Jake initially thought that his classmate Kyle was a boring "nerd" because he did well on tests and carried many books home. However, one day some other kids knocked Kyle's books out of his hands. Jake helped Kyle pick up his books and glasses. They discovered they lived near each other, so they walked home together and became friends. Over the next four years, Jake and Kyle became best friends, despite initially thinking Kyle was too different.
The document provides instructions and questions for an exam. It begins with general instructions to answer all questions in the paper and provides context about a text on preserving the environment. It then presents a passage with grammatical errors to identify and multiple choice questions about the passage. The following sections provide additional reading comprehension questions, including filling in tables and short answer questions. The document covers various topics related to environmental protection, grammar, reading comprehension, and exam instructions.
The document is an exam paper for a Year 1 assessment in a Malaysian school. It contains instructions for students on how to complete the exam, which will be a 2 hour written test divided into sections. The first section has 10 comprehension questions. The second section has longer answer questions worth 30 marks total, to be completed in 40 minutes. The third section contains an article and related questions worth 15 marks to be done in 20 minutes. The paper contains a total of 100 marks. Student names, examiner details and page numbers are provided for record keeping purposes.
Teks tersebut memberikan contoh pengenalan diri seorang murid bernama Nurul Huda binti Ahmad yang berumur 7 tahun dan belajar di kelas Tahun Satu Pintar. Teks tersebut juga memberikan petunjuk untuk mengisi identiti diri berdasarkan contoh yang diberikan.
End of year examination english year 3 paper 2Eja Jaafar
Fitrah cycles to school in the morning and has various afternoon and evening activities including piano lessons, homework, badminton, and watching television.
Amira's weekly planner is described, including her activities of English tuition and going to the library on Friday morning, swimming lessons on Saturday, and helping her mother in the kitchen on Sunday afternoon.
Information is provided about five children - Ahmad, Fitri, Amanina, Hanisa, and Fiqrul - including their ages, hobbies, birthdays, favorite foods, and drinks.
The document provides instructions and questions for an exam. It begins with general instructions to answer all questions in the paper and provides context about a text on preserving the environment. It then presents a passage with grammatical errors to identify and multiple choice questions about the passage. The following sections provide additional reading comprehension questions, including filling in tables and short answer questions. The document covers various topics related to environmental protection, grammar, reading comprehension, and exam instructions.
The document is an exam paper for a Year 1 assessment in a Malaysian school. It contains instructions for students on how to complete the exam, which will be a 2 hour written test divided into sections. The first section has 10 comprehension questions. The second section has longer answer questions worth 30 marks total, to be completed in 40 minutes. The third section contains an article and related questions worth 15 marks to be done in 20 minutes. The paper contains a total of 100 marks. Student names, examiner details and page numbers are provided for record keeping purposes.
Teks tersebut memberikan contoh pengenalan diri seorang murid bernama Nurul Huda binti Ahmad yang berumur 7 tahun dan belajar di kelas Tahun Satu Pintar. Teks tersebut juga memberikan petunjuk untuk mengisi identiti diri berdasarkan contoh yang diberikan.
End of year examination english year 3 paper 2Eja Jaafar
Fitrah cycles to school in the morning and has various afternoon and evening activities including piano lessons, homework, badminton, and watching television.
Amira's weekly planner is described, including her activities of English tuition and going to the library on Friday morning, swimming lessons on Saturday, and helping her mother in the kitchen on Sunday afternoon.
Information is provided about five children - Ahmad, Fitri, Amanina, Hanisa, and Fiqrul - including their ages, hobbies, birthdays, favorite foods, and drinks.
Here is a 50-word email to your friend:
Dear [Friend's Name],
I hope you can join me for the Kuantan Heritage Tour this weekend. We'll get to see beautiful nature spots like the Endau Rompin National Park and learn about local culture like the traditional dances at Taman Budaya Pahang. It's also a great way to experience the lively city. Let me know by tonight if you can come!
Ai Ming and her family spent last week at the beach, traveling there by boat which took about an hour. At the beach, Ai Ming and her brother built a sandcastle on the sand and played beach ball, having a wonderful time. They returned home in the evening.
This document contains a passage about preserving the environment and questions to test the reader's understanding. It asks the reader to identify grammatical errors in sentences from the passage and provide corrections. It also contains a section asking the reader to answer multiple choice and short answer questions about the passage. The final section provides advice on what to do if someone faints, including preventing injury from falling, providing air and cooling measures, ensuring safe recovery to an upright position, and knowing when to call for emergency help.
Phileas Fogg makes a wager at the Reform Club that he can circumnavigate the world in 80 days. He travels by steamship and trains, crossing the Suez Canal, visiting India, Hong Kong, Japan, and the United States before returning to England. However, in Liverpool Fix arrests Fogg, believing he robbed the Bank of England. Fogg learns he has finished the journey in 79 days and wins the wager.
This document contains a year 4 English exam paper with multiple sections:
1. Section A tests simple present tense and wh-questions with fill-in-the-blank and multiple choice questions.
2. Section B involves rearranging words to form sentences and making sentences with given words.
3. Section C replaces underlined words with pronouns and tests punctuation and spelling.
The exam paper evaluates students' English language skills in various grammatical areas through different question formats for year 4 level.
This document contains instructions for a Malay language exam consisting of three sections. Section A involves writing five sentences describing a neighborhood based on an image. Section B involves writing a 50-80 word essay on ways to care for parents based on a poster. Section C involves choosing one of two essay questions, with one question involving describing family activities during a village visit, and the other involving writing a letter to a teacher about being quarantined after returning from a village visit.
This Malay document contains 7 steps for a building or construction project based on the pictures provided: 1) Planting, 2) Cutting, 3) Watering, 4) Providing, 5) Arranging, 6) Expanding, 7) Observing. However, the document does not provide any details or descriptions for each step.
This document contains an English comprehension test for Year 4 students with 25 multiple choice and short answer questions. It tests students' understanding of grammar, vocabulary, pronouns, prepositions, and comprehension of short passages. The test covers identifying the correct word to complete a sentence, choosing the right answer to fill in blanks in a passage, identifying meanings of words, matching statements to categories, and answering comprehension questions about stories. It aims to evaluate students' English language skills in key areas including reading, writing, grammar, and vocabulary.
