IMPORTANT MCQS

1. CYTOLOGY and CYTOGENITICS MCQS BY
IKRAM ULLAH ,KMU PESHAWAR.
1. For production of energy inside the body, oxygen reacts with
which one of the following substance?
a) Carbohydrates
b) Fats
c) Proteins
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
Answer d
2. The live cell for the first time was discovered by
a) Robert Hook
b) Alexander Fleming
c) Anton Leeuwenhoek
d) E.Adams
e) Robert brown
Answer c
3. The amount of carbohydrates in the protoplasm of a cells is
a) 5%
b) 1%
c) 2%
d) 10%
e) 7%
Answer b

2. 4. The outermost protective covering, which separates animals cells
from its external environment is
a) Cell wall
b) Cell membrane
c) Nuclear membrane
d) Plasma membrane
e) Both b and d
Answer e
5. The protein contents of cell membrane are
a) 40%
b) 50%
c) 55%
d) 45%
e) 70%
Answer c
6. Living substance of cell is called
a) Cytoplasm
b) Protoplasm
c) Nucleus
d) Chromosomes
e) Cell wall
Answer b
7. Which organelle is called power house of the cell?
a) Centrosome
b) Lysosomes

3. c) Plastids
d) Golgi bodies
e) Mitochondria
Answer e
8. All of the following are the function of a cell membrane except
a) Selective permeability
b) Absorption
c) Protein synthesis
d) Excretion
e) Give shape to cell
Answer c
9. Which of the following organelles digests the old organelles that
are no longer useful to the cells?
a) Ribosomes
b) Lysosomes
c) Mitochondria
d) Chromatids
e) Centrioles
Answer b
10. What do prokaryotic cells lack?
a) Cell membrane
b) Cytoplasm
c) Cell wall
d) Membrane bound nucleus
e) All of the above
Answer d
11. In the fluid mosaic model of the membrane

4. a) The proteins are arranged in layers
b) The lipid has no specific arrangement
c) The lipids is fluid and arranged in a bilayer with functional
protein embedded in them
d) The lipids and proteins are not arranged in any particular
order
e) None of the above is correct
Answer c
12. All membrane processes , such as pumping and channelling
of molecules are carried out by
a) Lipids
b) Carbohydrates
c) Nucleic acids
d) Proteins
e) all of the above
Answer d
13. Peripheral proteins of cell membrane act as
a) Channels for water soluble substances
b) Channels for fat soluble substances
c) Enzymes
d) Receptors
e) Both a and b
Answer c
14. All of the functions of smooth endoplasmic reticulum except
a) Synthesis of lipids and steroids
b) Synthesis of proteins
c) Detoxification of toxic substances

5. d) Storage and metabolism of calcium
e) Cellular metabolism
Answer b
15. Processing, packaging, labeling and delivery of proteins and
lipids are the functions of
a) Nucleus
b) Mitochondria
c) Ribosomes
d) Centrioles
e) Golgi apparatus
Answer e
16. Which statement is incorrect regarding lysosomes
a) Primary lysosome are inactive
b) Secondary lysosome are active
c) They degrades macromolecules
d) The degrades worn out organelles
e) They are formed by ribosomes
Answer e
17. An organelle which breakdown excess of fatty acids, detoxify
hydrogen peroxide, accelerates gluconeogenesis and have role in
the formation of myelin and bile acid is
a) Centrioles
b) Mitochondria
c) Peroxisomes
d) Golgi apparatus
e) Ribosomes
Answer c

6. 18. The second largest organelle of the cell is
a) Nucleus
b) Mitochondria
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
e) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Answer b
19. Which organelle detoxify ammonia in liver cells
a) Ribosomes
b) Nucleus
c) Mitochondria
d) Peroxisome
e) Vacuole
Answer c
20. The membraneless organelles of the cell are
a) Centrioles
b) Mitochondria
c) Ribosomes
d) Both a and c
e) All of the above
Answer d
21. How many pairs of microtubules are there in flagella and
cilia?
a) 9 pairs
b) 3 pairs
c) 11 pairs
d) 7 pairs

