The passage discusses sardines and their popularity in France versus Malaysia. It notes that in France, sardines are expensive and considered a fashionable food due to their taste and health benefits. Every summer along French coasts, there are food festivals celebrating sardines. Fresh sardines, on the other hand, are rarely served in Malaysian homes where canned sardines are more common. Sardines get their name from the island of Sardinia where they were once abundant. They swim in huge schools and have high levels of omega-3 fatty acids, making them a healthy choice over supplements. The passage encourages relooking at sardines given their nutritional value.
The document contains information about expressing praise and compliments in Indonesian, including examples of praise expressions, ways to respond to compliments, and exercises to practice compliments. It provides guidance on identifying and responding to the speech act of praising, with the goal of helping students use praise expressions in everyday life.
Ujian pentaksiran akhir tahun sekolah rendah 2015 english pemahaman tahun 4Farah Hasaban
The document provides instructions for a Year 4 English comprehension exam consisting of two sections (Sections A and B). Section A contains multiple choice and short answer questions, while Section B requires longer written responses. The exam is 1 hour and 15 minutes long and tests understanding of vocabulary, grammar, idioms, and comprehension of passages and pictures. Students are instructed to write their identification numbers and answers in the designated spaces and sections of the exam paper.
This document contains an English examination for 8th grade students consisting of multiple choice and fill-in-the-blank questions, as well as translation exercises. The multiple choice questions cover topics like identifying imperative sentences, prohibitions, meanings of words and phrases in dialogues and passages. The fill-in-the-blank questions test completing sentences and dialogues. The translation exercises require translating sentences between English and Indonesian. The document provides context, questions and answer options to assess students' understanding of grammar, vocabulary and translation between the two languages.
This document contains an English exam with multiple choice questions testing comprehension of several short passages. The passages are about various topics including kangaroos, how to make a pencil box from recycled materials, pollution, and short notes. The exam tests understanding of main ideas, details, vocabulary and pronoun referents in the given texts.
This document provides information about a mid-semester exam for 9th grade students taking Bahasa Inggris (English language) at SMP Sub Rayon 05 Purwantoro on October 17, 2012 from 07:30 to 09:30 Western Indonesian Time. It gives general instructions for students to follow when taking the exam, such as writing their name and class, checking for errors before answering, and prioritizing easier questions first. It also provides specific instructions for different sections of the exam.
This document consists of a 40 question multiple choice exam covering topics like grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension, and matching pictures to sentences. The questions cover topics like completing sentences, choosing the best answer to fit a picture or situation, identifying spelling errors, punctuation, and comprehending notices and conversations. The exam tests a variety of English language skills.
This passage discusses the recycling movement and the three steps involved: reduce, reuse, and recycle. It describes how reducing packaging and buying durable, repairable products reduces garbage. Reusing items like returnable bottles saves energy compared to making new bottles. Recycling materials like aluminum cans and motor oil conserves resources. The key is for consumers to send messages to manufacturers about their preferences through their purchasing choices.
The document is a test for Vietnamese students containing multiple choice questions about English grammar, vocabulary, and reading comprehension. It tests students on topics like word stress, pronunciation, parts of speech, synonyms, and understanding passages. The test helps evaluate students' English language skills.
The document contains information about expressing praise and compliments in Indonesian, including examples of praise expressions, ways to respond to compliments, and exercises to practice compliments. It provides guidance on identifying and responding to the speech act of praising, with the goal of helping students use praise expressions in everyday life.
Ujian pentaksiran akhir tahun sekolah rendah 2015 english pemahaman tahun 4Farah Hasaban
The document provides instructions for a Year 4 English comprehension exam consisting of two sections (Sections A and B). Section A contains multiple choice and short answer questions, while Section B requires longer written responses. The exam is 1 hour and 15 minutes long and tests understanding of vocabulary, grammar, idioms, and comprehension of passages and pictures. Students are instructed to write their identification numbers and answers in the designated spaces and sections of the exam paper.
This document contains an English examination for 8th grade students consisting of multiple choice and fill-in-the-blank questions, as well as translation exercises. The multiple choice questions cover topics like identifying imperative sentences, prohibitions, meanings of words and phrases in dialogues and passages. The fill-in-the-blank questions test completing sentences and dialogues. The translation exercises require translating sentences between English and Indonesian. The document provides context, questions and answer options to assess students' understanding of grammar, vocabulary and translation between the two languages.
This document contains an English exam with multiple choice questions testing comprehension of several short passages. The passages are about various topics including kangaroos, how to make a pencil box from recycled materials, pollution, and short notes. The exam tests understanding of main ideas, details, vocabulary and pronoun referents in the given texts.
This document provides information about a mid-semester exam for 9th grade students taking Bahasa Inggris (English language) at SMP Sub Rayon 05 Purwantoro on October 17, 2012 from 07:30 to 09:30 Western Indonesian Time. It gives general instructions for students to follow when taking the exam, such as writing their name and class, checking for errors before answering, and prioritizing easier questions first. It also provides specific instructions for different sections of the exam.
This document consists of a 40 question multiple choice exam covering topics like grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension, and matching pictures to sentences. The questions cover topics like completing sentences, choosing the best answer to fit a picture or situation, identifying spelling errors, punctuation, and comprehending notices and conversations. The exam tests a variety of English language skills.
This passage discusses the recycling movement and the three steps involved: reduce, reuse, and recycle. It describes how reducing packaging and buying durable, repairable products reduces garbage. Reusing items like returnable bottles saves energy compared to making new bottles. Recycling materials like aluminum cans and motor oil conserves resources. The key is for consumers to send messages to manufacturers about their preferences through their purchasing choices.
The document is a test for Vietnamese students containing multiple choice questions about English grammar, vocabulary, and reading comprehension. It tests students on topics like word stress, pronunciation, parts of speech, synonyms, and understanding passages. The test helps evaluate students' English language skills.
Bo de-thi-thu-va-dap-an-thpt-quoc-gia-mon-tieng-anh-truong-thpt-hong-linh-nam...onthitot .com
Đề thi thử môn Tiếng Aanh- Trường THPT Hồng lĩnh
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- Maja Kazazic lost her left leg below the knee during the Bosnian civil war. She spent nearly two years in hospital in the US recovering from her injuries. Walking was intensely painful due to her damaged right leg and ill-fitting prosthetic.
- Years later, Kazazic still struggled with pain from an imperfect prosthesis. She was inspired to get a new prosthetic after seeing Winter, a dolphin with a tail injury, receive a high-tech prosthetic tail. Within ten days, Kazazic received a new prosthetic leg from Hanger Clinic that was pain-free and allowed different activities.
