This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It details procedures for receiving and verifying the question booklet, how to mark answers in the common answer sheet, rules to follow, and information to be filled out by invigilators. The key points are:
1. Candidates have 5 minutes to open and verify their question booklet before starting the exam.
2. The exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions with options A, B, C, and D. Candidates must darken the oval for their chosen answer option on the common answer sheet.
3. Candidates must return the question booklet and not take it outside after the exam is over.
1. This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It details procedures for verifying the question paper booklet, marking responses in the answer sheet, rules to follow, etc.
2. Candidates have 5 minutes to open their question booklet and verify details like serial numbers and pages. They should not accept booklets without sticker seals or with discrepancies.
3. Responses must be marked on the common answer sheet provided. Any other marks will not be evaluated. Instructions inside the booklet must be read carefully.
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This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It specifies that the paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions. It outlines procedures for verifying the question booklet before starting, how to mark answers in the answer sheet, instructions not to write anything except in the designated response areas, procedures to return materials after the exam, and other testing policies.
This document appears to be an exam answer sheet for a test with 50 multiple choice questions. It provides instructions for candidates taking the exam, including how to fill out personal information, examine the question booklet, mark answers, and rules around calculator/table use and negative marking. The answer sheet is then used by exam officials to record marks obtained for each question.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It specifies that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions and will last 1.25 hours.
3. Candidates are instructed to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or having duplicate questions and to fill in their test booklet number on the answer sheet.
1. The document appears to be instructions for taking an examination based on some key points:
2. Examinees must fill in personal details on the question booklet and answer sheet, which are being used for both Paper I and Paper II.
3. In the first 5 minutes, examinees should open the booklet and verify details like page numbers and serial numbers match the cover page. Faulty booklets should be replaced immediately.
4. Questions are multiple choice with options A, B, C or D. Examinees must darken the correct oval on the answer sheet which is common for both papers. Use of pens other than blue/black is prohibited.
3 sentences or less
This document is a test paper on Library and Information Science consisting of 50 multiple choice questions with 2 marks for each question. The candidate is instructed to attempt all questions and mark the answers in the answer sheet provided within the test booklet. Some key points about the instructions include:
- Verifying the number of pages and questions in the booklet.
- Reporting any faulty or discrepant booklets within 5 minutes to the invigilator.
- Entering the serial number of the booklet on the answer sheet and vice versa.
- Indicating answers by darkening the appropriate oval on the answer sheet only.
- Following all instructions carefully.
The test then begins with multiple choice questions related
This document contains instructions for candidates appearing for a linguistics exam. It provides details about the structure of the paper, which consists of 50 objective type questions carrying 2 marks each. The instructions specify that candidates should fill the relevant details on the cover page and answer sheet. They are asked to verify the number of pages and questions in the question booklet. Guidelines are given for marking answers in the answer sheet and for rough work. Use of calculators or other aids is prohibited.
1. This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It details procedures for verifying the question paper booklet, marking responses in the answer sheet, rules to follow, etc.
2. Candidates have 5 minutes to open their question booklet and verify details like serial numbers and pages. They should not accept booklets without sticker seals or with discrepancies.
3. Responses must be marked on the common answer sheet provided. Any other marks will not be evaluated. Instructions inside the booklet must be read carefully.
2. ØæçÎ âð âãè âðÌð ÂýàÙ-ÂéçSÌ·¤æ
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It specifies that the paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions. It outlines procedures for verifying the question booklet before starting, how to mark answers in the answer sheet, instructions not to write anything except in the designated response areas, procedures to return materials after the exam, and other testing policies.
This document appears to be an exam answer sheet for a test with 50 multiple choice questions. It provides instructions for candidates taking the exam, including how to fill out personal information, examine the question booklet, mark answers, and rules around calculator/table use and negative marking. The answer sheet is then used by exam officials to record marks obtained for each question.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It specifies that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions and will last 1.25 hours.
3. Candidates are instructed to verify that their question booklet is not missing any pages or having duplicate questions and to fill in their test booklet number on the answer sheet.
1. The document appears to be instructions for taking an examination based on some key points:
2. Examinees must fill in personal details on the question booklet and answer sheet, which are being used for both Paper I and Paper II.
3. In the first 5 minutes, examinees should open the booklet and verify details like page numbers and serial numbers match the cover page. Faulty booklets should be replaced immediately.
4. Questions are multiple choice with options A, B, C or D. Examinees must darken the correct oval on the answer sheet which is common for both papers. Use of pens other than blue/black is prohibited.
3 sentences or less
This document is a test paper on Library and Information Science consisting of 50 multiple choice questions with 2 marks for each question. The candidate is instructed to attempt all questions and mark the answers in the answer sheet provided within the test booklet. Some key points about the instructions include:
- Verifying the number of pages and questions in the booklet.
- Reporting any faulty or discrepant booklets within 5 minutes to the invigilator.
- Entering the serial number of the booklet on the answer sheet and vice versa.
- Indicating answers by darkening the appropriate oval on the answer sheet only.
- Following all instructions carefully.