7. e) 5 pairs
Answer a
22. The properties of cytological fixatives are all, except
a) They do not excessively shrink or swell cells
b) They do not dissolve cellular components
c) They kill microbes
d) They promotes enzymatic activity
e) They preserve nuclear details
Answer d
23. The ideal fixative recommended in most of the laboratories
for cytological specimen is
a) 80% ethanol
b) 85% ethanol
c) 50% methanol
d) 95% ethanol
e) Any concentration of ethanol can be used for fixation
Answer d
24. Which one is not the property of ethanol?
a) It is a dehydrating agent
b) It causes shrinkage of cells
c) It is cheaper than ethanol
d) It is more expensive than ethanol
e) It produces the characteristic effect desired on nucleus
Answer d
25. Ether alcohol mixture is composed of
a) 40 % ether and 60% ethyl alcohol
b) 30% ether and 70% ethyl alcohol
c) 50% ether and 50% ethyl alcohol

8. d) 60% ether and 40% ethyl alcohol
e) 70% ether and 30% ethyl alcohol
Answer c
26. The acceptable substitute for 95% ethanol is
a) 90% methanol
b) 95% methanol
c) 100% methanol
d) 60% propanol
e) Denatured alcohol
Answer C
27. The concentration of denatured alcohol which is suitable for
fixation
a) 95%
b) 100%
c) 85%
d) 95% or 100%
e) It can be used at any concentration
Answer d
28. Denatured alcohol is composed of
a) 90 parts of 95% ethanol,5 parts of 100% methanol and 5
parts of 90% isopropanol
b) 80 parts of 95%ethanol,5 parts of 100% methanol and 5
parts of 100% isopropanol
c) 90 parts of 95%ethanol,5 parts of 100%methanol and 5 parts
of 100% isopropanol
d) 90 parts of 80% ethanol,5 parts 90% methanol and 5 parts of
90% isopropanol
e) None of the above

9. Answer C
29. Minimum time required for wet fixation
a) 5 minutes
b) 15 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 1 hour
e) 24 hours
Answer B
30. Suitable fixative if smear have to be mailed to distant
cytology laboratory
a) Dry fixative
b) Aerosol fixative
c) Such smear do not require any fixative
d) Wet fixative
e) Both a and b
Answer b
31. Aerosol spray is not recommended for bloody smear,
because they cause
a) breakdown RBCs
b) clumping of RBCs
c) overfixation of RBCs
d) smear do not then
e) aerosol spray is used for bloody smear
Answer b
32. The recommended distance for aerosol spray is
a) 2 to 4 inches
b) 10 to 12 inches

10. c) 10 to 12 cm
d) 4 to 6 cm
e) None of the above is correct
Answer b
33. The carnoy’s fixative is composed of
a) 10 parts of acetic acid, 30 parts of chloroform and 60 parts
of 95% ethanol
b) 20 parts of acetic acid,30 parts of chloroform and 50 parts of
95% ethanol
c) 60 parts of acetic acid,30 parts of chloroform, and 1o parts
of 95% ethanol
d) 30 parts of acetic acid, 60 parts of chloroform, and 10 parts
of 95 % ethanol
e) 10 parts of acetic acid, 30 parts of ether, and 60 parts of 95%
ethanol
Answer a
34. Which of the following is not the property of Carnoy’s
fixative?
a) It is best for haemorrhagic samples
b) One of its contents causes hemolysis of RBCs
c) It is excellent nuclear fixative
d) It is does not causes shrinkage of cells
e) It is best preservative for glycogen
Answer d
35. The ideal fixative used for cell block preparation of fluid
specimens
a) Ether

11. b) Isopropanol
c) Propanol
d) AAF fixative
e) methanol
Answer d
36. Which fixative is used for the transportation of smear to
distant laboratory ?
a) Wet fixative
b) Coating fixative
c) Ether
d) Both a and b
e) None of the above
Answer b
37. The disadavtages of pre fixations are
a) Precipitation of cells
b) Hardening of cells
c) Condensation of proteins
d) It preserve specimens without deterioration for days
e) a, b and c
Answer e
38. The duration between collection and preparation of sample
before cellular damage can occur depends on
a) pH
b) protein contents
c) enzymatic activity
d) presence or absence of bacteria