Đề thi thử môn Tiếng Anh - Trường THPT Trần Phú - Hà Tĩnhonthitot .com
Đề thi thử môn Tiếng Anh - Trường THPT Trần Phú - Hà Tĩnh
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Đề thi thử THPT 2018 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Nông Cống 1 - Thanh Hóa lần 1VuKirikou
The document is a practice test for the Vietnamese national high school graduation exam. It contains 50 multiple choice questions testing English language skills like vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension. The test covers topics like pronunciation, grammar, sentence structure, meaning in context, and inference questions about passages on bringing learning outdoors, a haze crisis in southern Thailand, and the life and work of American poet Marianne Moore.
The document is an English proficiency test containing 80 multiple choice questions about English grammar, vocabulary, and reading comprehension. It tests knowledge of parts of speech, word meanings, stress patterns, verb tenses, pronouns, prepositions, idioms, and understanding of a passage about the origins of comic strips in late 19th century American newspapers. The test is intended to prepare students for university entrance exams in Vietnam.
This document provides a practice test for the Indonesian National Exam in English with 40 multiple choice questions across various topics. It includes general instructions to carefully read each question before answering, report any issues to the supervisor, and double check your work before submitting. The practice test then provides sample questions in various sections related to comprehension, vocabulary, grammar and more.
The document contains instructions for students taking a Bahasa Inggris (English language) exam organized by the Dinas Pendidikan DKI Jakarta (Education Agency of DKI Jakarta Province). It provides details about the exam such as the date, time, length, number of questions, and prohibited aids. It also includes general instructions for students, such as checking their test booklet for completeness and filling out their answer sheet correctly.
De thi-thu-thpt-quoc-gia-mon-tieng-anh-lan2-nam2015-truong-thpt-nong-cong1-th...onthitot .com
Đề thi thử môn Tiếng Anh - Trường THPT Nông Cống 1 - Thanh hóa
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This document contains a listening test with 25 multiple choice questions about pronunciation, grammar, vocabulary and reading comprehension. It tests the ability to identify words with different pronunciations of underlined parts, words with different stress patterns, choose the correct grammar structures and vocabulary to fill in blanks, identify errors and choose whether reading comprehension statements are true or false. It also contains exercises to complete sentences with correct word forms, rewrite sentences and identify non-restrictive relative clauses. The test covers a wide range of English language skills.
Soal ujian nasional bahasa inggris tahun 2013 naskah readingLeonardus Nana
The document announces that PT Asuransi Chubb Indonesia will transfer its long-term insurance policies to PT Asuransi QBE Pool Indonesia, which is located at MidPlaza 2, 23rd Floor, Jl. Jend. Sudirman Kav 10-11, Jakarta. Any inquiries about the transfer should be sent to PT Asuransi Chubb Indonesia at their listed address. This announcement is made according to the regulations of the Ministry of Finance.
This document contains an objective practice test with multiple choice questions about English grammar, vocabulary, pronunciation and reading comprehension. There are 30 multiple choice questions testing parts of speech, tense, articles, prepositions and meanings of words in context. It also includes a reading passage and 10 related multiple choice questions about a man who has 13 jobs on a small Scottish island.
This document contains information about an English exam for high school students in the 2012/2013 school year. It provides instructions for students, including filling out their answer sheets, checking that their test packets are complete, and noting they have 90 minutes to complete the 40 multiple choice questions. It also indicates that calculators and phones are not allowed.
The document is an exam for admission to university in Vietnam in 2008. It consists of 80 multiple choice questions testing English language ability. The questions cover topics such as vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension, and identifying errors. The exam tests skills such as identifying stressed syllables in words, choosing the correct answers to fill in blanks in passages, and determining which part of sentences needs correction. It aims to evaluate candidates' English proficiency for university study.
The document outlines the objectives and activities of an English lesson. The objectives are for students to correctly answer test items, write a complaint letter, understand strategies for decoding words, and realize the importance of understanding discussed topics. Activities include acting out words, a music game with questions, and a summative test with comprehension questions. The test results will be analyzed to identify areas of difficulty.
1. The document provides instructions for an end of year exam for the subject of English at MTs Al-Farisy. It gives the date, time, and general instructions for students taking the exam.
2. The exam contains multiple choice and essay questions about English grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension and rearranging scrambled sentences.
3. The questions cover topics like dialogues, personal information, hobbies, famous people, summaries of passages, and making inferences from texts.
The document contains 50 multiple choice questions based on passages of text. The questions test reading comprehension skills such as identifying main ideas, details, meanings of words in context, and arranging sentences in logical order.
This document contains a practice English test with multiple choice questions about grammar, vocabulary, and a reading comprehension passage. The test covers topics like pronouncing word parts differently, choosing the correct word to complete a sentence, identifying grammatically incorrect sentences, choosing the best word to fill in blanks, and answering questions about a short story. There are 4 sections to the test with various types of multiple choice questions assessing English language skills.
This document contains a 65-item multiple choice test covering various subjects including science, mathematics, English, and Philippine history and culture. The test questions cover topics like waste classification, floods in Metro Manila, diseases affecting piggery farms, rhyming words, time references, figures of speech, the works and legacy of Jose Rizal, fractions, percentages, tides, buoyancy, and verbs. The document provides the questions and multiple choice answers but no explanations or answers keys.
This passage discusses jet lag and how the direction of travel affects it. It explains that the body has an internal circadian clock that programs cycles of sleepiness and regulates bodily functions on a 24-hour cycle. Jet lag occurs when this internal clock is not aligned with the external time zone after traveling. The passage states that traveling west is more aligned with the natural tendency of the circadian clock to extend the day, while traveling east requires "shrinking" the day, going against the internal clock. As a result, studies show westward travel is associated with better sleep than eastward flights. The passage advises that it can take days to weeks for the body clock to fully adjust to a new time zone.
This document discusses rubrics, including what they are, why they are used, different types of rubrics, and steps for developing and implementing rubrics. A rubric is defined as a set of criteria that specifies the characteristics and levels of achievement for an outcome. Rubrics provide consistency in evaluation, gather rich assessment data, and allow for direct measurement of learning. There are two main types of rubrics: analytic rubrics that evaluate each criterion separately, and holistic rubrics that provide a single overall score. Developing an effective rubric involves identifying learning outcomes, determining assessment methods, choosing dimensions and performance levels, writing clear descriptors, testing the rubric, and training raters.
This document provides guidance on developing effective lesson plans for adult education teachers. It outlines the basic components of a complete lesson plan, including learning objectives aligned with state standards, materials and resources, engaging activities, and assessments. Lesson plans are important as they help teachers design high-quality instruction that meets learners' needs and goals. The document also discusses benefits such as improved preparation, innovation, and knowledge. Templates and samples are included in the appendices.