The test then begins with multiple choice questions related
This document contains instructions for candidates appearing for a linguistics exam. It provides details about the structure of the paper, which consists of 50 objective type questions carrying 2 marks each. The instructions specify that candidates should fill the relevant details on the cover page and answer sheet. They are asked to verify the number of pages and questions in the question booklet. Guidelines are given for marking answers in the answer sheet and for rough work. Use of calculators or other aids is prohibited.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It consists of 12 numbered points covering various instructions regarding the question paper booklet, answering the questions, and procedures during the examination. Key details include:
1. Candidates must write their roll number on the cover page.
2. The paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions.
3. Candidates will be given 5 minutes to open the booklet and verify the number of pages and questions. Faulty booklets should be replaced immediately.
4. Each question has 4 answer options marked A, B, C, or D. Candidates must darken the correct oval on the answer sheet.
This document provides instructions for a 50 question, multiple choice exam on Library and Information Science. The questions are divided into four types: 1) Simple multiple choice for questions 1-20, 2) Multiple selection for questions 21-35, 3) Linked items/item groups for questions 36-40, and 4) Matching items requiring matching statements from two lists for questions 41-50. Candidates are instructed to darken the correct oval response on the answer sheet and that there is no negative marking.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It explains that the examination will consist of 50 multiple choice questions. It provides directions on verifying the question booklet before the exam starts, marking answers in the answer sheet, and procedures to follow if there are any issues with the booklet. It reminds candidates not to write their name or any identifying marks on the test materials.
The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions. At the start of the exam, candidates will be given a question booklet to examine for 5 minutes. They should check that it is not missing pages or questions and that the numbering is correct. Candidates must fill in details from their booklet on the answer sheet. They should choose from among 4 answer options (A), (B), (C) or (D) for each question. No negative marking. Use of calculators is prohibited. Booklets must be returned after the exam.
According to the passage:
1. Swami Vivekananda believed a teacher's success depends on his renunciation of personal gain and service to others.
2. The passage provides information about instructions for an examination.
3. Students are instructed to carefully read the instructions provided and follow them properly.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It specifies that the examination consists of 50 multiple choice questions. It provides details on verifying the question paper booklet, marking answers in the answer sheet, rules to follow, and procedures to return materials after the examination.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It provides details about receiving the question booklet, verifying the number of pages and questions, marking responses in the answer sheet, rules to follow, and returning materials after the examination. Candidates are asked to not write their name or mark the test materials except in designated areas to avoid being disqualified.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It provides details such as:
1. Write your roll number on the cover page of the question booklet.
2. The paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions worth 2 marks each. Attempt all questions.
3. At the start of the exam, you will be given 5 minutes to open and verify your question booklet before the exam starts.
4. Choose the correct answer among options A, B, C or D and darken the oval on the answer sheet corresponding to the question.
That is the summary of the key information provided in the 3 sentences or less as requested.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It provides details such as:
- Write your roll number on the cover page
- The paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions
- Check that your question booklet is not defective
- Mark your answers on the OMR sheet provided
- No negative marking for incorrect answers
- Use only blue or black pen
- Calculators are not permitted
- Return the question booklet after the exam
Here are five questions based on the given paragraph with answers of approximately 30 words each:
1. What is the objective of qualitative research according to the passage?
The objectives of qualitative research are to discover, describe and analyse the complexities of common phenomena through observation and involvement in a research setting.
2. What role does a qualitative researcher play?
The role of the qualitative researcher is to scrutinize commonplace occurrences because when observed for prolonged periods, common phenomena can reveal remarkable levels of complexity.
3. Give an example mentioned in the passage to illustrate a common phenomenon.
In an archive a user is seated at a terminal but gazing out the window - a common enough phenomenon.
4. What
1. Briefly state the main concern of publishers regarding electronic publishing.
2. Mention two benefits that electronic publications offer library users according to the passage.
3. State one reason why collection managers have encouraged the development of electronic resources.
4. Summarize the approach adopted by publishers towards collection managers as mentioned in the passage.
5. State one important issue that collection managers need to be cautious about according to the passage.
Here are five questions with answers in 30 words each based on the given paragraph:
1. What does Rayward suggest about the emergence of information science as a distinct discipline? (5 marks)
Rayward suggests that information science emerged as a distinct discipline from parts of library science and computer science.
2. According to Rayward, what conclusion can be drawn about the history of information science? (5 marks)
According to Rayward, the conclusion that can be drawn about the history of information science is that it is an interdisciplinary field and those interested in it need to draw upon related fields of study.
3. What does the passage suggest about the influence of library and computer science on information science? (
Here are the answers to the questions in 30 words each:
1. The first period in the Age of Computers in libraries was that of library automation.
2. The second period was that of library digitization.
3. Library automation made library processes like circulation, cataloguing and serials control more efficient using computers.
4. Library digitization involved storing some library content in digital form and making it accessible through computer systems.
5. While library automation is well established, library digitization is still in a developing state with an uncertain future.
Esitys Alumnista yliopistolaisen yrityksen mentoriksi? -illassa 29.1.2013.
Avanto tarjoaa yrityksille kannattavia ja kestäviä työkaluja yhteiskunnallisten ongelmien ratkaisemiseen. Yritysvastuu ei ole vastikkeeton kuluerä, vaan mahdollisuus aidon lisäarvon tuottamiseen.
