[Edu.joshuatly.com] melaka spm trial 2010 english set 1 (w ans)

SULIT 1119/1
1
1119/1
B.Inggeris
Kertas 1
September
1 3/4 jam
PERSIDANGAN KEBANGSAAN PENGETUA-PENGETUA
SEKOLAH MENENGAH MALAYSIA (PKPSM) CAWANGAN MELAKA
DENGAN KERJASAMA
JABATAN PELAJARAN MELAKA
____________________________________________________
PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN
SIJIL PELAJARAN MALAYSIA 2010
BAHASA INGGERIS
Kertas 1
Satu jam empat puluh lima minit
JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU
Arahan
1.
2.
3.
Kertas soalan ini mengandungi dua bahagian: Bahagian A dan Bahagian B.
Jawab kedua-dua bahagian.
Anda dinasihati supaya mengambil masa 45 minit untuk menjawab soalan Bahagian A
dan satu jam untuk Bahagian B.
Instructions
1.
2.
3.
This question paper consists of two sections: Section A and Section B.
Answer both sections.
You are advised to spend 45 minutes on Section A and one hour on Section B.
Kertas soalan ini mengandungi 3 halaman bercetak
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SULIT 1119/1
2
Section A : Directed Writing
[35 marks]
As a concerned teenager, you are worried about the increasing truancy problem in schools.
Write a letter to a local newspaper stating the possible reasons for truancy and giving
suggestions on how to overcome the problem.
Use the following notes to write your letter.
When writing the letter, you must:
 provide the following:
- sender’s address
- date
- salutation
- opening
- closing
- signature
 use all the notes given
Note:
For your letter, you will receive up to 15 marks for the format and content points and up to
20 marks for the quality of your writing.
Peer influence Lack of
attention from
parents
Disinterest in
learning
Stress
Monitoring
by teachers
Have
interesting
school
activities
Organize
awareness
campaigns
Hold
motivational
talks
Give warnings Send for
counselling
courses
Strict
punishment
Dialogues with
parents
REASONS
SUGGESTIONS

SULIT 1119/1
3
Section B : Continuous Writing
[50 marks]
Write a composition of about 350 words on one of the following topics.
1 Describe an unforgettable person.
2 Write a story ending:
“… Thank goodness, I was all right.”
3 Mobile phones benefit our lives. Do you agree?
4 Things that I would do for my family.
5 Teachers
KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT

SULIT 1119/2
1
Nama: ________________________________________
NO. KAD PENGENALAN
I.C. NUMBER
ANGKA GILIRAN/
INDEX NUMBER
1119/2
B.Inggeris
Paper 2
September
1 1/4 jam
DENGAN KERJASAMA
__________________________________________________
BAHASA INGGERIS
Kertas 2
Satu jam lima belas minit
JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU
Arahan
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Tulis nombor kad pengenalan dan angka giliran anda pada ruang yang disediakan.
Kertas soalan ini mengandungi empat bahagian: Bahagian A, Bahagian B, Bahagian C
dan Bahagian D.
Jawab semua bahagian dalam kertas soalan ini.
Soalan-soalan dalam Bahagian A mempunyai empat pilihan jawapan. Jawab setiap soalan
dengan menghitamkan ruang yang betul di halaman 18.
Anda dinasihati supaya mengambil masa 25 minit untuk menjawab soalan Bahagian A, 25
minit untuk Bahagian B, 50 minit untuk Bahagian C dan 35 minit untuk Bahagian D.
Instructions
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Write your I.C. number and index number in the space provided.
This question paper consists of four sections: Section A, Section B, Section C and
Section D.
Answer all sections in this question paper.
Questions in Section A have four options. Answer each question by blackening the correct
space on page 18.
You are advised to spend about 25 minutes on Section A, 25 minutes on Section B, 50
minutes on Section C and 35 minutes on Section D.
________________________________________________________________________
Kertas soalan ini mengandungi 18 halaman bercetak