Bo de-thi-thu-va-dap-an-thpt-quoc-gia-mon-tieng-anh-truong-thpt-hong-linh-nam...onthitot .com
Đề thi thử môn Tiếng Aanh- Trường THPT Hồng lĩnh
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- Maja Kazazic lost her left leg below the knee during the Bosnian civil war. She spent nearly two years in hospital in the US recovering from her injuries. Walking was intensely painful due to her damaged right leg and ill-fitting prosthetic.
- Years later, Kazazic still struggled with pain from an imperfect prosthesis. She was inspired to get a new prosthetic after seeing Winter, a dolphin with a tail injury, receive a high-tech prosthetic tail. Within ten days, Kazazic received a new prosthetic leg from Hanger Clinic that was pain-free and allowed different activities.
Đề thi thử môn Tiếng Anh - Trường THPT Trần Phú - Hà Tĩnhonthitot .com
Đề thi thử môn Tiếng Anh - Trường THPT Trần Phú - Hà Tĩnh
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Home - Điểm thi THPT Quốc Gia
diemthithptquocgia.vn
Đề thi thử THPT 2018 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Nông Cống 1 - Thanh Hóa lần 1VuKirikou
The document is a practice test for the Vietnamese national high school graduation exam. It contains 50 multiple choice questions testing English language skills like vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension. The test covers topics like pronunciation, grammar, sentence structure, meaning in context, and inference questions about passages on bringing learning outdoors, a haze crisis in southern Thailand, and the life and work of American poet Marianne Moore.
The document is an English proficiency test containing 80 multiple choice questions about English grammar, vocabulary, and reading comprehension. It tests knowledge of parts of speech, word meanings, stress patterns, verb tenses, pronouns, prepositions, idioms, and understanding of a passage about the origins of comic strips in late 19th century American newspapers. The test is intended to prepare students for university entrance exams in Vietnam.
This document provides a practice test for the Indonesian National Exam in English with 40 multiple choice questions across various topics. It includes general instructions to carefully read each question before answering, report any issues to the supervisor, and double check your work before submitting. The practice test then provides sample questions in various sections related to comprehension, vocabulary, grammar and more.
The document contains instructions for students taking a Bahasa Inggris (English language) exam organized by the Dinas Pendidikan DKI Jakarta (Education Agency of DKI Jakarta Province). It provides details about the exam such as the date, time, length, number of questions, and prohibited aids. It also includes general instructions for students, such as checking their test booklet for completeness and filling out their answer sheet correctly.
De thi-thu-thpt-quoc-gia-mon-tieng-anh-lan2-nam2015-truong-thpt-nong-cong1-th...onthitot .com
Đề thi thử môn Tiếng Anh - Trường THPT Nông Cống 1 - Thanh hóa
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Home - Điểm thi THPT Quốc Gia
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This document contains a listening test with 25 multiple choice questions about pronunciation, grammar, vocabulary and reading comprehension. It tests the ability to identify words with different pronunciations of underlined parts, words with different stress patterns, choose the correct grammar structures and vocabulary to fill in blanks, identify errors and choose whether reading comprehension statements are true or false. It also contains exercises to complete sentences with correct word forms, rewrite sentences and identify non-restrictive relative clauses. The test covers a wide range of English language skills.
Soal ujian nasional bahasa inggris tahun 2013 naskah readingLeonardus Nana
The document announces that PT Asuransi Chubb Indonesia will transfer its long-term insurance policies to PT Asuransi QBE Pool Indonesia, which is located at MidPlaza 2, 23rd Floor, Jl. Jend. Sudirman Kav 10-11, Jakarta. Any inquiries about the transfer should be sent to PT Asuransi Chubb Indonesia at their listed address. This announcement is made according to the regulations of the Ministry of Finance.
This document contains an objective practice test with multiple choice questions about English grammar, vocabulary, pronunciation and reading comprehension. There are 30 multiple choice questions testing parts of speech, tense, articles, prepositions and meanings of words in context. It also includes a reading passage and 10 related multiple choice questions about a man who has 13 jobs on a small Scottish island.
This document contains information about an English exam for high school students in the 2012/2013 school year. It provides instructions for students, including filling out their answer sheets, checking that their test packets are complete, and noting they have 90 minutes to complete the 40 multiple choice questions. It also indicates that calculators and phones are not allowed.
The document is an exam for admission to university in Vietnam in 2008. It consists of 80 multiple choice questions testing English language ability. The questions cover topics such as vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension, and identifying errors. The exam tests skills such as identifying stressed syllables in words, choosing the correct answers to fill in blanks in passages, and determining which part of sentences needs correction. It aims to evaluate candidates' English proficiency for university study.
The document outlines the objectives and activities of an English lesson. The objectives are for students to correctly answer test items, write a complaint letter, understand strategies for decoding words, and realize the importance of understanding discussed topics. Activities include acting out words, a music game with questions, and a summative test with comprehension questions. The test results will be analyzed to identify areas of difficulty.
1. The document provides instructions for an end of year exam for the subject of English at MTs Al-Farisy. It gives the date, time, and general instructions for students taking the exam.
2. The exam contains multiple choice and essay questions about English grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension and rearranging scrambled sentences.
3. The questions cover topics like dialogues, personal information, hobbies, famous people, summaries of passages, and making inferences from texts.
The document contains 50 multiple choice questions based on passages of text. The questions test reading comprehension skills such as identifying main ideas, details, meanings of words in context, and arranging sentences in logical order.
This document contains a practice English test with multiple choice questions about grammar, vocabulary, and a reading comprehension passage. The test covers topics like pronouncing word parts differently, choosing the correct word to complete a sentence, identifying grammatically incorrect sentences, choosing the best word to fill in blanks, and answering questions about a short story. There are 4 sections to the test with various types of multiple choice questions assessing English language skills.
This document contains a 65-item multiple choice test covering various subjects including science, mathematics, English, and Philippine history and culture. The test questions cover topics like waste classification, floods in Metro Manila, diseases affecting piggery farms, rhyming words, time references, figures of speech, the works and legacy of Jose Rizal, fractions, percentages, tides, buoyancy, and verbs. The document provides the questions and multiple choice answers but no explanations or answers keys.
This passage discusses jet lag and how the direction of travel affects it. It explains that the body has an internal circadian clock that programs cycles of sleepiness and regulates bodily functions on a 24-hour cycle. Jet lag occurs when this internal clock is not aligned with the external time zone after traveling. The passage states that traveling west is more aligned with the natural tendency of the circadian clock to extend the day, while traveling east requires "shrinking" the day, going against the internal clock. As a result, studies show westward travel is associated with better sleep than eastward flights. The passage advises that it can take days to weeks for the body clock to fully adjust to a new time zone.