Weekly reversal levels for over 1500 stocks and ETF. Covering stocks from Dow Composite, Nasdaq 100, S&P 500, S&P 400 mid caps, S&P 600 small caps, and more than 100 ETF. To be used for market orientation and long term investing.
This document provides instructional strategies for summarizing and note taking. It discusses the importance of these skills and offers generalizations and classroom applications. For summarizing, it recommends teaching a rule-based strategy and using summary frames. For note taking, it emphasizes that notes should be a work in progress and used as study guides. The document also provides examples of different note taking formats and strategies teachers can use to help students improve their summarizing and note taking abilities.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It consists of 12 numbered points covering various instructions regarding the question paper booklet, answering the questions, and general guidelines. Candidates are instructed to verify the question paper booklet, darken ovals on the answer sheet to indicate their responses, and return the question booklet to invigilators after completing the exam.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It consists of 12 numbered points covering various instructions regarding the question paper booklet, answering the questions, and procedures during the examination. Key details include:
1. Candidates must write their roll number on the cover page.
2. The paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions.
3. Candidates will be given 5 minutes to open the booklet and verify the number of pages and questions. Faulty booklets should be replaced immediately.
4. Each question has 4 answer options marked A, B, C, or D. Candidates must darken the correct oval on the answer sheet.
This document provides instructions for a 50 question, multiple choice exam on Library and Information Science. The questions are divided into four types: 1) Simple multiple choice for questions 1-20, 2) Multiple selection for questions 21-35, 3) Linked items/item groups for questions 36-40, and 4) Matching items requiring matching statements from two lists for questions 41-50. Candidates are instructed to darken the correct oval response on the answer sheet and that there is no negative marking.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It explains that the examination will consist of 50 multiple choice questions. It provides directions on verifying the question booklet before the exam starts, marking answers in the answer sheet, and procedures to follow if there are any issues with the booklet. It reminds candidates not to write their name or any identifying marks on the test materials.
The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It states that the paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions. At the start of the exam, candidates will be given a question booklet to examine for 5 minutes. They should check that it is not missing pages or questions and that the numbering is correct. Candidates must fill in details from their booklet on the answer sheet. They should choose from among 4 answer options (A), (B), (C) or (D) for each question. No negative marking. Use of calculators is prohibited. Booklets must be returned after the exam.
According to the passage:
1. Swami Vivekananda believed a teacher's success depends on his renunciation of personal gain and service to others.
2. The passage provides information about instructions for an examination.
3. Students are instructed to carefully read the instructions provided and follow them properly.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It specifies that the examination consists of 50 multiple choice questions. It provides details on verifying the question paper booklet, marking answers in the answer sheet, rules to follow, and procedures to return materials after the examination.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It provides details about receiving the question booklet, verifying the number of pages and questions, marking responses in the answer sheet, rules to follow, and returning materials after the examination. Candidates are asked to not write their name or mark the test materials except in designated areas to avoid being disqualified.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It provides details such as:
1. Write your roll number on the cover page of the question booklet.
2. The paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions worth 2 marks each. Attempt all questions.
3. At the start of the exam, you will be given 5 minutes to open and verify your question booklet before the exam starts.
4. Choose the correct answer among options A, B, C or D and darken the oval on the answer sheet corresponding to the question.
That is the summary of the key information provided in the 3 sentences or less as requested.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an examination. It provides details such as:
- Write your roll number on the cover page
- The paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions
- Check that your question booklet is not defective
- Mark your answers on the OMR sheet provided
- No negative marking for incorrect answers
- Use only blue or black pen
- Calculators are not permitted
- Return the question booklet after the exam
Here are five questions based on the given paragraph with answers of approximately 30 words each:
1. What is the objective of qualitative research according to the passage?
The objectives of qualitative research are to discover, describe and analyse the complexities of common phenomena through observation and involvement in a research setting.
2. What role does a qualitative researcher play?
The role of the qualitative researcher is to scrutinize commonplace occurrences because when observed for prolonged periods, common phenomena can reveal remarkable levels of complexity.
3. Give an example mentioned in the passage to illustrate a common phenomenon.
In an archive a user is seated at a terminal but gazing out the window - a common enough phenomenon.
4. What
1. Briefly state the main concern of publishers regarding electronic publishing.
2. Mention two benefits that electronic publications offer library users according to the passage.
3. State one reason why collection managers have encouraged the development of electronic resources.
4. Summarize the approach adopted by publishers towards collection managers as mentioned in the passage.
5. State one important issue that collection managers need to be cautious about according to the passage.
Here are five questions with answers in 30 words each based on the given paragraph:
1. What does Rayward suggest about the emergence of information science as a distinct discipline? (5 marks)
Rayward suggests that information science emerged as a distinct discipline from parts of library science and computer science.
2. According to Rayward, what conclusion can be drawn about the history of information science? (5 marks)
According to Rayward, the conclusion that can be drawn about the history of information science is that it is an interdisciplinary field and those interested in it need to draw upon related fields of study.
3. What does the passage suggest about the influence of library and computer science on information science? (
Here are the answers to the questions in 30 words each:
1. The first period in the Age of Computers in libraries was that of library automation.
2. The second period was that of library digitization.
3. Library automation made library processes like circulation, cataloguing and serials control more efficient using computers.
