The document contains multiple choice questions about parts of speech, parts of a sentence, types of sentences, recording information, basic mathematics, technical writing, types of forms, team roles, code of ethics, gender and development sensitivity, and electrical and fire safety codes. The questions test knowledge of key concepts in grammar, communication, math, writing, teamwork, ethics, and safety regulations.
The document contains a test with multiple choice and true/false questions about the novel Around the World in 80 Days. It also includes rubrics for assessing writing assignments on various bands from excellent to very weak based on how well the requirements of the task are fulfilled, the development and organization of ideas, sentence structure usage, vocabulary, language accuracy, and mechanics of writing.
This document contains a series of questions and answers related to peer pressure, national identity, and first aid. It also includes band descriptors for assessing writing.
- Questions 1-3 contain true/false questions about peer pressure and seeking help from peers.
- Questions 2 lists components of a country's national identity such as being multiracial, multicultural, and having national languages.
- The last section provides first aid responses for injuries like fainting and choking. It also identifies phrases related to first aid concepts.
This document provides a mark scheme for assessing students' responses to various questions on grammar, reading comprehension, and writing. It outlines the assessment objectives, answers, and evaluation criteria for each section. For the grammar correction questions, students must identify one correct answer per line. For the reading comprehension sections, answers are evaluated for accuracy and lifting of irrelevant text is not awarded marks. For the writing sections, responses are placed into bands based on the demonstration of language, thinking, and reading skills, with accuracy and fulfillment of the task being prioritized over length.
This document is a past examination paper for the Teaching Knowledge Test, Module 1. It contains 80 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of language and background to language learning and teaching. The questions cover topics such as parts of speech, phonology, grammar, vocabulary and classroom activities. Learners have 1 hour and 20 minutes to complete the test.
The document provides guidelines for marking the Bahasa Ingeris (English Language) paper for the 2011 Sijil Pelajaran Malaysia (Malaysian Certificate of Education) examination.
It outlines the assessment criteria for Section A: Directed Writing, which includes 3 marks for format, 12 marks for content, and 20 marks for language, for a total of 35 marks. For Section B: Continuous Writing, candidates' responses will be assessed based on impression and fitted to one of several bands that describe language accuracy, vocabulary, punctuation, and other criteria. The document also contains sample answers for Section C: Comprehension questions and guidance for summarizing responses.
Cambridge English: First, also known as First Certificate in English (FCE), tests an upper-intermediate level of everyday written and spoken English skills needed for work or study. The exam consists of four papers: Reading, Writing, Use of English, and Listening. Candidates must demonstrate the ability to understand various texts and spoken materials, produce different types of writing, and accurately use English grammar and vocabulary. Test takers receive a separate grade for each paper and an overall exam result.
Assessment use of english and speaking specifications and keyMaFranciscaaa
This document provides details on designing a speaking assessment task for second-year university students in Chile. It describes the context, lesson aim, skills to be assessed, task description, rubric, test specifications, testing task, and references. The speaking task requires students to give their opinion on a topic drawn from a box, then respond to a follow-up question. Test specifications define the purpose, examinees, construct, sections, timing, weighting, skills, and language elements assessed.
The document provides an overview of the format and content of the First Certificate in English (FCE) examination, which assesses English language proficiency at level B2 of the Common European Framework of Reference. It describes the 5 exam papers: Reading, Writing, Use of English, Listening, and Speaking. For each paper it outlines the number of parts, questions, timing, marks, task types, and content assessed. The Reading, Writing, and Use of English papers involve multiple choice, gap fill, and matching questions. The Listening paper tests understanding of short texts and conversations. The Speaking paper involves personal interviews and discussions between candidates.
The document contains a test with multiple choice and true/false questions about the novel Around the World in 80 Days. It also includes rubrics for assessing writing assignments on various bands from excellent to very weak based on how well the requirements of the task are fulfilled, the development and organization of ideas, sentence structure usage, vocabulary, language accuracy, and mechanics of writing.
This document contains a series of questions and answers related to peer pressure, national identity, and first aid. It also includes band descriptors for assessing writing.
- Questions 1-3 contain true/false questions about peer pressure and seeking help from peers.
- Questions 2 lists components of a country's national identity such as being multiracial, multicultural, and having national languages.
- The last section provides first aid responses for injuries like fainting and choking. It also identifies phrases related to first aid concepts.
This document provides a mark scheme for assessing students' responses to various questions on grammar, reading comprehension, and writing. It outlines the assessment objectives, answers, and evaluation criteria for each section. For the grammar correction questions, students must identify one correct answer per line. For the reading comprehension sections, answers are evaluated for accuracy and lifting of irrelevant text is not awarded marks. For the writing sections, responses are placed into bands based on the demonstration of language, thinking, and reading skills, with accuracy and fulfillment of the task being prioritized over length.
This document is a past examination paper for the Teaching Knowledge Test, Module 1. It contains 80 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of language and background to language learning and teaching. The questions cover topics such as parts of speech, phonology, grammar, vocabulary and classroom activities. Learners have 1 hour and 20 minutes to complete the test.
The document provides guidelines for marking the Bahasa Ingeris (English Language) paper for the 2011 Sijil Pelajaran Malaysia (Malaysian Certificate of Education) examination.
It outlines the assessment criteria for Section A: Directed Writing, which includes 3 marks for format, 12 marks for content, and 20 marks for language, for a total of 35 marks. For Section B: Continuous Writing, candidates' responses will be assessed based on impression and fitted to one of several bands that describe language accuracy, vocabulary, punctuation, and other criteria. The document also contains sample answers for Section C: Comprehension questions and guidance for summarizing responses.
Cambridge English: First, also known as First Certificate in English (FCE), tests an upper-intermediate level of everyday written and spoken English skills needed for work or study. The exam consists of four papers: Reading, Writing, Use of English, and Listening. Candidates must demonstrate the ability to understand various texts and spoken materials, produce different types of writing, and accurately use English grammar and vocabulary. Test takers receive a separate grade for each paper and an overall exam result.
Assessment use of english and speaking specifications and keyMaFranciscaaa
This document provides details on designing a speaking assessment task for second-year university students in Chile. It describes the context, lesson aim, skills to be assessed, task description, rubric, test specifications, testing task, and references. The speaking task requires students to give their opinion on a topic drawn from a box, then respond to a follow-up question. Test specifications define the purpose, examinees, construct, sections, timing, weighting, skills, and language elements assessed.