This document discusses rubrics, including what they are, why they are used, different types of rubrics, and steps for developing and implementing rubrics. A rubric is defined as a set of criteria that specifies the characteristics and levels of achievement for an outcome. Rubrics provide consistency in evaluation, gather rich assessment data, and allow for direct measurement of learning. There are two main types of rubrics: analytic rubrics that evaluate each criterion separately, and holistic rubrics that provide a single overall score. Developing an effective rubric involves identifying learning outcomes, determining assessment methods, choosing dimensions and performance levels, writing clear descriptors, testing the rubric, and training raters.
This document provides guidance on developing effective lesson plans for adult education teachers. It outlines the basic components of a complete lesson plan, including learning objectives aligned with state standards, materials and resources, engaging activities, and assessments. Lesson plans are important as they help teachers design high-quality instruction that meets learners' needs and goals. The document also discusses benefits such as improved preparation, innovation, and knowledge. Templates and samples are included in the appendices.
The document provides guidance on how to structure and give an effective speech. It begins by outlining the typical sections of a speech: greeting the audience, introducing yourself and your topic, elaborating on main points, and thanking the audience. It then provides model sentences that can be used to introduce the speaker and topic. The document also gives tips on how to make speeches more interesting, such as asking questions, providing facts, and elaborating on points. Sample speeches on various topics are included to demonstrate how to incorporate the suggested structure and techniques.
Analytic scoring involves scoring separate parts or criteria of a performance or product individually and then summing the scores to obtain a total score. The document provides an example of an analytic rubric for rating composition tasks. The rubric contains five criteria: organization, logical development of ideas, grammar, punctuation/mechanics, and style/quality of expression. Each criterion is scored on a scale from 1 to 4, with descriptors provided for each level.
The passage discusses Nike's marketing strategies and goals. It explains how Nike became a well-known brand through superior quality running shoes and its iconic "Just Do It" slogan. However, Nike recently experienced declining sales. To meet ambitious growth targets, Nike is aggressively expanding into new product categories and regions. Specifically, Nike aims to become the top global supplier of soccer gear by the 2014 World Cup, but faces competition from established brand Adidas.
This passage describes Maja Kazazic, a woman who lost her left leg below the knee due to a mortar shell explosion during the Bosnian civil war when she was 16 years old. As a child, she had vowed to swim with dolphins to honor her cousin who passed away from leukemia. Years later, while peering into an aquarium at a dolphin named Winter, she steeled her nerves and got into the pool wearing her prosthetic leg to fulfill her childhood pledge. The passage provides background on Kazazic's injury and recovery process as well as her determination to swim with dolphins despite her amputation.
De thi-vao-tienganh-lop10chuyen-tinh-hung-yen-2015-2016onthitot .com
This document is an official exam for admission to grade 10 specialized English classes in Hung Yen province, Vietnam. It consists of 4 pages and tests students on phonology, vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension, and writing. The exam contains multiple choice and fill-in-the-blank questions to assess students' proficiency in English pronunciation, vocabulary, grammar, reading, and writing abilities. It will be scored out of 10 total points and administered over a 120 minute period without including time for instructions.
Tailieuxanh de thi_vao_tienganh_lop10chuyen_tinh_hung_yen_2015_2016_6905WatsonJennifer
The document is a test for admission to grade 10 specialized English classes in Hung Yen province, Vietnam. It consists of 4 parts testing phonology, vocabulary, grammar, reading and writing skills in English. Part A has 5 multiple choice questions on English stress patterns. Part B contains 2 sections on vocabulary and grammar, testing word choice and parts of speech. Part C involves 3 reading comprehension sections with multiple choice questions. Part D evaluates writing through error identification and sentence rewriting tasks. The test aims to comprehensively assess candidates' English proficiency across different skills.
Ujian pentaksiran akhir tahun sekolah rendah 2016 english pemahaman tahun 5Farah Hasaban
Laila bt Sidek proved that poverty and family problems did not stop her from succeeding in her studies. She scored straight As in the recent UPSR examination and was selected as the best pupil in her school for her achievements. Her family consists of six members, with her father working hard as a labourer and her mother doing extra jobs like selling food to make ends meet and support the family. When interviewed, Laila said she owed her success to her teachers and parents. She managed to achieve good grades through having group discussions with friends and planning her time well.
The passage discusses giant turtles that come ashore on the east coast of Malaysia between April and August to lay their eggs. Some key points:
- The turtles are among the world's longest living creatures, believed to be over 1,000 years old. They travel great distances from as far as South America to lay eggs at their birthplace beaches.
- Turtle watching has become a popular activity and business in Dungun during this period. Visitors can observe the turtles laying eggs from viewing shelters.
- The government now collects and hatches the eggs to protect the young from predators, as most eggs were previously gathered for sale. This is aimed at conserving the turtles for future generations.
My journey started off from Kathmandu, the capital of Nepal where I was on my way to the base camp of Annapurna, a mountain of Nepal. The next day, I proceeded to Pokara, the starting point of the trek. The trek was uphill all the time with little respite. I had chosen the right season as the rhododendrons were in full bloom. Walking through a forest of rhododendrons was like the Shangri-La I had dreamed of. At Chomron, I had to wake up at 4 am and walked up Poon Hill in the dark to catch the sunrise. There were almost hundred trekkers there but their conversation was quiet in the
The document provides instructions for students taking a standardized test in Bahasa Inggris. It details logistics like the time and location of the test, how to fill out identifying information, and test-taking rules like not using outside materials. The test consists of three parts - Listening, Reading Comprehension, and Writing - with multiple choice questions testing comprehension of dialogs, passages and monologs in English.
[Edu.joshuatly.com] melaka spm trial 2010 english set 1 (w ans)Nirmala Rothinam
1) The narrator and her sister were sent by their mother to deliver lunch to their grandfather who lived alone nearby. Their town in Vietnam was generally peaceful despite the war spreading elsewhere.
2) On their walk to their grandfather's house, the sisters suddenly heard gunshots from Vietcong soldiers in the nearby mountains. They quickly took cover on the roadside.
3) Remembering advice to zigzag in such situations, the narrator suggested running in that manner to avoid the bullets and reach their grandfather more quickly with the hot food. They managed to safely deliver the lunch during the shooting.