Pentaksiran Tingkatan 1 Bahasa Inggeris (Answer)Miz Malinz
The document provides a reading comprehension passage and questions about a trip to Sarawak. There are 10 grammatical errors in the passage that need to be corrected. The questions then ask the reader to summarize details about the trip based on the information provided and correct any errors in the passage. Further questions test understanding of vocabulary used and ability to infer implicit details.
The document describes Nancy's plans to visit her cousin Randy during the upcoming school holidays. She provides details of her travel plans, including taking the Sun express bus to arrive in Penang on June 4th at 5pm. She asks Randy to meet her at the bus station and says she will bring him famous pomelos from Ipoh. Nancy looks forward to seeing Randy and sends her regards to his family.
This document provides instructions and examples for candidates taking a writing exam. It discusses the tasks of writing emails in response to prompts and notes. It provides guidance on structure, language functions, vocabulary for suggestions, advice and persuasion. It emphasizes covering all points, following instructions, and appropriate organization, language accuracy and register for the target reader. Scoring will consider content, organization, length, errors, appropriateness and addressing the intended reader.
1. The document contains an assessment for a Year 2 English class with multiple sections testing spelling, vocabulary, grammar, comprehension and sequencing skills.
2. The sections include filling in missing letters, naming modes of transportation, underlining correct answers and rewriting paragraphs with proper punctuation, naming flowers, arranging jumbled words into sentences, sequencing a story based on pictures, and answering comprehension questions about a short text.
3. The assessment tests a variety of basic English language skills and was designed to evaluate students in an SJK (C) or Chinese primary school in Malaysia.
My journey started off from Kathmandu, the capital of Nepal where I was on my way to the base camp of Annapurna, a mountain of Nepal. The next day, I proceeded to Pokara, the starting point of the trek. The trek was uphill all the time with little respite. I had chosen the right season as the rhododendrons were in full bloom. Walking through a forest of rhododendrons was like the Shangri-La I had dreamed of. At Chomron, I had to wake up at 4 am and walked up Poon Hill in the dark to catch the sunrise. There were almost hundred trekkers there but their conversation was quiet in the
1. The document is a 50-item final exam in Biological Science covering various topics and question types, including true/false, multiple choice, matching, fill-in-the-blank, analogy, rearrangement, and essay questions.
2. The exam tests knowledge of key biological concepts like the parts of the cell, theories of evolution and cell theory, scientists who made important contributions to the field, and classification of living things.
3. It aims to evaluate students' understanding of core ideas in biology as well as their ability to apply knowledge in different testing formats requiring recall, analysis, and explanation.
Here is a 50-word email to your friend:
Dear [Friend's Name],
I hope you can join me for the Kuantan Heritage Tour this weekend. We'll get to see beautiful nature spots like the Endau Rompin National Park and learn about local culture like the traditional dances at Taman Budaya Pahang. It's also a great way to experience the lively city. Let me know by tonight if you can come!
Ai Ming and her family spent last week at the beach, traveling there by boat which took about an hour. At the beach, Ai Ming and her brother built a sandcastle on the sand and played beach ball, having a wonderful time. They returned home in the evening.
This document contains a passage about preserving the environment and questions to test the reader's understanding. It asks the reader to identify grammatical errors in sentences from the passage and provide corrections. It also contains a section asking the reader to answer multiple choice and short answer questions about the passage. The final section provides advice on what to do if someone faints, including preventing injury from falling, providing air and cooling measures, ensuring safe recovery to an upright position, and knowing when to call for emergency help.
Phileas Fogg makes a wager at the Reform Club that he can circumnavigate the world in 80 days. He travels by steamship and trains, crossing the Suez Canal, visiting India, Hong Kong, Japan, and the United States before returning to England. However, in Liverpool Fix arrests Fogg, believing he robbed the Bank of England. Fogg learns he has finished the journey in 79 days and wins the wager.
This document contains a year 4 English exam paper with multiple sections:
1. Section A tests simple present tense and wh-questions with fill-in-the-blank and multiple choice questions.
2. Section B involves rearranging words to form sentences and making sentences with given words.
3. Section C replaces underlined words with pronouns and tests punctuation and spelling.
The exam paper evaluates students' English language skills in various grammatical areas through different question formats for year 4 level.
This document contains instructions for a Malay language exam consisting of three sections. Section A involves writing five sentences describing a neighborhood based on an image. Section B involves writing a 50-80 word essay on ways to care for parents based on a poster. Section C involves choosing one of two essay questions, with one question involving describing family activities during a village visit, and the other involving writing a letter to a teacher about being quarantined after returning from a village visit.
This Malay document contains 7 steps for a building or construction project based on the pictures provided: 1) Planting, 2) Cutting, 3) Watering, 4) Providing, 5) Arranging, 6) Expanding, 7) Observing. However, the document does not provide any details or descriptions for each step.
This document contains an English comprehension test for Year 4 students with 25 multiple choice and short answer questions. It tests students' understanding of grammar, vocabulary, pronouns, prepositions, and comprehension of short passages. The test covers identifying the correct word to complete a sentence, choosing the right answer to fill in blanks in a passage, identifying meanings of words, matching statements to categories, and answering comprehension questions about stories. It aims to evaluate students' English language skills in key areas including reading, writing, grammar, and vocabulary.
Pentaksiran Tingkatan 1 Bahasa Inggeris (Answer)Miz Malinz
The document provides a reading comprehension passage and questions about a trip to Sarawak. There are 10 grammatical errors in the passage that need to be corrected. The questions then ask the reader to summarize details about the trip based on the information provided and correct any errors in the passage. Further questions test understanding of vocabulary used and ability to infer implicit details.
The document describes Nancy's plans to visit her cousin Randy during the upcoming school holidays. She provides details of her travel plans, including taking the Sun express bus to arrive in Penang on June 4th at 5pm. She asks Randy to meet her at the bus station and says she will bring him famous pomelos from Ipoh. Nancy looks forward to seeing Randy and sends her regards to his family.
This document provides instructions and examples for candidates taking a writing exam. It discusses the tasks of writing emails in response to prompts and notes. It provides guidance on structure, language functions, vocabulary for suggestions, advice and persuasion. It emphasizes covering all points, following instructions, and appropriate organization, language accuracy and register for the target reader. Scoring will consider content, organization, length, errors, appropriateness and addressing the intended reader.
1. The document contains an assessment for a Year 2 English class with multiple sections testing spelling, vocabulary, grammar, comprehension and sequencing skills.