The document provides an overview of the format and content of the First Certificate in English (FCE) examination, which assesses English language proficiency at level B2 of the Common European Framework of Reference. It describes the 5 exam papers: Reading, Writing, Use of English, Listening, and Speaking. For each paper it outlines the number of parts, questions, timing, marks, task types, and content assessed. The Reading, Writing, and Use of English papers involve multiple choice, gap fill, and matching questions. The Listening paper tests understanding of short texts and conversations. The Speaking paper involves personal interviews and discussions between candidates.
Here are the key points about Paper 4: Listening:
- It consists of 4 parts with a total of 30 questions
- The exam lasts approximately 40 minutes
- Students will hear all recordings twice
- There are a variety of question types including multiple choice, matching, form completion, labelling a diagram, etc.
- Parts 1-3 are concerned with social situations, while Part 4 contains an extended monologue or conversation
- Parts 1-3 test both global and detailed understanding
- Part 4 tests global comprehension under time pressure
The format is designed to test students' ability to understand conversations and interactions in a variety of social situations, as well as longer, more complex spoken texts. Repeating the recordings
The document contains a reading comprehension passage and questions about the passage. It discusses how teenagers can constructively spend their time through activities like reading, exercise, helping with chores, part-time jobs, and socializing. However, it cautions against wasting time through meaningless chatting. Teenagers who efficiently manage their time by prioritizing important tasks are likely to become responsible and reliable adults.
This document contains a list of learning competencies and assessments for students in grades 1-3. It includes competencies in subjects like mother tongue, reading, writing, and grammar. The competencies are broken down by grading period and include skills like reading sight words, identifying parts of speech, comprehending stories, and communicating ideas orally and in writing. Assessments are provided to measure students' mastery of the competencies and are available as online links when possible.
The document provides a marking scheme for an English language exam consisting of two sections: Section A Directed Writing and Section B Continuous Writing.
For Section A, marks are awarded for format (3 marks), content (12 marks), and language (20 marks). Content includes 12 potential points about environmental issues. Language is scored based on accuracy, style, tone, and other criteria.
Section B assesses continuous writing. Marks are awarded based on bands from Excellent to Poor, evaluating accuracy, vocabulary, spelling, punctuation, paragraphs, tone and style. Errors are identified and weighed against demonstration of language ability.
The document provides an overview of Paper 1 of the DSE English exam. It includes:
- An introduction to Paper 1, which consists of two parts worth 10% each and tests reading comprehension. Candidates choose between the easier Part B1 or more difficult Part B2.
- Suggested time allocations of 40 minutes for Part A and 50 minutes for Part B.
- An overview of basic answering techniques for multiple choice and short answer questions, including predicting, skimming, and scanning.
- Examples of common multiple choice question types like determining tone and style.
The document aims to inform students about the structure and requirements of the Paper 1 exam and provide test-taking strategies.
New language test requirements have been introduced for UK visas and immigration. Candidates should visit www.cambridgeenglish.org for more information about the exam updates and requirements. The document then provides an overview of the Cambridge English Advanced exam, including its purpose, recognition, exam content and structure. It describes the four exam papers (Reading and Use of English, Writing, Listening, Speaking) and provides sample exam questions.
Elementary English MELCs with Grade Level Standards (For Sharing)Rec Rec
1. The document provides an overview of the Most Essential Learning Competencies (MELC) in English for grades 1 through 5.
2. It outlines the grade level standards and lists the key learning competencies that students should master each quarter for each grade.
3. The competencies focus on developing students' listening, speaking, reading and writing skills through activities like retelling stories, following instructions, spelling words, reading texts and writing paragraphs.
MELC S. Y. 2020-2021 English-Elementary (For Sharing)Rec Rec
This document provides the Most Essential Learning Competencies (MELC) in English for grades 1 through 5. It outlines the key skills students should develop each grading period, along with example lessons, learning resources, and assessments. Some of the skills covered include recognizing rhyming words and sentences, retelling stories, spelling words with short vowels, using pronouns and verbs correctly, reading comprehension strategies, and writing paragraphs with different structures. The MELC is intended to guide English instruction to ensure students learn the most important competencies for their grade level.
The document discusses the concept of a "new normal" for the global economy in the aftermath of the financial crisis. It states that according to experts like Mohamed El-Erian, growth will be slower and unemployment higher in the new normal. Finance and investment will be more limited due to higher costs and weakened securitization markets. Government intervention in markets like banking may overstay its welcome. Countries may also start to feel fiscal strains as seen in California. The US Treasury in particular will need to show it can be fiscally responsible.
This document is the table of contents for the book "1001 Vocabulary and Spelling Questions". It is divided into 4 sections that cover synonyms, antonyms, verbal classification, analogies, vocabulary in context, and spelling. The book contains 1001 practice questions to help readers improve their vocabulary and spelling skills. It is designed to be used to supplement language arts instruction, prepare for exams, or as general practice to boost verbal abilities.
This document provides an overview of important verbal skills tested in entrance exams, including vocabulary, synonyms, antonyms, one-word substitutions, spelling, definitions, analogies, and rearranging jumbled letters, words, and sentences. It emphasizes the importance of having a strong vocabulary for tackling comprehension questions. Examples are provided for each type of verbal question to illustrate the level of analysis required to choose the correct answer. Students are advised to carefully study these verbal skills and practice them constantly in order to perform well on the exam.
This document provides instructions and marking schemes for administering a placement test to determine a student's English proficiency level. The test covers functions, grammar, vocabulary, reading, listening, speaking and writing. Scores on each section correspond to CEFR levels from A1 to B2. Combined scores determine an overall placement level of Beginner to Intermediate. Speaking and writing samples are assessed based on grammar, vocabulary, errors and organization, with scores again correlating to CEFR levels and placement. The test enables accurate placement of students in the correct level of an English language program.
This document provides directions and examples for a proofreading test. It includes multiple choice questions about proofreading marks and errors in capitalization, grammar, punctuation and spelling. It also provides sentences to proofread and correct. The document covers identifying and correcting common typing and writing errors through use of proofreading symbols. It aims to test understanding of proofreading skills and conventions of written English.
This document contains an English proficiency exam for 3rd year high school students in Uruguay. It has two sections: [1] A reading comprehension section with multiple choice and short answer questions about two passages. [2] A section involving vocabulary, grammar and writing exercises including filling in blanks, matching words to topics, and writing an email. The exam tests a range of English language skills and would evaluate students' reading, writing, vocabulary and grammar knowledge.