4. Library digitization involved storing some library content in digital form and making it accessible through computer systems.
5. While library automation is well established, library digitization is still in a developing state with an uncertain future.
Esitys Alumnista yliopistolaisen yrityksen mentoriksi? -illassa 29.1.2013.
Avanto tarjoaa yrityksille kannattavia ja kestäviä työkaluja yhteiskunnallisten ongelmien ratkaisemiseen. Yritysvastuu ei ole vastikkeeton kuluerä, vaan mahdollisuus aidon lisäarvon tuottamiseen.
Weekly reversal levels for over 1500 stocks and ETF. Covering stocks from Dow Composite, Nasdaq 100, S&P 500, S&P 400 mid caps, S&P 600 small caps, and more than 100 ETF. To be used for market orientation and long term investing.
This document provides instructional strategies for summarizing and note taking. It discusses the importance of these skills and offers generalizations and classroom applications. For summarizing, it recommends teaching a rule-based strategy and using summary frames. For note taking, it emphasizes that notes should be a work in progress and used as study guides. The document also provides examples of different note taking formats and strategies teachers can use to help students improve their summarizing and note taking abilities.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It consists of 12 numbered points covering various instructions regarding the question paper booklet, answering the questions, and general guidelines. Candidates are instructed to verify the question paper booklet, darken ovals on the answer sheet to indicate their responses, and return the question booklet to invigilators after completing the exam.
1. The document is an examination instruction sheet that provides directions to candidates taking a multiple choice test.
2. It instructs candidates to verify the test booklet number, tally the number of pages and questions, and enter the test booklet number on the answer sheet.
3. Candidates are informed that each question has four alternative responses marked and they must darken the correct response oval on the answer sheet.
Verbal guidance is least effective in learning skills. The most important aspect of a teacher's role is providing continuous diagnostic and remedial help. The most appropriate purpose of learning is personal adjustment.
This document contains instructions and questions for a library and information science exam. It provides details about the structure of the exam, including that it contains 50 multiple choice questions worth 2 marks each. It also lists general instructions like informing candidates to use a blue or black ballpoint pen. The questions cover topics related to library and information science, such as national library weeks in India, important libraries, sources of information, publications, intellectual property laws, and state library laws.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination. It specifies that the paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions. It provides details on how to fill in responses on the answer sheet, how to verify the question booklet, and other examination guidelines including a prohibition on using calculators or log tables. There is no negative marking for incorrect responses.
Here are five questions based on the given paragraph with answers of approximately 30 words each:
1. What is the objective of qualitative research according to the passage?
The objectives of qualitative research are to discover, describe and analyse the complexities of common phenomena through observation and involvement in a research setting.
2. What role does a qualitative researcher play?
The role of the qualitative researcher is to scrutinize commonplace occurrences because when observed for prolonged periods, common phenomena can reveal remarkable levels of complexity.
3. Give an example mentioned in the passage to illustrate a common phenomenon.
In an archive a user is seated at a terminal but gazing out the window - a common enough phenomenon.
4. What could
1. Briefly state the flexibility shown by publishers in their approaches towards electronic publishing.
2. Mention how collection managers have begun to demand relief from price increases of books and journals.
3. State how collection managers have learned to exercise some control over electronic journals and reference works.
4. Highlight the need for measuring cost benefits and acceptance of e-books according to collection managers.
5. Mention the importance of having impartial results from studies on e-books instead of relying on anecdotal evidence.
1. What organizational and supervisory steps can you take to encourage original thinking on the part of your library staff?
Decentralize decision making and delegate more authority to encourage original thinking. Also loosen departmental lines and jurisdiction to increase interdepartmental contact and communication.
2. How can decentralization of decision making encourage original thinking?
By increasing feedback from all levels and peer recognition, which will enhance the sense of purpose for staff and may lead to innovative ideas even if original thinking does not directly increase.
3. What effect can interdepartmental communication have?
It can produce innovative ideas. Greater communication provides a slightly stressful situation which stimulates creative thinking. It creates situations to generate new ideas for tasks or problems
1. Explicit knowledge refers to knowledge that has been formalised and can be easily communicated and shared.
2. Tacit knowledge refers to knowledge that is difficult to articulate and communicate formally.
3. Nonaka discusses two types of knowledge - explicit and tacit knowledge.
4. Explicit knowledge is formal, systematic knowledge that can be articulated in formal language.
5. Tacit knowledge is personal knowledge embedded in individual experience and involves intangible factors such as personal beliefs, perspective and value systems.
1. Explicit knowledge refers to knowledge that has been formalised and can be easily communicated and shared.
2. Tacit knowledge refers to knowledge that is difficult to articulate and communicate formally.
3. Nonaka discusses two types of knowledge - explicit and tacit knowledge.
4. Explicit knowledge is formal, systematic knowledge that can be articulated in formal language.
5. Tacit knowledge is personal knowledge embedded in individual experience and involves intangible factors such as personal beliefs, perspective and value systems.
1. Planning saves time by allowing activities to be carried out in an organized manner with enough time allotted for further planning.
2. Planning is the only way to deal with uncertainty and accommodate environmental changes by examining operations and anticipating problems that may arise due to fluctuations in social, political and economic conditions.
