virus mediate the entry of the virus into the host cell. 60) Concerning interferon, identify the LEAST ACCURATE statement: A. Interferons are synthesized only by virus-infected cells B. Interferons inhibit a broad range of viruses, not just the virus that induced the interferon C. Synthesis of several host enzymes is induced by interferon in target cells D. Interferons are proteins that influence host defenses in many ways, one of which is the induction of an antiviral state E. None of the above. 61) Which of the following viruses is NOT likely to establish chronic or latent infection?. A. herpes simplex virus B. Hepatitis B virus C. Hepatitis A virus D. Cytomegalovirus E. Rabies virus 62) Each of the following statements concerning viral serotypes is correct EXCEPT: A. in naked nucleocapsid viruses, the serotype is usually determined by the outer capsid proteins. B. in enveloped viruses, the serotype is usually determined by the outer envelope proteins, especially the spike proteins C. Some viruses have multiple serotypes D. Some viruses have an RNA polymerase that determines the serotype E. Serotypes can be diagnosed by serological tests. ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬37

40. 6 63) Most DNA viruses replicate in nucleus except: A- Cytomegalovirus B- Hepatitis virus C- Pox virus D- Herpes virus 64) Mode of Acyclovir action: A- Inhibition of early events of viral replication B- Inhibition of viral protein synthesis C- Inhibition of viral N.A. synthesis D- Inhibition of viral release. 65) Which of the following tumors is caused by Epstein-Barr virus? A- Skin warts B- Kaposi carsinoma C- Burkits lymphoma D- Genital condyloma 66) The following virus family contains a human cancer virus with an RNA genome:- A-Adenoviridae. B-Herpesviridae. C-Hepadnaviridae. D-Papillomaviridae. E-Flaviviridae. 67) The organ most commonly exhibiting signs of mumps is:- A-Lungs. B-Ovary. C-Parotid glands. D-Skin. E-Testes. 68) For which of the following paramyxoviruses is there an effective vaccine available that would prevent pneumonia? A-Parainfluenza v type 1. B-Measles v. C-Respiratory syncytial v. D-Mumps v. E-All of the above. 69) Influrnza is characterized by which of the following symptoms? A-Fever. B-Muscular aches. C-Malaise. D-Dry cough. E-All of the above. 70) The principal reservoir for the antigenic shift variants of influenza virus appears to be which of the following? A-Chronic human carriers of the virus. B-Sewage. C-Pigs ,horses,and fowl. D-Mosquitoes. E-Rodents. 71) Arboviruses are transimitted by bloodsucking arthropods from one vertebrate host to another.Arboviruses are found in the following virus families except: A-Togaviridae. B-Flaviviridae. C-Bunyaviridae. D-Reoviridae. E-Arenaviridae. 72) This virus is the most important cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children.It causes infections that are often severe and may be life-threatening , especially in infants:- A-Echovirus. B-Norwalk virus. C-Rotavirus ,group A. D-Orbivirus. E-Parvovirus. 73) Which of the following is an example of virus that enters through skin abrasions? A-Adinovirus. B- Enfluenza virus. C-Rotavirus D-Rhinovirus. E-Papillovirus. 74) Virus is composed of the following except: A-Cell wall B-Capsid. C-Genome. D-matrix proteins 75) Which of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to be life-long? A- Passive immunity B- Passive active immunity C- Active immunity D- cell-mediated immunity 76) The main agent that causes Amoebiasis: ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬38

41. 7 A- Entamoeba coli B- Entamoeba histolytica C- Entamoeba gingivalis D- Entamoeba dispar 77) Kala-azar is caused by: A- Leishmania donovani B- Trypanosoma C- Entamoeba D- Toxoplasma 78) Malaria parasite is transmitted by: A- sand fly B- Mosquitoes C- House fly D- Ticks 79) One of the following statements is incorrect: A- Giardia can cause giardiasis in man B- Dog is the definitive host for hydatid cyst worm C- Man is the definitive host for malaria D- Cat is the definitive host for Toxoplasma. 80) Trichomoniasis is caused by: A- Trichomonas tenax B- Trichomonas hominis C- Trichomonas vaginalis D- All the above 81) Pin worm is the common name of : A- Ascaris B- Enterobius vermicularis C- Entamoeba D- Ancylostoma duodenale 82) Which of the following parasites contain two nuclei A- Balantidium coli B- Trichomonas C- Entamoeba D- Leishmania 83) Hook worm is: A- Ascaris B- Ancylostoma C- Taenia D- Fasciola 84) Urinary Bilharizia is caused by: A- Fasciola B- Balantidium C- Schistosoma haematobium D- Entamoeba dispar 85) Malignant malaria is caused by: A- Plasmodium vivax B- Plasmodium falciparum C- Plasmodium malariae D- Plasmodium ovale 86) Tape worm is; A- Sporozoa B- Cestoda C- Trematoda D- Nematoda 87) Sarcodina is motile by: A- Flagella B- Cilia C- Pseudopodia D- None of above 88) The mode of reproduction in Giardia is by: A- Binary fission B- Conjugation C- Both A and B D- Non A, non B 89) The drug of choice for treatment of malaria is: A- Oxytetracycline B- Chloroquine C- Flagyl D- meBendazole. 90) Malaria parasite takes up residence in human: A- red blood cells B- Saliva C- White blood cells D-Lymph nodesd 91) The sample used for recovery of Entamoeba histolytica: A- Blood B- Stool C- White blood cells D-Lymph nodes 92) The infective stage in leishmaniasis: ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬39

42. 8 A- Sporozoite B- Cyst C- Promastigote D- Amastigote 93) Blood film done for malaria patient is stained by: A- Gram stain B- Albert stain C- Negative stain D- Giemsa stain 94) One of the following parasites is non-pathogenic to man: A- Schistosoma B- Toxoplasma gondii C- Entamoeba coli D- Trichomonas vaginalis 95) Sexual cycle of malaria parasite occurs in: A- Human body B- Mosquitoe C- Both in A and B D- Non A, Non B 96) Which of the following is a component of fungal cell wall: A- Teichoic acid B- Lipopolysaccharide C- Chitin D- Peptidoglycan 97) KOH is used in direct microscopic examination of specimen for fungal because: A- It digests keratin B- It is a disinfectant C- It stains fungal element D- It avoids drying 98) Function of vegetative mycelium is: A- Nutritive B- Reproductive C- Both A and B D- None of them 99) Fungal spores formed by fragmentation of hyphae are called: A- Arthrospores B- Blastospores C- Chlamydospores D- Basidiospores 100) Budding is seen in: A- candida albicas B- Dermatophytes C- Aspergillus D- Mucor ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬40