PENTAKSIRAN TINGKATAN 1 ENGLISH MARKING SCHEME 2015ctmai
Section A provides a marking scheme for 10 multiple choice questions about an English language test. Section B lists career choices and extracurricular activities in response to 10 multiple choice questions. Section C contains true/false and short answer questions about a book fair, including information on performances, contests, and author meet-ups. The document concludes with a scoring rubric to assess responses in bands from excellent to very weak based on fulfillment of task requirements, idea development, organization, language use, and writing mechanics.
English 2013 cbse board sample papers and marking schemePravakar Barad
1. The passage provides details from a sample question paper for the English Core subject for Class XII in India.
2. The paper is divided into 3 sections - Section A tests reading comprehension through two unseen passages, Section B evaluates advanced writing skills through various writing tasks, and Section C involves questions based on two prescribed textbooks.
3. Section A comprises two passages of varying lengths for comprehension questions, vocabulary, and note-making. Section B contains writing tasks like advertisements, reports, letters based on inputs. Section C examines understanding and analysis of chapters from the textbooks through short and long questions.
This document contains an English proficiency exam given to third-year high school students in Uruguay in February 2013. [It consists of reading comprehension questions and exercises testing vocabulary, grammar, and writing skills.] The exam addresses topics such as teenage organ donation in the US, TV and media, community service, careers and job applications. Students are evaluated on their ability to understand texts, match terms to their meanings, express opinions, fill in blanks, and write an email about job preferences.
The document provides guidelines for the English subject exam for the Moroccan Baccalaureate. It outlines the syllabus coverage, exam structure, sections and weighting for different academic streams. The exam consists of three sections - comprehension, language and writing. The comprehension section tests reading skills through various question techniques and covers different text types. The language section tests vocabulary, grammar and language functions. The guidelines provide details on the implementation of the exam to ensure it effectively evaluates students' language abilities.
This document appears to be a midterm exam for a course on purposive communication. It consists of multiple choice questions testing knowledge of communication terms like language, speech community, and language acquisition. There are also fill-in-the-blank questions using communication vocabulary and short essay questions asking about culture in the student's home, how cultures can change, and the organizational culture of the Philippine College of Criminology where the student is enrolled.
1. One of the things Alexis enjoys about her teams _______ is that.pdfarihantelectronics
1. One of the things Alexis enjoys about her team\'s _______ is that she\'s allowed to learn and
experiment without fear of being ridiculed. A. cohesiveness B. social facilitation C. perceptual
bias D. conformity
2. Mary wonders who the other people on the team are, how she\'ll fit in, what their expectations
of her might be, and how much work will be involved. These are all issues she\'ll likely consider
during the _______ stage of a team. A. norming B. forming C. storming D. performing
3. One of the disadvantages of electronic communication is A. the potential for asynchronous
communication. B. wide geographical dispersion. C. the capacity to broadcast to many people at
once. D. the reduction of the affective component of messages.
4. During her first week in a new job at a new organization, Elsa receives an email with a few
bits of _______, terms that are commonly used by people who\'ve worked at the company for a
long time but which are unfamiliar to her. A. jargon B. filters C. noise D. semantics
5. One of the disadvantages of team cohesion involves A. proposing solutions that involve some
element of risk or uncertainty. B. the development of strong norms and culture. C. tolerance of a
certain level of conflict. D. shifting focus to the goals of the team rather than the organization.
6. Victoria determines that a staff meeting is necessary to review certain changes that are about
to occur in the department she manages. As she composes a memo informing employees about
the upcoming meeting, she should be sure to A. clearly communicate the purpose of the meeting.
B. ask her staff to submit ideas they\'d like to discuss. C. leave the agenda open in case people
want to discuss other issues. D. keep the duration of the meeting vague to accommodate
discussion.
7. Isabel is writing a report on the potential impact of rebranding one of her company\'s product
lines. After determining her audience and the purpose of her report, she gathers the information
she needs. Her next step should be to A. write a freestyle first draft. B. create an outline. C.
choose appropriate visual elements. D. paraphrase her ideas.
8. In organizations where openness and honesty are valued as part of the organization\'s culture,
_______ can help to extend trust when people are communicating orally. A. self-reflection B.
self-preservation C. self-disclosure D. self-interest
9. Businesses in the United States, and other Western businesses, understand that while
preserving individual focus, they still need to take certain steps to build team cohesion and
manage team diversity. To achieve this balance, they can A. reward individual contributions. B.
discourage conflicting opinions. C. focus only on long-term goals at the expense of short-term
objectives. D. aim for harmony and quick consensus.
10. A common misconception about self-directed teams is that A. some members may not want
more responsibility than they already have. B. team development requires considerable time and.
Here are the key points about Paper 4: Listening:
- It consists of 4 parts with a total of 30 questions
- The exam lasts approximately 40 minutes
- Students will hear all recordings twice
- There are a variety of question types including multiple choice, matching, form completion, labelling a diagram, etc.
- Parts 1-3 are concerned with social situations, while Part 4 contains an extended monologue or conversation
- Parts 1-3 test both global and detailed understanding
- Part 4 tests global comprehension under time pressure
The format is designed to test students' ability to understand conversations and interactions in a variety of social situations, as well as longer, more complex spoken texts. Repeating the recordings
The document contains a reading comprehension passage and questions about the passage. It discusses how teenagers can constructively spend their time through activities like reading, exercise, helping with chores, part-time jobs, and socializing. However, it cautions against wasting time through meaningless chatting. Teenagers who efficiently manage their time by prioritizing important tasks are likely to become responsible and reliable adults.
This document contains a list of learning competencies and assessments for students in grades 1-3. It includes competencies in subjects like mother tongue, reading, writing, and grammar. The competencies are broken down by grading period and include skills like reading sight words, identifying parts of speech, comprehending stories, and communicating ideas orally and in writing. Assessments are provided to measure students' mastery of the competencies and are available as online links when possible.
The document provides a marking scheme for an English language exam consisting of two sections: Section A Directed Writing and Section B Continuous Writing.
For Section A, marks are awarded for format (3 marks), content (12 marks), and language (20 marks). Content includes 12 potential points about environmental issues. Language is scored based on accuracy, style, tone, and other criteria.
Section B assesses continuous writing. Marks are awarded based on bands from Excellent to Poor, evaluating accuracy, vocabulary, spelling, punctuation, paragraphs, tone and style. Errors are identified and weighed against demonstration of language ability.