2. The sections include filling in missing letters, naming modes of transportation, underlining correct answers and rewriting paragraphs with proper punctuation, naming flowers, arranging jumbled words into sentences, sequencing a story based on pictures, and answering comprehension questions about a short text.
3. The assessment tests a variety of basic English language skills and was designed to evaluate students in an SJK (C) or Chinese primary school in Malaysia.
My journey started off from Kathmandu, the capital of Nepal where I was on my way to the base camp of Annapurna, a mountain of Nepal. The next day, I proceeded to Pokara, the starting point of the trek. The trek was uphill all the time with little respite. I had chosen the right season as the rhododendrons were in full bloom. Walking through a forest of rhododendrons was like the Shangri-La I had dreamed of. At Chomron, I had to wake up at 4 am and walked up Poon Hill in the dark to catch the sunrise. There were almost hundred trekkers there but their conversation was quiet in the
1. The document is a 50-item final exam in Biological Science covering various topics and question types, including true/false, multiple choice, matching, fill-in-the-blank, analogy, rearrangement, and essay questions.
2. The exam tests knowledge of key biological concepts like the parts of the cell, theories of evolution and cell theory, scientists who made important contributions to the field, and classification of living things.
3. It aims to evaluate students' understanding of core ideas in biology as well as their ability to apply knowledge in different testing formats requiring recall, analysis, and explanation.
Koleksi soalan percubaan add math kertas 1
1. peperiksaan percubaan sekolah asrama penuh dan jawapan
2. pepriksaan percubaan negeri perak dan jawapan
3. peperiksaan percubaan negeri selangor dan jawapan
4. peperiksaan percubaan negeri terengganu dan jawapan
This document is the question paper for the trial SPM English paper in 2013. It consists of two sections - Section A involves directed writing based on notes provided, while Section B involves continuous writing on one of five topics provided. Instructions are given for the candidates to spend 45 minutes on Section A and 60 minutes on Section B. Marking schemes are also provided to evaluate the students' performance in both sections.
The document is a mathematics examination paper consisting of 25 questions testing concepts in algebra, calculus, geometry, trigonometry, and statistics. It provides instructions for students on how to answer the questions, allocates marks for each question, and includes a list of relevant formulae. The questions require students to perform calculations, solve equations, find values, expressions and coordinates, and complete other mathematical tasks.
The document is a 25 page chemistry exam paper for a trial SPM examination in 2013. It consists of 3 sections (Section A, B, C) and contains 10 questions. Section A has 6 questions worth 60 marks total. Students must answer all Section A questions on the exam paper itself. Section B and C each contain 1 question that students must answer in detail on the writing paper, using equations, diagrams etc. as needed to explain their answers. Various instructions are provided, such as showing working, crossing out incorrect answers neatly, and that diagrams are not drawn to scale. The time suggested for each section is 90 minutes for Section A, 30 minutes for Section B and 30 minutes for Section C. Calculators are permitted.
Langkah-langkah melestarikan teknologi hijau meliputi menggalakkan penggunaan teknologi ramah alam dalam pelbagai bidang, memperuntukkan dana kerajaan untuk mempromosikan teknologi hijau, dan menstruktur semula beberapa kementerian untuk memastikan penyelarasan dasar teknologi hijau. Kekangan untuk melaksanakannya adalah kekurangan kesedaran masyarakat tentang pentingnya menjaga alam sekit
This document is a physics exam paper for Form 5 students. It consists of two sections - Section A with 4 questions worth 28 marks total, and Section B with 2 questions worth 12 marks each. Section A involves experiments on light refraction and sound wave interference. Section B asks students to describe hypothetical experiments based on observations. The document provides diagrams, tables and graph paper to aid students in answering the questions. It also includes instructions for candidates on how to answer the questions and the time allocation.
The document provides sample mathematics questions from past SPM exams, including questions that require students to analyze data sets, calculate measures of central tendency, complete frequency tables, construct histograms and ogives, and interpret graphs. The questions cover topics like data representation, measures of central tendency, quartiles, and data analysis and interpretation.
Dokumen tersebut merupakan kertas soalan untuk ujian fizik tingkatan 5 yang berisi 50 soalan pilihan ganda dan beberapa diagram. Kertas soalan ini memberikan maklumat penting seperti arahan untuk calon, senarai rumus yang berguna, dan maklumat lain untuk menjawab soalan-soalan ujian.
This document is a 19 page science examination paper consisting of 3 sections (Section A, B, and C). It provides instructions to candidates regarding the structure and time allocation of the paper. Section A contains 4 questions worth a total of 20 marks. Section B contains 5 questions worth a total of 30 marks. Candidates must answer Question 10 in Section C and choose one other question from 11 or 12. Diagrams and tables are provided to accompany some questions. Candidates are allowed to use a non-programmable scientific calculator and must submit the question paper at the end of the examination.
Peperiksaan pertengahan tahun t4 2012 (2)normalamahadi
This document contains 12 mathematics questions testing skills such as solving simultaneous linear equations, quadratic equations, calculating areas and perimeters of shapes, set theory, and logical reasoning. The questions cover topics like functions, sequences, proportions, geometry, and Venn diagrams. Students are required to show their work and provide answers for full marks.
- Maja Kazazic lost her left leg below the knee during the Bosnian civil war. She spent nearly two years in hospital in the US recovering from her injuries. Walking was intensely painful due to her damaged right leg and ill-fitting prosthetic.
- Years later, Kazazic still struggled with pain from an imperfect prosthesis. She was inspired to get a new prosthetic after seeing Winter, a dolphin with a tail injury, receive a high-tech prosthetic tail. Within ten days, Kazazic received a new prosthetic leg from Hanger Clinic that was pain-free and allowed different activities.
- Maja Kazazic lost her left leg below the knee during the Bosnian civil war. She spent nearly two years in hospital in the US, where she struggled with pain from an ill-fitting prosthetic leg. Though she graduated high school and university, any physical activity left her in agony for days.
- She was inspired to get a new prosthetic leg after seeing Winter, a dolphin at an aquarium who had lost her tail. Within ten days, Kazazic received a new prosthetic from Hanger Clinic that was pain-free and allowed different activities due to a microprocessor. This enabled her to fulfill her childhood promise of swimming with dolphins.
- Maja Kazazic lost her left leg below the knee during the Bosnian civil war. She spent nearly two years in hospital in the US, where she struggled with pain from an ill-fitting prosthetic leg. Though she graduated high school and university, any physical activity left her in agony for days.