43. Answer all of the following questions by putting a circle around the most appropriate answer: (1 mark each, 60 marks total) 1) Which of the following is NOT part of bacterial cell wall: A. Peptidoglycan B. Lipid A C. LPS D. Ribosome 2) Which of the following types of media would be used to isolate halophilic bacteria: A. Minimal growth media B. Complex growth media C. Differential growth media D. Selective growth media 3) The ribosome of prokaryotic cell: A. Are found in the nucleus B. Exist free in the cytoplasm C. Are located along the endoplasmic reticulum D. Can be seen with light microscope 4) The degree of pathogenicity in microorganism is defined as its: A. Toxemia B. Intoxication C. Endemic potential D. Virulence 5) Each of the following structures are related to bacterial virulence factor except: A. Capsule B. Intracellular inclusions C. Leukocidin D. Haemolysin 6) Bacterial murein is a polymer consisting of the following chemical constituents: A. lipopolysaccharide and protein B. lipoprotein and teichoic acids C. amino sugars and amino acids D. phospholipids and protein E. polyglycerol or polyribitol substituted with various sugars and amino acids 7) The occurrence of what enzyme adapts certain aerobic bacteria to life in the presence of O2? A. nitrogenase B. RUBP carboxylase C. catalase D. superoxide dismutase E. Two of the above 8) Bacterial growth in a chemostat (continuous culture) relieves the environmental conditions that restrict exponential growth by A. continuously supplying nutrients to the cells for growth B. continuous removal of waste substances from the medium C. constant removal of cells from the culture medium D. none of the above E. all of the above 9) During heterotrophic respirations in procaryotes A. the TCA cycle is employed for the complete oxidation of an organic substrate B. ATP is produced by the process of electron transport phosphorylation C. ATP (or GTP) is produced by the process of substrate-level phosphorylation D. oxygen may not be used as a final electron acceptor E. all of the above 10) A chemical substance found in bacterial endospores that is not found in vegetative cells is A. diaminopimelic acid B. dipicolinic acid C. ketodeoxyoctonoic acid D. D-glutamate E. L-lysine ‫ﺃ‬‫ﺳﺌﻠﺔ‬‫ﺍﻟﺘﻨﺎﻓﺴﻲ‬ ‫ﺍﻹﻣﺘﺤﺎﻥ‬/‫ﻣ‬‫ﺎﺟﺴﺘﲑ‬‫ﻟﻠﻌﺎﻡ‬ ‫ﺑﺎﺑﻞ‬ ‫ﺟﺎﻣﻌﺔ‬ ‫ﺍﻟﻄﺐ‬ ‫ﻛﻠﻴﺔ‬ ‫ﳎﻬﺮﻳﺔ‬ ‫ﺃﺣﻴﺎء‬2011 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ 8 ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬41

44. 2 11) The antimicrobial activity of the sulfa drugs (e.g. sulfanilamide, trimethoprim) is due to A. interference with procaryotic vitamin metabolism B. disruption of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria C. interference with DNA synthesis D. inhibition of cell wall synthesis E. inhibition of protein synthesis 12) Ethambutol, isoniazid (INH) and para-amino-salicylic acid (PAS), used in the treatment of tuberculosis, are examples of A. antiseptics B. chemotherapeutic agents C. broad-spectrum antibiotics D. narrow spectrum antibiotics E. none of the above 13) Two important features of bacterial cells that make them selective targets for the action of most clinically-useful antibiotics are A. absence of mitochondria and chloroplasts B. cell wall composition and ribosome structure C. presence of saturated fatty acids and absence of sterols in membranes D. DNA (chromosome) structure and absence of a nuclear membrane E. size and type of nutrition 14) Chemical modification of the substituent groups of a naturally-produced beta lactam molecule leads to the industrial development of A. semisynthetic penicillins B. sulfa drugs C. tetracyclines D. chloramphenicol E. beta lactamase enzymes 15) The selective toxicity of rifamycin is achieved on this basis. A. It specifically inhibits an enzyme involved in an early step in the synthesis of bacterial murein. B. It combines with yeast sterols (ergosterol) and thereby disrupts membranes. C. It binds selectively to the bacterial ribosome and blocks peptide bond formation between amino acids during the translation process. D. It transfers ADP-ribose from NAD to eukaryotic Elongation Factor 2 thereby inhibiting its activity during protein synthesis. E. It blocks the activity of bacterial, but not eukaryotic, RNA polymerase. 16) Schaeffer–Fulton stain is an example of : A- Capsule stain B- Flagellar stain C- Spore stain D- Simple stain 17) Each of the following methods is used for estimation of protein concentration Except: A- Lowry method B- biuret method C- Sheffield method D- Bradford method 18) The role of clinical microbiologist in identification of a specific etiologic agent includes each of the following except: A-The type and timing of specimens to be collected. B- Prescription of appropriate therapy to patients C-Microbial detection and isolation. D- Determination of microbial susceptibility to antimicrobial agents. 19) For antibiotic susceptibility testing (disk diffusion test), the optimal number of antibiotic disks applied to the agar plate is; A- Four B- Five C- Six D- Eight 20) Covac's reagent is used in which one of the following biochemical tests? A- Voges-Proskauer test B- Oxidase production test ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ 8 ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬42

45. 3 C- Uraese production test. D- Indole production test 21) the ELISA test can be used for the diagnosis of toxoplasmosis as: A-confirmatory tests B-less sensitive test C-screening test D-both A&C 22) Kahn test is a serologic test for the diagnosis of : A-syphilis B-Bordetella C-Corynebacterium D-Clostridium. 23) the specificity of serologic test means: A-ability to detect very small quantities of antigens B- ability to detect very small quantities of antibodies C- the ability of the test to identify the infectious agent with no false positive results D-non of the above 24) the level of IFN-γ increases during A-intracellular infection B-extra cellular infection C-humoral immune response D-toxigenic bacterial infection 25) the window period refers to : A-period after acute infection before the chronic stage B-period after infection but prior to Ab production C-period of chronic infection D-period of persisting IgG 26) The final outcome of most host-parasite relationships is dependent on A- the number of organisms present in or on the host B- the virulence of the organism C- the host's defenses D- all of these E- Two of the above 27) Which of the following areas of the human body are normally free of microorganisms? A-Lower respiratory tract B-kidneys C-eyes D-all of these E-just A and B 28) If an animal undergoes infection by a pathogenic bacterium: A. infectious disease will inevitably result B. infectious disease will result only if the bacterium is virulent C. infectious disease will result if the bacterium is invasive D. infectious disease will result unless the host is immune E. whether infectious disease will occur depends upon many properties of both the bacterium and the host. 29) The most important benefit that the human gastrointestinal flora provide for their host is: A. digestion of dietary cellulose B. production of endotoxin that produces toxemia C. production of dietary protein D. antagonism against colonization by potential pathogens E. production of antibodies 30) The portion of the bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that is responsible for the toxicity of the molecule is: A. lipid A B. lipoteichoic acid C. O polysaccharide D. Omp A E. N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) 31) A reason not to administer beta lactam antibiotics for a Gram-negative septicemia (blood-borne infection), unless there is no other alternative, is ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ 8 ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬43

46. 4 A. the antibiotic eliminates the normal flora B. beta lactam antibiotics are ineffective against Gram-negative bacteria C. the lysis of bacterial cells increases the activity of bacterial LPS D. Complement activation cannot occur in the presence of the antibiotic E. the antibiotic suppresses the immune response necessary to eliminate the pathogen. 32) Which is one of the most common bacterial infections of humans? A- Streptococcal pneumonia B- pharyngitis C- tuberculosis D- whooping cough 33) Some bacteria do not require iron because: A- Metabolism is strictly fermentative B- Iron plays no role in their infection C- Other metals are the cofactors of their enzymes D- None of the above. 34) The mechanism of action of cholera toxin is similar to that of A- Eneropathogenic E. coli B- Enerotoxogenic E. coli C- Enerohemorrhagic E. coli D- Shigella sonnie 35) Which one of the following is an examples of phase variation in bacteria: A- Production of diphtheria toxin by Corynebacterium diphtheriae B- The specificity of O antigens in Salmonella C- Production of botulinum toxin by Clostridium botulinum D- Changing of Salmonella flagella in response to the immune systems' attack. 36) Which one of the following chemical makes the medium selective for Staph. aureus: A- 10% sodium chloride B- 8% sodium azide C- 0.5% crystal violet D- 2% citric acid 37) Which one of the following organism causes scalded skin syndrome: A- Strept. pyogenes B- R. rickettsiae C- Bacillus subtilis D- Staph. aureus 38) Which test is used to detect the susceptibility to scarlet fever: A- Schick test B- Dick test C- Ascoli D- CAMP test 39) Which one of the following is virulence factor of gonococci: A- O-antigen B- Pili C- M-protein D- H-antigen 40) Which of the following test is used to identify Cl.welchii: A- Elek's test B- Nagler reaction C- String of pearls reaction D- Quellung reaction 41) Which of the following symptoms is seen in Cl. Botulinum food poisoning: A- Diplopia B- Disphagia C- Respirotary paralysis D- All of these 42) Which of the following bacterium shows bipolar staining: A- Yersinia pestis B- Haemophilus ducreyi C- Both of these D- None of these 43) In which week of enteric fever 90% blood cultures are positive: A- First B- Second C- Third D- Fourth 44) ASO titer is associated with: A- Staph. aureus B- Salmonella typhi C- Strept. pyogenes D- Strept. pneumoniae 45) Following are the agent of non-specific urethritis except: A- Mycoplasma hominis B- Chlamydia trachomatis ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ 8 ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬44

