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Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 0 of 49
2. Infection & Immunity - Microbiology
Quiz
1.The cytoplasm is packed with large number of
A. Small granules
B. Membranous bodies
C. Mesosomes
D. All of the previous
2.all of the following are from the intracellular structures except
A. capsule
B. inclusion granules
C. plasmids
D. none of the previous
3.the peptidoglycan is a major constituent of the cell wall it
represents
A. 50%-60%
B. 50%-80%
C. 60%-80%
D. 30%-60%
4.polysaccharides of gram positive bacteria are
A. Acidic sugars
B. Neutral sugars
C. Mannose
D. All of the previous
5.a bilayer structure composed of an inner leaflet and outer leaflet
A. Lipopolysaccharide
B. Lipoprotein
C. Polysaccharides
D. Outer membrane
6.accounts for the high antibiotic resistance of gram negative
bacteria
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 1 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
3. A. Lipoprotein
B. Lipid A
C. Porins
D. O-antigen
7.from the functions of the cell wall
A. Can stand high internal pressure
B. Secrets hydrolytic enzymes
C. Responsible for the shape of the bacterial cell
D. A and C
E. All of the previous
8.all of the following are functions of the cytoplasmic membrane
except
A. Plays a role in cell division
B. Osmotic barrier
C. Secrets hydrolytic enzymes
D. Responsible for cell respiration
9.cytoplasm of bacteria contains all except
A. Mitochondria
B. Plasmids
C. Ribosomes
D. Inclusion granules
10.from the excess metabolites stored
A. Sulphur
B. Starch
C. polyphosphates
D. All of the above
11.common pili
A. Formed from antigenic protein
B. Contain F factor
C. Longer and thinner than sex pili
D. Plays a part during conjugation
12.spores are made within
A. certain gram + bacteria
B. clostridium dificile
C. bacilli
D. all
13.spores transmit
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 2 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
4. A. Tetanus
B. Gas gangrene
C. Boyulism
D. All of the above
14.spores may be situated
A. At the center
B. Subterminal
C. Terminal
D. All of the above
15.the inner most layer of the spore
A. Spore wall
B. Spore cortex
C. Spore coat
D. Exosporium
16.composed of lipoprotein
A. Spore wall
B. Spore cortex
C. Spore coat
D. Exosporium
17.thickest layer of spore
A. Spore wall
B. Spore cortex
C. Spore coat
D. Exosporium
18.composed of keratin like protein
A. Spore wall
B. Spore cortex
C. Spore coat
D. Exosporium
19.responsible for the antibacterial chemical reaction
A. Spore wall
B. Spore cortex
C. Spore coat
D. Exosporium
20.contain an unusual type of peptidoglycans
A. Spore wall
B. Spore cortex
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 3 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
5. C. Spore coat
D. Exosporium
21.plays a role in spore germination by autolysis
A. Spore wall
B. Spore cortex
C. Spore coat
D. Exosporium
22.The main activity of the bacteria is
A. Secretion of toxins
B. Reproduction
C. Nutrition
D. None of the above
23.Which of the following is needed by the bacteria in large
quantities?
A. Magnesium
B. Sulpher
C. Phosphorus
D. Nitrogen
24.Which of the following is not needed in traces?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Phosphorus
D. Magnesium
25.Lactobacilli are
A. Neutrophils
B. Acidophils
C. Alkalophils
26.Which of the following is an obligatory aerobe?
A. Staphylococci
B. Helicobacter
C. N. gonorrhea
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
27.Which of the following is not true about facultative anaerobes?
A. They are able to grow in the absence of oxygen
B. They grow more vigorously in aerobic conditions
C. They form peroxides and superoxides in presence of oxygen
D. They include enterobacteria and staphylococcus
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 4 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
6. 28.Which of the following is a strict anaerobe?
A. Staphylococci
B. Clostridia
C. N. meningitides
D. Brucellaabortus
29.For most species, the maximum concentration of NaCl
allowing growth lies between
A. 5-10 %
B. 7-12 %
C. 5-12 %
D. 10-15 %
30.Drying in air is lethal to
A. Treponemapallidum
B. Tubercle bacillus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. None of the above
31.Which of the following is not true about lag phase?
A. It is parallel to the incubation period of the disease
B. The bigger the inoculum, the shorter the lag phase
C. There is no multiplication nor depletion
D. The bacteria are most vulnerable in this phase
32.The decline phase represents the …… of the disease.
A. Convalescence
B. Subacute phase
C. Incubation period
D. None of the above
33.All bacterial species are always considered to be pathogens.