Tuyển tập đề thi Violympic tiếng anh lớp 10 tập 1nguyen cong vu
This document provides information about a book titled "Selection of IOE English Exam Questions for Grade 10, Volume 1". It was published by MCBooks Publishing Company, who holds the copyright. It contains 17 exam rounds with 2 tests each to help students practice. In addition to the book, audio lessons are provided to help with listening skills. The publisher hopes this material will be useful for students to improve their English.
The document provides discussion and solutions for questions from a 2012 Indonesian national exam for junior high school English. It contains 21 multiple choice questions and explanations of their answers. The questions are based on several short passages about plans for a holiday, congratulations on an award, an invitation to a party, warnings about coral at a beach, and information about the closure of a monkey exhibit for renovation.
The document summarizes practice exam questions and answers for an English exam in Indonesia. It includes reading passages and questions about the passages that assess comprehension. The document explains that the exam covers topics like letters, announcements, advertisements, descriptions of places and events. It provides examples of several reading passages followed by multiple choice questions to test understanding of details and main ideas in the texts.
This document contains a reading comprehension test with multiple choice and matching questions about school topics. The test covers pronunciation, word stress, synonyms, antonyms, verb tenses, sentence completion, error correction, and a reading passage about public education in the United States. It tests knowledge of English grammar, vocabulary and reading skills. The test contains over 100 questions in total across 8 sections to thoroughly assess English language abilities.
This document contains a sentence completion activity and multiple choice questions assessing grammar, vocabulary, and English language skills. The activity includes questions testing parts of speech, analogies, identifying errors in grammar, and other English language concepts. Students are to select the best answer from the options provided to complete sentences and identify related words or errors in sentences. There are 20 sentence completion questions and 20 multiple choice questions assessing a variety of English language skills.
This document provides 5 sample English tests for 12th grade students in Vietnam to help review their English skills. The tests cover pronunciation, vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension and consist of multiple choice questions testing various language areas. The document aims to help students systematically review their English knowledge in preparation for the exam.
The document is an exam paper for the 2012 Primary School Achievement Test (UPSR) in English conducted by Mutiara PDCA. It contains instructions for students on how to answer the exam, which consists of 40 multiple choice questions to be completed in 50 minutes. The exam tests students' English language abilities in areas such as vocabulary, comprehension, grammar and punctuation.
This document provides information about a mid-semester exam for 9th grade students at SMP Negeri 4 Madiun. The exam will take place on Tuesday, December 11th, 2012 from 7:00-9:00. It covers the subject of English and contains general instructions for students on how to fill out their answers. The document provides sample exam questions in a multiple choice format covering topics in English.
Decades ago, teachers harshly punished students with discipline problems by caning them or hitting them with rulers, feather dusters or wooden ladles. Teachers were also allowed to make students do punishments like running around the field, standing in corners, or doing ear squats. Some other common methods then were keeping a bunch of wooden rulers to hit students' palms as punishment for misbehaving or not doing homework. Teachers also embarrassed students by making them stand at the back, on chairs or tables, both inside and outside the classroom. These days, caning is not entirely banned but girls are exempted. The more common methods now include counselling sessions, warning letters to parents, suspension, and finally expulsion only as
This document appears to be an English exam assessing grammar, vocabulary, pronunciation, reading, writing, listening and speaking skills. The exam covers a range of topics testing these language areas, including completing sentences with correct grammar, matching pronunciation, reading comprehension questions and a writing prompt. The exam is assessing proficiency in several core areas of the English language.
1. ..
Nama : ………………………..………………… Tingkatan : ….………...……
SULIT
12/1
BAHASA INGGERIS
KERTAS 1
OGOS
2011
1 jam
BAHAGIAN PENGURUSAN
SEKOLAH BERASRAMA PENUH DAN SEKOLAH KECEMERLANGAN
KEMENTERIAN PELAJARAN MALAYSIA
PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN
PENILAIAN MENENGAH RENDAH
2011
BAHASA INGGERIS
Kertas 1
Satu Jam
JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU
Arahan
1. Kertas soalan ini mengandungi 40 soalan.
2. Jawab semua soalan.
3. Tiap- tiap soalan diikuti oleh empat jawapan, A , B ,C dan D. Bagi setiap soalan, pilih
satu jawapan sahaja. Hitamkan semua jawapan anda pada kertas jawapan objektif yang
disediakan.
Instructions
1. This question paper consists of 40 questions.
2. Answer all questions.
3. Each question is followed by four options A , B ,C and D. For each question, choose only
one answer. Blacken all answers on the objective answer sheet given.
________________________________________________________________________
Kertas soalan ini mengandungi 16 halaman bercetak
12/1 HAKCIPTA SEKOLAH BERASRAMA PENUH DAN SEKOLAH KECEMERLANGAN SULIT
2. SULIT 2 12/1
Questions 1 – 10 are based on the information given.
100% COTTON
WARM HAND WASH
DO NOT BLEACH
DO NOT TUMBLE DRY
1. From the label above, we know that the shirt
A can be whitened using a bleaching agent
B must be easy to iron as it is made of cotton
C ought to be hand-washed using warm water
D can be put into a washing machine but not tumbled dry
Go for a whirl in this great invention
Get great mileage - less fuel
Get good emissions - less pollution
Get green - environment-friendly
2. The advertisement above shows that the car
A is green in colour
B emits harmful gases
C saves on petrol consumption
D has good long lasting tyres to run on
12/1 SULIT
3. SULIT 3 12/1
MEMO
TO: Mdm. Tan
FROM: Mr. Sugan
DATE: June 27, 2011
SUBJECT: Meeting - Change of time
The panel meeting tomorrow will be rescheduled from 8 a.m to 11 a.m.
Kindly inform all the panel teachers about the change.
Mr. Sugan
3. The phrase „rescheduled’ can best be replaced by
A arranged
B cancelled
C abolished
D postponed
Azmi's Monthly Expenditure
Food Clothes & Shoes Books
20% 5% 60%
Stationeries
15%
4. The pie chart above shows Azmi‟s expenditure in a month. If the total monthly expenditure is
RM 200, how much does he spend on food?
A RM 40
B RM 60
C RM 30
D RM 10
12/1 SULIT
4. SULIT 4 12/1
5. From the comic strip above, we know the man is saying that
A he is too tired to do anything
B his time for relaxing is very important to him
C he is willing to do something special for his wife
D his wife is always asking him to do work around the house
Use only
what you
need
6. Based on the notice above, which of the following statements is true?
A We must not be wasteful when using things
B We should reuse, reduce and recycle things
C We need to make use of the things we have
D We have to meet the needs of our loved ones
12/1 SULIT
5. SULIT 5 12/1
STUDENTS’ PERFORMANCES IN THE MIDYEAR EXAMINATION
Percentage of
score, %
90
80
70
60
50 Amin
40 Sheila
30 Beng
20
10
0
English Language Malay Language Mathematics Science
7. From the line graph above, we can conclude that
A Sheila scored the least marks for science
B Beng scored the highest marks in Malay language
C All the three students scored poorly in mathematics
D Both Amin and Sheila scored good grades for Malay language
12/1 SULIT
6. SULIT 6 12/1
I‟m going to have a
good rest now. ……………………
……………………
Oh dear!……This is
terribly difficult. ..
