1. 1
1) All of the following bacteria have cell
wall EXCEPT
a) Anthrax
b) Mycoplasma
c) Clostridium
d) Streptococcus
2) In gram positive bacteria
peptidoglycans form ……. of the wall
while in gram negative bacteria it
forms ……..
a) 5-10% and 50-80%
b) 30-50% and 60-80%
c) 50-80% and 5-10%
d) 50-80% and 10-50%
3) Teichoic acid in gram positive bacteria
is the major surface antigen
a) True
b) False
4) ………..is responsible for high antibiotic
resistance in the cell wall of gram
negative bacteria
a) Lipid A
b) O-antigen
c) Porins
d) None of the above
5) ………… is the major surface antigen in
gram negative bacteria
a) Teichoic acid
b) H-antigen
c) F-Factor
d) O-Antigen
6) Cytoplasmic membrane is responsible
for active transport of nutrients as it
contains
a) Cytochromes
b) Respiratory enzymes
c) Hydrolytic enzymes
d) Permeases
7) Which of the following is responsible
for toxicity in gram negative bacteria
a) Lipoproteins
b) Lipid A
c) Porins
d) O- Antigen
8) ..… Appears to be the points of attack
of certain antibiotics
a) Cytoplasmic granules
b) Plasmids
c) Ribosomes
d) None of the above
2. 2
9) The nucleoid material of bacteria is
devoid of nuclear membrane and
nucleolus
a) True
b) False
10) Capsular substance is usually made of
polysaccharides though in some
species it’s made of protein as in
a) Anthrax
b) Mycoplasma
c) Clostridium
d) None of the above
a) Protection against phagocytosis11- Common pili is responsible for
b) The attachment of bacteria to host cell12- Flagella is responsible for
c) Motility13- F-pili is responsible for
d) Plays a role during conjugation14- Capsule is responsible for
15) Which of the following can stabilize
the bacterial enzymes during
sporulation
a) Spore cortex
b) Exosporium
c) Calcium dipicolinate
d) All of the above
16) Basic elements for bacteria include all
of the following EXCEPT
a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Carbon
d) Sodium
17) The vast majority of parasitic bacteria
grow best at pH (8.5 -9.0)
a) True
b) False
18) All of the following bacteria cannot
grow in the presence of oxygen EXCEPT
a) M.Tuberculosis
b) Staphylococci
c) Clostridia
d) Helicobacter
19) In the absence of oxygen the
facultative anaerobes grow less
vigorously
a) True
b) False
20) ……. can survive during dryness for
months
a) Gonococci
3. 3
b) Small pox virus
c) Common cold virus
d) Treponema pallidum
a- The bacteria are more sensitive to
the effect of antimicrobial agent
21- Lag phase
b- the rate of death increases22- Stationary phase
c- The rate of growth diminishes23- Log phase
d- There is no multiplication of bacteria
ofreven depletion
24- Death phase
25) Bacterial pathogens which have
surface factors that impede
phagocytosis
a) Str.pneumonia
b) Str.pyogenes
c) Bordetella
d) Both a and b are correct
26) Opportunistic microorganisms can
cause disease under these conditions
a) When the host is replaced by another
one.
b) When host defense virulence
mechanism is lowered .
c) When natural habitat of microorganism
is changed.
d) When alteration in the host tissue
occurs
27) Microorganisms capable of infecting
the tissue of normal healthy subjects
are
a) Commensal
b) Opportunistic
c) Pathogenic
d) All of the above
28) Pathogens that inhibit chemotaxis to
prevent phagocytosis
a) Str.pneumonia
b) Str.pyogenes
c) Bordetella
d) (a&b)
29) The capacity to initiate infection is
related to all the following except
a) Dose of the pathogene
b) Transmissibility
c) Growth phase
4. 4
d) Virulence
30) The growth phase that is more
infectious is
a) Log phase
b)Lag phase
c) Stationary phase
d)Decline phase
31) Virulence is the
a) Capacity to initiate infection
b)Degree of pathogenicity of organism
c) Ability to transport to the host
d)None of the above
32) Virulence depends on
a) Ability to produce toxin
b)Dose of pathogene
c) Potency of the toxine
d)(a&c)
e) All of the above
33) Coryneabacterium diphtheria are
a) Highly virulent
b)Moderately virulent
c) Avirulent
d)None of the above
34) Adherence factors allow the bacteria
to start the diease process.
a) True
b)False
35) Invasiveness is the ability to
a) Invade the tissue
b)Multiply
c) Spread
d)All of the above
36) All of the following are virulence
actors except
a) Adherence factors
b)Invasiveness
c) Transmissibility
d)Extracellular enzymes
37) Transmissibility includes
a) Portal of entry
b)Portal of exit
c) All of the above
d)None of the above
38) Exotoxins are produced by
a) Gram +ve bacteria
b)Some Gram –ve bacteria
c) All of the above
d)None of the above
39) Endotoxins have specific receptors on
host cells.
a) True
b)False
40) Exotoxins can be converted to
antigenic, non- toxic toxoids.
5. 5
a) True
b)False
41) Genes which are essential for
bacterial growth are carried on
a) Chromosome
b)Plasmid
c) Transposable elements
d)All of the above
42) DNA in bacteria are present in
a) Chromosome
b)Plasmid
c) Transposable elements
d)(a&b)
e) All of the above
43) Chromosome in bacteria consists of
single supercoiled ,elongated double
stranded helix of DNA.
a) True
b)False
44) Plasmid can code for the following
except
a) Antibiotic resistance
b)Toxin production
c) Growth factors
d)Bacteriocines
45) The transposable elements never
contain genetic information for their
own replication.
a) True
b)False
46) Genetic transfer within the cell
depends on
a) Insertion sequence elements
b)Transduction
c) Transposons
d)All of the above
e) None of the above
47) Insertion mutation may destroy the
activity of the gene.
a) True
b)False
48) The release of DNA into environment
and uptake of that DNA by recipient
cells is
a) Transformation
b)Transduction
c) Conjugation
d)Mutation
e) None of the above
49) All the following are conditions of
competence except
a) Late log phase
b)Pores in the wall of competent cell
c) The cells are the same size
6. 6
d)None of the above
50) In generalized transduction
bacteriophage can transfer
a) Chromosomal gene
b)Plasmid
c) Both of them
d)None of the above
51) The genome of bacteriophage is
always inserted in afew specific sites
of bacterial genome in
a) Ttransforation
b)Restricted transduction
c) Generalized transduction
d)(b&c)
e) None of the above
52) In restricted transduction the
bacteriophage can transfer only
chromosomal DNA.