SULIT 1119/2
2
Section A
[15 marks]
Buy Data Supersaver Light Bulbs
Saves 50% on energy
Other features:
Gives as much light as an ordinary bulb
Comes in several colours
Comes in many shapes
1 What is the most important feature of this product?
A Its shapes
B Its colour
C Its efficiency
D Its energy saving aspect
2 To apply for the vacancy as a nurse, one must
A be 24 years old.
B work the whole day.
C pass English and Science.
D have a pleasant personality.
VACANCIES FOR NURSES
REQUIREMENTS:
 Malaysian citizenship
 Possess distinctions in English and Science
 Not more than 23 years of age
 Willing to work shift
 Patient, polite and soft spoken

SULIT 1119/2
3
3 When Mr. Wavering said “I lost her” he meant that his wife
A had died.
B had remarried.
C had lost her way.
D had played hide-and-seek.
Encik Jamal’s Monthly Budget
Food (Groceries) RM 350.00
Entertainment RM 120.00
Loan Repayment RM 850.00
Health RM 250.00
Children’s Expenses RM 300.00
Transport (Fuel for two cars) RM 180.00
Savings RM 200.00
4 From the table above, Encik Jamal spends
A the least on food.
B the most on loan repayment.
C more on transport than savings.
D more on entertainment than health

SULIT 1119/2
4
5 The Sunrise Restaurant is open for business
A daily.
B on Tuesdays.
C from morning till night.
D during lunch and dinner time.
6 The poster above tells us that we can
A wash our cars at Hospis Malaysia.
B participate in the Car Wash Day for free.
C help Hospis Malaysia by participating in the Car Wash Day.
D have a splashing charity drive by washing our own cars every day.
SUNRISE RESTAURANT
Business Hours
12.00 p.m. – 3.00 p.m.
7.00 p.m. – 10.00 p.m.
Open daily except Tuesdays

SULIT 1119/2
5
AEON Melaka Safe
All of us just cannot wait to go shopping at AEON Jusco. The Melaka
Chief Minister said that members of the public need not worry about their
safety when they visit the shopping complex once it opens its doors. The
newest Jusco outlet in the country was supposed to open on 15 December
last year but its grand opening had to be postponed due to an explosion
that killed two workers. Well, we must have faith in our Chief Minister.
Read the full news on page 14.
7 According to the news report, AEON Melaka
A was closed for a year.
B will soon be open to the public.
C must wait another year before it opens its doors.
D had an explosion that killed members of the public.
8 The word “ faith” in the text above can best be replaced with
A trust.
B respect.
C pride.
D dignity.

SULIT 1119/2
6
Questions 9 – 15 are based on the following passage.
How does a camel survive in the desert? Many people think that the camel stores
water in its hump, but the hump is really made 9_ of fats. A firm and tall hump
indicates good __10 while a soft and flabby one is a sign of weakness.
When a camel cannot find water, it passes less urine to conserve 11 small
amount of water it has in its body. Furthermore, the camel has a higher body temperature
than that of most mammals. This means that it starts to 12 at a higher temperature
than human beings. __13 __, in man, the loss of water thickens the blood. This is __14
man needs water more frequently.
These _ 15_ the reasons why a camel can go without water for up to thirty-four
days at a time. Because of this, the camel is the chief means of travel in the desert.
9 A in 13 A Similarly
B up B Moreover
C at C However
D on D Otherwise
10 A health 14 A who
B situation B why
C manner C what
D structure D where
11 A a 15 A is
B an B are
C the C was
D were
12 A sweating
B sweated
C sweats
D sweat