47. 5 C- Neisseria gonorrhoeae D- Cytomegalovirus 46) Each of the following statements concerning viral surface proteins is correct Except: A. They protect the genetic material against nucleases. B. They elicit antibody that neutralize infectivity of the virus. C. They participate in active transport of nutrients across the viral envelope membrane D. They determine the species specificity of the virus-cell interaction. E. None of the above 47) Each of the following statements concerning viruses is correct Except: A. Viruses can reproduce only within cells B. Viruses replicate by binary fission C. Neutralizing antibody is directed against proteins on the surface of the virus D. The proteins on the surface of the virus mediate the entry of the virus into the host cell. 48) Each of the following statements concerning interferon is correct Except: A. Interferon inhibits the growth of both DNA and RNA viruses B. Interferon is induced by double-stranded RNA C. Interferon made by cells of one species act more effectively in the cells of that species than in the cells of other species D. Interferons acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell. 49) Each of the following statements concerning lysogeny is correct Except: A. Viral genes responsible for lysis are repressed B. Viral genes replicate independently of bacterial genes C. Viral DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA D. Some lysogenic bacteriophages encode toxins that cause human diseases. 50) Viroids: A. Are defective viruses that are missing the DNA coding for the matrix protein B. Consist of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat C. Cause tumors in experimental animals D. Require an RNA polymerase in the particle for replication to occur. 51) Which of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to be life-long? A- Passive immunity B- Passive active immunity C- Active immunity D- cell-mediated immunity 52) Latency is an outcome particularly characteristics of which one of the following virus group: A- Polioviruses B- Herpes viruses C- Rhinoviruses Influenza viruses 53) The ability of virus to produce disease can result from each of the following mechanisms Except: A. Cytopathic effect in infected cells B. Malignant transformation of infected cells C. Immune response to virus-induced antigens on the surface of infected cells D. Production of exotoxin that activates adenylate cyclase. 54) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, Each of the following statements concerning this fact is correct Except: A. Viruses cannot generate energy outside of the cell B. Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside of the cell C. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides D. Enveloped viruses require host cell membrane to obtain their envelopes. ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ 8 ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬45

48. 6 55) Each of the following statements concerning slow infections caused by conventional viruses is correct Except: A. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infects brain macrophages and causes a “slow infection” manifested by dementia B. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) occurs in individuals who were infected with measeles virus several years earlier C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy`(PML) is caused by a papovavirus Infection with papovavirus is very common, but disease occurs primarily in immunocompromised individuals. D. in both PML and SSPE, the long latent period of the disease is attributed to integration of the viral DNA into the host cell DNA E. Rhabdoviruses were the causative of slow virus infection. 56) A primary immune response in an adult human produce detectable Ab levels in the blood is approximately: A. 3 weeks B. 1 week C. 12 hours. D. 3 days 57) Craft and tumor rejection are mediated primarily by: A. Phagocytic cell B. Cytotoxic cells C. Helper T cells D. Non-complement-fixing antibodies. 58) Which class of antibody has the ability to across the placenta: A- IgG B- IgA C- IgM D- IgE 59) Which one of the following substances is not released by activated helper T cells: A- Alpha interferon B- Gamma interferon C- IL-2 D- IL-4 60) The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of complement with: A- Antigen B- Factor B C- Antigen-IgG complex D- Bacterial LPS 61) Aids is caused by a human retrovirus that kills: A- B-lymphocytes B- Lymphocyte stem cell C- CD4+ T lymphocytes D- CD8+ T lymphocytes 62) The class of antibody present in highest concentration in the blood of human newborn is: A- IgG B- IgA C- IgM D- IgE E- IgD 63) Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on their surfaces: A- IgE B- Gamma interferon C- Class І MHC antigens D- Class ІІ MHC antigens 64) the designsation" MALT" refers to: A-Monocyte Activating Lymphokine Tissue B-lymphoid tissues of mucosa C-vaccine against Measeles and Adenoviruses D-Membrane Attack Lymphoid Tissues 65) Which of the following clinical features is not associated with immunodeficiency: A-chronic inflammation B-skin rashes C-diarrhea D-signs and symptoms of autoimmune diseases 66) the induction of SLE is mediated by: A-allergic reaction B-cytotoxic C-soluble immune complex D-cell mediated hypersensitivity ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ 8 ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬46

49. 7 67) Grave's disease is an example of which of the following immunologic processes? A-autoimmune disease associated with HLA –B27 B- autoimmune disease associated with HLA –DR3 C- immune deficiency associated with HLA –DR2 D- immune deficiency associated with HLA –DR4 68) the IL-12 is: A-produced by dendritic cells and macrophages to activate NK cells B- produced by NK cells to activate TH1 cells C- produced by NK cells to activate TH2 cells D- produced by NK cells to stimulate the immunoglobulin isotype switching 69) the IgG4 is induced during the infection with: A-viruses B-Gram positive bacteria C-Gram negative bacteria D-helminths 70) the CTLA-4 is expressed on: A-APCs and enhances the immune response B-TH cells and enhances the immune response C- APCs and inhibits the immune response D- TH cells and inhibits the immune responsee 71) Following are the surface fungal infections except: A-Tinea versicolor B-Tinea nigra C-Piedra D-Dermatophytosis 72) Fungal spores formed by fragmentation of hyphae are called: A- Arthrospores B- Blastospores C- Chlamydospores D- Basidiospores 73) Which of the following is the most common fungus involved in causation of otomycosis: A- Candida B- Mucor C- Aspergillus D- Cryptococcus 74) Tinea cruris is dermatophyte infection of: A- Foot B- Nails C- Groin D- Head 75) Sterol is a component of cytoplasmic membrane in: A- Rickettsia B- Fungi C- Chlamydia D- Both B and C 76) Which of the following is the initiation codon: A- UGA B- AGG C- AGA D- AUG 77) Which of the following enzymes catalyses the synthesis of DNA from RNA template: A- Endonuclease B- Transcriptase C- Ligase D- Reverse transcriptase 78) Which of the following mechanisms amplifies genetic transfer: A- Transformation B- Transposition C- Translocation D- Transduction 79) Which of the following enzymes is used for cutting DNA at specific site: A- Helicase B- Invertase C- Endonuclease D- Reductase 80) Polymerase chain reaction is used for the detection of: A- Antibody B- Antigen C- Nucleic acid D- All of these 81) One of the following statements is incorrect: A- Transduction is mediated by bacteriophge B- Conjugation depends on fertility pilus ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ 8 ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬47