a) True
b)False
53) Recombination which follows any
successful gene transfer involves
a) Integration of transferred genes into
the recipient cell DNA
b)Maintaining its existence
c) DNA remains without replication
d)(A&B)
e) None of the above
54) Viruses are small biologically active
obligate intracellular parasites that
carry either DNA or RNA or both of
them
a) True
b)False
55) Viruses can affect all of the following
EXCEPT
a) Animal
b)Human
c) Plants
d)Fungi
56) The size of viruses ranges from
a) 50-100 nm
b)20-400 Mm
c) 20-400 nm
d)100-200 Mm
57) The virion is incomplete infectious
viral particle
a) True
b)False
58) The capsid is asymmetrical protein
shell that enclose N.A. genome
a) True
b)False
59) Functions of the capsid include
7. 7
a) Protection of the viral nucleic acid
against nucleases
b)Carry VAP in naked viruses
c) Package enzymes essential for early
steps of the replication process
d)All of the above
e) Both a and b
60) An example for cubic / icosahedral
symmetry capsomeres
a) Herpes viruses
b)Pox viruses
c) Myxo viruses
d)Rabdo viruses
61) An example for complex symmetry
capsomeres
a) Adenoviruses
b)Herpes viruses
c) Myxo viruses
d)None of the above
62) The shape of the virus may be
a) Spherical
b)Filamentous
c) Brick shapes
d)All of the above
63) Concerning virus envelope
a) It’s a protein containing lipid
b)Peplomeres are exposed on its surface
c) Sensitive to lipid solvents
d)All of the above
e) None of the above
64) Naked Viruses are sensitive to all of
the following EXCEPT
a) UVR
b)Chlorine
c) Iodine
d)Ether
65) Viruses are stable at low temperature
, most can be stored at -40c or
perfectly at 70c
a) True
b)False
66) Naked Icosahedral RNA viruses
includes all of the following EXCEPT
a) Picornaviridae
b)Caliciviridae
c) Reoviridae
d)Togaviridae
67) Virus specific non structural proteins
include
a) Polymerases
b)Regulatory proteins
c) Proteins to effect release from the
cells
d)Caspids
68) Non enveloped viruses enter the cell
by
8. 8
a) Receptor mediated endocytosis
b)Viropexis
c) Fusion with the cell membrane
d)Both a and b
e) None of the above
69) Uncoating is the 4th
phase of virus
growth cycle
a) True
b)False
70) The phase of transcription and
translation of the viral genome
a) Assembly
b)Eclipse
c) Uncoating
d)None of the above
71) Early transcription and translation
results in formation of
a) Polymerases
b)Regulatory proteins
c) Virus specific antigen
d)All of the above
72) Replication of the viral nucleic acid
occurs in the late stage of eclipse
a) True
b)False
73) The process of enclosing the viral
genome in a protein capsid is called
a) Syncitia
b)Eclipse
c) Assembly
d)None of the above
74) Phages can be found in soil and eater
a) True
b)False
75) The stable , heritable , non infectious
intracellular form
a) Mature phage
b)Vegetative phage
c) Prophage
d)Lysogenic
76) The temperate phage is a vegetative
phage that may result in either lytic
or lysogenic
a) True
b)False
77) The DNA of the phage is chemically
and physically different from that of
bacteria
a) True
b)False
78) Bacterial cell wall is weakened by the
action of a phage muramidase
present on
a) Helical sheath
b)Head
c) The base plate
9. 9
d)None of the above
79) In normal situations the only
prophage gene that is expressed is
the one coding for the repressor
protein
a) True
b)False
80) All transducing phages contain single
stranded DNA
a) True
b)False
81) Which one of the following is false
about aflatoxin
a) Powerful toxin
b)Produced by Aspergillus flavus
c) Incriminated in liver malignancy
d)Contain five or more alkaloids
82) ………… can be used to control
bleeding and treating migraine
a) Aflatoxin
b)Ergot
c) Streptomyces
d)None of the above
83) Histoplasmosis is an example of
a) Filamentous fungi
b)Yeasts
c) Yeast like fungi
d)Dimorphic fungi
84) The only pathogenic yeast in medical
mycology is
a) Candida
b)Aspergillus flavus
c) Creptococcus neoformans
d)Histoplasmosis
85) All of the following are true about
molds EXCEPT
a) They have long branching filaments or
hyphae
b)Not all mycelium penetrates deeply into
the solid medium when it’s grown
c) The filamentous fungi produce a variety
of sexual spores
d)Pigmentation is present
a) Binds to ergosterol and cause the fungal membrane
to become leaky
86 - Flu cytosine
b) Inhibit formation of mitotic spindles87 - Amphotericin
c) Prevent synthesis of fungal ergosterol88 - Griseofulvin
10. 10
d) Disrupt protein synthesis89 - Azole
90) Which of the following is not
effective against dermatophytes
a) Nystatin
b)Amphotericin
c) Nizoral
d)Allylamine antifungal agents
e) Both a and b are correct
91) All of the following statements are
true about Intraconazole EXCEPT
a) Have less effect on metabolism of
concomitantly administered drug
b)It have high liability to inhibit human
p450 enzyme
c) It penetrates poorly into CSF
d)It the most potent of azoles
92) ……….. can be used to treat
candiduria and fungal arthritis
a) Amphotericin B topical preparations
b)Nystatin
c) Clotrimazole
d)Griseoflavin
93) Soil- removing of microorganisms is
done by………..
a) Cleaning
b)Disinfection
c) Sterilization
d)None of the above
94) Cleaning can be considered
as…………. of disinfection
a) Low level
b)Intermediate level
c) High level
d)None of the above
95) All the following are destroyed by
cleaning EXCEPT
a) Vegetative bacteria
b)Bacterial spores
c) Enveloped viruses
d)Non- enveloped viruses
96) QAC detergents are bactericidal
to………. But support the growth
of…….. bacteria
a) Gram +ve , Gram -ve
b)Gram –ve , Gram +ve
c) Bactericidal to both
d)Support to both
97) Detergents have no bactericidal
effect
a) True
11. 11
b)False
98) Hypochlorites are used to
provide……….
a) Cleaning
b)Disinfection
c) Sterilization
d)Both a and b are correct
e) All of the above
99) Washing process is used to disinfect
eating utensils by rinsing them at
…….. for few minutes
a) 70 Degrees
b)90 Degrees
c) 100 Degrees
d)110 Degrees
100) Pasteurization by flash process
requires keeping milk in………
degrees temperature for………
a) 63 , 30 min
b)63 , 20 min
c) 72, 20 sec
d)72, 30 sec
101) All the following are killed by
boiling EXCEPT
a) TB
b)Collestridia tetani spores
c) Hepatitis C virus
d)Cryptococcus
102) The best method to kill spores
is by……….
a) Washing
b)Pasteurization
c) Boiling
d)Tyndallization
103) All the following are
antigenic EXCEPT
a) Polypeptides
b)Polysaccharides
c) Lipids
d)Liposaccharides
104) penicillin is considered as……..
a) Hapten
b)Iso-antigen
c) Heterophile
d)Superantigen
105) Blood groups are……..
a) Hapten
b)Iso-Antigen
c) Heterophile antigen
d)Super antigen
106) EBV is……..
a) Hapten
b)Iso-Antigen
c) Heterophile antigen
d)Super antigen
12. 12
107) Staphylococcal enterotoxin
is………..
a) Hapten
b)Iso-Antigen
c) Heterophile antigen
d)Super antigen
108) Systemic toxicity is a main
adverse effect of……….
a) Hapten
b)Iso-Antigen
c) Heterophile antigen
d)Super antigen
109) The main Ig in secondary
response is…………
a) IgG
b)IgM
c) IgD
d)IgE
110) Agglutination is made mainly
by …….
a) IgG
b)IgM
c) IgD
d)IgA
e) IgE
111) Secretions contain……………
a) IgG
b)IgM
c) IgD
d)IgA
e) IgE
112) Hypersensitivity I reaction is
caused by………..
a) IgG
b)IgM
c) IgD
d)IgA
e) IgE
113) Complement compenents are
synthesized in all of the following
cells except
a) Hepatic cells
b)Macrophages
c) Renal cells
d)Monocytes
114) Both pathways of activation of
complement system lead to
formation of
a) Protein c3
b)C3 convertase
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
115) The compenent that cause cell
lysis is
a) Protein c3
13. 13
b)C3 convertase
c) Membrane attack complex
d)(a&b)
e) All of the above
116) Classical pathway is initiated
in the presence of
a) Ab –Ag complexes
b)Aggregated IgA
c) Endotoxins of Gram –ve
d)All of the above
117) Alternative pathway helps in
first line of defence against
organisms because it :
a) Occurs in the presence of aggregared
IgA
b)Occurs in the presence of endotoxins
of Gram –ve bacteria
c) Leads to formation of c3 convertase
d)Occurs in the absence of Ab
e) All of the above
118) Presence of c3b bound on
cell’s surface make it liable to
phagocytosis because of
a) It is inserted to cell membrane and
cause lysis
b)Its receptors are present in surface of
many phagocytes
c) It attracts phagocytic cells
d)All of the above
119) Tissue antigens that cause
graft rejection are called
a) HLA
b)MHC
c) Transplantation antigens
d)All of the above
120) ClassI MHC antigens include
a) HLA-A &HLA-B &HLA-D
b)HLA-A &HLA-B &HLA-C
c) HLA-p &HLA-Q &HLA-R
d)None of the above
121) MHC class II are found on
a) APCs
b)All nucleated cells
c) T-lymphocytes
d)(a&c)
122) MHC class I complexes with Ag
on target cell to stimulate Th cells
a) True
b)False
123) HLA determined by cellular
tests is
a) Class I
b)Class II
c) All of the above
d)None of the above
124) Th cells recognize foreign Ag
on the surface of APCs only if they
14. 14
are associated with class II MHC.This
is called
a) Graft rejection
b)MHC restriction
c) Disease association
d)Paternity
125) HLA that can be typed by PCR
a) Class I MHC
b)Class II MHC
c) All of the above
d)None of the above
126) Acquired immunity is
genetically controlled
a) True
b)False
127) The type of immunity that can
respond to second exposure to the
same antigens
a) Active immunity
b)Natural immunity
c) Both (a&b)
d)None of the above
128) Which of the following is
mechanism of immunity
a) Sebaceous secretions
b)Mucous secretions
c) Intact skin
d)All of the above
129) Bactericidal substances are
mechanism of innate immunity .