- She was inspired to get a new prosthetic leg after seeing Winter, a dolphin at an aquarium who had lost her tail. Within ten days, Kazazic received a new prosthetic from Hanger Clinic that was pain-free and allowed different activities through a microprocessor. This enabled her to fulfill her childhood promise of swimming with dolphins.
- Maja Kazazic lost her left leg below the knee during the Bosnian civil war. She spent nearly two years in hospital in the US, learning to walk with a prosthetic leg, which was painful. She watched dolphins at an aquarium to relax.
- Inspired by a dolphin named Winter who had a new prosthetic tail, Kazazic approached the tail inventors. Within ten days she received a new prosthetic leg with a microprocessor that eliminated her pain.
- Eight months later, Kazazic fulfilled her childhood promise to swim with dolphins by entering the aquarium pool. She spent an hour swimming with Winter, overcoming her disability through determination and modern technology.
The document contains 6 sets of questions and answers related to reading comprehension passages. Set 1 is about two students, Mable and Penny, meeting in the school canteen and making plans to go to the bookshop. Set 2 provides information about a writer's neighbor. Set 3 is about planning for Teacher's Day. Set 4 is about a man who notices his neighbor's abandoned car. Set 5 discusses water conservation. Set 6 is about a survey of hobbies for students in a school. The document provides the questions from reading passages on various topics and the corresponding answers.
This passage provides information about a listening section of an English exam. It consists of 4 parts with multiple choice questions testing comprehension of short dialogues, conversations, or monologues played aloud. The audio content will not be printed, so test takers must listen carefully. For each part, there are directions explaining what kind of audio will play and the task. Sample questions are also included to demonstrate the format.
- Maja Kazazic lost her left leg below the knee during the Bosnian civil war after being injured by shrapnel from a mortar shell explosion. She spent nearly two years in a hospital in the US undergoing multiple surgeries and learning to walk with a prosthetic leg, which caused her great pain.
- Years later, Kazazic saw Winter the dolphin at an aquarium who had lost her tail. Inspired by Winter learning to swim with a prosthetic tail, Kazazic obtained a new prosthetic leg that eliminated her pain.
- With her new leg, Kazazic was able to fulfill a childhood promise to swim with dolphins in honor of her cousin who passed
The test paper is for a student named NAMA MURID in an unnamed class at SK Abang Kadir Gedong. It is an English test consisting of 1 hour and 35 questions. The test contains questions that assess reading comprehension, grammar, vocabulary and spelling based on passages, pictures and tables provided. The questions require choosing the best answer from options given to fill in blanks or complete sentences.
Here is a draft letter using the notes provided:
Dear [Friend's Name],
I read your email about considering applying for a student exchange programme in another country. I think this is a wonderful opportunity that you should definitely pursue. There are so many benefits to participating in a programme like this.
Firstly, you would get to visit and experience life as a student in a foreign country. This is an amazing chance to be immersed in a new culture and way of life. You would learn so much just from experiencing daily life overseas as a local student.
Secondly, you would be exposed to diverse learning opportunities. The teaching and learning strategies may be different in other education systems. This variety could open your mind
The document is an exam paper for the 2012 Primary School Achievement Test (UPSR) in English conducted by Mutiara PDCA. It contains instructions for students on how to answer the exam, which consists of 40 multiple choice questions to be completed in 50 minutes. The exam tests students' English language abilities in areas such as vocabulary, comprehension, grammar and punctuation.
09 '19 TJ Writes: Does Social Media Destroy Real-Life Communication + My 3-Ye...Jarod Yong
September edition of the 2019 TJ Writes: Does Social Media Destroy Real-Life Communication + My 3-Year Experience At SMK Tabuan Jaya + My Durian Holiday + Think Before You Speak + Ways To Reduce Air Pollution
English Language Society, SMK Tabuan Jaya
More info: https://www.jarodyong.com/2019/11/tj-writes-monthly-english-bulletin.html
The document is an English language comprehension exam paper for Form 3 students in Malaysia. It consists of 5 parts with a total of 40 questions. Part 1 has 8 multiple choice questions about reading comprehension. Part 2 has 8 questions where students need to correct underlined errors in a text. Part 3 has 8 short answer questions about information in a passage on family grilled chicken. Part 4 has 10 short answer questions about a passage on why the writer enjoys horror films. Part 5 has 6 questions where students need to match sentences to gaps in a newspaper article about sports. The exam is timed for 1 hour and 15 minutes.
Soal Bahasa Inggris SMK Kelas 12 Tahun 2015/2016Putri ananda
Peter is 14 years old and younger than the speaker by 4 years. He plays sports like football and tennis and is the best badminton player in the family. He can sometimes be naughty but usually does what he is asked.
This document is an exam paper for Year 5 English in Johor, Malaysia. It contains 40 multiple choice questions testing students' English language comprehension and knowledge. The exam covers topics like grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension, and punctuation. Students have 50 minutes to complete the exam which is supervised and organized by the Johor State Education Department in cooperation with the Johor Headmasters' Council.
This document provides instructions for answering a multiple choice test with questions about reading comprehension, vocabulary, grammar, and matching pictures to sentences. The test contains 50 questions across 5 sections. For each question, the reader must choose the best answer from the multiple choice options given. The summary concludes with reminding test takers to read the instructions carefully in order to learn how to correctly complete the test.
Our school had a cleanliness campaign last Saturday where classes were divided into groups to clean up the school field and basketball court. Our class picked up rubbish and dried leaves from the ground. We were tired but happy to help our school.
Students can benefit from joining a study group but there are also disadvantages. Studying in a group can motivate students and help them learn, understand concepts better, and improve communication skills through discussions. However, group members may have different levels of understanding, which could cause some to fall behind. Additionally, coordinating meeting times can be difficult with large groups and some members may distract others by talking about unrelated topics. Overall, students should consider whether they are someone who studies best alone or in a group environment.
This document contains an exam for the subject of English at an Islamic junior high school in Indonesia. It provides instructions for the exam, which will last 120 minutes and contain multiple choice and open response questions. The exam tests students' knowledge of English grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension and rearranging scrambled sentences. It covers topics like famous singers, novels, recipes and short stories. The purpose is to evaluate students' English skills at the end of the school year.