50. 8 C- Somatic pili is used for mating of bacteria D- Competent cells are used for transformation 82) One of the following enzymes have no role uric acid biosynthesis: A- Xanthine oxidase B- Adenosine deaminase C- Nucleotidase D- Urease E- None of above 83) The enzyme produced normally in culture media without stimulation is called: A- Inducible enzyme B- Constitutive enzyme C- Coenzyme D- Cofactor E- Apoenzyme 84) The technique used for purification of proteins according to their molecular weight is: A- Gel filteration B- Ion-exchange chromatography C- Gel electrophoresis D- PCR E- Salting-out 85) Proteolytic enzymes belong to: A- Oxidoreductase B- Hydrolyase C- Lyases D- Transferases E- Isomerases 86) Black water fever is caused by: A- Leishmania donovani B- Plasmodium vivax C- Plasmodium falciparum C- Leishmania braziliensis E- Schistosoma haematobium 87) Probe is a small DNA piece which used in: A- PCR B- cDNA C- FISH D- All the above E- None of the above 88) Ori T is present in: A- Chromosome B- Non-conjugative plasmids C- Transposone D- Conjugative plasmids E- Insertion sequences 89) Steatorrhoea is associated with: A- Amoebiasis B- Giardiasis C- Balantidiasis D- Malaria 90) The common name of Trichuris trichura is: A- Trichina worm B- Whip worm C- Hook worm D- Pin worm E- Liver fluke 91) Nephrotic syndrome is seen mainly with: A- Benign tertian malaria B- Malignant tertian malaria C- Ovale malaria D- Quartan malaria E- All the above 92) Which of the following parasites has a role in renal carcinoma; A- Cryptosporidium parvum B- Schistosoma haematobium C- Paragonimus westermanii D- Ancylostoma duodenale E- Taenia solium 93) One of the following is not used as a cloning vector: A- Phage B- Plasmid C- Insertion sequence D- Cosmid E- Charon 94) All of the following statements concerning Insertion sequences are correct except: A- Has a role in DNA-DNA attachment B- Has no function C- Present within transposone structure D- Present within cDNA component E- Has a role in conjugation 95) Cysticercosis is caused by: A- Larva of Taenia solium ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ 8 ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬48

51. 9 B- Larva of Taenia saginata C- Larva of Hymenolepis nana D- Larva of Hymenolepis diminuta E- All the above 96) Competitive inhibition of enzyme can be overcome by: A- Increasing the concentration of enzyme B- Increasing the concentration of inhibition C- Increasing the concentration of substrate D- Increasing the concentration of enzyme and substrate E- Decreasing the concentration of enzyme and substrate 97) The specimen of choice for recovery of Leishmania donovani is: A- CSF B- Bone marrow C- Sputum D- Skin scraping E- All the above 98) The cells of acute inflammation are: A- Basophil B- Eosinophil C- Mesophil D- Neutrophil E- Lymphocytes 99) The cardinal signs of acute inflammation are: A- Tumor B- Ruber C- Dolar D- Calore E- All the above 100) The basic components of chronic inflammation are: A- Lymphocytes B- Macrophages C- Granulation tissue D- All the above E- None of the above ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ 8 ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬49

52. Part Ι: Answer by “TRUE” or “FALSE” for each of the following questions: (1 mark each, 30 marks total) 1- ( )A condition of bacteria in the bloodstream that do not multiply is called bacteremia. 2- ( ) One of the major causes of traveler's diarrhea is Escherichia coli, of which six categories are now recognized. 3- ( ) Staphylococcal food poisoning is caused by the ingestion of improperly stored or cooked food in which Staphylococcus aureus has grown. 4- ( ) IgE is produced by basophile and mast cells 5- ( ) IL-10 produced by TH2 cells enhances the cell-mediated immunity 6- ( ) the predominant immunoglobulin in acute infection is IgM 7- ( ) secondary immunodefeciencies are commoner than primary type 8- ( ) C3b is an effective anaphylatoxin. 9- ( ) CSF is the specimen of choice for Cryptococcosis. 10-( )Tinea cruris, the disease involves any where in the body. 11-( ) Candida can reproduce by Sexual spore formation. 12-( ) The common type of mycoses is Superficial mycoses. 13-( ) “Fungal ball” can be found in patients with Cryptococcosis. 14-( )The tuberculin test is used to detect effectiveness of vaccine 15-( ) non-specific urithritis is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis 16-( ) The route of administration of BCG vaccine is subcutaneous. 17-( ) Corynebacterium diphtheriae can grow well on chocolate agar medium. 18-( ) Bordetella pertussis requires V-factor for growth. 19-( ) Lipid A is the portion of the exotoxin molecule that is responsible for its toxic properties. 20-( ) Stomach is the colonization site of Helicobacter pylori in the host. 21-( ) Amoebic appendicitis is occasionally seen in extra-intestinal amoebiasis. 22-( ) Blantidiasis clinically resembles amoebic dysentery. 23-( ) Parasitaemia is very rare in Leishmania donovani infections. 24-( )The presence of Trypanosoma brucei in the blood is characteristically a symptomless stage. 25-( ) Trophozoite-induced malaria is more severe than sporozoite-induced malaria. 26-( ) Virus genome is enclosed within capsid protein. 27-( ) Virus can replicate by binary fission. 28-( ) Virus is active outside host cell thus cause infection. 29-( ) Virus is like bacteria can be treated with antibiotics. 30-( ) Virus causes inhibition of infected cell activities. Part П MCQs : Answer all of the following questions by putting a circle around the most appropriate answer: (1 mark each, 50 marks total) 1. Bacterial murein is a polymer consisting of the following chemical constituents: A. lipopolysaccharide and protein B. lipoprotein and teichoic acids C. amino sugars and amino acids D. phospholipids and protein. 2. Which of the following antibiotics inhibits bacterial transcription? A. Beta lactams B. Rifamycins C. Macrolides (e.g. erythromycin) D. Aminoglycosides (e.g. streptomycin) 3. The disease caused by Streptococcus mutans is: A. trachoma B. dental caries C. atypical pneumonia D. sore throat E. None of the above ‫ﺃ‬‫ﺳﺌﻠﺔ‬‫ﺍﻟﺘﻨﺎﻓﺴﻲ‬ ‫ﺍﻹﻣﺘﺤﺎﻥ‬/‫ﻣ‬‫ﺎﺟﺴﺘﲑ‬‫ﻟﻠﻌﺎﻡ‬ ‫ﺑﺎﺑﻞ‬ ‫ﺟﺎﻣﻌﺔ‬ ‫ﺍﻟﻄﺐ‬ ‫ﻛﻠﻴﺔ‬ ‫ﳎﻬﺮﻳﺔ‬ ‫ﺃﺣﻴﺎء‬2007-2008 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ 8 ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬50