The document provides an overview of Paper 1 of the DSE English exam. It includes:
- An introduction to Paper 1, which consists of two parts worth 10% each and tests reading comprehension. Candidates choose between the easier Part B1 or more difficult Part B2.
- Suggested time allocations of 40 minutes for Part A and 50 minutes for Part B.
- An overview of basic answering techniques for multiple choice and short answer questions, including predicting, skimming, and scanning.
- Examples of common multiple choice question types like determining tone and style.
The document aims to inform students about the structure and requirements of the Paper 1 exam and provide test-taking strategies.
New language test requirements have been introduced for UK visas and immigration. Candidates should visit www.cambridgeenglish.org for more information about the exam updates and requirements. The document then provides an overview of the Cambridge English Advanced exam, including its purpose, recognition, exam content and structure. It describes the four exam papers (Reading and Use of English, Writing, Listening, Speaking) and provides sample exam questions.
Elementary English MELCs with Grade Level Standards (For Sharing)Rec Rec
1. The document provides an overview of the Most Essential Learning Competencies (MELC) in English for grades 1 through 5.
2. It outlines the grade level standards and lists the key learning competencies that students should master each quarter for each grade.
3. The competencies focus on developing students' listening, speaking, reading and writing skills through activities like retelling stories, following instructions, spelling words, reading texts and writing paragraphs.
MELC S. Y. 2020-2021 English-Elementary (For Sharing)Rec Rec
This document provides the Most Essential Learning Competencies (MELC) in English for grades 1 through 5. It outlines the key skills students should develop each grading period, along with example lessons, learning resources, and assessments. Some of the skills covered include recognizing rhyming words and sentences, retelling stories, spelling words with short vowels, using pronouns and verbs correctly, reading comprehension strategies, and writing paragraphs with different structures. The MELC is intended to guide English instruction to ensure students learn the most important competencies for their grade level.
The document discusses the concept of a "new normal" for the global economy in the aftermath of the financial crisis. It states that according to experts like Mohamed El-Erian, growth will be slower and unemployment higher in the new normal. Finance and investment will be more limited due to higher costs and weakened securitization markets. Government intervention in markets like banking may overstay its welcome. Countries may also start to feel fiscal strains as seen in California. The US Treasury in particular will need to show it can be fiscally responsible.
This document is the table of contents for the book "1001 Vocabulary and Spelling Questions". It is divided into 4 sections that cover synonyms, antonyms, verbal classification, analogies, vocabulary in context, and spelling. The book contains 1001 practice questions to help readers improve their vocabulary and spelling skills. It is designed to be used to supplement language arts instruction, prepare for exams, or as general practice to boost verbal abilities.
This document provides an overview of important verbal skills tested in entrance exams, including vocabulary, synonyms, antonyms, one-word substitutions, spelling, definitions, analogies, and rearranging jumbled letters, words, and sentences. It emphasizes the importance of having a strong vocabulary for tackling comprehension questions. Examples are provided for each type of verbal question to illustrate the level of analysis required to choose the correct answer. Students are advised to carefully study these verbal skills and practice them constantly in order to perform well on the exam.
This document provides instructions and marking schemes for administering a placement test to determine a student's English proficiency level. The test covers functions, grammar, vocabulary, reading, listening, speaking and writing. Scores on each section correspond to CEFR levels from A1 to B2. Combined scores determine an overall placement level of Beginner to Intermediate. Speaking and writing samples are assessed based on grammar, vocabulary, errors and organization, with scores again correlating to CEFR levels and placement. The test enables accurate placement of students in the correct level of an English language program.
This document provides directions and examples for a proofreading test. It includes multiple choice questions about proofreading marks and errors in capitalization, grammar, punctuation and spelling. It also provides sentences to proofread and correct. The document covers identifying and correcting common typing and writing errors through use of proofreading symbols. It aims to test understanding of proofreading skills and conventions of written English.
This document contains an English proficiency exam for 3rd year high school students in Uruguay. It has two sections: [1] A reading comprehension section with multiple choice and short answer questions about two passages. [2] A section involving vocabulary, grammar and writing exercises including filling in blanks, matching words to topics, and writing an email. The exam tests a range of English language skills and would evaluate students' reading, writing, vocabulary and grammar knowledge.
PENTAKSIRAN TINGKATAN 1 ENGLISH MARKING SCHEME 2015ctmai
Section A provides a marking scheme for 10 multiple choice questions about an English language test. Section B lists career choices and extracurricular activities in response to 10 multiple choice questions. Section C contains true/false and short answer questions about a book fair, including information on performances, contests, and author meet-ups. The document concludes with a scoring rubric to assess responses in bands from excellent to very weak based on fulfillment of task requirements, idea development, organization, language use, and writing mechanics.
English 2013 cbse board sample papers and marking schemePravakar Barad
1. The passage provides details from a sample question paper for the English Core subject for Class XII in India.
2. The paper is divided into 3 sections - Section A tests reading comprehension through two unseen passages, Section B evaluates advanced writing skills through various writing tasks, and Section C involves questions based on two prescribed textbooks.
3. Section A comprises two passages of varying lengths for comprehension questions, vocabulary, and note-making. Section B contains writing tasks like advertisements, reports, letters based on inputs. Section C examines understanding and analysis of chapters from the textbooks through short and long questions.
This document contains an English proficiency exam given to third-year high school students in Uruguay in February 2013. [It consists of reading comprehension questions and exercises testing vocabulary, grammar, and writing skills.] The exam addresses topics such as teenage organ donation in the US, TV and media, community service, careers and job applications. Students are evaluated on their ability to understand texts, match terms to their meanings, express opinions, fill in blanks, and write an email about job preferences.
The document provides guidelines for the English subject exam for the Moroccan Baccalaureate. It outlines the syllabus coverage, exam structure, sections and weighting for different academic streams. The exam consists of three sections - comprehension, language and writing. The comprehension section tests reading skills through various question techniques and covers different text types. The language section tests vocabulary, grammar and language functions. The guidelines provide details on the implementation of the exam to ensure it effectively evaluates students' language abilities.
This document appears to be a midterm exam for a course on purposive communication. It consists of multiple choice questions testing knowledge of communication terms like language, speech community, and language acquisition. There are also fill-in-the-blank questions using communication vocabulary and short essay questions asking about culture in the student's home, how cultures can change, and the organizational culture of the Philippine College of Criminology where the student is enrolled.