3. Lack of long-term planning in the 1960s led to reduced services and staff layoffs when funds were cut, as libraries failed to consider alternative scenarios and changing needs.
4. Effective planning focuses on long-term objectives rather than short-term operations and requires regular review of objectives to ensure they reflect current needs and enable libraries to adapt to changes.
5. Regular re-examination of objectives
Here are the steps I would follow to collect information on "Library Automation in India":
1. Search library and information science databases like Library and Information Science Abstracts (LISA), Library Literature and Information Science Full Text for articles on the topic.
2. Search library websites of IITs, IIMs and other premier institutes in India for reports and case studies on their library automation initiatives.
3. Search the websites of major library automation software vendors in India like Libsys, Newgenlib, Campussoft etc. for white papers, case studies and news on library automation projects in India.
4. Search publications of organizations like DESIDOC, IASLIC, ILA etc.
Here are the steps I would follow to collect information on "Library Automation in India":
1. Search library and information science databases like Library and Information Science Abstracts (LISA), Library Literature and Information Science Full Text for articles on the topic.
2. Search library websites of IITs, IIMs and other premier institutes in India for reports and case studies on their library automation initiatives.
3. Search the websites of major library automation software vendors in India like Libsys, Newgen, Campion, etc. for white papers, case studies and news on library automation projects in India.
4. Search conference websites and proceedings of national library conferences in India for papers presented on library automation.
Here are five questions based on the given paragraph with answers of about 30 words each:
1. What are the three basic elements that determine the quality of life according to the passage? [Matter, energy and information]
2. Why can't consumption of matter and energy increase indefinitely? [Because the supply of matter and energy on the planet is finite and unlimited consumption can endanger survival of species]
3. What has a potentially infinite supply according to the passage? [Information, which is the pattern of organization of matter and energy]
4. How can continued improvement in quality of life be achieved without large increases in consumption of matter and energy? [Through investment in production and widespread distribution of information e.g
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It specifies that the examination will consist of 50 multiple choice questions and candidates have 1 1/4 hours to complete it.
3. Candidates are instructed to verify that their question booklet is complete and not damaged or duplicated before starting the exam and to notify the invigilator if there are any issues.
This document contains instructions for candidates taking an exam. It begins with spaces to fill in the invigilators' signatures and details of the candidate's roll number and test booklet number.
The instructions state that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions to be completed in 1.25 hours. Candidates are asked to verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. They should not accept faulty booklets and must enter the test booklet number on their OMR answer sheet.
Each question has four answer options labelled A-D. Candidates should darken the oval for the correct response on their common OMR answer sheet. They are advised to follow the instructions carefully and do any
IIT-JEE Mains 2015 Offline Previous Question Paper Set AEneutron
1. Two stones are thrown simultaneously from the edge of a cliff 240 m high, with initial speeds of 10 m/s and 40 m/s.
2. The graph that best represents the time variation of the relative position of the second stone with respect to the first is a curve that increases with time at a decreasing rate, levels off, and then decreases with time at an increasing rate.
3. This curve matches the scenario described where the stone with the higher initial speed increases its lead over the other stone as they rise, levels off when they reach their maximum height and begin to fall, and then the other stone gains on it as they fall back to the ground.
This document discusses the need for collaborative educational learning tools to be grounded in learning theories like constructivism and sociocultural perspectives. It examines three models of the mind - as computer, brain, and rhizome - that relate to views of learning as information processing, experiential growth, and sociocultural activity. Recent technological advances have increased opportunities for collaboration using tools like the internet and computer-mediated communication, but guidance is needed on how to integrate these tools pedagogically. Research on collaborative learning tools can help address this need by identifying how tools can facilitate, augment, and redefine learning environments.
Here are some questions that came to mind as I read this chapter:
- How do I come up with a research topic or question to study?
- What are some examples of research problems or questions other teachers have studied?
- What steps do I need to take to get started with my research project?
- How much time will a typical teacher research project take?
- What resources are available to help support teachers doing research?
This document provides links to several language assessment frameworks and organizations, including the Canadian Language Benchmarks home page, the Online Self-Assessment for the Canadian Language Benchmarks, the Common European Framework of Reference for Languages home page, and the American Council on Teaching Foreign Languages home page.
This document outlines the education policy and initiatives of the Tamil Nadu School Education Department for the 2012-13 year. Key points include:
1) The department budget of Rs.14,552.82 crore is the highest allocation ever for any department in the state.
2) The policy aims to provide universal elementary and secondary education for all school-age children through increasing access to schools, teachers, quality education, and infrastructure.
3) Special initiatives and reservations target increasing access for children with special needs, from remote areas, girls, SC/STs, and other disadvantaged groups.
This document provides guidance on teaching English in secondary school (classes 9-12) in India. It discusses the role and importance of English in India, objectives for English learning, and recommendations for curriculum, content, evaluation, and skills/attitudes to foster. Key points include:
- English plays an important role in education, business, and opportunities in India but should be accessible to all students.
- Objectives include developing proficiency in listening, speaking, reading, writing, and using English in social settings.
- The curriculum should include literature, contemporary texts, and focus on communication skills. Evaluation should provide feedback to teachers.