53. 4. Two important features of bacterial cells that make them selective targets for the action of most clinically-useful antibiotics are: A. absence of mitochondria and chloroplasts B. cell wall composition and ribosome structure C. presence of saturated fatty acids and absence of sterols in membranes D. DNA (chromosome) structure and absence of a nuclear membrane 5. A promoter at the beginning of a genetic operon is a(n): A. enzyme that facilitates the transcription of DNA B. site where DNA replication begins C. site on DNA where RNA polymerase binds D. site on RNA where translation starts E. gene that codes for RNA polymerase 6. The most important benefit that the human gastrointestinal flora provide for their host is: A. production of antibodies B. production of endotoxin that produces toxemia C. production of dietary protein D. antagonism against colonization by potential pathogens 7. Pasteurization of milk using heat accomplishes: A. killing all microbes in the milk B. reduction in total number of organisms but no reduction or elimination of pathogens in milk. C. killing all potential pathogens in milk except Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. reduction in the total number of microbes and elimination of potential pathogens in the milk. 8- Food poisoning caused by S. aureus is due to a production of : A. Hemolysin B. Endotoxin C. Enterotoxin D. Coagulase. 9- The most dangerous and rapidly fatal form of puerperal sepsis is caused by: A. Staphyllococcus aureus B. Viridance group streptococci C. Str.Pneumoniae D. group A-hemolytic streptococci. 10- The most common infection due to β-hemolytic streptococci: A. Acute endocarditis B. Rheumatic fever. C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. Sore throat. 11- Hemophilus ducreyi is the causative agent of : A- Hard chancer B- Soft chancer C- Granuloma inguinale D- Urithritis. 12- Microscopic morphology of Yersinia pestis reveals: A- Gram- ve bacilli with a tendency toward bipolar staining. B- Gram- ve bacilli with a tendency toward spore formation. C- Colonies with a droplike appearance D- Gram- ve bacilli arranged in long chains. 13- All of the following statements describe plague except: A- The etiologic agent is Y. pestis. B- the pneumonic form is transmitted by bite of an infected fleas. C- there are predominantly three clinical types. D- Formalin-killed Y. pestis vaccine is effective for 6 months. 14- Bacillus anthracis: A- Causes anthracosis which is caused exclusively by inhalation. B- Form spores that are extremely heat-sensitive. C- Causes wool sorter’s disease which is spread by contaminated woo, hair, and hides. D- Is anaerobic. ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬51

54. 15- Secondary syphilis is characterized by all of the following except: A- Cutaneous lesions B- Joint pain C- Eye invation D- Inability to detect spirochetes from lesions. 16-which of the following predispose to superficial Candida albicans infection: a-pregnancy b-lymphoma c- diabetes mellitus d- broad-spectrum antibiotics e- all above 17-which of the following is a live vaccine : a-toxoid b-diphtheria c-tetanus d- BCG e-hepatitis B 18- a baby boy is born with hypoglycemia and cardiac abnormalities ,which of the following immunodeficiencies should be suspected in this patients: a- Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome b-SCID c-Digeorge sundrome d-chronic granulomatous disease e-adenine deaminase deficiency 19-hereditary angioderma is caused by immunodeficiency in : a- C1 esterase inhibitor b-C1q c-C1r d-C3b e-C5b 20-immunoglobulins of this type can cross the placenta to the fetus; A-IgG1 B-IgG3 C-both (A & B) D-IgM E-IgA 21-renal failure is a common cause of dearth in patients with : a-Sjogren's syndrome b-rheumatoid arthritis c-SLE d-rheumatic fever e- Pemphigus vulgaris 22-penicillin –induced haemolytic anaemia is an example of hypersensitivity type: a-I b-II c-III d-both (a & b) e-IV 23- the leukocytes that mediate the host defense against helminthes is: a-eosinophil b-basophil c-monocyte d- neutrophile e-NK cells 24-cyclosporin inhibits the gene transcription of: a-IL-1 b-IL-2 c-BCl2 d- IFN-γ e-TNF-α 25-extracellular bacteria can be effectively cleared through ; a- antibody –mediated opsonization and complement activation b-apoptosis c-delayed type hypersensitivity d-NK cells e-histamine release by mast cells 26- a substance that reacts with an antibody, but will not stimulate antibody production in its native state is called: a-antigen b-immunogen c- hapten d- adjuvant e-allergen 27-which of the following is an example of passive immunization; A-injection of adjuvant alone B-in utero infection C- injection of β-globulin D-injection of bacterial DNA E-transplacental antibodies 28-regarding S-IgA,the cell(s) involve(s)in ther production is (are): a-B-cells b-epithelial cells c-TH1 cells d-both(a&b) e- basophile 29-virally infected cells can be recognized and killed by: a- NK cells b-mast cells c-TH2 cells d-dendritic cell e-none of above 30- C-reactive proteins act as : a-integrins b-signaling receptor d-cytokine d-addressin e-opsonine. 31- Each of the following clinical manifestation is associated with acute form of Giardiasis except: A- Abdomonal cramps B- Low grade fever C- Periodic constipation D- Mucous in stool. 32- Each of the following statements concerning west African sleeping sickness is correct except: A- Man is the reservoir of infection B- Winterbottom's sign is present. C-Parasitaemia rarely occurs because of strong Ab response. D- A primary reaction occurs. ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬52

55. 33- Sexual parasitic diseases are all of the following except: A- Giardiasis B- Trichomoniasis C- Cryptosporidiasis D- Blastocytosis. 34- Old world cutaneous Leishmaniasis is caused by : A- Leishmania donovani B- Leshmania tropica C- Leshmania braziliensis D- All of the above. 35- Each of the following statements concerning Kala-azaris is correct except: A- Early stage of disease may resemble malaria B- Skin lesions are present C-Chronic cases rarely leads to death D- It's so called Espundia. 36- The mode of transmission for the protozoan that cause babesiosis are: A- Mosquitoes B- Ticks C- Flies D- Flees E- Mites. 37- “Swimmer’s itch” is caused by: A- Ancylostosoma B- Schistosoma C- Ascaris D- Hymenolopsis 38- Congenital transmission is proved in the case of: A- Toxoplasmosis B- Ancylostosomiasis C- Balantidiasis D- All of the above. 39- Cyst is NOT present in the life cycle of: A- Giardia lamblia B- Trichomonas C- Entamoeba coli D- Chilomastix E. None of the above. 40- Hydatidosis is caused by: A- Hymenolepsis nana B- Echinococcus granulosis C- Taenia saginata D- Ascaris lumbricoides. 41- Each of the following statements concerning Trichomonas homonis is correct except: A- There is no known cyst stage B- It has short undulating membrane. C-Peripheral chromatin is not present D- The nucleus is located in the anterior region 42- "Falling -leaf motility" is diagnostic featurefor: A- Balantidium coli B- Trichomonas vaginalis C- Giardia lamblia D- Entamoeba histolytica. 43- Sub-microscopic parasitaemia is common in the case of infection with: A- Plasmodium vivax B- Plasmodium ovale C- Plasmodium falciparum D- Plasmodium malariae. 44- Each of the following statements concerning Plasmodium falciparum is correct except: A- Two ring stages can be found at the same RBC. B- Erythrocytic schizogony occurs in the peripheral blood. C-It tends to invade all ages of RBCs D- Mature schizont contains 36 merozoites. 45- Each of the following statements concerning Cryptosporidiasis is correct except: A- Cholera-like diarrhoeal disease B- Immuocomponent persons will have self-limited infection C- Chronic infection is occurred in immunocompromised patients D- IFA test is used to detect the oocyst in blood smear. 46- Each of the following statements concerning viruses is correct except: A. Viruses can reproduce only within cells B. Viruses replicate by binary fission C. Neutralizing antibody is directed against proteins on the surface of the virus D. The proteins on the surface of the virus mediate the entry of the virus into the host cell. ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬53