1. One of the things Alexis enjoys about her teams _______ is that.pdfarihantelectronics
1. One of the things Alexis enjoys about her team\'s _______ is that she\'s allowed to learn and
experiment without fear of being ridiculed. A. cohesiveness B. social facilitation C. perceptual
bias D. conformity
2. Mary wonders who the other people on the team are, how she\'ll fit in, what their expectations
of her might be, and how much work will be involved. These are all issues she\'ll likely consider
during the _______ stage of a team. A. norming B. forming C. storming D. performing
3. One of the disadvantages of electronic communication is A. the potential for asynchronous
communication. B. wide geographical dispersion. C. the capacity to broadcast to many people at
once. D. the reduction of the affective component of messages.
4. During her first week in a new job at a new organization, Elsa receives an email with a few
bits of _______, terms that are commonly used by people who\'ve worked at the company for a
long time but which are unfamiliar to her. A. jargon B. filters C. noise D. semantics
5. One of the disadvantages of team cohesion involves A. proposing solutions that involve some
element of risk or uncertainty. B. the development of strong norms and culture. C. tolerance of a
certain level of conflict. D. shifting focus to the goals of the team rather than the organization.
6. Victoria determines that a staff meeting is necessary to review certain changes that are about
to occur in the department she manages. As she composes a memo informing employees about
the upcoming meeting, she should be sure to A. clearly communicate the purpose of the meeting.
B. ask her staff to submit ideas they\'d like to discuss. C. leave the agenda open in case people
want to discuss other issues. D. keep the duration of the meeting vague to accommodate
discussion.
7. Isabel is writing a report on the potential impact of rebranding one of her company\'s product
lines. After determining her audience and the purpose of her report, she gathers the information
she needs. Her next step should be to A. write a freestyle first draft. B. create an outline. C.
choose appropriate visual elements. D. paraphrase her ideas.
8. In organizations where openness and honesty are valued as part of the organization\'s culture,
_______ can help to extend trust when people are communicating orally. A. self-reflection B.
self-preservation C. self-disclosure D. self-interest
9. Businesses in the United States, and other Western businesses, understand that while
preserving individual focus, they still need to take certain steps to build team cohesion and
manage team diversity. To achieve this balance, they can A. reward individual contributions. B.
discourage conflicting opinions. C. focus only on long-term goals at the expense of short-term
objectives. D. aim for harmony and quick consensus.
10. A common misconception about self-directed teams is that A. some members may not want
more responsibility than they already have. B. team development requires considerable time and.
This lesson plan outlines a classroom observation on distinguishing the features of academic writing. The teacher will begin with an icebreaker activity to engage students. They will then discuss the definition and importance of academic writing through examples. Students will analyze texts and statements to identify formal vs informal language. Through a reading passage, students will extract examples demonstrating features of academic writing like objectivity, precision, and formality. To assess understanding, students will answer multiple choice questions. As enrichment, students will create an infographic applying the features of academic writing. The teacher aims to facilitate learning through varied activities addressing different learning styles.
The passage is a speech given by a young female speaker addressing issues of environmental degradation and climate change. She speaks on behalf of vulnerable groups impacted by these crises. She urges the audience to take action, as the problems are urgent and solutions are needed. While she is just a child, she wants the audience to realize they also lack all the answers and should stop worsening the issues if they can't fix them. Her overall purpose is to persuade the audience to take action on these important issues facing the world.
This document provides a pre-test on thesis statements for students taking an English for Academic and Professional Purposes course. It contains multiple choice and true/false questions about the definition and characteristics of thesis statements. The pre-test aims to assess students' existing knowledge of what a thesis statement is, where it is located, and how it should be written. It also includes activities for students to identify what they know and want to know about thesis statements and to practice analyzing thesis statements in sample academic texts.
The document provides examples of different types of test questions that can be used to assess student learning, including multiple choice, true/false, matching, and essay questions. It includes sample questions for each type as well as instructions for how to structure and score the questions. The final section provides a sample lesson plan and rubric for an essay activity asking students to classify foods into food groups and provide examples.
The document contains a cloze test with 10 blanks to be filled in based on context clues from the surrounding text. It also contains multiple choice, true-false, analogy, and matching questions about verbals (gerunds, infinitives, and participles). Additionally, there are sections requiring identification, enumeration, completion/filling in blanks, and an essay incorporating verbals. The document tests understanding of verb forms and their functions in sentences.
The document provides sample questions from an Amcat test to assess candidates' skills in English comprehension, quantitative ability, and logical reasoning. The English comprehension questions cover vocabulary, grammar, sentence correction, and passage comprehension. The quantitative ability questions involve topics like percentages, time/work problems, number series, and probability. The logical reasoning questions test analogies, coding, missing patterns, and evaluating logical conclusions. All questions are multiple-choice with one correct answer.
This document provides information and instructions for COM 295 Business Communications course assignments. It includes links to course materials and outlines weekly assignments such as writing a paper on ethics and credibility in business communications, completing a global communications worksheet, and developing a new hire orientation message. Students are asked to analyze scenarios and compose messages using best practices for business writing, considering audience, purpose, and cultural factors. The document covers key concepts in business communication, including communication barriers, cultural differences, establishing credibility, planning and writing effective messages, and using appropriate technology and style.
This document contains the weekly plans for an MTB-MLE (Mother Tongue Based-Multilingual Education) class for 5 days. The objectives covered include participating in class discussions, noting details from stories, identifying parts of stories, reading aloud, spelling words, and following instructions. On each day, the objectives, subject matter, references, learning tasks, and evaluations are outlined. The subject matter is "My Family and I" for week 1 and expands to include healthy habits, count/mass nouns, and sequencing events in stories for subsequent weeks. The document provides a detailed weekly schedule and standards for an MTB-MLE classroom.
1. The document contains a practice test for a National Achievement Test in Reading and Writing Skills for Grade 12. It covers topics like writing patterns, transitional devices, cohesion, critical thinking, and applying reading strategies.
2. There are multiple choice questions testing understanding, application, analysis, evaluation and creation of ideas related to writing skills. Questions cover identifying appropriate writing structures, use of graphic organizers, and demonstrating critical reading abilities.
3. The final parts involve using critical thinking to ask thoughtful questions, reflect on ideas, and generate new understanding from what was read. Students are evaluated on their ability to think clearly, organize information, and apply reading strategies.