…………………
8. What is the man behind the seat likely to say?
A Could we exchange our seats?
B Could you kindly put your seat up?
C I think you are extremely considerate
D You may recline your seat all the way down
No footwear beyond here
9. The sign above tells us that
A people need to go barefooted
B there is no footwear sold beyond the sign
C footwear must be taken off before going past the sign
D we are not allowed to walk around the place without shoes
12/1 SULIT
7. SULIT 7 12/1
Top Jobs Only For Those Who Know The Language Well
By Hariati Azizan and Lee Yen Mun
Petaling Jaya - It does not matter if you are top of your class or have a
string of degrees. That dream job will not be yours unless you can speak
and write well in English.
10 From the newspaper report above, we know that
A knowledge in English Language is an asset
B being top in class is definitely an advantage
C having a string of degrees can guarantee a secure job
D the ability to write and communicate in English is essential
12/1 SULIT
8. SULIT 8 12/1
Questions 11 – 18 are based on the following text.
In France, sardine is very expensive as it is very much in demand and considered a
fashionable fish to eat now not only for its taste, but for its superfood values.
Every summer, along the coasts, there _________ (11) food festivals celebrating sardine.
Sardine will be on the _________(12) of fine restaurants and features a lot in home barbeques –
simply grilled over coals and enjoyed with a squeeze of lemon juice and a pinch of salt.
Fresh sardine, _________(13) the other hand, is hardly served on the Malaysian table. Small,
dark fleshed and rather fishy, it has not been a significant table fish – _________(14) only time
we eat sardine is out of a can.
Sardines are small , soft-boned fish and they get their names from Sardinia, a big island
_________(15) the west coast of Italy, where they were once fished abundantly. These tiny,
iridescent fish _________(16) in huge schools in the ocean surface.
Sardines, which _________(17) on nutrient-rich plankton, have the highest EPA, or
omega-3 fatty acid. _________(18), instead of buying expensive fish liver oil supplements, the
health conscious should consider natural food such as sardine because it is rich in omega 3.
In short, it is time to relook at the sardine. Just give it a chance because it has a lot to offer.
(Adapted from The Flavours magazine, January 2011)
11 A is 15 A of
B was B at
C are C on
D were D off
12 A menus 16 A swim
B recipes B swam
C dessert C swims
D dinner D swimming
13 A in 17 A fed
B on B feed
C at C feeds
D of D feeding
14 A - 18 A So
B a B Hence
C an C While
D the D Therefore
12/1 SULIT
9. SULIT 9 12/1
Questions 19 – 21
Read the conversation below and choose the best meaning for the phrases underlined.
Ah Chew was talking to his younger brother while they were having tea.
Ah Chew: Brother, I think you should go out and play some games or watch movies with
your friends. You have been cooped up ( 19 ) in the house since the final exams
started. You have just finished your final paper yesterday, haven‟t you?
Ah Kee : Yes, the final exam is over. I think I‟ve gone through ( 20) the longest week in my
life during the exam week. It is such a relief and at the moment all I want to do is
to enjoy myself. I‟ve heard about the release of a new movie,
“Transformers”. I think I‟ll go and watch my favourite movie with my friends.
Ah Chew: That‟s a good idea. Do what you think is best for you.
Ah Kee : Thanks, brother. Don‟t worry about me. I know how to loosen up ( 21 ).
19 cooped up
A rested
B confined
C occupied
D pressured
20 gone through
A checked
B exhibited
C followed
D experienced
21 loosen up
A relax
B retire
C release
D review
12/1 SULIT
10. SULIT 10 12/1
Questions 22 – 24
Read the text below and choose the best meaning for the expressions underlined.
Abdul knew that he would be late for school again as he had overslept. He would have to
face the music (22) as this would be his fourth time within a fortnight. Mr Chong, the discipline
teacher had warned him about the demerit system. In school, he was reprimanded and as a result,
Abdul was down in the dumps (23) the whole day.
The school counsellor had called him to his room. Abdul admitted to him that he had been
sleeping late at night because he was so engrossed in the video games which he played online. It
was a wake up call (24) for him. Finally he decided to stop playing video games during the
weekdays because it had done more harm than good.
22 face the music
A tell the truth
B explain himself
C face the teacher boldly
D accept the punishment
23 down in the dumps
A glad
B angry
C relieved
D unhappy
24 wake up call
A notice
B support
C warning
D reminder
12/1 SULIT
11. SULIT 11 12/1
Question 25 – 28 are based on the following recipe .
Creamy Macaroni and Cheese
Total Time : 3 hours 5 minutes
Preparatioon : 5 minutes
Cook : 3 hours
Yield : 12 servings
Level : Easy
Ingredients
2 cups uncooked elbow macaroni
4 tablespoons butter, cut into pieces
2 1/2 cups grated Cheddar cheese
3 eggs, whisked
1/2 cup sour cream
1 can condensed Cheddar cheese soup
1/2 teaspoon salt
1 cup whole milk
1/2 teaspoon dry mustard
1/2 teaspoon black pepper
Method
Firstly, boil the macaroni in plenty of water until it is tender for about 7 minutes.
Drain it well. After that, mix butter and cheese in a medium saucepan. Stir until the
cheese melts. Pour the mixture into a slow cooker. Next, add the eggs, sour
cream, soup, salt, milk, mustard, pepper and stir well. Then add the drained
macaroni and stir again. Lastly, set the slow cooker at a low setting and cook for 3
hours, stirring occasionally.
TRY IT NOW !
12/1 SULIT
12. SULIT 12 12/1
25 The word whisked can best be replaced with
A ground finely
B stirred regularly
C mixed thoroughly
D beaten continuously
26 The dish is meant to be eaten by
A one family
B five people
C four people
D twelve people
27 Why do we have to drain the macaroni?
A To soften the macaroni
B To remove excess water
C To pour water into the macaroni
D To mix it with cheese and butter
28 Creamy macaroni and cheese is considered unhealthy to
A an obese person
B an asthmatic person
C an underweight person
D an undernourished child
12/1 SULIT
13. SULIT 13 12/1
Questions 29 – 34 are based on the following passage.