56. 47- Concerning interferon, identify the LEAST ACCURATE statement: A. Interferons are synthesized only by virus-infected cells B. Interferons inhibit a broad range of viruses, not just the virus that induced the interferon C. Synthesis of several host enzymes is induced by interferon in target cells D. Interferons are proteins that influence host defenses in many ways, one of which is the induction of an antiviral state 48- A primary immune response in an adult human produce detectable Ab levels in the blood is approximately: A-12 hours B- 3 days C-1 weeks D- 3 week. 49- if an individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be affected? A- IgG B- IgM C- IgA D- IgG and IgM. 50- Natural killer cells are: A- B cells that can kill without complement B- Cytotoxic T cells C- Increased by immunization. D- Able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization. Part ш Matching Questions: Match between list A and B by putting the number of list A with the corresponding letter of list B: (1 mark each, 20 marks total) _______ A______________ _______ _B___________ 1-type I diabetic mellitus a- evading the immune system 2-CD40 ligand deficiency b- O157:H7 3-immunological anergy c- HLA/DR3-DR4 4-Schistosoma d- Brucella melitensis 5-allergy e- eggs with terminal spine 6- Schick test f- Pin worm 7- Leishmania g- Rickettsial infections 8- Whooping cough h- Neisseria 9- Malaria-like disease i- Salmonella 10- Thayer- Martin medium j- Hyaluronidase 11- Malta fever k- Diphtheria 12- Heat labile toxin l- Pertussis 13- Weil_Flex test m- Anthrax 14- Autoclave n- CTLA-4 15- Enterobius vermicularis o- histamine 16- Mycoplasma pneumoniae p- Sand fly 17- Enterohemorrahgic E. coli q- Lecithinase 18- widal test r- Whip worm 19- Ascoli test s-121o C/15 minutes 20- Schistosoma haematobium t- insensitive to beta lactam antibiotics u- Babesiosis v- Reduvid bug w- hyper-IgM syndrome “With our best wishes” ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬54

57. Answer all of the following questions by putting a circle around the most appropriate answer: (1 mark each, 60 marks total) 1) Which of the following is NOT part of bacterial cell wall: A. Peptidoglycan B. Lipid A C. LPS D. Ribosome 2) Which of the following types of media would be used to isolate halophilic bacteria: A. Minimal growth media B. Complex growth media C. Differential growth media D. Selective growth media 3) The ribosome of prokaryotic cell: A. Are found in the nucleus B. Exist free in the cytoplasm C. Are located along the endoplasmic reticulum D. Can be seen with light microscope 4) The degree of pathogenicity in microorganism is defined as its: A. Toxemia B. Intoxication C. Endemic potential D. Virulence 5) Each of the following structures are related to bacterial virulence factor except: A. Capsule B. Intracellular inclusions C. Leukocidin D. Haemolysin 6) Bacterial murein is a polymer consisting of the following chemical constituents: A. lipopolysaccharide and protein B. lipoprotein and teichoic acids C. amino sugars and amino acids D. phospholipids and protein E. polyglycerol or polyribitol substituted with various sugars and amino acids 7) The occurrence of what enzyme adapts certain aerobic bacteria to life in the presence of O2? A. nitrogenase B. RUBP carboxylase C. catalase D. superoxide dismutase E. Two of the above 8) Bacterial growth in a chemostat (continuous culture) relieves the environmental conditions that restrict exponential growth by A. continuously supplying nutrients to the cells for growth B. continuous removal of waste substances from the medium C. constant removal of cells from the culture medium D. none of the above E. all of the above 9) During heterotrophic respirations in procaryotes A. the TCA cycle is employed for the complete oxidation of an organic substrate B. ATP is produced by the process of electron transport phosphorylation C. ATP (or GTP) is produced by the process of substrate-level phosphorylation D. oxygen may not be used as a final electron acceptor E. all of the above 10) A chemical substance found in bacterial endospores that is not found in vegetative cells is A. diaminopimelic acid B. dipicolinic acid C. ketodeoxyoctonoic acid D. D-glutamate E. L-lysine ‫ﺃ‬‫ﺳﺌﻠﺔ‬‫ﺍﻟﺘﻨﺎﻓﺴﻲ‬ ‫ﺍﻹﻣﺘﺤﺎﻥ‬/‫ﺩﻛﺘﻮﺭﺍﻩ‬‫ﻟﻠﻌﺎﻡ‬ ‫ﺑﺎﺑﻞ‬ ‫ﺟﺎﻣﻌﺔ‬ ‫ﺍﻟﻄﺐ‬ ‫ﻛﻠﻴﺔ‬ ‫ﳎﻬﺮﻳﺔ‬ ‫ﺃﺣﻴﺎء‬2008-2009 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬55

58. 2 11) The antimicrobial activity of the sulfa drugs (e.g. sulfanilamide, trimethoprim) is due to A. interference with procaryotic vitamin metabolism B. disruption of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria C. interference with DNA synthesis D. inhibition of cell wall synthesis E. inhibition of protein synthesis 12) Ethambutol, isoniazid (INH) and para-amino-salicylic acid (PAS), used in the treatment of tuberculosis, are examples of A. antiseptics B. chemotherapeutic agents C. broad-spectrum antibiotics D. narrow spectrum antibiotics E. none of the above 13) Two important features of bacterial cells that make them selective targets for the action of most clinically-useful antibiotics are A. absence of mitochondria and chloroplasts B. cell wall composition and ribosome structure C. presence of saturated fatty acids and absence of sterols in membranes D. DNA (chromosome) structure and absence of a nuclear membrane E. size and type of nutrition 14) Chemical modification of the substituent groups of a naturally-produced beta lactam molecule leads to the industrial development of A. semisynthetic penicillins B. sulfa drugs C. tetracyclines D. chloramphenicol E. beta lactamase enzymes 15) The selective toxicity of rifamycin is achieved on this basis. A. It specifically inhibits an enzyme involved in an early step in the synthesis of bacterial murein. B. It combines with yeast sterols (ergosterol) and thereby disrupts membranes. C. It binds selectively to the bacterial ribosome and blocks peptide bond formation between amino acids during the translation process. D. It transfers ADP-ribose from NAD to eukaryotic Elongation Factor 2 thereby inhibiting its activity during protein synthesis. E. It blocks the activity of bacterial, but not eukaryotic, RNA polymerase. 16) Schaeffer–Fulton stain is an example of : A- Capsule stain B- Flagellar stain C- Spore stain D- Simple stain 17) Each of the following methods is used for estimation of protein concentration Except: A- Lowry method B- biuret method C- Sheffield method D- Bradford method 18) The role of clinical microbiologist in identification of a specific etiologic agent includes each of the following except: A-The type and timing of specimens to be collected. B- Prescription of appropriate therapy to patients C-Microbial detection and isolation. D- Determination of microbial susceptibility to antimicrobial agents. 19) For antibiotic susceptibility testing (disk diffusion test), the optimal number of antibiotic disks applied to the agar plate is; A- Four B- Five C- Six D- Eight 20) Covac's reagent is used in which one of the following biochemical tests? A- Voges-Proskauer test B- Oxidase production test ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬56

59. 3 C- Uraese production test. D- Indole production test 21) the ELISA test can be used for the diagnosis of toxoplasmosis as: A-confirmatory tests B-less sensitive test C-screening test D-both A&C 22) Kahn test is a serologic test for the diagnosis of : A-syphilis B-Bordetella C-Corynebacterium D-Clostridium. 23) the specificity of serologic test means: A-ability to detect very small quantities of antigens B- ability to detect very small quantities of antibodies C- the ability of the test to identify the infectious agent with no false positive results D-non of the above 24) the level of IFN-γ increases during A-intracellular infection B-extra cellular infection C-humoral immune response D-toxigenic bacterial infection 25) the window period refers to : A-period after acute infection before the chronic stage B-period after infection but prior to Ab production C-period of chronic infection D-period of persisting IgG 26) The final outcome of most host-parasite relationships is dependent on A- the number of organisms present in or on the host B- the virulence of the organism C- the host's defenses D- all of these E- Two of the above 27) Which of the following areas of the human body are normally free of microorganisms? A-Lower respiratory tract B-kidneys C-eyes D-all of these E-just A and B 28) If an animal undergoes infection by a pathogenic bacterium: A. infectious disease will inevitably result B. infectious disease will result only if the bacterium is virulent C. infectious disease will result if the bacterium is invasive D. infectious disease will result unless the host is immune E. whether infectious disease will occur depends upon many properties of both the bacterium and the host. 29) The most important benefit that the human gastrointestinal flora provide for their host is: A. digestion of dietary cellulose B. production of endotoxin that produces toxemia C. production of dietary protein D. antagonism against colonization by potential pathogens E. production of antibodies 30) The portion of the bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that is responsible for the toxicity of the molecule is: A. lipid A B. lipoteichoic acid C. O polysaccharide D. Omp A E. N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) 31) A reason not to administer beta lactam antibiotics for a Gram-negative septicemia (blood-borne infection), unless there is no other alternative, is ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬57