A course in developing media literacy workshops designed for students in information sciences at Hochschule der Medien in Stuttgart. When you are interested in using the course, you are most welcome. If you need any surplus teaching material, like the assignments given to the students, a list of interesting articles or hand outs, feel free to contact me.
This document appears to be a class test on effective public communication. It contains multiple choice questions, true/false questions, and fill-in-the-blank questions testing knowledge of concepts like symbols, language, nonverbal communication, listening, and negotiation. It also includes short answer essay questions asking students to describe concepts like the relationship between symbols and meaning or ways in which listening is critical to future success.
This document appears to be a class test on effective public communication. It contains multiple choice questions, true/false questions, and fill-in-the-blank questions testing knowledge of concepts like symbols, language, nonverbal communication, listening, and negotiation. It also includes short answer essay questions asking students to describe concepts like the relationship between symbols and meaning or ways in which listening is critical to future success.
Edtech213 online exam presentation group 4Manny Buenafe
This document provides guidance on creating effective multiple choice and short answer test questions for online assessments. It discusses best practices such as constructing clear stems, using parallel response options of similar length, and avoiding clues within the responses. Examples of poor and better question styles are given for multiple choice. For short answer questions, recommendations include clearly specifying the expected answer format and length. Online testing platforms like Testmoz and Google Forms are introduced as free tools for easily creating and grading assessments.
This document contains a daily lesson log for an English class in Grade 6. It outlines the objectives, content, learning resources, and procedures for the week's lessons. The lessons focus on developing students' understanding and use of English grammar, verbal and nonverbal communication skills, and filling out forms accurately. Activities include reading passages, group discussions, exercises with adjectives and their degrees of comparison, defining mathematical terms from context clues, and practicing completing biodata forms. Student learning is evaluated through group presentations, exercises, and filling out a sample biodata form. The teacher reflects on what teaching strategies were most effective and any difficulties experienced.
The document provides instructions to complete several dictionary-related tasks:
1) Scan a dictionary entry and answer questions about a word's syllables, stress, part of speech, and plural form.
2) Scan definitions between two words and answer part of speech, syllable, stress, and synonym questions.
3) Complete sentences with the correct prepositions using a dictionary.
4) Check underlined words in sentences for mistakes and correct using a dictionary.
The document provides instructions to scan dictionary entries and text passages to answer questions about parts of speech, word stress, meanings, forms, and prepositions. It also contains sentences to check for grammatical errors using a dictionary. The tasks assess skills in using a dictionary to analyze words, determine correct grammar and syntax, and check underlined portions for mistakes.
Leveraging Generative AI to Drive Nonprofit InnovationTechSoup
In this webinar, participants learned how to utilize Generative AI to streamline operations and elevate member engagement. Amazon Web Service experts provided a customer specific use cases and dived into low/no-code tools that are quick and easy to deploy through Amazon Web Service (AWS.)
Strategies for Effective Upskilling is a presentation by Chinwendu Peace in a Your Skill Boost Masterclass organisation by the Excellence Foundation for South Sudan on 08th and 09th June 2024 from 1 PM to 3 PM on each day.
Beyond Degrees - Empowering the Workforce in the Context of Skills-First.pptxEduSkills OECD
Iván Bornacelly, Policy Analyst at the OECD Centre for Skills, OECD, presents at the webinar 'Tackling job market gaps with a skills-first approach' on 12 June 2024
Temple of Asclepius in Thrace. Excavation resultsKrassimira Luka
The temple and the sanctuary around were dedicated to Asklepios Zmidrenus. This name has been known since 1875 when an inscription dedicated to him was discovered in Rome. The inscription is dated in 227 AD and was left by soldiers originating from the city of Philippopolis (modern Plovdiv).
Walmart Business+ and Spark Good for Nonprofits.pdfTechSoup
"Learn about all the ways Walmart supports nonprofit organizations.
You will hear from Liz Willett, the Head of Nonprofits, and hear about what Walmart is doing to help nonprofits, including Walmart Business and Spark Good. Walmart Business+ is a new offer for nonprofits that offers discounts and also streamlines nonprofits order and expense tracking, saving time and money.
The webinar may also give some examples on how nonprofits can best leverage Walmart Business+.
The event will cover the following::
Walmart Business + (https://business.walmart.com/plus) is a new shopping experience for nonprofits, schools, and local business customers that connects an exclusive online shopping experience to stores. Benefits include free delivery and shipping, a 'Spend Analytics” feature, special discounts, deals and tax-exempt shopping.
Special TechSoup offer for a free 180 days membership, and up to $150 in discounts on eligible orders.
Spark Good (walmart.com/sparkgood) is a charitable platform that enables nonprofits to receive donations directly from customers and associates.
Answers about how you can do more with Walmart!"
LAND USE LAND COVER AND NDVI OF MIRZAPUR DISTRICT, UPRAHUL
This Dissertation explores the particular circumstances of Mirzapur, a region located in the
core of India. Mirzapur, with its varied terrains and abundant biodiversity, offers an optimal
environment for investigating the changes in vegetation cover dynamics. Our study utilizes
advanced technologies such as GIS (Geographic Information Systems) and Remote sensing to
analyze the transformations that have taken place over the course of a decade.
The complex relationship between human activities and the environment has been the focus
of extensive research and worry. As the global community grapples with swift urbanization,
population expansion, and economic progress, the effects on natural ecosystems are becoming
more evident. A crucial element of this impact is the alteration of vegetation cover, which plays a
significant role in maintaining the ecological equilibrium of our planet.Land serves as the foundation for all human activities and provides the necessary materials for
these activities. As the most crucial natural resource, its utilization by humans results in different
'Land uses,' which are determined by both human activities and the physical characteristics of the
land.
The utilization of land is impacted by human needs and environmental factors. In countries
like India, rapid population growth and the emphasis on extensive resource exploitation can lead
to significant land degradation, adversely affecting the region's land cover.
Therefore, human intervention has significantly influenced land use patterns over many
centuries, evolving its structure over time and space. In the present era, these changes have
accelerated due to factors such as agriculture and urbanization. Information regarding land use and
cover is essential for various planning and management tasks related to the Earth's surface,
providing crucial environmental data for scientific, resource management, policy purposes, and
diverse human activities.