a) True
b)False
130) Lysosome splits the sugar from
mucopeptide layer of the cell wall of
a) Gram +ve bacteria
b)Gram-ve bacteria
c) Non enveloped viruses
d) None of the above
131) HCL of stomach kills many
bacteria including
a) Salivary streptococci
b)Diphtheria bacilli
c) Lacto bacilli
d)Vibrio cholera
132) Phagocyted cells are present in
a) Lymphoid tissue
b)Spleen
c) Lung
d)(a&b)
e) All of the above
133) The complement system
attracts phagocytotic cells,enhance
phagocytosis and increase their
activity.
a) True
b)False
15. 15
134) NK cells recognize the tumour
cell and virally infected cells by
a) Opsonization
b)Chemotaxis
c) Non-specifically
d)All of the above
135) TLRs are ……………….in nature
a) Glycoprotein
b)Liposaccharides
c) Peptidoglycans
d)None of the above
136) Synthesis of interferon results
from binding of
a) TLRs to PAMPs
b)TLRs to viral compenents
c) NK cells to tumour cells
d)All of the above
137) In acquired active immunity
the host
a) Transplacentaly receives Abs
b)Is administrated performed Abs
c) Produces the Abs
d)All of the above
138) The immunity that gives
immediate protection is
a) Active natural immunity
b)Active artificial immunity
c) Passive natural immunity
d)Passive artificial immunity
e) (c&d)
139) In passive artificial immunity
Abs can be obtained from
a) Gamma globulin preparations
b)Convalescent serum
c) All of the above
d)None of the above
140) All of the following participate
in humoral immunity except
a) TH1 cells
b)TH2 cells
c) B-lymphocytes
d)None of the above
141) All of the following are antigen
presenting cells except
a) Dendritic cells
b)B-lymphocytes
c) Macrophages
d)T-lymphpcytes
142) The cell which prevent
unnecessary activation of
lymphocytes is
a) Cytotoxic cells
b)Regulatory cells
c) Plasma cells
d)All of the above
16. 16
143) All of the following inhibit
transpeptidation reaction
except:
a) cephalosporins
b) penicillin
c) monobactam
d) aminoglycosides
144) Which of the following can
act on non-growing bacteria:
a) polymixins
b) bacitracin
c) vancomycin
d) all of the above
145) ………………… is a
bactericidal antibiotic act on 30s
subunit.
a) aminoglycoside
a) aminoglycoside
c) penicillin
d) chloramphenicol
146) Rifampin inhibits bacterial
growth by inhibiting …….. :
a) DNA gyrase
b) dihydrofolate reductase
c) DNA dependent RNA
polymerase
d) RNa dependent DNA
polymerase
147) The ratio between
sulphonamide and
trimethoprim in co-trimoxazole
which is bacteriostatic is 5 to 1:
a) true
b) false
148) Which of the following
inhibit dihydrofolate reductase:
a) rifampin
b) sulphonamide
c) quinolones
d) trimethoprin
149) ……….. inhibit early steps
in synthesis of peptidoglycan.
a) penicillin
b) tetracyclin
c) bacitracin
d) macrolides
150) All of the following are
true about inherit resistance
except:
17. 17
a) it is natural
b) predictable
c) has genetic origin
d) innate property of bacteria
151) Pseudomonas is naturally
resistant to many drugs due to:
a) absence of target structure
b) permeability barrier in cell
envelop
c) spontaneous mutation
d) they are metobilically inactive
152) Developing of resistance
during the course of treatment
is considered acquired
resistance.
a) true
b) false
153) R factor is responsible for
genetic chromosomal
resistance.
a) true
b) false
154) Bacteria resistant to
chloramphincol produce
cchloramphenicol:
a) acetylase
b) adenylase
c) acetyl transferase
d) phosphatase
155) Organisms resistance to
certain antimicrobial drug must
be resistant to all drugs having
the same mechanism of action.
a) true
b) false
156) Bacteria resistant to
………alter specific structural
protein on 30s ribosomal
subunit.
a) macrolide
b) sulphonamide
c) penicillin
d) aminoglycoside
157) Which of the following
statement is false about
interferons:
a) they are species specific
b) they are stimulus specific
c) they inhibit viral replication
18. 18
d) they are the first line of
defense against viral infection
158) The three types of
interferons are different in size
and antigenicity.
a) true
b) false
159) IFNs are not induced by:
a) mitogens
b) bacterial endoroxins
c) single stranded RNA
d) none of the above
160) The activity of INF gamma
in in inhibition cell growth is
greater than alpha and beta.
a) true
b) false
161) IFNs inhibit viral
reproduction byinhibit synthesis
of:
a) viralDNA
b) viral RNA
c) viral proteins
d) all of the above
162) ……………. achieve 3-5
times plasma concentration
than acyclovoir.
a) ganacyclovoir
b) valacyclovoir
c) ganvalacyclovoir
d) zidoviodine
163) Zidoviodine is an
antiretroviral drug inhibit:
a) DNA gyrase
b) dihydrofolate reductase
c) DNA dependent RNA
polymerase
d) RNa dependent DNA
polymerase
164) Which of the following
inhibit viral penetration and
uncoating:
a) IFN
b) fuzon
c) amantadine
d) protease inhibitor
19. 19
165) Ribavirin is added to IFN to
enhance its activity and
decrease SVR.
a) true
b) false
166) ……….. is an example of
attenuated viral vaccine.
a) sabin
b) salk
c) human rabies
d) all of the above
167) Viral stabilizers used for
polio vaccines is…………:
a) chloroform
b) K permengnate
c) magnisium chloride
d) potassium hydroxide
168) Strong formaline is used
for viral inactivation to maintain
minimal damage to viral
proteins.
a) true
b) false
169) which of the following is
not disadvantage of inactivated
virus vaccine:
a) brief immunity
b) limited protection
c) cannot be given to
immunocomprmised people
d) cell mediated immunity is
poor
170) Interference by co-
infection with naturally
occurring viruses increase the
effectiveness of vaccine.
a) true
b) false
171) The technique that use
plasmid carring genes for viral
proteins of interest as a vaccine
is called………… :
a) genetic manipulation
b) a virulent viral vaccine
c) cloned genes
d) naked DNA viruses
20. 20
Microbiology Answers
1- B
2- C
3- A
4- C
5- D
6- D
7- B
8- C
9- A
10- A
11- B
12- C
13- D
14- A
15- C
16- D
17- B
18- C
19- A
20- B
21- D
22- C
23- A
24- B
25- D
26- A
27- C
28- C
29- B
30- A
31- B
32- D
33- A
34- A
35- D
36- C
37- B
38- C
39- B
40- A
41- A
42- E
43- B
44- C
45- A
46- C
47- C
48- A
49- C
50- C
51- B
52- A
53- D
54- B
55- D
56- C
57- B
58- B
59- D
60- A
61- D
62- D
63- D
64- B
65- B
66- D
67- D
68- D
69- B
70- B
71- D
72- A
73- C
74- A
75- C
76- B
77- A
78- C
79- A
80- B
81- D
82- B
83- D
84- C
85- C
86- D
87- A
88- B
89- C
90- E
91- B
22. 22
1) ……… parasites which are highly
pathogenic in patients of poor
immunity
a) Obligatory
b)Facultative
c) Opportunistic
d)Accidental
2) Endoparasites invade internal organs
of the host causing infestation
a) True
b)False
3) Nosocomial infection is acquired by
a) Syringes
b)Food
c) Hospitalization
d)Contaminated soil
4) Transmission of the infection to the
baby by mother’s milk can occur
a) True
b)False
5) … Obstruction of the internal organs
by parasites achieved by …
mechanism
a) Allergic
b)Toxic
c) Traumatic
d)Mechanical
a) Both the host and the parasite get
benefit
6- Parasitism
b) The parasite harms the host7- Prepatent period
c) Time between entry of the parasite
and the appearance of diagnostic
stage
8- Mutulism
d) The parasite does not cause injury
to the host
9- Commensalism
10) The parasites never cause injury to
man as they get their food and gain
protection only
a) True
b)False
11) Parasites which can not exist
without a host
a) Obligatory
23. 23
b)Facultative
c) Accidental
d)None of the above
12) Concerning opportunistic parasites
a) Can lead free living life in soil
b)Enter man accidentally
c) They are low in pathogenicity with
well functioned immune system
d)All of the above
e) None of the above
13) All parasites can exist independently
of a host
a) True
b)False
14) …. Can live in hosts different from
their normal ones
a) Opportunistic parasites
b)Obligatory parasites
c) Facultative parasites
d)None of the above
15) The …. Host , in which the adult
stage of the parasite lives in
a) Definitive
b)Paratenic
c) Intermediate host
d)Both a and b
e) All of the above
16) The definitive host for a parasite ,
the parasite is characterized by
a) Being in the larval stage
b)Leads asexual reproduction
c) Being forced to terminate its life cycle
d)All of the above
e) None of the above
17) The parasite multiply asexually in
a) Definitive host
b)Intermediate host
c) Paratenic host
d)None of the above
18) Paratenic host is the host in which
the … stage of the parasite can exist
a) Larval
b)Adult
c) Diagnostic
d)None of the above
19) Vectors are usually helminthes
a) True
b)False
20) The close association between two
organisms is known as
a) Symbiosis
b)Mutulism
c) Commensalism
d)None of the above
21) If the parasite associated with an
organism , derives benefit from it
without causing injury , A kind of
association known as
a) Mutulism
b)Parasitism
24. 24
c) Symbiosis
d)Commensalism
22) In parasitism
a) The parasite derives benefit from the
host
b)The parasite does not get any benefit
c) The parasite cause injury to the host
d)Both a and c
e) Both b and d
23) Super-infection is reinfection with
different species of the parasites
infected the host
a) True
b)False
24) Concerning indirect life cycle
a) Require only one species of host to
complete
b)Require more than one species of host
to be completed
c) Require the presence of one or two
intermediate hosts
d)Both b and c are correct
e) None of the above
25) The prepatent period is the time
taken from the entry of the parasite
to the appearance of the symptoms
a) True
b)False
26) Generalized manifestation to the
man as a host can be caused by the
toxic by-products of the parasite
a) True
b)False
27) Platyhelminthes have an intact
alimentary canal
a- True
b- False
28) Platyhelminthes are divided into two
classes, Trematoda and Cestoidea
a- True
b- False
29) Trematodes possess at least …………….