As far back as I can remember, the large pickle jar sat on the floor beside the dresser in
my parents' bedroom. When he got ready for bed, Dad would empty his pockets and toss his
coins into the jar. As a small boy I was always fascinated at the sounds the coins made as they
were dropped into the jar. They landed with a merry jingle when the jar was almost empty. Then
the tones gradually muted to a dull thud as the jar was filled.
I used to squat on the floor in front of the jar and admire the copper and silver circles
that glinted like a pirate's treasure when the sun poured through the bedroom window.
When the jar was filled, Dad would sit at the kitchen table and roll the coins before taking
them to the bank. Taking the coins to the bank was always a big production. Stacked neatly in a
small cardboard box, the coins were placed between Dad and me on the seat of his old truck.
Each and every time, as we drove to the bank, Dad would look at me hopefully. "Those
coins are going to keep you out of the gold mines, son. You're going to do better than me. This
old mines town is not going to hold you back." Also, each and every time, as he slid the box of
rolled coins across the counter at the bank towards the cashier, he would grin proudly. “These are
for my son's college fund. He'll never work at the mines all his life like me”.
(Adapted from Chicken Soup For The Soul)
29 The writer used to find that it was very interesting
A to see his father tossing the coins
B to see his father beside the dresser
C to listen to his father opening the jar
D to listen to the coins falling into the jar
30 The phrase copper and silver circles means
A coins
B chips
C rings
D plates
31 Why did the father save the money?
A For his investment
B For his son‟s education
C To buy the gold mines
D To buy a new truck for him
12/1 SULIT
14. SULIT 14 12/1
32 The writer went to the bank with his father to
A roll the coins
B toss the coins
C deposit their savings
D withdraw their savings
33 The father wanted him to become
A a pirate
B a cashier
C an educated person
D a supervisor at the gold mines
34 From the passage, the lesson that we learn is
A first come, first served
B opportunity knocks but once
C make hay while the sun shines
D an early bird catches the worm
12/1 SULIT
15. SULIT 15 12/1
Questions 35- 37 are based on the following poem.
Life’s Brief Candle
To-morrow, and to-morrow, and to-morrow,
Creeps in this petty pace from day to day
To the last syllable of recorded time,
And all our yesterdays have lighted fools
The way to dusty death. Out, out, brief candle!
Life‟s but a walking shadow, a poor player,
That struts and frets his hour upon the stage,
And then is heard no more; it is a tale
Told by an idiot, full of sound and fury,
Signifying nothing.
William Shakespeare
35 The phrase walking shadow refers to
A life
B tale
C time
D death
36 Why does the persona compare life to a candle?
A Life is very painful
B Life is short and fragile
C Life is full of adventures
D Life has its ups and downs
37 From the poem, we can conclude that
A we should live our life to the fullest
B we should make other people happy
C we would feel bitter throughout our life
D we would be famous when we act on stage
12/1 SULIT
16. SULIT 16 12/1
Questions 38 – 40 are based on the extract from the short story Of Bunga Telur and Bally
Shoes.
“How about if you distribute Hacks sweets instead of hard-boiled eggs?” His last idea
was really the last straw for his sister.
“Any more of your brilliant suggestions and the wedding is off! I mean, OFF!” She
stormed off into the kitchen.
Jamal stared after her, blinking back his tears. He was only trying to be helpful and
trying hard to economise. And precious little gratitude he got for it as well. That threat
about calling off his marriage was really a kick in his underbelly. It was really all their
fault. First, they found him a bride-to-be. Then, they titillated him no end with tales of the
bridal chamber. Then, they titillated him even more by arranging “fitting sessions” with
the bride-to-be, and then, when he was all worked up, threatened to call off the wedding.
That was oppression. Jamal retired to a corner to lick his wounds.
38 She stormed off into the kitchen.
The statement above shows that
A his sister was angry with his idea
B his sister agreed with his suggestion
C his sister was indifferent to Jamal‟s response
D his sister did not want to call off the wedding
39 How do we know that Jamal was eager to be married?
A He cried when his sister scolded him
B He tried to avoid getting a kick in his underbelly
C He was hurt when they threatened to cancel the wedding
D He wanted to give out sweets instead of hard-boiled eggs
40 From the extract above, we know that Jamal is _____________ son.
A a dominant
B an obedient
C a manipulative
D an authoritative
KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT
12/1 SULIT
17. ..
Nama : ………………………..………………… Tingkatan : ….………...……
SULIT
12/2
BAHASA INGGERIS
KERTAS 2
OGOS
2011
1 ½ jam
BAHAGIAN PENGURUSAN
SEKOLAH BERASRAMA PENUH DAN SEKOLAH KECEMERLANGAN
KEMENTERIAN PELAJARAN MALAYSIA
PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN
PENILAIAN MENENGAH RENDAH
2011
BAHASA INGGERIS
Kertas 2
Satu jam tiga puluh minit
JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU
Arahan
1. Kertas soalan ini mengandungi tiga bahagian: Bahagian A, Bahagian B dan Bahagian C,
2. Jawab semua bahagian.
3. Anda dinasihati supaya mengambil masa 40 minit untuk menjawab soalan Bahagian A, 30
minit untuk Bahagian B dan 20 minit untuk Bahagian C.
Instructions
1. This question paper consists of three sections: Section A, Section B and Section C,
2. Answer all questions.
3. You are advised to spend 40 minutes on Section A, 30 minutes on Section B and
20 minutes on Section C.
________________________________________________________________________
Kertas soalan ini mengandungi 4 halaman bercetak
12/2 HAKCIPTA SEKOLAH BERASRAMA PENUH DAN SEKOLAH KECEMERLANGAN SULIT
18. SULIT 2 12/2
Section A : Guided Writing
[30 marks]
Using the pictures and notes below, write a report for the school news bulletin about Teacher’s
Day celebration in your school.
assembly – special day – speech
presented roses – cheerful faces - appreciate
teachers
stage presentations – choir – songs –
entertained teachers
traditional dances – graceful – games –
lunch party
When writing your report,
you may use all the notes
elaborate on the given notes to make it more interesting
add any other relevant information
make sure it is not less than 120 words
12/2 SULIT
19. SULIT 3 12/2
Section B: Summary
[10 marks]
Read the passage below and answer the question that follows.
Phobia, an irrational fear, is a common anxiety disorder towards a situation, place, object
or animal. When the affected person is exposed to the source of the fear or thinks about it, anxiety
and even panic can result.
Phobias can affect anyone, irrespective* of gender, age or social background. Some
phobias start in early childhood and resolve spontaneously as the child grows up. Other phobias
start in adolescence* and in the twenties. Many phobias occur after a stressful experience or
situation. Some phobias may persist for several years.