- Content should reflect students' environment and issues like gender,
This document outlines an English curriculum for classes 1-8 in India. It argues that English should be accessible to all Indian children to prevent discrimination. It emphasizes using English in meaningful, multilingual contexts to develop basic communication skills. The curriculum focuses on creating environments where children can actively use English to understand communicative practices, rather than isolating grammar lessons. It aims to develop students' proficiency in listening, speaking, reading and writing in English by class 12.
The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in 1961 by the Government of India to assist in implementing education policies and bringing qualitative changes to schooling. It is governed by statutory committees and advises on activities through other committees. NCERT comprises departments, divisions, and constituent units like the National Institute of Education and five Regional Institutes of Education that conduct research, develop curriculum and textbooks, train teachers, and disseminate information. Over the years, NCERT has worked to improve early childhood education, research-based interventions, and achieve goals like universal elementary education and vocational education.
This document outlines the common syllabus for English in classes I to X in India. It discusses the objectives of learning English such as effective communication, participatory learning, and using language as a confidence building strategy. For class I, the focus is on developing basic listening and speaking competencies through activities like singing nursery rhymes, listening to short stories, following simple instructions, recognizing greetings, identifying sounds in words. Students are evaluated based on their ability to perform tasks like singing, responding to questions, identifying rhyming words and discriminating sounds. The gradient of learning increases from classes I to X.
The document provides guidelines for assessing language proficiency levels in speaking, writing, listening and reading. It acknowledges the contributors to previous editions and the authors and editors of the current 3rd edition from 2012. The guidelines describe five major proficiency levels for each skill: Distinguished, Superior, Advanced, Intermediate and Novice. Advanced, Intermediate and Novice are further divided into High, Mid and Low sublevels. The guidelines provide descriptions of what individuals at each level can and cannot do with the language in terms of tasks, content, accuracy and discourse type.
This document contains an integrated standards portfolio for an M.Ed. in Languages program. It lists the ACTFL/NCATE supporting standards for foreign language teachers and asks the student to self-rate their work for each standard on a scale and identify where evidence can be found. There are 6 main standards covering language proficiency, linguistics, culture, instructional practices, curriculum integration, assessment, and professionalism. For each standard, there are multiple sub-standards that must be met at a certain level for the overall standard to be met. The student is asked to provide ratings and evidence to show how they have demonstrated meeting each standard through their work.
The document summarizes modifications made to India's National Policy on Education in 1992. It discusses the history and achievements of India's education system since the 1968 National Policy on Education. Key points include expanding access to education, introducing a common 10+2+3 educational structure, and the need to tackle accumulating problems with access, quality, and financing of education. The modifications aim to develop human resources, promote national values of secularism and democracy, and meet new social and economic challenges through improved education.
The document outlines the scope and considerations for developing a common school education curriculum in Tamil Nadu. It discusses expanding the scope to include life skills, academic and vocational skills, self-reliance, independence and ability to assert. The curriculum should cater to current and future needs through knowledge creation and innovative skills development using problem-solving learning contexts. Both language and content subjects need to rely on experiential learning strategies like activity-based and active learning to equip students for life and career success.
4. 4. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Reliability ensures validity
(B) Validity ensures reliability
(C) Reliability and validity are independent of each other
(D) Reliability does not depend on objectivity
5. Which of the following indicates evaluation ?
(A) Ram got 45 marks out of 200
(B) Mohan got 38 percent marks in English
(C) Shyam got First Division in final examination
(D) All the above
6. Research can be conducted by a person who :
(A) has studied research methodology
(B) holds a postgraduate degree
(C) possesses thinking and reasoning ability
(D) is a hard worker
7. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Objectives of research are stated in first chapter of the thesis
(B) Researcher must possess analytical ability
(C) Variability is the source of problem
(D) All the above
8. Which of the following is not the Method of Research ?
(A) Observation (B) Historical
(C) Survey (D) Philosophical
9. Research can be classified as :
(A) Basic, Applied and Action Research
(B) Quantitative and Qualitative Research
(C) Philosophical, Historical, Survey and Experimental Research
(D) All the above
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6. 10. The first step of research is :
(A) Selecting a problem (B) Searching a problem
(C) Finding a problem (D) Identifying a problem
Read the following passage and answer the question nos. 11 to 15 :
After almost three decades of contemplating Swarovski-encrusted navels on
increasing flat abs, the Mumbai film industry is on a discovery of India and itself. With
budgets of over 30 crore each, four soon to be released movies by premier directors are
exploring the idea of who we are and redefining who the other is. It is a fundamental
question which the bling-bling, glam-sham and disham-disham tends to avoid. It is
also a question which binds an audience when the lights go dim and the projector
rolls : as a nation, who are we ? As a people, where are we going ?
The Germans coined a word for it, zeitgeist, which perhaps Yash Chopra would
not care to pronounce. But at 72, he remains the person who can best capture it. After
being the first to project the diasporic Indian on screen in Lamhe in 1991, he has returned
to his roots in a new movie. Veer Zaara, set in 1986, where Pakistan, the traditional
other, the part that got away, is the lover and the saviour. In Subhas Ghai’s Kisna, set
in 1947, the other is the English woman. She is not a memsahib, but a mehbooba. In
Ketan Mehta’s The Rising, the East India Englishman is not the evil oppressor of countless
cardboard characterisations, which span the spectrum from Jewel in the Crown to
Kranti, but an honourable friend.