Accurate understanding of land use and cover is imperative for the development planning
of any area. Consequently, a wide range of professionals, including earth system scientists, land
and water managers, and urban planners, are interested in obtaining data on land use and cover
changes, conversion trends, and other related patterns. The spatial dimensions of land use and
cover support policymakers and scientists in making well-informed decisions, as alterations in
these patterns indicate shifts in economic and social conditions. Monitoring such changes with the
help of Advanced technologies like Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems is
crucial for coordinated efforts across different administrative levels. Advanced technologies like
Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems
9
Changes in vegetation cover refer to variations in the distribution, composition, and overall
structure of plant communities across different temporal and spatial scales. These changes can
occur natural.
Main Java[All of the Base Concepts}.docxadhitya5119
This is part 1 of my Java Learning Journey. This Contains Custom methods, classes, constructors, packages, multithreading , try- catch block, finally block and more.
Philippine Edukasyong Pantahanan at Pangkabuhayan (EPP) CurriculumMJDuyan
(𝐓𝐋𝐄 𝟏𝟎𝟎) (𝐋𝐞𝐬𝐬𝐨𝐧 𝟏)-𝐏𝐫𝐞𝐥𝐢𝐦𝐬
𝐃𝐢𝐬𝐜𝐮𝐬𝐬 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐄𝐏𝐏 𝐂𝐮𝐫𝐫𝐢𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐮𝐦 𝐢𝐧 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐏𝐡𝐢𝐥𝐢𝐩𝐩𝐢𝐧𝐞𝐬:
- Understand the goals and objectives of the Edukasyong Pantahanan at Pangkabuhayan (EPP) curriculum, recognizing its importance in fostering practical life skills and values among students. Students will also be able to identify the key components and subjects covered, such as agriculture, home economics, industrial arts, and information and communication technology.
𝐄𝐱𝐩𝐥𝐚𝐢𝐧 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐍𝐚𝐭𝐮𝐫𝐞 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝐒𝐜𝐨𝐩𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐚𝐧 𝐄𝐧𝐭𝐫𝐞𝐩𝐫𝐞𝐧𝐞𝐮𝐫:
-Define entrepreneurship, distinguishing it from general business activities by emphasizing its focus on innovation, risk-taking, and value creation. Students will describe the characteristics and traits of successful entrepreneurs, including their roles and responsibilities, and discuss the broader economic and social impacts of entrepreneurial activities on both local and global scales.
Traditional Musical Instruments of Arunachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh - RAYH...
Exam basic competencies
1. PART OF A SPEECH
Multiple choice.
Direction: choose a letter of the correct answer.
1. A __________ is a word for a person, place, thing, or idea.
a. noun b. pronoun
c. adjective d. verb
2. A ___________ is a word used in place of a noun.
a. noun b. pronoun
c. adjective d. verb
3. An __________ is a word used to modify or describe a noun or a pronoun.
a. noun b. pronoun
c. adjective d. verb
4. The ______ in a sentence expresses actionor being.
a. noun b. pronoun
c. adjective d. verb
5. A ________ joins words, phrases, or clauses.
a. noun b. conjunction
c. adjective d. verb
2. PART OF SENTENCE
Multiple Choice
Direction: Choose a letter of the correct answer
1. The ________ refersto the part of the sentence that tellswho or what the sentence is
about.
a. subject b. modifiers
c. complements d. predicate
2. _________ are words or phrases that describe parts of the sentence by adding
additional information.
a. subject b. modifiers
c. complements d. predicate
3. _________ modify the subject by describing it further.
a. subject b. modifiers
c. complements d. predicate
4. The ________of a sentence includes the verband everythingthat follows it.
a. subject b. modifiers
c. complements d. predicate
5. ________are noun phrases that are included in the predicate
a. subject b. modifiers
c. Objects d. predicate
3. EFFECTIVE COMMUNICATION
1. A _____________ sentence ends with a period.
a. interrogative b. declarative
c. imperative d. exclamatory
2. An _____________sentence ends with a question mark.
a. interrogative b. declarative
c. imperative d. exclamatory
3. An _____________ sentence ends with an exclamation mark.
a. interrogative b. declarative
c. imperative d. exclamatory
4. An ____________ sentence gives a command.
a. interrogative b. declarative
c. imperative d. exclamatory
5. The monster is attacking! Is an example of _________Sentence.
a. interrogative b. declarative
c. imperative d. exclamatory
4. RECORDING INFORMATION
Multiple Choices
Write the letter of your correct answer.
1. _________ is the initiator of the message that needs to be transmitted.
a. Message b. Sender
c. Encoding d. Channel
2.__________ is referred to as the information conveyed by words as in speech and write-
ups, signs, pictures or symbols depending upon the situation and the nature and
importance of information desired to be sent.
a. Message b. Sender
c. Encoding d. Channel
3. _____________is putting the targeted message into appropriate medium which may
be verbal or non-verbal depending upon the situation, time, space and nature of the
message to be sent.
a. Message b. Sender
c. Encoding d. Channel
4. ____________ refers to the way or mode the message flows or is transmitted through.
a. Message b. Sender
c. Encoding d. Channel
5. ____________is the person or group who the message is meant for.
a. Message b. Receiver
c. Encoding d. Channel
5. BASIC MATHEMATICS
Multiple Choices.
Write the letter of your correct answer.
1. Find the sum of 756 and 3493.
A) 4250 B) 4249
C) 4239 D) 434
2. Find 39 subtracted from 73.
A) 134 B) 28
C) 112 D) 34
3. write 5 x 6 as a repeated sum.
A. 5 x 6 = 5 + 6 B. 5 x 6 = 5 + 5 + 5 + 5 + 5
C. 5 x 6 = 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 D. 5 x 6 = 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 + 6
4. What is the quotient q and remainder r of the division 547 ÷ 4 = ?
A. q = 3 and r = 136 B. q = 136 and r = 0
C. q = 136 and r = 3 D. q = 136 and r = 27
5. Joseph has 10 candies. He gave 4 candies to John and John returned 2
candies to Joseph after few days. The number of candies Joseph has altogether
are
A. 8 B. −8
C. 10 D. −10
6. TECHNICAL WRITING
Multiple Choice.
Write the letter of your correct answer.
1. Technical writing is same as general writing.
a) True
b) False
2. Technical writing demands ______ use of language.
a) figurative
b) poetic
c) factual
d) dramatic
3. Which of these must be avoided in technical writing?
a) Facts
b) Grammar
c) Punctuation
d) Personal feelings
4. Which of these words is used in technical writing?
a) Apex
b) Top
c) Slanting
d) Bottom
5. Which of these is a technical word for slanting?
a) Lateral
b) Sloping
c) Tilting
d) Bent
7. TYPES OF FORMS
Multiple Choice:
Write the letter of your correct answer.