12. e) All of the above
Answer e
39. Which one of the following is an example of fluid with high
mucus content?
a) Bronchial aspirates
b) Pleural fluid
c) Ascetic fluid
d) Pericardial fluid
e) Cerebrospinal fluid
Answer a
40. If Specimens with high mucus contents are refrigerated they
can be preserved for
a) 12 to 24 hours
b) 12 to 24 days
c) More than 24 hours
d) 1 week
e) 6 to 8 hours
Answer a
41. Specimens with high proteins contents include
a) Urine
b) CSF
c) Sputum
d) Pleural fluid
e) All of the above
Answer d
42. If specimens with low mucus or protein contents are
refrigerated then they can be preserved for

13. a) 1 to 2 days
b) 1 week
c) 1 to 2 hours
d) 24 hours
e) 10 days
Answer c
43. Which specimen must be collected on ice and be processed
within minutes to prevent cellular destruction by Hcl?
a) Pleural fluid
b) Pericardial fluid
c) Sputum
d) Gastric material
e) All of the above
Answer d
44. Advantages of collection pleural, pericardial and peritoneal
fluid in plane or preheparinised fluids are
a) Layering of malignant cells in buffy coat
b) The cells then adhere better to slides
c) The cells in in the heparinized tube deteriorate rapidly
d) All of the above
e) Only a and b
Answer e
45. Preservation of cells in by pre-fixation is also possible
a) In 50% methanol
b) 50% ethanol

14. c) 50%propanol
d) 50% acetone
e) 95% ethanol
Answer b
46. Which type of slide should be used to prepare smear from
pre fixed sample?
a) Plane slide
b) Albumenized slide
c) Heparinized slide
d) Oily slide
e) Anyone can be used
Answer b
47. How much fluid is sufficient to get enough cells for
cytological evaluation?
a) 10-15 ml
b) 20-30 ml
c) 5-10 ml
d) 40-70 ml
e) 50-60 ml
48. If the quantity of fluid specimen is too little for
centrifugation, then
a) An equal amount of normal saline can be added before
centrifugation
b) An equal amount of distilled water can be added before
centrifugation
c) An equal amount of tape water can be added before
centrifugation

15. d) All of the above
e) None of the above is correct
Answer a
49. Which type of centrifuge should be used to concentrate cells
of sparsely cellular fluids
a) Ultracentrifuge
b) Cryofuge
c) Cytocentrifuge
d) Pendulum centrifuge
e) All of the above can be used
Answer c
50. Major problem about the use of cytocentrifuge is distortion
of cellular morphology due to drying artifact which can be avoided
by
a) Immediate fixation
b) Using an equal volume of ethylene glycol
c) Using equal volume of distilled water
d) Both a and b
e) All of the above
Answer d
51. During cell block preparation, the cell pellet remaining after
preparing smear is mixed with one or two drops of supernatant
and

16. a) Equal volume of AAF fixative
b) Twice volume of AAF fixative
c) Thrice volume of AAF fixative
d) four times volume of AAF
e) None of the above
Answer c
52. Which statement about Papanicolaou staining method is
incorrect?
a) It is monochrome staining reaction
b) It is polychrome staining reaction
c) Use of this stain results in well stained nuclear chromatin
d) This stain increases cytoplasmic transparency
e) The use of this stain results in differential cytoplasmic
counterstaining
Answer a
53. During Papanicolaou staining, the over staining produced by
Harris haematoxylin can be removed by using
a) Acid alcohol (0.05% HCl in 70% ethanol)
b) 0.05% aqueous solution of HCl
c) 99% ethanol
d) Both a and b can be used
e) It is impossible to remove the excessive stain
Answer d
54. During Papanicolaou staining pink colour is produced by
haematoxylin is unstable at

17. a) Acidic pH
b) Alkaline pH
c) Neutral pH
d) pH has no effect on its stability
e) both at acidic and alkaline pH
Answer A
55. All of the following are the characteristics of cytoplasmic
stains used in cytology except
a) Cytoplasmic stains includes OG-6 and OG-36
b) Both the stains are synthetic
c) OG-6 is polychromic
d) OG-36 is polychromic
e) OG-6 is monochromic
Answer c
56. For dehydration of cytological smear rectified spirit is not
used because
a) It affects cytoplasmic staining
b) It affects nuclear staining
c) It affects both cytoplasmic and nuclear staining
d) It has no effect on staining
e) None of the above is correct
Answer a
57. If mounting medium and cover slip are applied too slowly,
xylene evaporates and