A. true
B. false
34.Opportunistic micro-organisms have their ways to overcoming
body defence.
A. true
B. false
35.Streptococcus Pneumonia has a ........... to impede phagocytosis
A. polysaccharide capsule.
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 5 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
7. B. M protein.
C. Chemotaxis inhibitor
36.Bacteria that produce factors to inhibit chemotaxis
A. Streptococcus Pneumonia
B. Pyrogenes
C. Bordetella
37.Bacteria are more infective in the log phase than the lag phase
A. true
B. false
38.Degree of pathogenicity is :
A. Infectivity.
B. Virulence
C. Invasiveness
D. Transmissibility
39.Organ of attachment :
A. capsule
B. flagella
C. cell wall
D. pili
40.Highly invasive bacteria include those causing :
A. Anthrax
B. Botulism
C. plague
D. A & C
E. All of the above
41.Excreted by living cells :
A. Exotoxin
B. Endotoxin
42.Excreted only by Gram -ve bacteria
A. Exotoxin
B. Endotoxin
43.Endotoxins are ......
A. Polypeptides.
B. Lipopolysaccharides
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 6 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
8. 44.Exotoxins are more toxic than Endotoxins.
A. true
B. false
45.Endotoxins bind to specific receptors in host cells.
A. true
B. false
46........ produce fever in the host.
A. Exotoxins
B. Endotoxins
47.Viruses are simple forms of of small biologically active
obligate intracellular parasites
A. true
B. false
48.viruses carry their genetic material in either DNA or RNA or
Both of them.
A. true
B. false
49.viruses could affect
A. humans
B. plants
C. animals
D. all of the above
50.the virion is the complete infectious viral particle.
A. true
B. false
51.the virion is composed of
A. capsid
B. genome
C. envelope
D. all of the above
52.capsid is ....... in nature
A. protein
B. lipid
C. phospholipid
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 7 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
9. 53.capsid of the virus
A. protects the viral genome against activation by nucleases
B. determines the antigenic characteristics of of the virus
C. responsible for the structural symmetry of the virus particle
D. all of the above
54.a glycoprotein attach virus particle to a target cell
A. capsid
B. envelope
C. pili
D. VAP
55.The most efficient arrangement for subunits in capsid is
A. cubic symmetry
B. helical symmetry
C. complex symmetry
56.In it, the capsomers are bound together in the form of ribbons
A. cubic symmetry
B. helical symmetry
C. complex symmetry
57.the nucleosid is formed of
A. genome
B. capsid
C. both of them
D. none of them
58.In non_enveloped viruses the virion is equal to the nucleosid
A. true
B. false
59.Envelope is a protein containing lipid membrane that
surrounds some virus particles
A. true
B. false
60.Enveloped viruses are not affected by lipid solvents
A. true
B. false
61.A defective virus is one that lacks one or more of the
functional genes required for viral replication
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 8 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
10. A. true
B. false
62.............. from the examples of the defective viruses
A. AAV
B. hepatitis D virus
C. pox viruses
D. both a and b
E. both a and c
63.viruses are stable at high temperature and can be stored at 40 c
A. true
B. false
64.Mycoses is the disease caused by
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Viruses
D. Parasites
65.Most of the pathogenic fungi belong to the genus
A. Candida
B. Balantdium
C. Deuteromyecetes
D. All of the previous
66.Contain five or more alkaloids
A. Antibiotics
B. Ergot
C. Toxins
D. Mycoses
67. Focus upon antimyces
A. Antibiotics
B. Ergot
C. Toxins
D. Mycoses
68.Has an important role in treating migraine
A. Antibiotics
B. Ergot
C. Toxins
D. Mycoses
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 9 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
11. 69.Induce hallucinations
A. Antibiotics
B. Ergot
C. Toxins
D. Mycoses
70.Control bleeding
A. Antibiotics
B. Ergot
C. Toxins
D. Mycoses
71.Cause death and disease in man
A. Antibiotics
B. Ergot
C. Toxins
D. Mycoses
72.Aspergillus flavus produces
A. Aflatoxin
B. Powerful toxin
C. Substance General in liver malignancy
D. All of the previous
73.They occur in the form of round or oval bodies
A. Molds
B. Yeasts
C. Yeast like fungi
D. Dimorphic fungi
74.The surface of these colonies may be velvety powdery or may
show cottony mycelium
A. Molds
B. Yeasts
C. Yeast like fungi
D. Dimorphic fungi
75.They occur in the form of budding yeast
A. Molds
B. Yeasts
C. Yeast like fungi