1. What part of the resume that contains your full name, complete address,
and your contact information?
A. Professional Qualifications B. Career Objective
C. Heading D. Educational Background
2. It enumerates the contribution you made in your past jobs.
A. Employment History B. Professional Qualifications
C. Educational Background D. Career Objective
3. The section that includes your degree, the school or institution where you
graduated and the year you attended/graduated.
A. Relevant Coursework B. Educational Background
C. Professional Qualifications D. Employment History
4. Consists of a single page generating a message to the department or person
in question.
A. Simple Forms B. Complex Application
C. Basic Application D. Complex Forms
5. These forms that need to be connected to LDAP or Active Directory to help
workflow, or may require a database (instead of producing an email) to store
information.
A. Complex Application B. Complex Forms
C. Simple Forms D. Basic Application
8. TEAM ROLES
Matching Type.
Match the following team roles according to its function in a team.
1. Implementer A. Sees all options and
judges accurately
2. Specialist B. Explores opportunities and
develop contacts
3. Team Worker C. Provides Knowledge and skills
in a rare supply
4. Resource Investigator D. Turns ideas into actions and
organizes work that needs to be done
5. Monitor Evaluator E. Listens and averts friction
9. Role and responsibilities with team environment.
MULTIPLE CHOICES.
Write the letter of your correct answer.
1. Without __________________ a team has no foundation to stand on.
a. Networker b. Secretary
c. Creative Director d. Leader
2. Every team has to have someone in charge of thinking about and introducing
fresh new concepts. Whose role is this?
a. Cheerleader role b. Networker Role
c. Secretary Role d. Creative Director Rule
3. A team _______________ often works outside of the team in checking out
potential new openings.
a. Networker b. Leader
c. Cheerleader d. Creative Director
4. A ____________ has to be on hand to clearly and precisely log everything.
a. Leader b. Cheerleader
c. Secretary d. Director
5. That one person who has a peppy demeanour that can keep the team
members on track.
a. Cheerleader b. Secretary
c. Networker d. Creative Director
10. Team structure/Team roles
Multiple choices.
Choose the letter of your correct answer.
1. Within a ______________ _______________, each organizational function has its
own division which corresponds to either products or geographies.
A. Team-based Organizational Structure
B. Division Structure
C. Line Organizational Structure
D. Network Structure
2. This is an organizational chart type mostly adopted by small companies and
start-ups in their early stage.
A. Horizontal/Flat Structure B. Network Structure
C. Team-based Structure D. Line Structure
3. The ______________ ___________ is the most popular organizational chart type.
A. Line Structure B. Team-based Structure
C. Hierarchical Structure D. Flat Structure
4. __________________________ is made of teams working towards a common goal
while working on their individual tasks.
A. Flat Structure B. Hierarchical Structure
C. Line structure D. Team-based Structure
5. It is a type of organizational management in which people with similar skills
are pooled for work assignments,
A. Team-based Structure B. Line Structure
C. Matrix Structure D. Network Structure
11. Code of Ethics
Multiple choices.
Write the letter of your correct answer.
1. Working well with others is a virtue, rather than an obligation.
A. Teamwork B. Justice
C. Integrity and Hones D. Respect for others
2. We all need to put a healthy amount of effort in our work. Also, take
responsibility for your actions.
A. Integrity and Honesty B. Respect for others
C. Competence and accountability D. Teamwork
3. Give everyone equal opportunity and speak up when someone else doesn’t.
A. Competitive B. Trustworthy
C. Respect for others D. Justice
4. Be honest and transparent when you act in ways that impact other people
A. Honesty B. Integrity and honesty
C. Trustworthy D. Justice
5. You must respect others’ personal space, opinions and privacy.
A. Respect for others B. Teamwork
C. Equality D. Competitive
12. Gender and Development (GAD) Sensitivity
Multiple Choice.
Choose the letter of your correct answer.
1. _________________________________________ is a National Plan that addresses,
provides and pursues full equality and development for men and women.
A. Gender
B. Philippine Plan for Gender and Development 1995-2025
C. Gender and Development (GAD)
D. Gender sensitivity
2. It seeks to achieve gender equality as a fundamental value that should be
reflected in development choices and contends that women are active agents of
development, not just passive recipients of development.
A. Philippine Plan for Gender and Development 1995-2025
B. Gender sensitivity
C. Gender
D. Gender and Development (GAD)
3. ____________________ is the process by which people are made aware of how
gender plays a role in life through their treatment of others.
A. Gender sensitivity
B. Gender
C. Gender and Development (GAD)
D. Philippine Plan for Gender and Development 1995-2025
4. ______________ plays a large role in Indian thought processes.
A. Gender
B. Gender sensitivity
C. Philippine Plan for Gender and Development 1995-2025
D. Gender and Development (GAD)
5. Gender and Development was developed in the _________ as an alternative to
the Women in Development (WID) approach.
A. 1990’s B. 1970’s
C. 1980’s D. 1950’s
13. Electrical and Fire Safety Code
Multiple choices.
Choose the letter of your correct answer.
1. _____________ of electrical equipment or an electrical installation must ensure the
electrical equipment or electrical installation is designed to be electrically safe.
A. Manufacturers B. Importers
C. Suppliers D. Designers
2. ________________ of electrical equipment must ensure that the electrical equipment,
when made, is electrically safe. The duty includes examining and testing the electrical
equipment to ensure it is electrically safe.
A. Suppliers B. Manufacturers
C. Designers D. Importers
3. ___________________ of electrical equipment must ensure the electrical equipment is
electrically safe. The duty includes ensuring the electrical equipment is designed to be
electrically safe and is tested and examined to ensure it is electrically safe.
A. Designers B. Suppliers
C. Importers D. Manufacturers
4. ___________________ of electrical equipment must ensure that when the electrical
equipment leaves the supplier, it is accompanied by information about the way the
electrical equipment must be used to ensure that its use is electrically safe.
A. Importers B. Designers
C. Manufacturers D. Suppliers
5. ____________________ of electrical equipment or an electrical installation must ensure
the way in which the electrical equipment or electrical installation is installed is
electrically safe. The duty includes ensuring the electrical equipment or electrical
installation is electrically safe following installation (this includes testing and
examination).
A. Designers B. Manufacturers
C. Installers D. Importers