a- Two suckers
b- four suckers
c- bothria
d-rostellum
30) The excretory bladder of Trematodes
discharge waste products through
pores in…………
a- anterior end
b- posterior end
c- lateral side
b- Infront of the neck region
31) All Trematodes are hermaphrodite
except………..
25. 25
a- Fasciola hepatica
b-Heterophyes heterophyes
c-Fasciola gigantic
d-Schistosoma
32) Trematodes are …………..
a- Facultative anaerobes
b- Obligate aerobes
c- Obligate anaerobes
d- Micro-aerophilics
33) The second generation of sporocysts
in Trematodes are called………..
a- Radial stage
b- Cercaria
c-Miracidium
d- Cystic larval stage
34) Heterophyes heterophyes is a fluke
living in the host's………
a- Liver
b- Intestine
c- Bile duct
d- Blood vessels
35) Cestoida have ………. Shape
a- Leaf-like
b- pear
c- ribbon
d- cylindrical
36) The chain of proglottids is
called……….
a- Scolex
b- Stroblia
c-bothria
d- rostellum
37) The region of growth in tapeworms
is………
a- head
b- neck
c- immature segments
d- mature segments
38) Tapeworms get nutrition through……..
a- mouth opening
b- rostellum
c- cuticle
d- none of the above
39) The nervous system is present
in……….
a- scolex
b- neck
c- immature segments
d- mature segments
40) Cestoidea adults live in host's………..
a- Liver
b-Intestine
c- Blood vessels
d- Bile ducts
26. 26
41) Cestodes need one or two
intermediate host with exception
of………..
a-Taenia saginata
b-Echinococcus granulosum
c-Hymenolepis nana
d-Diphylliobothrium latum
42) Pseudophyllidea and Cyclophyllidea
are orders of …………
a- Trematoda
b- Cestodes
c- nematodes
d- Platyhelminthes
43) Which of the following has
operculated eggs
a- Schistosoma mansoni
b- Spirometra mansoni
c- Taenia solium
d- Ascaris
44) The infective stage of cestodes
Pseudophyllidea is…….………
a- procercoid larvae
b- coracidium
c- operculated eggs
d- plerocercoid larvae
45) The infective stage of trematodes
is……
a- miracidium
b-sporocyst
c- cercaria
d- radial stage
46) The infective stage of Cyclophyllidea
is………
a- hexacanth embryo
b- oncospheres
c- cystic larval stage
d- adult worms
47) Most nematodes are ………..
a- endoparasites
b-ectoparasites
c- free living
d- a and b
48) The shape of the……. Can be used to
identify a nematode
a- Oesophagus
b- intestine
c- genital system
c- nervous system
49) Nematodes can be classified
according to ………….
a- presence of chemoreceptors
b- shape of oesophagus
c- structure of the cuticle
d- the method of reproduction in female
worms
50) Protozoa are parasitic unicellular
microorganisms
27. 27
a- True
b- False
51) All the following protozoa are motile
except
a- Sarcodina
b- Mastigophora
c- ciliate
d- Coccidia
52) Ectoplasm is responsible for all the
following except…….
a- Excretion
b- Ingestion
c- digestion
d- respiration
53) Endoplasm is …….. viscid and ……….
Granular than ectoplasm
a- less, less
b- more, more
c- more, less
d- less, more
54) Contractile vacuoles is a apecial
structure in……..
a- sarcodina
b- ciliate
c- flagellates
d- apicomplexa
55) Peristome is used for ingestion
in……….
a- sarcodina
b- ciliate
c- flagellates
d- apicomplexa
56) Metabolic wastes are stored as
pigment granules in……….
a- sarcodina
b- flagellates
c- ciliate
d- apicomplexa
57) Malaria plasmodium respire
aerobically
a- True
b- False
58) All protozoa reproduce asexually
a- True
b- False
59) Diffusion through ectoplasm is
method of excretion in……………
a- Flagellates
b- Sarcodina
c- ciliata
d- plasmodium
60) Free living amoeba is similar to ciliata
in the way they both have……
a- pseudopodia
b- cilia
c- contractile vacuoles
28. 28
d- peristomes
61) Arthropods are
a) Unicellular microorganisms
b)Multicellular , bilaterally asymmetrical
organisms
c) Possess jointed appendages in the
form of legs
d)All of the above
e) None of the above
62) Arthropods possess antennae
a) True
b)False
63) The haemocele of arthropods is
filled with
a) Clear colored fluid
b)Haemolymph
c) Coxal fluid
d)None of the above
64) Copepods are an example of
a) Crustacean
b)Arachnida
c) Insects
d)Heminthes
65) Copepods are more commonly
found in running water than in still
water
a) True
b)False
66) Copepods are non-aquatic
organisms
a) True
b)False
67) Concerning Ticks
a) Are small in size
b)Have thin cuticle and membranous
c) Hair is present on the body
d)Have strong well developed mouth
parts
68) Adults of Arachnida possess four
pairs of legs and have antennae
a) True
b)False
69) In Acarina , all body segments are
fused together
a) True
b)False
70) Concerning mites
a) They are small in size
b)The hypostome unarmed , hidden and
small
c) Body hair is absent
d)The cuticle is membranous
e) Both b and c are correct
71) Scutum is present in soft ticks
a) True
b)False
72) Hard ticks are permanent
ectoparasites
29. 29
a) True
b)False
73) The house fly play a role in
transmission of
a) Cysts of protozoa
b)Eggs of helminthes
c) Enteric pathogens
d)All of the above
e) None of the above
74) The type of transmission in which
the organism multiply in the
arthropods without any cyclical
development
a) Propagative
b)Cyclo-developmental
c) Cyclopropagative
d)None of the above
75) An example for cyclodevelopmental
transmission
a) Leishmania in sand fly
b)Plasmodia in the female anopheles
mosquitoes
c) Trypanosomes in glossian fly
d)All of the above
e) None of the above
76) Scorpions and female mosquitoes
can produce either systemic or local
reactions by toxins
a) True
b)False
77) House dust mites can cause rhinitis
or asthma
a) True
b)False
78) Scorpionida is a subclass of crustacea
a) True
b) False
79) Venom injected by scorpion stinger
contains
a) Mucolartoxins
b)Intestinal toxins
c) Neurotoxin
d)None of the above
80) What’s occurs immediately after
injection of the sting of scorpion
a) Intense acing pain
b)Generalized numbness
c) Mental disturbance
d)Death
81) Death after injection of scorpion
stinger
a) Glossopharyngeal n involvement
b)Generalized numbness
c) Difficulty of swallowing
d)Respiratory failure
82) Local treatment of scorpion sting is
by ligation the limb with a tourniquet
distal to the site of the sting
a) True
30. 30
b)False
83) Antivenin should be given
intravenously after scorpion sting
a) True
b)False
84) Soft and hard ticks transmits
rickettsial disease
a) True
b)False
85) The mode of transmission of
ricketsial disease by hard ticks is
through
a) Bite
b)Faeces
c) Crushing the tick
d)All of the above
86) Hard ticks transmits all of the
following EXCEPT
a) Undulant fever
b)Babesiosis
c) Lyme disease
d)Relapsing fever
87) The mode of transmission of
undulant fever by hard ticks is through
a) Faeces
b)Crushing the tick
c) The bite of the tick
d)All of the above
e) Both b and c are correct
88) Babesiosis is transmitted by
a) Soft ticks
b)Mites
c) Sarcoptes scabiei
d)Hard ticks
89) Covering the wound of scorpion sting
by a disinfectant such as
a) Chlorohexidine
b)Alchol
c) Iodine compounds
d)Potassium permanganate
90) Hard ticks as a causative agents of
diseases cause
a) Anaemia
b)Dermatitis
c) Tick paralysis
d)All of the above
e) None of the above
91) Otoacariasis can be caused by
a) Scorpion
b)Glossia
c) Hard ticks
d)Mites
92) Rarely soft ticks can cause toxic
paralysis and skin lesions in man
a) True
b)False
31. 31
93) Concerning sarcoptes scabiei , all of
the following is true EXCEPT
a) A specific skin parasite
b)Cause scabies among the over crowded
poor population
c) Have ovoid counter
d)Can be seen by naked eye
94) The fertilized female of sarcoptes
scabiei usually develops …. Eggs at a
time within her body
a) 4-5
b)6-8
c) 1-2
d)None of the above
95) Within … days , the eggs of sarcoptes
scabiei hatch and six legged larvae
emerge