18. a) Brown artifact is produced
b) Yellow artifact is produced
c) Green artifact is produced
d) Red artifact is produced
e) None of the above
Answer a
58. All of the following are the precautions for preparing
cytological smear except
a) The smear should be immediately fixed
b) Smear should not be dried before placing the coverslip
c) Haematoxylin should not be filtered before use
d) Contamination from one slide to another should be avoided
e) All dishes should be washed daily
Answer c
59. Uterus is lined by
a) Stratified columnar ciliated cells
b) Squamous epithelial cells
c) Cuboidal epithelial cells
d) Simple columnar ciliated cells
e) Simple columnar non ciliated cells
Answer d
60. Cervical canal is lined by
a) Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
b) Stratified squamous non keratinized epithelium
c) Stratified columnar epithelial ciliated epithelium
d) Pseudo-stratified columnar ciliated epithelium

19. e) Simple columnar ciliated cells
Answer d
61. Glandular endometrial cells are present in routine vaginal
smear as normal cell in following conditions , except
a) Early pregnancy
b) Abortion
c) Post-partum period
d) Menstrual flow
e) Late pregnancy
Answer e
62. Glandular endometrial cells are present in endometrial
lesions as
a) Adeno-carcinoma
b) Endometritis
c) Polyp
d) Submucous fibroid
e) All of the above
Answer e
63. Inflammatory cells are usually seen in
a) Abortion
b) Early pregnancy
c) Menstrual cycle
d) Endocervicle or posterior fornix smears

20. e) None of the above
Answer d
64. Methods of collecting endometrial samples are
a) Endometrial lavage
b) Endometrial scraping
c) Endometrial aspiration
d) Only a and c
e) All of the above
Answer e
65. The myometrium is predominantly composed of
a) Skeletal muscle
b) Smooth muscle
c) Squamous epithelium
d) Cuboidal epithelium
e) Columnar epithelium
Answer b
66. Cervical scrape for the cervical-vaginal smear is taken from
the
a) Cuboidal-columnar junction
b) Squamous-columnar junction
c) Squamous-cuboidal junction
d) Squamous-squamous junction
e) None of the above
Answer b

21. 67. The following are the characteristics of squamous-columnar
junction, except
a) It is inherently stable
b) It junction of the pink cervical skin and red endocervical
canal
c) It is inherently unstable
d) It is most likely the site of dysplasia
e) It is the key portion of cervix to sample
Answer a
68. When using cytobrush for the sample collection from
female genital tract, it should be rotated
a) only 90 degrees
b) only 120 degrees
c) only180 degrees
d) Only270 degrees
e) Only 360 degrees
Answer c
69. Fine needle aspiration is the removal of a sample of cell
using
a) scissor
b) Forceps
c) Fine needle
d) Swab
e) All of the above

22. Answer c
70. The gauge of needle required for the fine needle aspiration
is
a) 14/24 G
b) 21/24 ml
c) 21/27 G
d) 11/17 G
e) 21/27 ml
Answer c
71. The capacity of disposable syringe for FNA should be
a) 4-8 ml
b) 10-14 ml
c) 10-20 ml
d) 20-30 ml
e) 6-10 ml
Answer c
72. During aspiration of the lump the needle is
a) Horizontal to the skin
b) Perpendicular to the skin
c) Inserted intravenously
d) Both a and c
e) All of the above
Answer b

23. 73. The slides of aspirate planned for Panpanicolaou stain are
a) Submerged in ethanol
b) Submerged in water
c) Left in open air to dry
d) Spray with water
e) None of the above
Answer a
74. The slides of the aspirate planned to giemsa stain are
a) Submerged in ethanol
b) Submerged in water
c) Left in open air to dry
d) Spray with water
e) None of the above
Answer c
75. Which of the following statement is incorrect about cytospin
used in cytology
a) Is fast and economical
b) Prepare up to 12 monolayers of cell preparation
c) have adjustable speed, time and acceleration
d) easy to program with up to 24 protocols
e) it is complicated
Answer e