This is Manoj Kumar’s Desh Ki dharti with a difference : there is culture, not
contentious politics; balle balle, not bombs : no dooriyan (distance), only nazdeekiyan
(closeness).
All four films are heralding a new hero and heroine. The new hero is fallible and
vulnerable, committed to his dharma, but also not afraid of failure - less of a boy and
more of a man. He even has a grown up name : Veer Pratap Singh in Veer-Zaara and
Mohan Bhargav in Swades. The new heroine is not a babe, but often a bebe, dressed in
traditional Punjabi clothes, often with the stereotypical body type as well, as in Bride
and Prejudice of Gurinder Chadha.
11. Which word Yash Chopra would not be able to pronounce ?
(A) Bling + bling (B) Zeitgeist
(C) Montaz (D) Dooriyan
12. Who made Lamhe in 1991 ?
(A) Subhash Ghai (B) Yash Chopra
(C) Aditya Chopra (D) Sakti Samanta
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8. 13. Which movie is associated with Manoj Kumar ?
(A) Jewel in the Crown (B) Kisna
(C) Zaara (D) Desh Ki dharti
14. Which is the latest film by Yash Chopra ?
(A) Deewar (B) Kabhi Kabhi
(C) Dilwale Dulhaniya Le Jayenge (D) Veer Zaara
15. Which is the dress of the heroine in Veer-Zaara ?
(A) Traditional Gujarati Clothes
(B) Traditional Bengali Clothes
(C) Traditional Punjabi Clothes
(D) Traditional Madrasi Clothes
16. Which one of the following can be termed as verbal communication ?
(A) Prof. Sharma delivered the lecture in the class room.
(B) Signal at the cross-road changed from green to orange.
(C) The child was crying to attract the attention of the mother.
(D) Dipak wrote a letter for leave application.
17. Which is the 24 hours English Business news channel in India ?
(A) Zee News (B) NDTV 24×7
(C) CNBC (D) India News
18. Consider the following statements in communication :
(i) Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Children’s Film Society, India.
(ii) Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of India.
(iii) Sharmila Tagore is the Chairperson of National Film Development Corporation.
(iv) Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Preeti Zinta have all been recipients of Dada Saheb
Phalke Award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (iv) only (D) (iii) only
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10. 19. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ?
(A) N. Ram : The Hindu
(B) Barkha Dutt : Zee News
(C) Pranay Roy : NDTV 24×7
(D) Prabhu Chawla : Aaj taak
20. “Because you deserve to know” is the punchline used by :
(A) The Times of India (B) The Hindu
(C) Indian Express (D) Hindustan Times
21. In the sequence of numbers 8, 24, 12, X, 18, 54 the missing number X is :
(A) 26 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 32
22. If A stands for 5, B for 6, C for 7, D for 8 and so on, then the following numbers stand
for 17, 19, 20, 9 and 8 :
(A) PLANE (B) MOPED (C) MOTOR (D) TONGA
23. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship
what is the right choice for the second set ?
AST : BRU : : NQV : ?
(A) ORW (B) MPU (C) MRW (D) OPW
24. In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35. In this code PAT is written as :
(A) 30 (B) 37 (C) 38 (D) 39
1 1 1
25. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of : : . If its perimeter is 52 cm, the length of
2 3 4
the smallest side is :
(A) 9 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 11 cm (D) 12 cm
26. Which one of the following statements is completely non-sensical ?
(A) He was a bachelor, but he married recently.
(B) He is a bachelor, but he married recently.
(C) When he married, he was not a bachelor.
(D) When he was a bachelor, he was not married.
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12. 27. Which of the following statements are mutually contradictory ?
(i) All flowers are not fragrant.
(ii) Most flowers are not fragrant.
(iii) None of the flowers is fragrant.
(iv) Most flowers are fragrant.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)
28. Which of the following statements say the same thing ?
(i) “I am a teacher” (said by Arvind)
(ii) “I am a teacher” (said by Binod)
(iii) “My son is a teacher” (said by Binod’s father)
(iv) “My brother is a teacher” (said by Binod’s sister)
(v) “My brother is a teacher” (said by Binod’s only sister)
(vi) “My sole enemy is a teacher” (said by Binod’s only enemy)
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(C) (ii) and (vi) (D) (v) and (vi)
29. Which of the following are correct ways of arguing ?
(i) There can be no second husband without a second wife.
(ii) Anil is a friend of Bob, Bob is a friend of Raj, hence Anil is a friend of Raj.
(iii) A is equal to B, B is equal to C, hence A is equal to C.
(iv) If everyone is a liar, then we cannot prove it.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(A) (iii) and (iv) (B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
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14. 30. Which of the following statement/s are ALWAYS FALSE ?
(i) The sun will not rise in the East some day.
(ii) A wooden table is not a table.
(iii) Delhi city will be drowned under water.