60. 4 A. the antibiotic eliminates the normal flora B. beta lactam antibiotics are ineffective against Gram-negative bacteria C. the lysis of bacterial cells increases the activity of bacterial LPS D. Complement activation cannot occur in the presence of the antibiotic E. the antibiotic suppresses the immune response necessary to eliminate the pathogen. 32) Which is one of the most common bacterial infections of humans? A- Streptococcal pneumonia B- pharyngitis C- tuberculosis D- whooping cough 33) Some bacteria do not require iron because: A- Metabolism is strictly fermentative B- Iron plays no role in their infection C- Other metals are the cofactors of their enzymes D- None of the above. 34) The mechanism of action of cholera toxin is similar to that of A- Eneropathogenic E. coli B- Enerotoxogenic E. coli C- Enerohemorrhagic E. coli D- Shigella sonnie 35) Which one of the following is an examples of phase variation in bacteria: A- Production of diphtheria toxin by Corynebacterium diphtheriae B- The specificity of O antigens in Salmonella C- Production of botulinum toxin by Clostridium botulinum D- Changing of Salmonella flagella in response to the immune systems' attack. 36) Which one of the following chemical makes the medium selective for Staph. aureus: A- 10% sodium chloride B- 8% sodium azide C- 0.5% crystal violet D- 2% citric acid 37) Which one of the following organism causes scalded skin syndrome: A- Strept. pyogenes B- R. rickettsiae C- Bacillus subtilis D- Staph. aureus 38) Which test is used to detect the susceptibility to scarlet fever: A- Schick test B- Dick test C- Ascoli D- CAMP test 39) Which one of the following is virulence factor of gonococci: A- O-antigen B- Pili C- M-protein D- H-antigen 40) Which of the following test is used to identify Cl.welchii: A- Elek's test B- Nagler reaction C- String of pearls reaction D- Quellung reaction 41) Which of the following symptoms is seen in Cl. Botulinum food poisoning: A- Diplopia B- Disphagia C- Respirotary paralysis D- All of these 42) Which of the following bacterium shows bipolar staining: A- Yersinia pestis B- Haemophilus ducreyi C- Both of these D- None of these 43) In which week of enteric fever 90% blood cultures are positive: A- First B- Second C- Third D- Fourth 44) ASO titer is associated with: A- Staph. aureus B- Salmonella typhi C- Strept. pyogenes D- Strept. pneumoniae 45) Following are the agent of non-specific urethritis except: A- Mycoplasma hominis B- Chlamydia trachomatis ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬58

61. 5 C- Neisseria gonorrhoeae D- Cytomegalovirus 46) Each of the following statements concerning viral surface proteins is correct Except: A. They protect the genetic material against nucleases. B. They elicit antibody that neutralize infectivity of the virus. C. They participate in active transport of nutrients across the viral envelope membrane D. They determine the species specificity of the virus-cell interaction. E. None of the above 47) Each of the following statements concerning viruses is correct Except: A. Viruses can reproduce only within cells B. Viruses replicate by binary fission C. Neutralizing antibody is directed against proteins on the surface of the virus D. The proteins on the surface of the virus mediate the entry of the virus into the host cell. 48) Each of the following statements concerning interferon is correct Except: A. Interferon inhibits the growth of both DNA and RNA viruses B. Interferon is induced by double-stranded RNA C. Interferon made by cells of one species act more effectively in the cells of that species than in the cells of other species D. Interferons acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell. 49) Each of the following statements concerning lysogeny is correct Except: A. Viral genes responsible for lysis are repressed B. Viral genes replicate independently of bacterial genes C. Viral DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA D. Some lysogenic bacteriophages encode toxins that cause human diseases. 50) Viroids: A. Are defective viruses that are missing the DNA coding for the matrix protein B. Consist of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat C. Cause tumors in experimental animals D. Require an RNA polymerase in the particle for replication to occur. 51) Which of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to be life-long? A- Passive immunity B- Passive active immunity C- Active immunity D- cell-mediated immunity 52) Latency is an outcome particularly characteristics of which one of the following virus group: A- Polioviruses B- Herpes viruses C- Rhinoviruses Influenza viruses 53) The ability of virus to produce disease can result from each of the following mechanisms Except: A. Cytopathic effect in infected cells B. Malignant transformation of infected cells C. Immune response to virus-induced antigens on the surface of infected cells D. Production of exotoxin that activates adenylate cyclase. 54) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, Each of the following statements concerning this fact is correct Except: A. Viruses cannot generate energy outside of the cell B. Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside of the cell C. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides D. Enveloped viruses require host cell membrane to obtain their envelopes. ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬59

62. 6 55) Each of the following statements concerning slow infections caused by conventional viruses is correct Except: A. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infects brain macrophages and causes a “slow infection” manifested by dementia B. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) occurs in individuals who were infected with measeles virus several years earlier C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy`(PML) is caused by a papovavirus Infection with papovavirus is very common, but disease occurs primarily in immunocompromised individuals. D. in both PML and SSPE, the long latent period of the disease is attributed to integration of the viral DNA into the host cell DNA E. Rhabdoviruses were the causative of slow virus infection. 56) A primary immune response in an adult human produce detectable Ab levels in the blood is approximately: A. 3 weeks B. 1 week C. 12 hours. D. 3 days 57) Craft and tumor rejection are mediated primarily by: A. Phagocytic cell B. Cytotoxic cells C. Helper T cells D. Non-complement-fixing antibodies. 58) Which class of antibody has the ability to across the placenta: A- IgG B- IgA C- IgM D- IgE 59) Which one of the following substances is not released by activated helper T cells: A- Alpha interferon B- Gamma interferon C- IL-2 D- IL-4 60) The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of complement with: A- Antigen B- Factor B C- Antigen-IgG complex D- Bacterial LPS 61) Aids is caused by a human retrovirus that kills: A- B-lymphocytes B- Lymphocyte stem cell C- CD4+ T lymphocytes D- CD8+ T lymphocytes 62) The class of antibody present in highest concentration in the blood of human newborn is: A- IgG B- IgA C- IgM D- IgE E- IgD 63) Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on their surfaces: A- IgE B- Gamma interferon C- Class І MHC antigens D- Class ІІ MHC antigens 64) the designsation" MALT" refers to: A-Monocyte Activating Lymphokine Tissue B-lymphoid tissues of mucosa C-vaccine against Measeles and Adenoviruses D-Membrane Attack Lymphoid Tissues 65) Which of the following clinical features is not associated with immunodeficiency: A-chronic inflammation B-skin rashes C-diarrhea D-signs and symptoms of autoimmune diseases 66) the induction of SLE is mediated by: A-allergic reaction B-cytotoxic C-soluble immune complex D-cell mediated hypersensitivity ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬60