24. 76. Cytological cytospin can be used for which of the following
specimens
a) Bone marrow, peritoneal fluid
b) Urine, pericardial fluid
c) Sputum, peritoneal fluid
d) Both a and b
e) All of the above
77. All of the following are the features of cytospin except
a) Compact and quiet
b) Easy to clean inner bowl
c) Handles 50-800 ul samples
d) Have autoclave rotor
e) Have 2 acceleration levels
Answer e
78. Which one of the following is not the body cavity
a) Pleural
b) Pericardial
c) Peritoneal
d) Cerebrospinal
e) None of these
Answer d
79. The body cavities and visceral organs are lined by a thin
layer of _________ cells
a) Endothelial
b) Mesothelial

25. c) Parenchymal
d) Epidermal Langerhans
e) Dendritic
Answer b
80. Normal pleural fluid volume is
a) 5-10ml
b) 10-15ml
c) 10-20ml
d) 20-50ml
e) 0-100ml
Answer c
81. Under normal physiological condition pleural fluid is
produced by
a) Parietal pleura
b) Visceral pleura
c) Both parietal and visceral pleura
d) Alveoli
e) Bronchioles
Answer a
82. Which one of the following is not the cause of transudative
fluid
a) Congestive heart failure
b) Hepatic cirrhosis
c) Hypoproteinemia
d) Nephrotic syndrome
e) Mesothelioma
Answer e
83. The infection related pleural effusion is

26. a) Lymphoma
b) Mesothelioma
c) Bacterial pneumonia
d) Pulmonary infarct
e) Rheumatoid disease
Answer
84. Neoplasm related pleural effusion is
a) Bronchogenic carcinoma
b) Tuberculosis
c) Histoplasmosis
d) Mycoplasma pneumonia
e) Rheumatoid disease
Answer a
85. Which one of the following is not the pleural effusion from
extra pleural sources
a) Pancreatitis
b) Elevated amylase activity
c) Rupture esophagus
d) Urinothorax
e) Rheumatoid disease
Answer e
86. Which one is not the property of transudate
a) Rich in cells
b) Often contain malignant cells
c) High LDH activity
d) Clear appearance
e) Turbid
Answer d

27. 87. Thoracentesis is a procedure in which a needle is inserted
into the ________ space to remove excess fluid
a) Pleural
b) Pericardial
c) Cerebrospinal
d) Peritoneal
e) Pelvis
Answer a
88. Lymphocytosis (>50%) in pleural effusion is seen in which
condition
a) Systemic lupus erthromatus
b) Bacterial infection
c) Trauma
d) Pulmonary infection
e) Pneumothorax
Answer a
89. Eosinophilia (>10%) in pleural effusion is seen in which
condition
a) Malignancy
b) Bacterial infection
c) Pulmonary infection
d) Viral infection
e) Trauma
Answer e
90. The walls of esophagous and stomach is composed of
a) 2 layers
b) 3 layers

28. c) 4 layers
d) 5 layers
e) 6 layers
Answer c
91. Barrett’s esophagus is the replacement of normal distal
stratified squamous mucosa by
a) Cuboidal epithelium
b) Metaplastic squamous epithelium
c) Metaplastic columnar epithelium
d) Normal columnar epithelium
e) None of the above
Answer c
92. The sampling method for collecting specimen in case of
Barrett’s esophagus is
a) Endoscopy
b) Brushing biopsy
c) FNAC
d) Both a and b
e) All of the above
Answer d
93. All of the following are true about cytological examination of
specimen of Barrett’s esophagous(BE) except
a) For the diagnosis of BE ,goblet cells identification is essential
b) The cells have abundant vacuolated cytoplasm
c) The size of vacuole is three times less than the nuclus
d) Cells are arranged as cohesive sheet

29. e) The outline of cluster is regular
Answer c
94. Which one of the following is incorrect regarding the
cytological examination of sample taken in case of esophagitis
a) Cohesive cluster of cells
b) Squamous cells show nuclear arrangement
c) Cells have prominent nucleoli
d) Nuclear margin is irregular
e) Smear shows inflammatory cells
Answer d
95. The gastric mucosa is lined by
a) Simple cuboidal epithelium
b) Simple squamous epithelium
c) Simple columnar epithelium
d) Smooth muscle cells
e) None of the above
Answer c
96. Which of the following is not the feature of mucus secreting
cell
a) Cytoplasm is vacuolated
b) The cells are usually in multilayers
c) The individual cells are tall, columnar in appearance
d) Cells have central nuclei
e) Nucleoli are inconspicuous
Answer b