a) 10-14
b)1-2
c) 3-5
d)None of the above
96) The nymphal stage of sarcoptes
scabiei reaches the adulthood 2 weeks
after being hatched
a) True
b)False
97) The usual sites of scabies include
a) Inter digital spaces
b)Breast
c) Axillae
d)Groin
e) All of the above
98) Increased body warmth at night
activates the mites to produce an
alkaline secretion which intensifies the
irritation
a) True
b)False
99) Itching of sarcoptes scabiei is mainly
at night due to
a) Warmth
b)The mite produce acidic secretion
c) Increasing its activity
d)All of the above
e) Both b an c are correct
100) Epidemic Relapsing fever is
transmitted by
a) Hard ticks
b)Soft ticks
c) Mites
d)None of the above
101) Concerning vagabons disease
a) Caused by lice
b)Skin develops a peculiar form
characterized by bronzed formation
c) There is pustular formation
d)All of the above
32. 32
102) Lice as vectors of human diseases
transmit
a) Louse borne typhus
b)Epidemic relapsing fever
c) Tungisis
d)All of the above
e) Both a and b are correct
103) Faecec of infected lice containing
rickettsia prwazeki contaminate
a) Skin abrasions
b)Conjunctive
c) Mucous membranes
d)All of the above
e) Both a and c are correct
104) The mode of infection of epidemic
relapsing fever by lice is through
a) Inhalation od dried faecec carrying the
organism
b)Crushing the louse on the skin
c) Faecec contaminate skin abrasions
d)All of the above
105) Body lice produce distinctive skin
lesions due to chronic irritatios of skin
by temporary exposure to salivary
secretion following frequent biting
a) True
b)False
106) In untrated cases of head lice , the
hair becomes matted together from
the exudate and Bacterial growth
a) True
b)False
107) Concerning plica polonica
a) A case produced due to infestation
with lice
b)Disease produced by bugs
c) A condition caused by fleas
d)None of the above
108) Crab louse are present in
a) Eye brows
b)Eye lashes
c) Pubic hair
d)Axilla
e) All of the above
109) Treatment of Phthirus pubis include
a) Shaving the hair
b)Licid ( A synthetic pyrethroid )
c) Malathion
d)Gammaxane powder
e) Both a and d are correct
110) Recent findings in west and south
Africa indicate that winged bugs may
be naturally infected with hepatitis B
virus
a) True
b)False
111) Bed bugs can transmit
a) Plague
b)Rickettsia
33. 33
c) Chagas’s disease
d)Hepatitis B virus
112) Plague is the disease essentially of
a) Human
b)Cats
c) Dogs
d)Rodents
113) Plague can be transmitted by
a) Hemiptera
b)Phthirus pubis
c) Siphonaptera
d)All of the above
e) None of the above
114) Xenopsylla cheopis is an efficient
plague vector because
a) Its proventiculus is easily blocked
b)Feeds on both infected rodents and
humans
c) Abundant near human habitations
d)All of the above
115) Some types of fleas can be
intermediate hosts for cestode worms
a) True
b)False
116) The female of tunga penetrans
usually attacks all of the following
EXCEPT
a) The toe nails
b)Interdigital spaces
c) Soles of the feet
d)Dorsum of the feet
117) Possible complications after the
gravid female of tunga penetrans
burrows skin and become in the size of
pea
a) Gangrene
b)Abscess formation
c) Ulceration
d)All of the following
e) Both b and c are correct
118) Infected female Anopheles
mosquitoes transmit malaria by
injecting
a) Merozoites
b)Sporozoites
c) Gametocytes
d)None of the above
119) Efficient malaria vector must fulfill
all of the following requirements
EXCEPT
a) They must feed frequently on human
body
b)Their life span must exceed the
developmental period
c) They must be severly susceptible to
infection by gametocytes of
plasmodium
d)Plasmodia parasites must be produced
in adequate numbers
34. 34
120) Anopheles mosquitoes as vectors of
human diseases can transmit all of the
following EXCEPT
a) Malaria
b)Arboviruses
c) Filariasis
d)Dengu fever
121) The introduction of the salivary
secretion via mosquito bite usually
produces sever generalized allergic
reaction
a) True
b)False
122) Affrican trpanosomiasis is
transmitted by
a) Musca domestica flies
b)Mosquitoes
c) Hard ticks
d)Glossina flies
123) Myiasis can be defined as the
invasion or infestation of tissues of live
humans with larvae of
a) Lesser diptera
b) Higher diptera
c) Hemi diptera
d) Fleas
124) Intestinal myiasis is facilitated by
higher gastric acidity
a) True
b) False
125) When larvae are ingested with food
they find their way to intestine and
may cause
a) Diarrhea
b) Vomiting
c) Nausea
d) All of the above
126) In intestinal myiasis , living or dead
larvae can be found in stools or vomits
such as
a) Muscadomestica
b) Lucilia
c) Calliphora
d) All of the above
127) The larvae of latrine fly may find
their way uncommonly to stomach
a) True
b) False
128) Urogenital myiasis may be caused by
the larvae of all of the following
EXCEPT
a) Fannia
b) Muscadomestica
c) Calliphora
d) Eristalis fly
35. 35
129) The maggots passed in urine are not
used for diagnosis of the species of the
invading fly
a) True
b) False
130) Larvae which invade neglected sores
or wounds reach maturity after
a) 3 days
b) One week
c) 2 weeks
d) One month
131) The following fly can cause
traumatic cutaneous myiasis
a) Lucilia
b) Cochliomyia
c) Chrysomyia
d) All of the above
132) Larvae of oestrus are usually
deposited in
a) Inner canthus of the eye of sheep
b) Inner canthus of the eye of man
c) Nostrils of sheep
d) All of the above
e) Both a and c are correct
133) …. May deposit their larvae in the
eyes of man
a) Wihlfahrita
b) Sarcophagi
c) Calliphora
d) All of the above
134) Purulent exudates discharged from
running ears attract several species of
flies to lay eggs or larvae
a) True
b) False
135) Larvae of chrysomia can invade the
middle ear , inner ear or even brain
a) True
b) False
136) Cordylobiaanthropophaga females
lay their eggs on
a) Dry soil or sand
b) Places contaminated by human excreta
c) Clothes
d) Abdomen of mosquitoes
e) All are true except d
137) Oestrus larvae infest the eyes and
may cause
a) Conjunctivitis
b) Corneal ulcers
c) Panophthalmitis
d) All of the above
138) Wohlfahrita can attack unbroken
skin if it’s soft and fine as in children
a) True
b) False
139) Examples for facultative myiasis
producing flies include
36. 36
a) Sarcophagi
b) Calliphora
c) Lucilia
d) All of the above
140) The presence of larvae of lucillia in
wounds prevents healing and induce
sepsis in affected sites
a) True
b) False
141) Examples for accidental myiasis
a) Drosophila in fruits
b) Piophila in cheese
c) Fannia
d) All of the above
142) Diagnosis of myiasis can be made
only upon finding the larvae
a) True
b) False
143) Larvae in furuncles can be
stimulated to leave by occlusion of the
opening with Vaseline
a) True
b) False
144) Larvae in wounds or body openings
can be removed by
a) Surgical removal
b) Occlusion of the opening by petroleum
jelly
c) Applying a gauze pad soaked in
chloroform
d) All of the above
145) Larvae of sracophaga are known to
be voracious feeders of necrotic
tissues
a) True
b) False
146) Obligatory myiasis include all of the
following EXCEPT
a) Wohlfahrita
b) Chrysomyia
c) Calliphora
d) Cordylobia
147) The presence of larvae in dead
bodies can be a proof of time of death
a) True
b) False
Parasitology Answers
1- C
2- B
3- C
4- A
5- D
6- B
7- C
8- D
9- A
10- B
11- A
12- C
13- B
14- D
15- A
37. 37
16- E
17- A
18- A
19- B
20- A
21- A
22- D
23- B
24- D
25- B
26- A
27- B
28- B
29- A
30- B
31- D
32- C
33- A
34- B
35- C
36- D
37- B
38- C
39- A
40- B
41- C
42- B
43- B
44- D
45- C
46- C
47- C
48- A
49- A
50- B
51- D
52- C
53- D
54- B
55- B
56- D
57- A
58- B
59- A
60- C
61- C
62- A
63- B
64- A
65- B
66- B