SULIT 1119/2
7
Section B
[10 marks]
Questions 16 – 25
Read the information on the different tourist attractions and answer the questions that
follow.
Cheng Ho Seafood Restaurant Bukit Jalil Golf and Country Resort
This restaurant is a halal Chinese Muslim
seafood eatery in Wangsa Maju. There are
at least 140 types of seafood dishes ranging
from Sweet Sour Salmon to Seafood
Dimsum but their specialty is Butter-fried
Lobsters with Jumbo Shrimps, served with
Oriental dip.
Designed by Australian Max Wexler, the
course boasts well-kept greens and
challenging fairways. Besides golf, one can
enjoy tennis, squash, badminton and
bowling. A swimming pool and gym cater to
the tourists who are health conscious.
Pulau Perhentian Sam Poh Tong Temple
A diving attraction that is popular among
Malaysians and international travellers
alike, this beautiful island is surrounded by
clear waters rich in marine life.
This is the biggest temple in the country.
Impressive works of art are built into natural
stalactites and stalagmites. A popular place
for cave exploration.
Kuala Gula Sanctuary Gunung Gading National Park
A must for nature-lovers and bird-watching
enthusiasts. Learn more about the different
types of birds and their behaviour. Enjoy
the beautiful flora and fauna here.
The park is open to avid mountain climbers.
The main attraction here is the Rafflesia, the
biggest flower in the world. This is one of the
best places in Borneo to see this rare and
stinky flower.

SULIT 1119/2
8
Questions 16 – 21
Using the information on the different tourist attractions, suggest the most suitable place
for the tourists to choose from. Write the names of the places in the boxes.
16 Annie and her husband love to observe
birds and their habits.
17 Takashi wants to photograph the world’s
largest bloom.
18 En. Ahmad and his family want to taste
authentic Chinese food.
19 Mr. Johnson, who cares about his health,
loves to play golf.
20 Mr. Lim is a marine biologist who wants
to study more about fish.
21 Mr. Raman and his friends would like to
explore caves.
Questions 22 – 25
Using the information on the different tourist attractions, complete the sentences with
suitable answers.
22 Diving is the main attraction in Pulau Perhentian as it is…………………………
...….……………………………………...…….…………………………. [1 mark]
23 The most popular dish at Cheng Ho Seafood Restaurant is ……………………….
……………..…………………………………………………………….. [1 mark]
24 Tourists going to Gunung Gading National Park must see ………………………
…………………………………………………………………………….[1 mark]
25 A golf enthusiast will go to Bukit Jalil and Country Resort because it has
……………………………………………………………….……………………
…………………………………………………………………………..... [1 mark]

SULIT 1119/2
9
Section C
[25 marks]
Questions 26 – 31 are based on the following passage.
The passage below describes how the writer and her sister escaped a shooting that broke
out in her town. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
1 “Hurry up children, your ong ngoai must be hungry by now,” Mother called
out from the front room of our family home in Tay Ninh, Vietnam. She had
carefully placed steamed rice, fried chicken and vegetables in each compartment of
the lunch rack, all set to be delivered to ong ngoai, our grandfather. My father, a
staff sergeant with the Philippine Air Force, worked as a surgical technician for
eight years and had married Mother, a local girl. Because of his work, he was away
from home for weeks at a time. Mother was a housewife who took great care of
Trang and me. She gave us the daily noontime job of taking lunch to our
grandfather, who lived alone in a small rented apartment.
5
2 “Here, send the food to ong ngoai quickly. Be careful not to spill the food,”
she added.
10
3 I was six years old. Trang, my sister, who was eight years older, was
helping me get dressed. I was excited at the thought of getting out of the house.
4 Mother, ever-concerned, recited her list of reminders as she always did
every day: “Stay on the side of the road. Look both ways before crossing the street.
Don’t stop to talk to strangers. Come back straight to the house after you have
delivered the food. Do not stop anywhere along the way. Run along now.”
15
5 So hand in hand, with Trang carrying the lunch rack, we scurried one block
down the road to our grandfather’s place. He was a retired judge and I was happy to
see him every day. It was he who gave me my first cac (the equivalent of cents at
that time).
20
6 It was 1974 and war was spreading all over Vietnam, but in Tay Ninh life
was peaceful and continued as usual. However, on that particular day, as Trang and
I made our way to grandfather’s place, whizz!
7 “Duck down!” Trang cried as we walked along. “Stay low and take cover!” 25
8 Ratatatatat! Somewhere in the mountains just outside town, Vietcong
soldiers fired their flying bullets down our path. I bent so low that I actually
dragged my face along the ground as I ran.
9 As we squatted at the side of the road, covering our heads, I started to worry
about ong ngoai. He liked his food served hot. If we did not get there on time and
his lunch turned cold - oh, I did not like the thought of it! I refused to let this
outbreak of shooting slow us down. “Let’s just run for it!” I said.
30
10 Trang suggested duckwalking down the road but it was not a good idea.
After a few paces, my short little legs began cramping. We tried all the manoeuvres
that could save our lives but nothing seemed to work. We were ready to sit things
out until the shooting was over. Then I suddenly remembered. If we ever came
under fire, our elders had told us time after time, we should run from side to side.
“Bullets travel in a straight line,” they said. “Run in a zigzag.”
35