30. 97. Which one of the following is flat lesion of Urothelial
neoplasm
a) Dysplasia
b) Papilloma
c) Low grade urothelial carcinoma
d) High grade urothelial carcinoma
e) Papillary urothelial neoplasm
Answer a
98. Up to ___ of bladder cancers are squamous cell in origin
a) 80%
b) 50%
c) 30%
d) 10%
e) 5%
Answer e
99. The risk factors that are not associated with transitional cell
carcinoma (TCC) of the bladder is
a) Working in dye factory
b) Smoking (30 cigarettes per day)
c) Cyclophosphamide therapy
d) Antibiotics
e) Schistosomiasis
Answer d
100. The cells of which grade bladder tumor resemble the normal
cells
a) Grade I
b) Grade II

31. c) Grade III
d) Grade IV
e) Grade V
Answer A
101. Beside bladder cancer voided urine cytology may also detect
cancers of the
a) Kidney
b) Ureter
c) Prostate
d) Urethra
e) All of the above
Answer e
102. About _______ of all bladder cancers may be caused by
cigarette smoking
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 60%
e) 80%
Answer c
103. The sensitivity of urine cytology for high grade urothelial
carcinoma is
a) 44%
b) 57%
c) 67%
d) 79%
e) 90%
Answer d

32. 104. The ratio of urothelial neoplasm in males to female is
a) 1:1
b) 4:2
c) 4:1
d) 1:4
e) 3:2
Answer c
105. Cytological specimen of the esophagus contains
___________ cells
a) Mesothelial cells
b) Squamous epithelial cells
c) Parenchymal cells
d) Dendritic cells
e) Lymphocytes
Answer b
106. Which one of the following is the malignant disease of
esophagus
a) Esophagitis
b) Barrett’s esophagitis
c) Neoplasm
d) Adenocarcinoma
e) Candida esophagitis
Answer d
107. The benign disease of esophagus is
a) Leiomyoma
b) Squamous cell carcinoma
c) Adenocarcinoma
d) Small cell carcinoma

33. e) None of these
Answer a
108. The most common malignancy of the esophagus is
a) Adenocarcinoma
b) Squamous cell carcinoma
c) Small cell carcinoma
d) Barrett’s esophagitis
e) Candida esophagitis
Answer b
109. The most common cause of Gastric adenocarcinoma is
a) Alcohol ingestion
b) Aspirin ingestion
c) Helicobacter Pylori
d) Chemotherapy
e) Burn trauma
Answer c
110. Which one of the following is not the cause of acute gastritis
a) Aspirin ingestion
b) Alcohol
c) Heavy smoking
d) Chemotherapy
e) Arthritis
Answer e
111. Which gastric disease have no risk factor for the
development of carcinoma
a) Acute gastritis
b) Chronic gastritis
c) Gastric polyp

34. d) Gastric adenocarcinoma
e) Intestinal gastric adenocarcinoma
Answer c
112. The most common fungal infection of the esophagus is
a) Candida
b) H. pylori
c) S. typhi
d) Toxoplasma
e) Bracket fungi
Answer A
113. Features of chief cells are all, except
a) These are cuboidal cells
b) Nuclei are central in position
c) Nuclei are round in shape
d) Cytoplasm contain basophilic granules
e) Cytoplasm contain eosinophilic cytoplasm
Answer e
114. Features of parietal cells are all, except
a) The cells are round in shape
b) Cytoplasm contain vacuoles
c) Nuclei are centrally placed
d) Cytoplasm have basophilic granules
e) Cytoplasm have eosinophilic granules
Answer d
115. All of the following are features of histological examination
in case of chronic gastritis, except

35. a) Multiple cohesive sheets of granular cells
b) A mild increase of N/C
c) Nuclear polymorphism
d) Hyperchromasia
e) Inconspicuous nucleoli
Answer e