67- D
68- B
69- A
70- E
71- B
72- A
73- D
74- A
75- E
76- B
77- A
78- B
79- C
80- A
81- D
82- B
83- B
84- A
85- D
86- D
87- E
88- D
89- D
90- D
91- C
92- A
93- D
94- C
95- C
96- B
97- E
98- B
99- D
100- D
101- D
102- E
103- D
104- B
105- B
106- B
107- D
108- E
38. 38
109- E
110- B
111- D
112- D
113- C
114- D
115- A
116- D
117- D
118- B
119- C
120- D
121- B
122- D
123- B
124- B
125- D
126- D
127- B
128- D
129- B
130- B
131- D
132- D
133- D
134- A
135- A
136- E
137- D
138- A
139- D
140- A
141- D
142- A
143- A
144- C
145- B
146- C
147- A
39. 39
1) The efferent arm of the immune
response consist of
a) The antigen gains access to the body
b) The antigen Picked up by APC
c) The antigen become recognized to TH
cells
d) The antigen become destroyed
2) Re-secretion of the processed antigen
on the surface of APC occurs in
conjugation with appropriate
a) MHC class I
b) MHC class 2
c) CD8
d) CD4
3) The body is capable of responding to
subsequent challenges by the same
antigen is a shorter period is done by
a) TH cells
b) B cells
c) Plasma cells
d) Long lived memory T cells
4) Cytokines stimulate B cells to convert
into plasma cells and produce
antibodies
a) True
b) False
5) We can say that the immune system is
primed when
a) TH cells recognize the Ag in its
processed form
b) Blast transformation occurs
c) Cytokines are produced
d) All of the above
e) Both a and b are correct
6) The efferent arm of the immune
response aims to destroy the Ag
a) True
b) False
7) In the immune response , the
difference between physiologic and
pathologic is qualitative not
quantitative
a) True
b) False
8) The magnitude of the response is
exaggerated so that it causes excessive
tissue destruction
a) Immune deficiency state
b) Auto-immune disease
c) Hypersensitivity reactions
d) None of the above
9) Humoral hypersensitivity reaction
includes
a) Anaphylactic hypersensitivity reactions
b) Antibody mediated hypersensitivity
reaction
40. 40
c) Immune complex mediated
hypersensitivity reaction
d) Cell mediated hypersensitivity reaction
e) All are true except d
10) Type I anaphylactic response occurs
on the first exposure of an individual
to a particular antigen
a) True
b) False
11) Atopic individual has an inborn
hereditary tendency to produce large
amounts of … antibody on exposure to
a particular antigen instead of IgM
a) IgA
b) IgD
c) IgE
d) IgG
12) Cells which are involved in
appropriate response include
a) Basophils
b) Mast cells
c) Kupffer cells
d) Both a and b are correct
e) None of the above
13) The Initial phase of type I
hypersensitivity reaction characterized
by all of the following EXCEPT
a) Vasodilatation
b) Edema
c) Spasm of smooth muscle
d) Tissue damage
14) Concerning second late phase in type I
hypersensitivity reaction , it’s
characterized by all of the following
EXCEPT
a) Occurs in minority of atopic individuals
b) Synthesis of new chemotactic
substances
c) Tissue damage by recruitment of
inflammatory cells
d) It’s reversible phase
15) An example for systemic type I
hypersensitivity reaction
a) Penicillin rejection
b) Hay fever in upper respiratory allergens
c) Bee sting
d) Both a and c are correct
e) All of the above
16) Diarrhea and abdominal cramps in
response to ingested allergens is an
example of localized type I
hypersensitivity reaction
a) True
b) False
17) There is three subtypes in type II
hypersensitivity reaction are
recognized according to the
involvement of these variables
a) Complement fixation
b) Phagocytosis
c) Tissue destruction
41. 41
d) All of the above
18) Transfusion reaction is an example for
a) Complement mediated reaction
b) Antibody mediated cellular dysfunction
c) ADCC
d) None of the above
19) Complement fixation is necessary for
release of inflammatory cytokines and
initiation of inflammation
a) True
b) False
20) All the three variables (complement
fixation, phagocytosis, tissue
destruction) are present in subtype B
of type II hypersensitivity reaction
a) True
b) False
21) The sole determinant factor for
determination of which subtype is
going to occur
a) The type of the antigen
b) The type of antibody
c) The type of cells involved
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
22) There is no fixation of the
complement, and no phagocytosis in
ADCC
a) True
b) False
23) Antibody mediated cellular
dysfunction is characterized by
a) No complement fixation
b) No phagocytosis
c) No tissue destruction
d) All of the above
24) There is no fixation of the
complement in
a) Subtype A
b) Subtype B
c) Subtype C
d) Both b and c
25) Normally Ag-Ab complexes are
regularly removed from the circulation
by
a) Kupffer cells
b) Littoral cells
c) Monocytes
d) All of the above
26) Type II hypersensitivity reaction is
due to dysfunction of RES
a) True
b) False
27) Sites favored for deposition by
immune complexes include
a) Heart
b) Joints
c) Walls of Blood vessels
42. 42
d) All of the above
28) SLE is an example for the result of
localized deposition of immune
complexes
a) True
b) False
29) The effector cells of delayed type
hypersensitivity include
a) CD8 cytotoxic T cells
b) Memory T cells
c) CD4 helper T cells
d) Monocytes
30) Granulomas are the pathologic lesions
of T cell mediated cytotoxicity reaction
a) True
b) False
31) CD4 helper T cells are the actual
effector cells of DTH ( delayed type
hypersensitivity)
a) True
b) False
32) Potent macrophage activator and
cause them to transform to epitheloid
cells
a) Interleukin 2
b) TNF
c) IFN
d) All of the above
33) CD8 cells bind to the processed
antigen in conjunction with MHC classI
a) True
b) False
34) CD8 cells kill the target cell by
a) MAC
b) Perforin
c) Induction of apoptosis
d) Both b and c are correct
e) All of the above
35) Granulomatous inflammation is
mediated by … hyper sensitivity
reaction
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV
36) Granulomatous inflammation is
initiated by a variety of infectious and
non-infectious agents
a) True
b) False
37) Recognition of granulomatous pattern
is important because of the limited
number of conditions that cause it
a) True
b) False
38) Granuloma is characterized by
43. 43
a) Formed mainly by aggregates of
activated macrophages
b) It’s diffused , nodular , small mass
c) It’s surrounded by a collar of
neutrophils
d) It’s size is about 0.5-2 cm in diameter
39) The pathgnomic cells of granuloma
are
a) PNLs
b) Macrophages
c) Eosinophils
d) Epithelial cells
40) The nuclei are randomly scattered in
the cytoplasm in langhans giant cell
a) True
b) False
41) Central liquifactive necrosis may be
present in granulomas
a) True
b) False
42) Foreign body granuloma which is non-
immune granuloma is caused by
a) Infectious agent
b) Noninfectious agent
c) Inert indigestible material
d) None of the above
43) Sarcoidosis is an example for
a) Caseatingtuberculoid reaction
b) Non-caseatingtyberculoid reaction
c) Suppurating tuberculoid reaction
d) Diffuse granulomatous reaction
44) Tuberculoid granulomatous reactions
may be all of the following EXCEPT
a) Tuberculosis
b) Sarcoidosis
c) Cat scratch disease
d) Lepromatous leprosy
45) The etiologic agent of sarcoidosis is
unknown
a) True
b) False
46) Concerning autoimmune diseases ,
they are characterized by
a) They are chronic and reversible
b) Having remitting course
c) Clinically they are frequent in males
d) None of the above
47) All of the following are examples for
single organ autoimmune disease
EXCEPT
a) Myasthenia graves
b) Insulin dependent DM
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
48) All of the following are examples for
systemic autoimmune diseases
EXCEPT
44. 44
a) SLE