SULIT 1119/2
10
(Adapted from Reader’s Digest, May 2006)
11 So taking a deep breath, we set off again, running wildly back and forth
across the road. After what seemed forever, the shooting ceased. “God Almighty be
praised, the food is still warm,” was all I could say after we arrived at our
grandfather’s apartment, completely unaware of the danger from which we had just
escaped. Five cents awaited each of us!
40
12 As an adult, I sometimes look back on that eventful day. I now know what
my young mind could not understand then: it is impossible to go through life without
hardship and struggles being thrown at you. They come when you least think they
would, like when you are happily walking down a street and bullets start flying at
you. You can try to avoid them all you want, but as long as you are alive, they will
keep coming, from all directions. Sure, you might get wounded, but you just have to
bandage your wounds, pick yourself up and start walking again.
45
50
26 (a) From paragraph 1, what did the writer and her sister have to do every day at noon?
……………………………………….………………………………….......[1 mark]
(b) From paragraph 3, what made the writer feel happy and enthusiastic?
…………………………………………………………………………....... [1 mark]
27 From paragraph 5,
(a) which word has the same meaning as the word ‘hurried’?
…………………………………………………………………………....... [1 mark]
(b) how did the writer feel when she met her grandfather each day?
…………………………………………………………………………....... [1 mark]
28 From paragraph 6,
(a) how was life in Tay Ninh different from the rest of Vietnam?
.…………………………………………………………………………….. [1 mark]
(b) what do you think had made the ‘whizz’ sound?
.……………………………………………………………………………. [1 mark]
29 (a) From paragraph 11, what did the grandfather give the writer as a reward?
……………………………………………………………………….…...... [1 mark]
(b) From paragraph 12, what does the word ‘they’ in line 46 refer to?
…………………………………………………………………………....... [1 mark]
30 Do you agree with the writer that when we are facing problems, we need to pick
ourselves up and walk again? Give a reason for your answer.
...............................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................. [2 marks]

SULIT 1119/2
11
31 Based on the passage given, write a summary on:
 the advice the writer’s mother gave her and her sister and
 what the writer and her sister did during the shooting
Credit will be given for use of own words but care must be taken not to change
the original meaning.
Your summary must
 be in continuous writing (not in note form)
 use materials from lines 10 to 40
 not be longer than 130 words, including the 10 words given below
Begin your summary as follows:
The writer’s mother reminded her and her sister not to…
[15 marks]
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SULIT 1119/2
12
ANSWER SHEET FOR QUESTION 31
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SULIT 1119/2
13
Section D
[25 marks]
32 Read the following poem Sonnet 18 and answer the questions that follow.
Shall I compare thee to a summer’s day?
Thou art more lovely and more temperate.
Rough winds do shake the darling buds of May,
And summer’s lease hath all too short a date:
Sometime too hot the eye of heaven shines,
And often is his gold complexion dimm’d;
And every fair from fair sometimes declines,
By chance, or nature’s changing course, untrimm’d;
But thy eternal summer shall not fade
Nor lose possession of that fair thou grow’st.
Nor shall Death brag thou wand’rest in his shade,
When in eternal lines to time thou grow’st.
So long as men can breathe, or eyes can see,
So long lives this, and this gives life to thee.
William Shakespeare
(a) What winds blow in May?
……………………………………………………….…………….... [1 mark]
(b) What does the line “And every fair from fair sometimes declines” in line 7
means?
……………………………………….……………………………… [1 mark]
(c) What does the phrase “eternal summer’ in line 9 refer to?
………………………………………………………………………. [1 mark]
(d) Do you think beauty is important when choosing your life partner?
Give a reason to support your answer.
…………………………………………………………………………………
………..…………………………………………………………………………
….…………………………………………………………………… [2 marks]