Phobias can limit a person’s activities of daily living and may cause nausea and even
depression. People who have a phobia usually avoid the object or cause of their fear. In certain
instances, some may develop low self-esteem and refuse to meet people.
Many people who have phobias do not require treatment as avoidance of the object of their
fear takes care of the problem. However, sometimes avoidance may not always be possible with
certain phobias like fear of flying. In such cases, they will need to seek help from the family
doctor or a specialist like a psychiatrist or psychologist.
(Adapted from The Star, 2011)
*irrespective – without considering
*adolescence – time or period between childhood and adulthood
Write a summary on the effects of phobias.
Your summary must:
not be more than 60 words, including the 10 words given below
be in continuous writing (not in note form)
be written in one paragraph
Use your own words as far as possible without changing its original meaning.
Begin your summary as follows:
People who are suffering from phobias experience effects such as ...
12/2 SULIT
20. SULIT 4 12/2
Section C: Novel
(10 marks)
The following are the novels studied in the literature component in English Language.
1. Potato People - Angela Wright
2. Robinson Crusoe - Daniel Defoe
3. The Phantom of The Opera - Gaston Leroux
4. Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde - Robert Louis Stevenson
5. The Prisoner of Zenda - Anthony Hope Hawkins
Based on one of the novels above, write about an interesting event that has changed the life
of a character in the story.
Provide evidence from the text to support your answer.
Your response should be:
not less than 50 words
in continuous writing (not in note form)
KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT
12/2 SULIT
21. 1
SULIT 12/1
BAHAGIAN PENGURUSAN
SEKOLAH BERASRAMA PENUH DAN SEKOLAH KECEMERLANGAN
KEMENTERIAN PELAJARAN MALAYSIA
PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN
PENILAIAN MENENGAH RENDAH
2011
PERATURAN PERMARKAHAN
BAHASA INGGERIS
KERTAS 1 dan 2
22. 2
MARK SCHEME FOR PAPER 1
Question Answer Question Answer
1 C 21 A
2 C 22 D
3 D 23 D
4 A 24 C
5 B 25 D
6 A 26 D
7 D 27 B
8 B 28 A
9 C 29 D
10 D 30 A
11 C 31 B
12 A 32 C
13 B 33 C
14 D 34 C
15 D 35 A
16 A 36 B
17 B 37 A
18 A 38 A
19 B 39 C
20 D 40 B
23. 3
MARK SCHEME : PAPER 2
SECTION A : GUIDED WRITING BAND DESCRIPTORS
Task fulfilled with ideas and details well-developed
25-30 and well-organised.
Language is accurate with few minor errors and first
draft slips.
Varied sentence structures are used effectively to
EXCELLENT convey meaning.
Vocabulary is apt and widely used.
Accurate use of mechanics of writing.
Interest of the reader is aroused and sustained.
Task fulfilled with ideas and details developed and
19-24 organised.
Language is largely accurate with some serious and
minor errors.
Simple and compound sentence structures are
accurate.
CREDIT
Vocabulary is wide enough but lack precision.
Almost always accurate use of spelling, punctuation
and paragraphing.
Interest of the reader is aroused but not sustained.
Task fulfilled with ability to develop some ideas but
13-18 lacks details; ideas adequately organised.
Language is sufficiently accurate with frequent
serious errors.
Simple and compound sentence structures are
ACHIEVEMENT
attempted
Vocabulary is sufficient to convey meaning.
Some errors in mechanics of writing.
Task partially fulfilled with ideas less developed;
7-12 ideas lacking organisation
Language is barely accurate with frequent serious
errors that hamper reading.
WEAK
Vocabulary is limited.
Serious errors in mechanics of writing.
Task hardly fulfilled; ideas lack cohension.
VERY WEAK 1-6 High density of errors; meaning is hardly conveyed.
24. 4
MARK SCHEME: PAPER 2
SECTION B – SUMMARY
CONTENT : 5 marks
LANGUAGE : 5 marks
__________
TOTAL 10 marks
__________
CONTENT POINTS FOR SUMMARY
Award 1 mark for each content point to a maximum of 5 marks.
anxiety
panic
can limit activities (of daily living)
nausea
depression
avoid object or cause of fear
develop low self-esteem
refuse to meet people
25. 5
SECTION B : BAND CRITERIA FOR SUMMARY
Marked ability to use own words
Language is accurate; use of simple and
5 compound sentences; appropriate linkers; use of
correct grammar
Accurate spelling and punctuation
EXCELLENT
First draft slips
No lifting of sentences
No irrelevant details
Ability to use own words
Language is largely accurate; use of simple and
4 compound sentences; appropriate linkers; use of
correct grammar
Spelling and punctuation are largely accurate
CREDIT Some minor errors
Almost no lifting of sentences
No irrelevant details
Attempts to use own words
Language is sufficiently accurate; use of simple
3 and compound sentences (majority of simple
sentences) some use of linkers; some serious
grammatical errors
ACHIEVEMENT
Some serious errors in spelling and punctuation
Selective lifting of sentences
Some irrelevant details.
No attempt to use own words
Frequent serious errors in grammar, spelling and
2 punctuation
Linkers hardly use
WEAK
Wholesale lifting of text material
Irrelevant details
High density of errors – fractured syntax
1 Total lifting of text material i.e. transcript
VERY WEAK
Irrelevant details.
26. 6
SECTION C : BAND CRITERIA FOR MARKING NOVEL
9-10 Requirements of task fulfilled
Ideas and details well-developed, well-
organised with evidence from text
Varied sentence structures (simple and
EXCELLENT compound)
Wide and apt vocabulary
Accurate use of language
Accurate mechanics of writing
7-8 Requirements of task fulfilled
Ideas and details largely developed,
organised and supported with evidence
from text
Varied sentence structures (simple and
CREDIT
compound)
Vocabulary wide enough
Largely accurate use of language
Largely accurate mechanics of writing
5-6 Requirements of task fulfilled
Ideas and details sufficiently developed
with some organisation and supported with
some evidence from text
Sentence structures lack variety (simple
ACHIEVEMENT
structures dominates)
Adequate vocabulary used
Sufficiently accurate use of language
Fairly accurate mechanics of writing
3-4 Requirements of task partially fulfilled
Ideas lack development and organisation
with minimal textual support – mere
narration
Sentence structures mostly simple with
WEAK errors that hamper reading
Vocabulary limited
Language is barely accurate with errors that
hamper reading
Inconsistent mechanics of writing
27. 7
1-2 Requirements of task hardly fulfilled
Hardly any development of relevant ideas
or textual support
High density of errors; blurring evident,
VERY WEAK
lacks cohension
Vocabulary very limited
Mechanics of writing – numerous errors