This document contains an exam for the subject of English at an Islamic junior high school in Indonesia. It provides instructions for the exam, which will take place on April 9th, 2020 and last 120 minutes. It contains multiple choice and ordering questions that assess reading comprehension and grammar based on several passages of text. The passages are about topics like famous Indonesian singer Isyana Sarasvati, a family's trip to Europe, and how to make mango punch. The exam is meant to test students' English skills in a confidential manner.
The document contains an exam paper for the English subject in the Malaysian public examination PMR (Penilaian Menengah Rendah, or Lower Secondary Assessment). The exam paper tests students' reading, writing and literature comprehension abilities. It consists of three sections - Section A involves writing a guided letter, Section B contains literature questions, and Section C requires students to write a summary. Various marking criteria and bands are provided to assess students' performance in the different sections.
The passage discusses giant turtles that come ashore on the east coast of Malaysia between April and August to lay their eggs. Some key points:
- The turtles are among the world's longest living creatures, believed to be over 1,000 years old. They travel great distances from as far as South America to lay eggs at their birthplace beaches.
- Turtle watching has become a popular activity and business in Dungun during this period. Visitors can observe the turtles laying eggs from viewing shelters.
- The government now collects and hatches the eggs to protect the young from predators, as most eggs were previously gathered for sale. This is aimed at conserving the turtles for future generations.
1. Jais dan rakan-rakannya mengintai meja Zalina untuk memastikan Zalina menemui surat yang diletak di mejanya. 2. Mereka menggoda Zalina sehingga Fatimah marah dan Zalina pergi lapor guru sambil bawa surat tersebut.
Dokumen tersebut berisi maklumat tentang soalan-soalan ujian sains untuk tingkatan tiga. Soalan-soalan tersebut meliputi topik seperti jirim, keadaan jirim, tindak balas kimia, sistem pencernaan manusia, dan ekologi.
ISO/IEC 27001, ISO/IEC 42001, and GDPR: Best Practices for Implementation and...PECB
Denis is a dynamic and results-driven Chief Information Officer (CIO) with a distinguished career spanning information systems analysis and technical project management. With a proven track record of spearheading the design and delivery of cutting-edge Information Management solutions, he has consistently elevated business operations, streamlined reporting functions, and maximized process efficiency.
Certified as an ISO/IEC 27001: Information Security Management Systems (ISMS) Lead Implementer, Data Protection Officer, and Cyber Risks Analyst, Denis brings a heightened focus on data security, privacy, and cyber resilience to every endeavor.
His expertise extends across a diverse spectrum of reporting, database, and web development applications, underpinned by an exceptional grasp of data storage and virtualization technologies. His proficiency in application testing, database administration, and data cleansing ensures seamless execution of complex projects.
What sets Denis apart is his comprehensive understanding of Business and Systems Analysis technologies, honed through involvement in all phases of the Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC). From meticulous requirements gathering to precise analysis, innovative design, rigorous development, thorough testing, and successful implementation, he has consistently delivered exceptional results.
Throughout his career, he has taken on multifaceted roles, from leading technical project management teams to owning solutions that drive operational excellence. His conscientious and proactive approach is unwavering, whether he is working independently or collaboratively within a team. His ability to connect with colleagues on a personal level underscores his commitment to fostering a harmonious and productive workplace environment.
Date: May 29, 2024
Tags: Information Security, ISO/IEC 27001, ISO/IEC 42001, Artificial Intelligence, GDPR
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Training: ISO/IEC 27001 Information Security Management System - EN | PECB
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The simplified electron and muon model, Oscillating Spacetime: The Foundation...RitikBhardwaj56
Discover the Simplified Electron and Muon Model: A New Wave-Based Approach to Understanding Particles delves into a groundbreaking theory that presents electrons and muons as rotating soliton waves within oscillating spacetime. Geared towards students, researchers, and science buffs, this book breaks down complex ideas into simple explanations. It covers topics such as electron waves, temporal dynamics, and the implications of this model on particle physics. With clear illustrations and easy-to-follow explanations, readers will gain a new outlook on the universe's fundamental nature.
it describes the bony anatomy including the femoral head , acetabulum, labrum . also discusses the capsule , ligaments . muscle that act on the hip joint and the range of motion are outlined. factors affecting hip joint stability and weight transmission through the joint are summarized.
How to Make a Field Mandatory in Odoo 17Celine George
In Odoo, making a field required can be done through both Python code and XML views. When you set the required attribute to True in Python code, it makes the field required across all views where it's used. Conversely, when you set the required attribute in XML views, it makes the field required only in the context of that particular view.
How to Manage Your Lost Opportunities in Odoo 17 CRMCeline George
Odoo 17 CRM allows us to track why we lose sales opportunities with "Lost Reasons." This helps analyze our sales process and identify areas for improvement. Here's how to configure lost reasons in Odoo 17 CRM
This slide is special for master students (MIBS & MIFB) in UUM. Also useful for readers who are interested in the topic of contemporary Islamic banking.
LAND USE LAND COVER AND NDVI OF MIRZAPUR DISTRICT, UPRAHUL
This Dissertation explores the particular circumstances of Mirzapur, a region located in the
core of India. Mirzapur, with its varied terrains and abundant biodiversity, offers an optimal
environment for investigating the changes in vegetation cover dynamics. Our study utilizes
advanced technologies such as GIS (Geographic Information Systems) and Remote sensing to
analyze the transformations that have taken place over the course of a decade.
The complex relationship between human activities and the environment has been the focus
of extensive research and worry. As the global community grapples with swift urbanization,
population expansion, and economic progress, the effects on natural ecosystems are becoming
more evident. A crucial element of this impact is the alteration of vegetation cover, which plays a
significant role in maintaining the ecological equilibrium of our planet.Land serves as the foundation for all human activities and provides the necessary materials for
these activities. As the most crucial natural resource, its utilization by humans results in different
'Land uses,' which are determined by both human activities and the physical characteristics of the
land.
The utilization of land is impacted by human needs and environmental factors. In countries
like India, rapid population growth and the emphasis on extensive resource exploitation can lead
to significant land degradation, adversely affecting the region's land cover.
Therefore, human intervention has significantly influenced land use patterns over many
centuries, evolving its structure over time and space. In the present era, these changes have
accelerated due to factors such as agriculture and urbanization. Information regarding land use and
cover is essential for various planning and management tasks related to the Earth's surface,
providing crucial environmental data for scientific, resource management, policy purposes, and
diverse human activities.