SULIT 1119/2
14
33 Read the extract from the story The Drover’s Wife below and answer the questions
that follow.
She brings the children in and makes them get on this table. They are two boys
and two girls – mere babies. She gives them supper and then, before it gets dark,
she goes into the house and snatches up some pillows and bedclothes – expecting
to see or lay her hand on the snake at any minute. The woman finally decides to
make the children sleep on the table in the kitchen.
(a) Name two things that the drover’s wife took from the house.
(i) ……………………………………………………………….. [1 mark]
(ii) ……………………………………………………………….. [1 mark]
(b) Give a word to describe the drover’s wife.
…. ……………………………………………………………………. [1 mark]
(c) If you were one of the children, what two things would you do to help your
mother in this situation?
(i) ……………………………………………………………………. [1 mark]
(ii) ……………………………………………………………………. [1mark]

SULIT 1119/2
15
34 The following are the novels studied in the literature component in English
Language.
Jungle of Hope - Keris Mas
The Pearl - John Steinback
The Return - K.S. Maniam
Choose any one of the novels above and answer the question below.
Choose a character from a novel you have studied, and describe a dream that he or
she had. Describe three things that he or she did to achieve that dream.
Support your answer with close reference to the text.
[15 marks]
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SULIT 1119/2
16
ANSWER SHEET FOR QUESTION 34
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SULIT 1119/2
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KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT

SULIT 1119/2
18
FOR SECTION A
Blacken only one space for each question. If you wish to change your answer, erase the
blackened mark that you have made. Then blacken the space for the new answer.
EXAMPLE:
▬A▬ =B= =C= =D=
1 =A= =B= =C= =D= 9 =A= =B= =C= =D=
2 =A= =B= =C= =D= 10 =A= =B= =C= =D=
3 =A= =B= =C= =D= 11 =A= =B= =C=
4 =A= =B= =C= =D= 12 =A= =B= =C= =D=
5 =A= =B= =C= =D= 13 =A= =B= =C= =D=
6 =A= =B= =C= =D= 14 =A= =B= =C= =D=
7 =A= =B= =C= =D= 15 =A= =B= =C= =D=
8 =A= =B= =C= =D=
For examiner’s use
Section Marks
A 15
B 10
C 25
D 25
Total 75

1
1119/1
B.Inggeris
Paper 2
September
DENGAN KERJASAMA
__________________________________________________
BAHASA INGGERIS
Kertas 1
PERATURAN PEMARKAHAN

2
Section A: Directed Writing (35 marks)
Format - 3 marks
Content Point - 12 marks
Language - 20 marks
Total - 35 marks
:
A CONTENT (15 marks)
.
Format: 3 marks
Award 1 mark each:
F1 Sender’s address and date
F2 Salutation and opening
F3 Closing and signature
Content Points: 12 marks
Award one mark each for each content used appropriately.
Do not award marks for mere mention of key words.
C1 Peer influence
C2 Lack of attention from parents
C3 Disinterest in learning
C4 Stress
C5 Monitoring by teachers
C6 Have interesting school activities
C7 Organize awareness campaigns
C8 Hold motivational talks
C9 Give warnings
C10 Send for counselling courses
C11 Strict punishment
C12 Dialogues with parents