(iv) Cars run on water as fuel.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv) (B) Only (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (ii) alone
Study the following graph and answer question numbers 31 to 33 :
31. In the year 2000, which of the following Companies earned maximum percent profit ?
(A) a (B) b (C) d (D) f
32. In the year 2001, which of the following Companies earned minimum percent profit ?
(A) a (B) c (C) d (D) e
33. In the years 2000 and 2001, which of the following Companies earned maximum
average percent profit ?
(A) f (B) e (C) d (D) b
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16. * FOR BLIND STUDENTS ONLY *
Read the following paragraph and answer question numbers 31 to 33 :
Five years ago, Middle East-based builder Ronald Colaco took two foreign friends
to the Fraser Town Police Station in Bangalore to complete some paper work. He and
his friends were appalled by the cramped, 1917 - built police outpost. Then and there,
Colaco decided to do something for the city’s 13,500 strong police force. But he knew
he could not work a miracle alone. Luckily, he found a kindred soul in Bangalore
Police Commissioner S. Mariswamy.
Armed with information gathered from personal station visits, Mariswamy wrote
to Bangalore’s industry captains. Corporate and individual donors - Colaco was the
first - have contributed nearly Rs. 20 Crore. Today, nearly 40 police stations in Bangalore
have sponsors. Wipro, Philips Software, Canara Bank, State Bank of India, Toyota
Kirloskar and Tata Consultancy Services are a few.
31. Which Police Station was visited by Ronald Colaco, which was built in 1917 ?
(A) Bangalore Police Station (B) Police Outpost
(C) M.G. Road Police Station (D) Fraser Town Police Station
32. Who is S. Mariswamy ?
(A) Bangalore Police Commissioner (B) Middle East-based builder
(C) Industrialist (D) Chairman of Philips Software, Bangalore
33. To develop the Police Stations who was the first donor ?
(A) Ronald Colaco (B) Canara Bank
(C) Wipro (D) Toyota Kirloskar
34. Human Development Report for ‘each’ of the year at global level has been
published by :
(A) UNDP (B) WTO
(C) IMF (D) World Bank
35. The number of students in four classes A, B, C, D and their respective mean marks
obtained by each of the class are given below :
Class A Class B Class C Class D
Number of students 10 40 30 20
Arithmetic mean 20 30 50 15
The combined mean of the marks of four classes together will be :
(A) 32 (B) 50 (C) 20 (D) 15
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18. 36. LAN stands for :
(A) Local And National (B) Local Area Network
(C) Large Area Network (D) Live Area Network
37. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Modem is a software
(B) Modem helps in stabilizing the voltage
(C) Modem is the operating system
(D) Modem converts the analog signal into digital signal and vice-versa
38. Which of the following is the appropriate definition of a computer ?
(A) Computer is a machine that can process information.
(B) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and process both
qualitative and quantitative data quickly and accurately.
(C) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and quickly process only
quantitative data.
(D) Computer is a machine that can store, retrieve and process quickly and accurately
only qualitative information
39. Information and Communication Technology includes :
(A) On line learning (B) Learning through the use of EDUSAT
(C) Web Based Learning (D) All the above
40. Which of the following is the appropriate format of URL of e-mail ?
(A) www_mail.com (B) www@mail.com
(C) WWW@mail.com (D) www.mail.com
41. The most significant impact of volcanic erruption has been felt in the form of :
(A) change in weather (B) sinking of islands
(C) loss of vegetation (D) extinction of animals
42. With absorption and decomposition of CO2 in ocean water beyond desired level, there
will be :
(A) decrease in temperature (B) increase in salinity
(C) growth of phyto plankton (D) rise in sea level
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20. 43. Arrange column II in proper sequence so as to match it with column I and choose the
correct answer from the code given below :
Column I Column II
Water Quality pH Value
(a) Neutral (i) 5
(b) Moderately acidic (ii) 7
(c) Alkaline (iii) 4
(d) Injurious (iv) 8
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
44. The maximum emission of pollutants from fuel sources in India is caused by :
(A) Coal (B) Firewood
(C) Refuse burning (D) Vegetable waste product
45. The urbanisation process accounts for the wind in the urban centres during nights to
remain :
(A) faster than that in rural areas
(B) slower than that in rural areas
(C) the same as that in rural areas
(D) cooler than that in rural areas
46. The University Grants Commission was constituted on the recommendation of :
(A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Commission
(B) Mudaliar Commission
(C) Sargent Commission
(D) Kothari Commission
47. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India safeguards the rights of
Minorities to establish and run educational institutions of their own liking ?
(A) Article 19 (B) Article 29 (C) Article 30 (D) Article 31
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22. 48. Match List - I (Institutions) with List - II (Functions) and select the correct answer by
using the code given below :
List - I (Institutions) List - II (Functions)
(a) Parliament (i) Formulation of Budget
(b) C & A.G. (ii) Enactment of Budget
(c) Ministry of Finance (iii) Implementation of Budget
(d) Executing Departments (iv) Legality of expenditure
(v) Justification of Income
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (v) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)
49. Foundation training to the newly recruited IAS (Probationers) is imparted by :
(A) Indian Institute of Public Administration
(B) Administrative Staff College of India
(C) L.B.S. National Academy of Administration
(D) Centre for Advanced Studies
50. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections are settled
by :
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) Joint Committee of Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Central Election Tribunal
-oOo-
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