Accurate understanding of land use and cover is imperative for the development planning
of any area. Consequently, a wide range of professionals, including earth system scientists, land
and water managers, and urban planners, are interested in obtaining data on land use and cover
changes, conversion trends, and other related patterns. The spatial dimensions of land use and
cover support policymakers and scientists in making well-informed decisions, as alterations in
these patterns indicate shifts in economic and social conditions. Monitoring such changes with the
help of Advanced technologies like Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems is
crucial for coordinated efforts across different administrative levels. Advanced technologies like
Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems
9
Changes in vegetation cover refer to variations in the distribution, composition, and overall
structure of plant communities across different temporal and spatial scales. These changes can
occur natural.
LAND USE LAND COVER AND NDVI OF MIRZAPUR DISTRICT, UP
Bi paper 2 spm trial 2013
1. Kertas soalan ini mengandungi 16 halaman bercetak
1119/2 [Lihat sebelah]
Nama
1119/2
Bahasa Inggeris Tingkatan
Kertas 2
Sept
2013
2 ¼ jam
SMK KAMPUNG GELAM , MELAKA
PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN SPM
TAHUN 2013
BAHASA INGGERIS
Kertas 2
Dua jam lima belas minit
JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU
For Examiner’s Use
Section Total Marks
A 15
B 10
C 25
D 20
Total 70
Arahan
1. Kertas soalan ini mengandungi empat bahagian:
Bahagian A, Bahagian B, Bahagian C dan Bahagian D.
2. Jawab semua bahagian dalam kertas soalan ini.
3. Soalan-soalan dalam Bahagian A mempunyai empat
pilihan jawapan. Jawab setiap soalan denga membulatkan
jawapan yang betul di halaman 16.
4. Anda dinasihati supaya mengambil masa 25 minit untuk
menjawab soalan Bahagian A, 25 minit Bahagian B, 50
minit untuk Bahagian C dan 35 minit untuk Bahagian D.
Instructions
1. This question paper consists of four sections:
Section A, Section B, Section C and Section D.
2. Answer all sections in this question paper.
3. Questions in Section A have four options. Answer each
question by circling the correct answer on page 16.
4. You are advised to spend 25 minutes on Section A, 25
minutes on Section B, 50 minutes on Section C and 35
minutes on Section D.
2. 1119/2
2
Section A
[ 15 marks]
Questions 1 and 2
Read the newspaper report below and answer the following questions.
1 What is the main message of the above news report?
A A warning about buying stolen goods.
B A security guard was attacked by nine men.
C RM145 786 was stolen from the warehouse in Jalan Meru.
D Shop operators should not buy oats, milk powder and sugar.
2 The word carted in the report can best replaced with
A put
B packed
C carried
D stacked
Question 3
Read the sign below and answer the following questions.
3. The sign above tells us to make sure
A that the money returned is correct.
B you have enough cash to pay the cashier.
C that the goods bought have been changed.
D you have enough change when paying for the goods.
Ipoh- Police have urged the public not to buy oats, milk powder and sugar being sold
below market price after robbers carted away RM145 786 worth of the products from
a warehouse in Jalan Meru yesterday. Nine men broke into the warehouse and
confronted the security guard at about 3 a.m. Operators of mini markets, sundry shops
and supermarkets in Perak and neighbouring states are advised not to buy stolen goods.
PLEASE CHECK YOUR
CHANGE
3. 1119/2
3
Question 4
Read the notice below and answer the following question.
4 Below are the causes of hearing problems except
A poisonous chemicals and drugs
B the process of aging
C there is growth in the nerve
D exposure to noise
HEALTH TIPS
HEARING PROBLEM
Wax blocking the external ear canal
Damage to the eardrum itself
Prolonged exposure to loud noise
A slap on the ear
Certain toxic chemicals and drugs
The effect of aging
Tumour of the nerve that connects the ear with the
brain
*Consult your medical doctor for the correct diagnosis
4. 1119/2
4
Questions 5 and 6
Read the advertisement below and answer the following questions.
5 Which of the following statements is true about the advertisement?
A You can get the special offer only at 3.00 p.m.
B You have to pay the regular price outside the specified hours
C The chicken burger costs RM9.95 from 12.00 noon to 3 p.m.
D Soft drink, salad, fries and onion rings cost RM4.95
6 According to the menu, which item can be replenished at no extra cost?
A The salad
B The soft drink
C The onion rings
D The French fries
Holiday Special
LUNCHEON FOR KIDS!
Chicken burger
Fish fillet
Pizza
Chicken nuggets
Each of the above orders comes with a soft drink, a salad, French
fries and onion rings.
Special offer – only RM4.95
Regular price – RM9.95
Free refills for drinks
Available from 12.00 noon to 3 p.m. only
Regular prices apply after stated time
5. 1119/2
5
Questions 7 and 8
Read the text below and answer the following questions.
7 A person who has to gargle with saltwater would probably be suffering from
A a painful throat
B high cholesterol
C bad eyesight
D the ‘blues’
8 The home remedies are described as tried and true because
A they are cheap
B these remedies actually work
C many people have tried them
D some people suggested the remedies
TRIED AND TRUE
Some home remedies are so well-known, you’ve probably
used them. Here are six home remedies that work.
Chicken soup for colds
Saltwater gargle for a sore throat
Ginger ale for an upset stomach
Carrots for better eyesight
Oat bran to reduce cholesterol
Chocolates for the ‘blues’
6. 1119/2
6
Questions 9- 15
Read the following passage and then fill in the blanks with the best answer.
9 A run 13 A demonstrate
B ran B express
C runs C expose
D running D reveal
10 A so 14 A this
B or B that
C but C those
D and D these
11 A played 15 A by
B playing B with
C has played C against
D have played D between
12 A who
B whose
C whom
D which
Music is the language of the soul, a message that Osman Kitari readily imparts to all his
students.
Osman who ______ (9) the Guitar Music School in Bangsar, Kuala Lumpur, is a graduate
of music from Universitit Institut Teknologi Mara (UiTM). He teaches both adults _____(10)
children to play the guitar. Osman started playing the guitar at the age of thirteen and _____(11)
professionally for more than 6 years. As such, he knows all about the passion people have for
music especially the sound of the guitar.
“I teach students _____(12) are serious about playing the guitar and also to those who just
play for fun. It is a joy for me to see my students ____(13) themselves with the guitar’, said
Osman.