3
B LANGUAGE (20 marks)
Band &
Mark Range
Description of Criteria
A
19 - 20
 Language - accurate with only occasional first draft slips
 Sentence structures - varied
 Vocabulary - wide and precise
 Punctuation - accurate
 Spelling - accurate
 Paragraphs - have unity and are well-linked
 Style - relevant to an article
 Tone – appropriate
B
16 - 18
 Language - almost always accurate with more first draft slips
 Errors - found in more complex structures
 Sentences - some variation in length and type (with some
complex structures)
 Vocabulary - wide enough
 Punctuation - almost always accurate
 Spelling - almost always accurate
 Paragraphs - linked and show some unity
 Style - relevant and informative
 Tone – appropriate
C
13 - 15
 Language - largely accurate
 Simple structures - used without errors. Mistakes occur in more
complex structures
 Sentences - some variety of length and type but some repetitive
structures give a monotonous effect
 Vocabulary - adequate
 Punctuation - generally accurate
 Paragraphs – have some unity but links may be absent or
inappropriate
 Style - quite relevant and informative
 Tone - still appropriate
D
10 – 12
 Language - sufficiently accurate
 Sentence structures - Patches of clarity seen in simple structures
 Mistakes in more complex structures
 Vocabulary - adequate but lacks precision
 Punctuation - generally correct
 Spelling mistakes - may be found in unfamiliar words
 Paragraphs - show some unity
 Style - relevant and informative but may not be sustained
 Tone - may not always be appropriate for an article

4
E
7 - 9
 Meaning - never in doubt
 Single word errors - sufficiently frequent and serious to hamper
reading and precision
 Sentence structures - mainly simple but accuracy is not sustained
 Vocabulary - limited
 Punctuation - sometimes not correct
 Spelling mistakes - found in more difficult words
 Paragraphs - do not show unity and links are incorrectly used
 Style and tone - may not be relevant or informative
U (i)
4 – 6
 Meaning - fairly clear
 Single word errors - numerous and impede reading
 A few simple structures - used accurately
 Vocabulary - very limited
 Punctuation - sometimes used correctly
 Spelling errors - more frequent
 Style and tone - may not be appropriate for an article
U (ii)
2 - 3
 Sense - decipherable
 Content - generally comprehensible
 Some errors - multiple in nature
 Maybe only one or two accurate sentences
 Style and tone - hidden by too many errors
U (iii)
0 - 1
 Errors - mostly multiple in nature (meaning is not clear)
 Structures - distorted and ambiguous
 Whole sections may make no sense at all
 Award ‘1’ mark if some sense can be obtained
 Award ‘0’ mark if the article makes no sense at all from
beginning to end

5
Section B: Continuous Writing (50 marks)
1 The assessment of the candidate’s response will be based on impression.
2 The examiner shall read and re-read the response carefully and at the same time underline
for gross or minor errors or put in omission marks (^) where such errors occur.
3 The examiner should also mark for good vocabulary or expressions by putting a merit
tick (√) at the end of such merits.
4 The examiner shall fit the candidate’s response against the most appropriate band having
most of the criteria as found in the band. The examiner may have to refer to upper or lower
bands to the band already chosen to BEST FIT the student’s response to the most
appropriate band. The marks from the band decided on for the script also depend on the
number of criteria that are found in the script.
5 Justify the band and marks given, if necessary, by commenting on the strengths and
weaknesses of the candidate’s response, using the criteria found in the band.
Band &
Mark range Description of Criteria
A
44 – 50
 Language - entirely accurate, with occasional first draft slips
 Sentence structures - varied
 Vocabulary - wide and precise
 Punctuation - accurate and helpful
 Spelling - entirely accurate
 Paragraphs - well-planned, unified and linked
 Topic - consistently relevant
 Interest - aroused and sustained throughout writing
B
38 – 43
 Language - accurate, with occasional minor errors
 Sentences of some varied lengths and types, some complex sentences
 Vocabulary - wide enough to show shades of intended meaning with some
precision
 Punctuation - almost always accurate
 Spelling - nearly always accurate
 Paragraphs with some evidence of planning, unity and appropriately linked
 Interest - mostly aroused and sustained
C
32 – 37
 Language - largely accurate
 Simple structures – free of errors; errors with more ambitious structures
 Vocabulary - wide enough to convey meaning but lack precision
 Punctuation in simple sentences - accurate, with errors in more complex
sentences
 Simple words - spelt correctly but misspelt when used with more
sophisticated words
 Paragraphs - used with some unity or at times not unified or
inappropriately linked
 Writing - relevant but lacks originality and planning
 Some interest aroused but not sustained