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Polyarteritisnodosa
d) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
49) Central tolerance occurs in the central
lymphoid tissue (thymus and bone
marrow)
a) True
b) False
50) Mechanisms of peripheral tolerance
include all of the following EXCEPT
a) Clonal anergy
b) Suppression by regular T8 cells
c) Clonal deletion
d) Antigen sequestration
51) Suppressor T cells inhibit the function
of T lymphocytes by secreting
inhibitory cytokines which are
a) IL-2
b) IL-10
c) IFN
d) TNF
52) Ags are not exposed to lymphocytes
of the blood include
a) Liver cells
b) Seminiferous tubules
c) Lens protein
d) Both b and c are correct
53) In rheumatoid fever , the antibody
against the streptococcal M protein
cross reacts with liver proteins
a) True
b) False
54) When a sequestrated antigen come
into-contact with immune cells, they
recognize them as foreign antigens
a) True
b) False
55) Over 90% of patients with ankylosing
spondylitis have HLA-C 27 antigen
a) True
b) False
56) Familial clusters of human
autoimmune diseases include
a) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
b) SLE
c) Autoimmune thyroiditis
d) All of the above
Pathology Answers
1- D
2- B
3- D
4- A
5- D
6- A
7- B
8- C
9- E
10- B
11- C
12- D
45. 45
13- D
14- D
15- D
16- A
17- D
18- A
19- A
20- B
21- B
22- A
23- D
24- D
25- D
26- B
27- D
28- B
29- C
30- B
31- B
32- C
33- A
34- D
35- D
36- A
37- A
38- A
39- B
40- B
41- B
42- C
43- B
44- D
45- A
46- D
47- C
48- D
49- A
50- C
51- B
52- D
53- B
54- A
55- B
56- D
1) Infection a- A clinically manifest disease of man or animal
resulting from infection
2) Communicable
disease
b- It’s an infectious disease which cannot be
transmitted from the reservoir to a susceptible host
3) Contamination c- Occurrence of the disease more than expected
4) Infectious disease d- Disease can be transmitted directly or indirectly or
through vector
5) Epidemic e- The presence of living infectious agent in the water
or food
6) Non communicable
disease
f- It’s the entry, development and multiplication of an
infectous agent in the body
7) Epidemic a- More or less localized epidemic affecting certain large
number of a group
8) Pandemic b- A disease that has established itself permanently in a
certain locality
9) Sporadic c- Infections acquired during delivery of health care
46. 46
10) Outbreak d- Occurrence of the disease more than expected
11) Endemic e- The appearance of a disease in an epidemic form
affecting countries sequentially
12) Nosocomial
infection
f- Cases are few and separated widely in space and time
showing no connection
13) All of the following are True about
erythrogenic exotoxin of scarlet fever
EXCEPT
a) Can be destroyed rapidly by heat
b)Highly immunogenic and cannot be
converted to toxoid
c) Can be converted to antigen
d)Released by living organism
14) Pathogenicity and virulence can be
measured by
a) Specific attack rate
b)Specific attack frequency
c) Ratio of clinical to subclinical cases
d)Case fatality rate
e) Both c and d are correct
15) Period and ease of communicability
is one of the factors affecting disease
production and measured by specific
attack frequency
a) True
b)False
16) ……..is the inherit capacity of the
organism to invade certain tissues
a) Tropism
b)Spore formation
c) Viability of the organism
d)Host specificity
17) The ……..carrier excrete Infectious
organisms more than 3 months
a) Transient
b)Temporary
c) Chronic
d)Permanent
18) Contact carriers are of .. type ,
usually the period of contact ends
when the patient is cured
a) Transient
b)Temporary
c) Chronic
d)Permanent
19) Animals can act as reservoir as dogs
in transmitting
a) Brucellosis
b)Salmonella
c) Rabies
d)Plague
47. 47
20) Urinary tract can be the portal of
exit of organisms that affect the
urinary tract only
a) True
b)False
21) Which of the following can be
transmitted from the mother to the
fetus
a) German Measles
b)Syphilis
c) AIDS
d)All of the above
22) There is an association between the
infected man or animal and the new
host without a third object.
a) Indirect contact
b)Common vehicle transmission
c) Direct contact
d)None of the above
23) Kissing and touch are examples of
…………
a) Indirect transmission
b)Droplet transmission
c) Direct transmission
d)Placental transmission
24) The distance in droplet transmission
is ……
a) More than one meter
b)One meter
c) Less than one meter
d)Both b and c are correct
25) Infected blood and plasma which is
important in case of inoculation of
plasma and blood is an example for
………..
a) Direct transmission
b)Transplacental transmission
c) Common vehicle transmission
d)Droplet transmission
26) In biological transmission, the insect
is able to transmit infection to the
new host ………
a) During the extrinsic incubation period
b)Before the extrinsic incubation period
c) After the extrinsic incubation period
d)None of the above
27) In cyclo-propagative transmission:
a) Organisms multiply only
b)Organisms undergo developmental
changes only
c) Nothing occurs
d)Both a and b are correct
28) …. is the dissemination of
suspended particles in the air
consisting partially or wholly of
microorganism.
a) Biological transmission
b)Air born transmission
c) Mechanical transmission
48. 48
d)Droplet transmission
29) Simple multiplication of the
causative organism in the vector.
a) Propagative biological transmission
b)Cyclo-propagative
c) Cyclo-developmental
d)None of the above
30) The length of incubation period
depends on:
a) The host resistance
b)The virulence of the organism
c) If the agent is an organism or toxin
d)All of the above
31) All of these are true about
incubation period EXCEPT
a) Important to isolate contacts of
communicable diseases
b)It’s the time interval between
exposure to an infection and
appearance of first signs
c) Important in identifying the source of
infection
d)Cannot be detected
32) Immunoglobulin account for about
………in the protein colostrums.
a) 90%
b)55%
c) 95%
d)80%
33) Concerning Natural barriers:
a) It’s the specific resistance of the body
b)Depends on the presence of specific
antibodies
c) Depend on the anatomical and
physiological state of the host
d)Both a and b are correct
e) Both b and c are correct
34) …….. it is the immunity induced by
injecting immunoglobulin.
a) Active natural immunity
b)Passive artificial immunity
c) Passive natural immunity
d)None of the above
35) Sabin is an example for
a) Attenuated vaccine
b)Inactivated vaccine
c) Toxoid vaccine
d)None of the above
36) Salk vaccine is used for……
a) Small pox
b)Measles
c) Diphetria
d)Polio virus
37) Health education and environmental
sanitation are examples for …
a) Nonspecific primary prevention
b)Secondary prevention
c) Specific protection
49. 49
d)Tertiary prevention
38) ………….it is a measure to train
disable individuals to reach highest
level of functional ability.
a) Control
b)Rehabilitation
c) Method of 2nd
prevention
d)None of the above
39) Application of disinfective measures
after the patient has been removed
by death
a) Concurrent disinfection
b)Sterilization
c) Terminal disinfection
d)Specific protection
40) Zonotic diseases are reported
to………….
a) Sanitary authority
b)Local health authority
c) WHO
d)Both a and b are correct
41) It is the first step in the control of a
communicable disease.
a) Report
b)Isolation of the patient
c) Case finding and early detection
d)Treatment
42) …. is only applied in case of contacts
of pneumonic plague only.
a) Enlistment
b)Isolation
c) Surveillance
d)None of the above
43) .. is a chemoprophylaxis for
contacts of meningococcal meningitis.