63. 7 67) Grave's disease is an example of which of the following immunologic processes? A-autoimmune disease associated with HLA –B27 B- autoimmune disease associated with HLA –DR3 C- immune deficiency associated with HLA –DR2 D- immune deficiency associated with HLA –DR4 68) the IL-12 is: A-produced by dendritic cells and macrophages to activate NK cells B- produced by NK cells to activate TH1 cells C- produced by NK cells to activate TH2 cells D- produced by NK cells to stimulate the immunoglobulin isotype switching 69) the IgG4 is induced during the infection with: A-viruses B-Gram positive bacteria C-Gram negative bacteria D-helminths 70) the CTLA-4 is expressed on: A-APCs and enhances the immune response B-TH cells and enhances the immune response C- APCs and inhibits the immune response D- TH cells and inhibits the immune responsee 71) Following are the surface fungal infections except: A-Tinea versicolor B-Tinea nigra C-Piedra D-Dermatophytosis 72) Fungal spores formed by fragmentation of hyphae are called: A- Arthrospores B- Blastospores C- Chlamydospores D- Basidiospores 73) Which of the following is the most common fungus involved in causation of otomycosis: A- Candida B- Mucor C- Aspergillus D- Cryptococcus 74) Tinea cruris is dermatophyte infection of: A- Foot B- Nails C- Groin D- Head 75) Sterol is a component of cytoplasmic membrane in: A- Rickettsia B- Fungi C- Chlamydia D- Both B and C 76) Which of the following is the initiation codon: A- UGA B- AGG C- AGA D- AUG 77) Which of the following enzymes catalyses the synthesis of DNA from RNA template: A- Endonuclease B- Transcriptase C- Ligase D- Reverse transcriptase 78) Which of the following mechanisms amplifies genetic transfer: A- Transformation B- Transposition C- Translocation D- Transduction 79) Which of the following enzymes is used for cutting DNA at specific site: A- Helicase B- Invertase C- Endonuclease D- Reductase 80) Polymerase chain reaction is used for the detection of: A- Antibody B- Antigen C- Nucleic acid D- All of these 81) One of the following statements is incorrect: A- Transduction is mediated by bacteriophge B- Conjugation depends on fertility pilus ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ 6 ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬61

64. 8 C- Somatic pili is used for mating of bacteria D- Competent cells are used for transformation 82) One of the following enzymes have no role uric acid biosynthesis: A- Xanthine oxidase B- Adenosine deaminase C- Nucleotidase D- Urease E- None of above 83) The enzyme produced normally in culture media without stimulation is called: A- Inducible enzyme B- Constitutive enzyme C- Coenzyme D- Cofactor E- Apoenzyme 84) The technique used for purification of proteins according to their molecular weight is: A- Gel filteration B- Ion-exchange chromatography C- Gel electrophoresis D- PCR E- Salting-out 85) Proteolytic enzymes belong to: A- Oxidoreductase B- Hydrolyase C- Lyases D- Transferases E- Isomerases 86) Black water fever is caused by: A- Leishmania donovani B- Plasmodium vivax C- Plasmodium falciparum C- Leishmania braziliensis E- Schistosoma haematobium 87) Probe is a small DNA piece which used in: A- PCR B- cDNA C- FISH D- All the above E- None of the above 88) Ori T is present in: A- Chromosome B- Non-conjugative plasmids C- Transposone D- Conjugative plasmids E- Insertion sequences 89) Steatorrhoea is associated with: A- Amoebiasis B- Giardiasis C- Balantidiasis D- Malaria 90) The common name of Trichuris trichura is: A- Trichina worm B- Whip worm C- Hook worm D- Pin worm E- Liver fluke 91) Nephrotic syndrome is seen mainly with: A- Benign tertian malaria B- Malignant tertian malaria C- Ovale malaria D- Quartan malaria E- All the above 92) Which of the following parasites has a role in renal carcinoma; A- Cryptosporidium parvum B- Schistosoma haematobium C- Paragonimus westermanii D- Ancylostoma duodenale E- Taenia solium 93) One of the following is not used as a cloning vector: A- Phage B- Plasmid C- Insertion sequence D- Cosmid E- Charon 94) All of the following statements concerning Insertion sequences are correct except: A- Has a role in DNA-DNA attachment B- Has no function C- Present within transposone structure D- Present within cDNA component E- Has a role in conjugation 95) Cysticercosis is caused by: A- Larva of Taenia solium ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ 6 ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬62

65. 9 B- Larva of Taenia saginata C- Larva of Hymenolepis nana D- Larva of Hymenolepis diminuta E- All the above 96) Competitive inhibition of enzyme can be overcome by: A- Increasing the concentration of enzyme B- Increasing the concentration of inhibition C- Increasing the concentration of substrate D- Increasing the concentration of enzyme and substrate E- Decreasing the concentration of enzyme and substrate 97) The specimen of choice for recovery of Leishmania donovani is: A- CSF B- Bone marrow C- Sputum D- Skin scraping E- All the above 98) The cells of acute inflammation are: A- Basophil B- Eosinophil C- Mesophil D- Neutrophil E- Lymphocytes 99) The cardinal signs of acute inflammation are: A- Tumor B- Ruber C- Dolar D- Calore E- All the above 100) The basic components of chronic inflammation are: A- Lymphocytes B- Macrophages C- Granulation tissue D- All the above E- None of the above ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ 6 ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬63

66. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬64 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ ‫اء‬‫ا‬‫روا‬‫ا‬‫ن‬: https://www.researchgate.net/publication/279976576_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions https://www.researchgate.net/publication/279999140_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_II https://www.researchgate.net/publication/280040454_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_III https://www.researchgate.net/publication/297733882_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_IV https://www.researchgate.net/publication/297738407_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_V https://www.researchgate.net/publication/297871382_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_VI https://www.researchgate.net/publication/297918066_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_VII https://www.researchgate.net/publication/298036870_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_VIII https://www.researchgate.net/publication/298212564_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_IX https://www.researchgate.net/publication/299236826_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_X

67. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬65 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ https://www.researchgate.net/publication/302709688_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XI https://www.researchgate.net/publication/302962070_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XII https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303033839_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XIII https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303080645_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XIV https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303163957_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XV https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303242900_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XVI https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303280203_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XVII https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303313220_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XVIII https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303337124_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XIX https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303358026_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XX https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303403823_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXI https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303462122_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXII

68. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬66 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303518173_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXIII https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303550532_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXIV https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303605691_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXV https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303644108_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXVI https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303688409_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXVII https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303766922_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXVIII https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303793238_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXIX https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303818298_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXX https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303837667_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXXI https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303873019_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXXII https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303913982_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXXIII https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303924536_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXXIV

69. ‫ا‬‫ء‬‫ن‬‫ا‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬67 ‫ا‬‫أ‬‫ذج‬‫ا‬‫ن‬**********‫ي‬‫ا‬‫ا‬‫إ‬ https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303961375_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXXV https://www.researchgate.net/publication/303999892_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXXVI https://www.researchgate.net/publication/304062685_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXXVII https://www.researchgate.net/publication/304091690_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXXVIII https://www.researchgate.net/publication/304152333_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXXIX https://www.researchgate.net/publication/304248380_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXXX https://www.researchgate.net/publication/304346816_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXXXI https://www.researchgate.net/publication/304416154_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXXXII https://www.researchgate.net/publication/304460485_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXXXIII https://www.researchgate.net/publication/304539160_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXXXIV https://www.researchgate.net/publication/304576068_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXXXV https://www.researchgate.net/publication/304628358_Samples_ of_Competitive_Examination_Questions_Part_XXXXVI