6
D
26 – 31
 Language - sufficiently accurate, communicates clearly
 Simple structures and vocabulary, with patches of clear, accurate language
 Some variety of sentence types and length but purpose is not clearly seen
 Vocabulary - usually adequate to show intended meaning but not
developed to precision
 Paragraphs - show some unity
 Punctuation - generally correct but does not clarify meaning
 Spelling of simple words - correct but more errors occur
 Writing of some relevance but lacking in liveliness and interest value
E
20 - 25
 Meaning - never in doubt
 Errors - sufficiently frequent and serious to hamper reading
 Simple structures - some accurate but unlikely to sustain accuracy for long
 Vocabulary - limited, too simple or more ambitious but imperfectly
understood
 Simple words - spelt correctly but with frequent mistakes in spelling and
punctuation
 Paragraphs - lack unity or haphazardly arranged
 Some relevance, but partially treated
 High incidence of linguistic errors distract from merits of content in
composition
U (i)
14 – 19
 Meaning - fairly clear
 High incidence of errors impede reading
 Vocabulary - many serious errors of various kinds, mainly single-word
type, but could be corrected without rewriting
 Sentences - very few accurate ones
 Sentences - simple but often repetitive
 Errors - frequently causing blurring
 Punctuation - used correctly, also with sentence separation errors
 Paragraphs - lack unity or no paragraphs at all
U (ii)
8 – 13
 Some sense, with multiple word errors
 Requires re-reading before being understood
 Only a few accurate simple sentences
 Content - comprehensible
 Incidence of linguistic error - high
 Meaning - blurred
 Far short of required length
U (iii)
0 – 7
 Almost entirely impossible to read
 Whole sections make little or no sense at all
 Occasional patches of clarity (marks awarded)
 Vocabulary - simple words used
 Frequent errors cause blurring
 “0” for scripts with no sense from beginning till the end
PERATURAN PEMARKAHAN TAMAT

1
1119/2
B.Inggeris
Paper 2
September
DENGAN KERJASAMA
__________________________________________________
BAHASA INGGERIS
Kertas 2
PERATURAN PEMARKAHAN

2
Section A
1 D
2 D
3 A
4 B
5 D
6 C
7 B
8 A
9 B
10 A
11 C
12 D
13 C
14 B
15 B
Section B
16 Kuala Gula Sanctuary
17 Gunung Gading National Park
18 Cheng Ho Seafood Restaurant
19 Bukit Jalil Golf and Country Resort
20 Pulau Perhentian
21 Sam Poh Tong Temple
22 surrounded by clear waters rich in marine life
23 Butter-fried Lobsters with Jumbo Shrimps, served with Oriental dip.
24 Rafflesia (the biggest flower in the world)
25 well-kept greens and challenging fairways
Section C
26 (a) take lunch to their grandfather (who lived alone in a rented apartment).
(b) The thought of getting out of the house
27 (a) scurried
(b) (She was) happy to see him.
28 (a) Life was peaceful (and continued as usual).
(b) (The Vietcong soldiers’) bullets
29 (a) Five cents
(b) Hardship and struggles
30 Accept any reasonable answer.
Award either 0 mark or 2 marks. If answer is only ‘Yes’ or ‘No’, award 0 mark.

3
31 Summary
Content - 10 marks (award up to a maximum of 10 marks)
Style & Presentation - 5 marks
Total - 15 marks
Content
Each point is awarded 1 mark.
1 spill the food
2 stay on the side of the road
3 look both ways before crossing the street.
4 do not stop to talk to strangers.
5 come back straight to the house after they have delivered the food.
6 do not stop anywhere along the way.
7 ducked down / stayed low and took cover
8 bent so low (that she actually dragged her face along the ground) as she ran
9 squatted at the side of the road
10 covered their heads
11 duckwalked down the road
12 tried all the manoeuvres that could save their lives
13 ran from side to side / ran in a zigzag / ran wildly back and forth across the road