He teaches his students to play the guitar using the Tab System. He says that ____(14)
system does not require them to learn music notes or how to manipulate the fingers of both hands
simultaneously.
According to Osman, students just need to learn how to read a diagram that is in the shape
of the guitar strings _____(15) dots. These dots show them where to pluck and play their fingers.
It is as easy as that.
7. 1119/2
7
Section B
[10 marks]
Questions 16-25
Read this brochure and then complete the following tasks.
Hang Tuah Mall Mother’s Day Celebrations
Can bring the family!
Fun & Goodies for all!
Date: May 13, 2012
Time: 11 a.m. – 9 p.m.
Events:
11.00 a.m. - Ms Hang Tuah Mall.
A special contest for little girls aged 3 to 9 only.
First prize: Hamper worth RM500.00.
Three other prizes of hampers worth RM250.00 each.
2.pm. - Mothers & Sons Lego Building Contest.
Note: Sons must be aged 15 and below.
2 top prizes worth RM1500.00 each.
4 p.m. – Hang Tuah Mall Quiz.
Open to all shoppers who have receipts totaling RM30.00 from shops at Hang Tuah Mall.
Instant prizes include mobile phones, hampers, vouchers and beauty kits.
6 p.m. – Talent Time
Fancy yourself as a singer or dancer?
Prove it! Open to all!
Top prizes for the top talents!
8 p.m. – Samba Celebration!
Just show us your receipts totaling RM50.00 valid for the day and you
will be invited to our Samba celebration party!
Call Juhama at 06-3902900 for details.
8. 1119/2
8
Questions 16- 22
Complete the table below.
Contest Main Prize Conditions
Miss Hang Tuah Mall 16. 17.
18. Mobile phone and others 19.
20. RM1500.00 21.
22. ___ Receipts totaling RM50.00
Questions 23- 25
The people below would like to take part in the celebrations. Based on the brochure and the description of
the people below, choose the best event for them.
23 Sarthy and Vijaya, 1st
place runner- up in the local tango dancing competition.
_____________________________________________________________________
24 Kim Seng, aged 12, went out shopping with his parents. He loves working with his hands.
_____________________________________________________________________
25 Yusni and her sister, Laila have just completed shopping for their grocery at the mall.
They bought over RM30.00 worth of goods.
_____________________________________________________________________
9. 1119/2
9
Section C
[25 marks]
Questions 26 – 31 are based on the following passage.
Jake thought that Kyle was a “nerd”, a boring, overly-studious person. He seemed too different from
himself to ever be his friend …
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
One day, I saw a boy from my class walking home from school. He was rather
new to our school and I hardly knew him. He was one of those students who topped
all the tests. His name was Kyle. It looked like he was carrying all of his books. I
thought to myself, Why would anyone bring home all his books on a Friday? He
must really be a nerd.” I shrugged my shoulders and went on.
As I was walking, I saw a bunch of kids running towards him. They ran at
him, knocking all his books out of his arms and tripping him, so he landed in the dirt.
His glasses went flying and I saw them land in the grass about ten feet from him. He
looked up and I saw a terrible sadness in his eyes. My heart went out to him. So, I
jogged over to him as he crawled around looking for his glasses. As I handed him his
glasses, I said, “Those guys are jerks. They really should learn some manners.”
He looked at me and said, “Hey, thanks!” There was a big smile on his face.
It was one of those smiles that showed real gratitude. I helped him pick up his books
and asked him where he lived. As it turned out, he lived near me, so we decided to
walk home together.
We talked all the way home. I asked him if he wanted to play football on
Saturday with me and my friends. He said, “Yes.” Kyle hung out with my friends
and me all weekend and the more I got to know him, the more I liked him and so did
my friends.
Monday morning came and there was Kyle with the huge stack of books again.
I stopped him and said, “Boy, you are really going to build some big muscles with
this pile of books every day!” He just laughed.
Over the next four years, Kyle and I became best friends. When we were
seniors, we began to think about college. Kyle decided on Georgetown University
and I was going to Duke. We always make an effort to contact one another during
semester breaks and make plans to meet up. I knew that we would always be friends,
that the miles apart would never be a problem.
On the morning of Graduation Day, I met Kyle at the school entrance. He
looked great. He was one of those guys that really found himself during high school.
He had filled out and actually looked good in glasses. He had become one of the
most popular students. Sometimes, I even felt jealous and this was one of the times.
But, he was looking really nervous. As the top student, he had to deliver the
graduation speech. I was so glad it wasn’t me having to get up there and speak. So, I
slapped him on the back and said, “Hey, Big Guy, you’ll be great!” He looked at me
with one of those looks (the really grateful one) and smiled.
5
10
15
20
25
30
10. 1119/2
10
8
9
10
As he started his speech, Kyle cleared his throat and began: “Graduation is the
time to thank those who helped you to make it through those tough years – your
parents, your teachers, your siblings, maybe a coach…but mostly your friends. I am
here to tell all of you that being a friend to someone is the best gift you can give
them. I am going to tell you a story…”
I just stared at my friend with disbelief as he told the story of the first day we
met. He had planned to kill himself over the weekend. He talked of how he had
cleaned out his locker so his mother would not have to do it later and was carrying
his stuff home. He looked at me and gave me a little smile. “Thankfully, I was
saved. My friend saved me from doing the unspeakable.”
I heard a gasp go through the crowd as this handsome, popular boy told us all
about his weakest moment. I saw his mother and father looking at me, smiling that
same grateful smile. Not until that moment did I realise its depth.
40
45
26 From paragraph 1,
a) What was Jake’s first impression of Kyle?
___________________________________________________________________________[1mark]
b) “… he shrugged his shoulders”. What does this action tell you about Jake’s thoughts
at that time?
_________________________________________________________________________[ 1 mark]
27 a) From paragraph 2, how did Jake feel when he saw Kyle crawling about, trying to get
his glasses?
_________________________________________________________________________[ 1 mark]
b) From paragraph 3, identify two things Jake did to make Kyle feel better.
(i) ______________________________________________________________________[1 mark]
(ii) ______________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
28 From paragraph 6,
a) what plans did Jake and Kyle have after they graduated from high school?
_____________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________[ 1 mark]
11. 1119/2
11
b) “the miles apart would never be a problem”. Explain what the writer means.