a) Isoniazid
b)Tetracycline
c) Rifampicin
d)Penicillin
44) Screening tests represents ……
a) Primary prevention
b)Secondary prevention
c) Tertiary prevention
d)All of the above
45) Which one of the following is a
method could be applied to the
contacts
a) Enlistment
b)Surveillance
c) Isolation
d)All of the above
Community Answers
1- F
2- D
3- E
4- A
5- C
6- B
50. 50
7- D
8- E
9- F
10- A
11- B
12- C
13- B
14- E
15- B
16- A
17- C
18- A
19- C
20- B
21- D
22- C
23- C
24- D
25- C
26- D
27- A
28- B
29- A
30- D
31- D
32- C
33- E
34- B
35- A
36- D
37- A
38- B
39- C
40- D
41- C
42- B
43- C
44- B
45- D
1) We cannot use empirical therapy till
results of investigations become available
a) True
b)False
2) To give antimicrobial drugs , host
defense mechanism should be intact
a) True
b)False
3) Factors for choice of the antimicrobial
agent related to the drug include all of
the following EXCEPT
a) Antibiotic spectrum
b)Possibility of developing resistance
c) Drug’s pharmacokinetic parameters
d)Drug allergy
4) Factors related to the host in
determinant the choice of the
antimicrobial agent include
a) Host’s defense mechanism
b)Genetic factors
c) Liver and renal function
d)All of the above
51. 51
5) Aminoglycosides and chloramphenicol
cause acute haemolysis in G-6-P
dehydrogenase deficiency
a) True
b)False
6) Fever may be associated with
undefined viral infection or due to
other causes such as
a) Hepatitis
b)Metabolic disorders
c) Cancer
d)All of the above
7) Antibiotic chemotherapy should be
individualized on bases of
a) Clinical situation
b)Microbial information
c) Pharmacological properties of selected
drug
d)All of the above
8) Misuse of antibiotic is due to
a) Improper dose
b)Being used without proper drainage of
infected necrotic tissue
c) Lack of adequate bacteriological
information
d)All of the above
9) Causes of failure of antimicrobial
treatment include
a) Incorrect indication
b)Ineffective antibiotic
c) Inappropriate dosage
d)All of the above
10) We use combinations of antimicrobial
drugs in order to all of the following
EXCEPT
a) Treatment of severe infection of
unknown etiology
b)In mixed infections
c) To delay emergence of resistant strains
d)To increase the incidence of adverse
reactions
11) Drugs that acts as inhibitors of cell
wall synthesis include
a) Aminoglycosides
b)Microlides
c) Glycopeptides
d)Clindamycin
12) All of the following are inhibitors of
protein synthesis EXCEPT
a) Chloramphenicol
b)Beta lactams
c) Linezolide
d)Aminoglycosides
13) Inhibitors of bacterial metabolism
include
a) Tetracyclines
b)Streptogramines
c) Betalactams
d)Sulphonamides
52. 52
14) B-lactam antibiotics include all of the
following EXCEPT
a) Penicillins
b)Cephlosporines
c) Fluoroquinolones
d)Monobactams
15) B-lactams share features of
a) Chemistry
b)Mechanism of action
c) Clinical effects
d)All of the above
16) infected serous membranes are more
permeable to penicillin G
a) True
b)False
17) Disadvantages of penicillin G include
a) Instability in acidic juice
b)Destroyed by B-lactamase
c) Possess a wide spectrum of activity
d)Long duration of action
e) Both a and b are correct
18) Penicillin G is characterized by all of
the following EXCEPT
a) Rapidly destroyed by gastric acidity
b)Resistant to B lactamase
c) Actively secreted by renal tubules
d)In meningitis , it penetrates well
19) Procaine penicillin acts for up to one
month used only for prophylactic
purposes
a) True
b)False
20) Probenecid blocks renal tubular
excretion of penicillin
a) True
b)False
21) Acid resistant penicillin is
a) Penicillin G
b)Benzathine penicillin
c) Penicillin V
d)Procaine penicillin
22) Penicillin V is indicated only in minor
infections because of
a) Poor bioavailability
b)Narrow spectrum
c) Frequent dosing
d)All of the above
23) Penicillin V is B lactamase resistant
a) True
b)False
24) Acid and B lactamase penicillins
include all of the following EXCEPT
a) Oxacillin
b)Nafcillin
c) Cloxacillin
d)Dicloxacillin
53. 53
25) Extended spectrum penicillins are
effective orally to treat all of the
following EXCEPT
a) Urinary tract infections
b)Staphylococcus , streptococcus
c) Bacterial pneumonia
d)All of the following
26) Therapeutic uses of penicillin include
a) Syphilis
b)Gonococcal infection
c) Bacterial pneumonia
d)All of the following
27) Aminoglycosides include all of the
following EXCEPT
a) Streptomycin
b)Gentamycin
c) Ticarcillin
d)Amikacin
28) Pharmacokinetic properties of
aminoglycosides include
a) They are highly polar drugs
b)They must be given parentally
c) They are cleaned by kidney unchanged
d)All of the above
29) The auditory division is mostly
affected by
a) Neomycin
b)Gentamycin
c) Tetramycin
d)Streptomycin
30) Gentamycin is never used
systemically
a) True
b)False
31) Paralysis of the diaphragm may occur
following instillation of
aminoglycosides into pleural or
peritoneal cavities
a) True
b)False
32) Aminoglycosides are mostly used
against
a) Gram –ve bacteria
b)Gram +ve bacteria
c) Gram –ve enteric bacteria
d)All of the above
33) Gentamycin should be used only in
a) Severe infections caused by
pseudomonas
b)Bowel preparations for elective surgery
c) Treatment of some mycobacteria
d)All of the above
e) None of the above
34) Neomycin is too toxic for parenteral
use
a) True
b)False
54. 54
35) … is used in skin and wound infections
due to staphylococci topically
a) Gentamycin
b)Neomycin
c) Amikacin
d)Tobramycin
36) Chloramphenicol is a bactericidal
broad spectrum antibiotic
a) True
b)False
37) Chloramphenicol is active against
a) Aerobic gram +ve
b)Anaerobic gram +ve
c) Gram –ve
d)All of the above
38) Chloramphenicol is active against
ricketssiae and chlamydia
a) True
b)False
39) Pharmacokinetic properties of
chloramphenicol include all of the
following EXCEPT
a) It’s can be given orally
b)It crosses placental barrier
c) The drug is primarily inactivated in the
liver by conjugation with iduronic acid
d)Penetrates CSF
40) Concerning the dose of
chloramphenicol
a) Daily dose shouldn’t exceed 3gm
b)The dose not be continued more than 7
days
c) The total dose must not exceed 30 gm
d)The total dose must be 30 gm
41) The adverse reactions of
chloramphenicol include
a) Bone marrow depression
b)Toxicity of newborn
c) GIT disturbance
d)All of the above
42) Chloramphenicol increases hepatic
microsomal enzymes that metabolize
several drug so their half-life is
decreased
a) True
b)False
43) Acyclovir is a nucleotide analogue
a) True
b)False
44) Acyclovir requires … phosphorylation
steps for activation
a) One
b)Two
c) Three
d)It’s already active
45) Acyclovir has affinity for viral DNA
polymerase about … times more than
host cell DNA polymerase
55. 55
a) 100
b)200
c) 300
d)1000
46) Topical Acyclovir is used in treatment
of
a) Primary genital herpes simplex
b)Herpetic keratoconjunctivitis
c) Prophylactically to CMV
d)Chicken pox
47) Intravenous acyclovir is used in
treatment of
a) Chicken pox in immunocopromised
patients
b)Varicella zoster in immunocopromised
patients
c) Varicella zoster in immunocompetent
patients
d)Herpetic encephalitis
e) Both c and d are correct
48) Preparations of acyclovir include
a) Eye ointment
b)Tablets
c) Syrup
d)All of the above
49) Adverse effects of acyclovir include all
of the following EXCEPT
a) Neurotoxicity
b)Bone marrow depression
c) Phlebitis if extravasated
d)Reversible crystalline nephropathy
50) Gancyclovir is used in treatment and
prophylaxis of CMV
a) True
b)False
Pharmacology Answers
1- B
2- A
3- D
4- D
5- B
6- D
7- D
8- D
9- D
10- D
11- C
12- B
13- D
14- C
15- D
16- A
17- E
18- B
19- B
20- A
21- C
22- D
23- D
24- B
25- B
26- D
27- C
28- D
29- A
30- A
31- A
32- C
33- A
34- A
35- B
36- B
56. 56
37- D
38- B
39- C
40- C
41- D
42- B
43- B
44- C
45- C
46- B
47- E
48- D
49- B
50- A