4
Style & Presentation
Mark Paraphrase Mark Use of English
5 - Sustained attempt to rephrase text
- Expression is secure
5 - Language is accurate
- Occasional errors
- Sentence structure is varied
- Marked ability to use original
complex syntax
- Punctuation is accurate
- Spelling is secure
4 - Noticeable attempt to rephrase
text
- Free from stretches of
concentrated lifting
4 - Language is almost always
accurate
- Serious errors are isolated
- Some original syntax and
sentence variety
- Punctuation is generally
accurate
- Spelling is nearly always secure
3 - Intelligent & selective lifting
- Limited attempt to rephrase
text
- Expression may not always be
secure
3 - Language is largely accurate
- Simple structures dominate
- Serious erros are not frequent
but noticeable
- Sentences are generally lifted
from the text
- Punctuation is largely accurate
- Spelling is mostly secure
2 - Wholesale copying of text
material
- Originality is barely noticeable
2 - Serious errors are frequent
- Accuracy is not sustained for
long
- Simple punctuation is correct
- Irrelevant/distorted detail will
destroy the sequence in places
1 - Complete transcript of the text
- Originality is barely
noticeable
- Mindless copying of the text
- Irrelevant sections of the text are included
1 - Heavy frequency of serious
errors
- Fractured syntax
Award 0 when candidates copy totally from outside the prescribed text.

5
Section D
32 a) Rough / strong (winds)
b) Beauty will fade over time
c) the woman’s beauty
d) Accept any suitable answer.
*Award either 0 mark or 2 marks. If answer is only ‘Yes’ or ‘No’, award 0
mark. Accept response if yes/no answer is implied.
33 a) (i) pillows
(ii) bedclothes interchangeable
b) responsible / caring / loving / concerned / protective / Accept any suitable
answer
c) Accept any suitable answers.

6
34 AWARDING CONTENT MARKS :
Please refer to the band descriptors below before deciding which band BEST FITS the mark
for CONTENT.
SCORE BAND DESCRIPTORS
9 – 10
The response contains a majority of the following :
 Response – relevant to specified task
 Dream and what character did – well supported and linked with
evidence/knowledge from text
 Main and supporting ideas – relevant to specified task
 Ideas – clearly presented, well-organised and easily understood
7 – 8
 Response – relevant to the task
 Dream and what character did – usually supported and linked with
knowledge/evidence from text
 Mains and supporting ideas – mostly relevant to specified task
 Ideas – clear and can be understood
5 – 6
 Response – intermittently relevant to specified task
 Dream and what character did – supported and linked with some
knowledge or evidence to specified task
 Ideas – some are relevant to the specified task
 Ideas – generally clear, can be understood but lack organisation
3 – 4
 Response – barely relevant to specified task
 Dream and what character did – unlikely identified or even when
identified, not likely to be linked to the text
 Ideas – hardly relevant to specified task
 Ideas – difficult to understand
1 – 2
 No understanding of task requirement
 Disorganised writing – incoherent; ideas – irrelevant to the specified
task
0
 Response in language other than English
 No response
 Response – not related to the novel

7
AWARDING LANGUAGE MARKS :
Please refer to the band descriptors below before deciding which band BEST FITS the mark
for LANGUAGE.
MARK USE OF LANGUAGE
5
 Language – accurate, with very occasional slips
 Occasional minor errors, first draft slips
 Sentence structure – varied
 Punctuation – accurate and helpful
 Spelling – secure throughout response
4
 Language – almost always accurate
 Sentences – some variation
 Punctuation – accurate and generally helpful
 Spelling – nearly always secure
3
 Language – largely accurate
 Simple structures dominate
 Serious errors – not frequent although noticeable
 Serious errors with sophisticated structures
 Punctuation – largely accurate
 Spelling – mostly secure
2
 Meaning – not in doubt
 Serious errors – becoming more frequent
 Simple structures – accurate but not sustained
 Simple punctuation, usually correct, with occasional separation
errors
 Spelling – largely accurate but mistakes with more difficult words
0 – 1
 Serious errors – heavy frequency, impeding reading
 Fractured syntax – more pronounced, with punctuation faltering
 Sentence separation errors – frequent
PERATURAN PEMARKAHAN TAMAT

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