________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________[ 2marks]
29 From paragraph 7, how had Kyle changed for the better in the years after he met Jake?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark]
30 If Jake had not helped him, four years before, what do you think would have happened to Kyle?
____________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark]
31 Based on the passage given, write a summary on:
how Jake met Kyle
how their friendship developed
Credit will be given for use of own words but care must be taken not to change he original
meaning.
Your summary must:
be in continuous writing (not in note form)
use materials from lines 1 – 27
not be longer than 130 words, including the 10 words given below
Begin your summary as follows:
Jake first met Kyle when he was on his way…………………
[15 marks]
13. 1119/2
13
Section D
[20 marks]
32 Read the following stanza from the poem He Had Such Quiet Eyes and answer the questions that
follow.
a. What does the poet wish the girl had done?
___________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark]
b. What is the advice, according to this poem?
___________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark]
c. What should the girl look out for?
____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark]
d. In your opinion, what should young girls do to look after themselves?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________ [ 2 marks]
If only she’d been wise
And listened to the advice
Never to compromise
With pleasure seeking guys
She’d be free from the ‘hows and whys’
Now here’s a bit of advice
Be sure that nice really means nice
Then you’ll never be losing at dice
Though you may lose your heart once or
twice.
14. 1119/2
14
33 The following are the novels studied in the literature component in English Language.
The Curse – Lee Su Ann
Step By Wicked Step – Anne Fine
Catch us If You Can – Catherine MacPhail
Choose any one of the novels above and answer the question below.
Based on the novel that you have studied, write about an important lesson that you have
learned from it. Give evidence from the novel to support your answer.
[15 marks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
............................................................................................................................................................................
16. 1119/2
16
ANSWER SHEET
For Section A
Blacken only one space for each question .If you wish to change your answer, erase the blackened mark that
you have made. Then blacken the space for the new answer.
Example :
`
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
A
A B C D
A B C D
A
A
A
A
A
A
B C
B C
D
B
B
B
B
C
C
C
D
D
D
D
C D
C D
18. 1119/2
4
SKEMA PEMARKAHAN
PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN TINGKATAN 5 2013
BAHASA INGGERIS 1119/2
1. A
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. D
11. C
12. A
13. B
14. A
15. B
16. hamper worth RM500.00
17. girls aged 3 to 9 only
18. Hang Tuah Mall Quiz
19. receipts totaling RM 30.00
20. Mothers & Sons Lego Building Contest
21. sons must be aged 15 and below
22. Samba Celebration
23. Talent Time
24. Mothers & Sons Lego Building Contest
25. Hang Tuah Mall Quiz
19. 1119/2
5
26. a) He thought he was a nerd.
b) He decided it was none of his business.
27. a) He felt great sympathy for him.
b) i) He helped Kyle pick up his books / asked him where he lived.
ii) they walked home together.
28. a) Kyle decided on Georgetown University and Jake was going to Duke.
b) Their friendship would remain firm even though they were far apart./ Accept any
suitable answer.
29. He looked handsome and fit. / He had become one of the most popular students.
30. He might have committed suicide./ Accept any logical answer.
31 Content points (Accept any 10 content points)
1. on his way home from school
2. Kyle carrying his things home
3. some boys ran at Kyle, knocked into him
4. tripped him , landed in the dirt
5. his books and glasses went flying
6. Jake felt sorry for Kyle and helped him
7. they walked home together
8. invited Kyle to play football that weekend
9. Kyle spent time with Jake and his friends
10. they got to like Kyle
11. make effort to contact one another
12. make plans to meet up
20. 1119/2
6
Marks for summary:
Paraphrasing (P) : 5 Content points 10
Use of Language (UE): 5 Language 5
10/2= 15
5 (Language) (Total marks)
LANGUAGE DESCRIPTORS
Marks for language: 5 marks
(Add marks for paraphrase and use of English and divide by two)
MARK PARAPHRASE MARK USE OF ENGLISH
5
• sustained rephrasing
• allow phrases from text
• which are difficult to substitute
• expression is secure 5
• language is accurate
• occasional slips or minor errors
• very well-organised and coherent
throughout
• marked ability to use original
complex structures
4
• noticeable rephrasing
• free from stretches of concentrated
lifting
• expression is generally sound
4
• language is largely accurate
• isolated serious errors
• well-organised and coherent in
most parts
• some ability to use original and
complex structures
3
• limited rephrasing
• intelligent and selective lifting
• expression is not always secure
3
• language is sufficiently accurate
• some serious errors
• fairly well-organised coherent in
some parts
2
• wholesale copying
• attempts to substitute with own
language limited to single word
expression
2
• meaning is not in doubt
• frequent serious errors
• poorly organized and lacks
coherence
• meaning is not in doubt
• frequent serious errors
• poorly organized land lacks
coherence
1
• more or less a complete transcript
of text
• originality barely noticeable
• mindless lifting
1
• heavy frequency of serious errors
• fractured syntax
• incoherent
21. 1119/2
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32. a. He wishes she had listened to some advice.
b.The young girl should never compromise with pleasure-seeking guys,
c. She should understand that the guy must really be a genuinely good person and she should wait for
such a guy.
d. They should be careful and not get trapped in bad relationships. /
They should talk to their parents and listen to sound advice from elders too. /
Accept any suitable answers.
33. Novel
Content - 10 marks
Language - 5 marks
Total -15 marks
CONTENT AND LANGUAGE BAND FOR NOVEL
MARK
RANGE
CONTENT MARK
RANGE
LANGUAGE
9 – 10
A consistently relevant &
convincing response to the
task specified.
Always provides detailed &
well-developed textual
evidence.
5 The language is very
accurate.
Very well-organised.
7 – 8
Response is relevant to the
task specified.
Usually provides textual
evidence with some
development.
4 The language is largely
accurate.
Well-organised.
5 – 6
Response is likely to be
intermittently relevant to the
task specified.
Provides some textual
evidence with little
development.
3 Meaning is never in doubt
but errors are becoming
more frequent.
Fairly well-organised.
4 – 3
Response of little relevance
to the task specified.
Little textual evidence.
2
Frequent errors with some
blurring in meaning.
Poorly organized.
1 - 2
Response has no relevance
to the task.
Has no understanding of the
requirements of the task.
1 Makes little or no sense at
all.
Lacks organization.
22. 1119/2
8
NOTE: The mark of 0 should only be awarded if
the response is in a language other than English
the response is not related to any of the novels