D. Dimorphic fungi
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 10 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
12. 76. Exhibit a saprophytic phase
A. Molds
B. Yeasts
C. Yeast like fungi
D. Dimorphic fungi
77.Binds to ergosterol in fungal membrane causing membrane to
become leaky
A. Amphotericin
B. Flucytosine
C. Azole
D. All
78. Prevents synthesis of fungal ergosterol and inhibit fungal
growth
A. Amphotericin
B. Flucytosine
C. Azole
D. All
79.Disrupts protein synthesis and inhibit cell division
A. Amphotericin
B. Flucytosine
C. Azole
D. All
80.Are from the systemic antifungal drugs for systemic infection
A. Amphotericin
B. Flucytosine
C. Azole
D. All
81.Used in life threating mycotic infections
A. Amphotericin
B. Flucytosine
C. Azole
D. All
82. Flucytosine is used in combination with ……….. for crytococcal
meningitis
A. Amphotericin
B. Itraconazole
C. Azole
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 11 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
13. D. All
83.Flucytosine is used in combination with……. For blastomatosis
A. Amphotericin
B. Itraconazole
C. Azole
D. All
84.Used in severe fungal pneumonia
A. Amphotericin
B. Itraconazole
C. Azole
D. All
85.Broad spectrum antifungal drugs against dermatophytes and
candida
A. Amphotericin
B. Flucytosine
C. Azole
D. All
86. Among all azoles it has the least effect on hepatic microsomal
enzymes
A. Ketoconazole
B. Itraconazole
C. Fluconazole
D. Miconazole
87.Common in treatment of nail fungal infections
A. Ketoconazole
B. Itraconazole
C. Fluconazole
D. Miconazole
88. From triazoles
A. Ketoconazole
B. Itraconazole
C. Fluconazole
D. All except a
89.Are from the systemic antifungal drugs for mucocutaneous
infection
A. Amphotericin
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 12 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
14. B. Flucytosine
C. Azole
D. All
90.a fungi static drug derived from penicillin
A. Azole
B. Grisefulvin
C. Terbinafine
D. Nyastatine
91. Inhibit the microtubule polymerization thus inhibit the
formation of mitotic spindle
A. Azole
B. Grisefulvin
C. Terbinafine
D. Nyastatine
92.a synthetic allylamine fungicidal drug
A. Azole
B. Grisefulvin
C. Terbinafine
D. Nyastatine
93.a polyene treatment antifungal specific for candida
A. Azole
B. Grisefulvin
C. Terbinafine
D. Nyastatine
94.Of several thousands of species of fungi only 100 or less more
are pathogenic to man
A. True
B. false
95.Deuteromycetes reproduce asexually by formation of asexual
spores
A. True
B. false
96.Fungi are wide spread in nature and found in the soil
A. True
B. false
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 13 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
15. 97.The levorotatory isomers of ergot are active in depressing
uterine contractions
A. True
B. false
98.On the basis of the macroscopic morphology of fungi they are
divided into 4 groups
A. True
B. false
99.The only pathogenic yeast in medical mycology is
Cryptococcus neoformans
A. True
B. false
100.viruses are separated into major groups called
A. strains
B. species
C. genera
D. families
101.DNA viruses are all DS except
A. poxviridea
B. parvoviridea
C. reoviridea
D. adenoviridea
102.all DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus
A. true
B. false
103.RNA viruses are all SS except
A. parvoviridea
B. poxviridea
C. reoviridea
D. none of the above
104.most RNA viruses replicate in cytoplasm
A. true
B. false
105.all RNA viruses are SS except Reoviridea and most of them
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 14 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
16. replicate in the nucleus
A. true
B. false
106.Which of the following is not true about innate immunity?
A. It is present since birth
B. It is not genetically controlled
C. It is non-specific
D. It does not involve development of memory cells
107.Innate immunity is modifiable by certain factors such as age,
hormones and nutritional status.
A. True
B. False
108.Adaptive immunity is active against a wide range of
pathogens,
A. True
B. False
109.Which of the following contributes to the effectiveness of the
skin as a means of innate immunity?
A. Mucous secretions
B. The action of cilia
C. The layer of horny cells
D. All of the above
110.Commensal bacteria
A. Produce an internal environment which is not suitable for pathogens
B. Compete with the pathogens for nutrients
C. Include salivary streptococci and vaginal lactobacilli
D. All of the above
111.Lysozyme is
A. Present in high concentrations in the blood
B. Active against gram negative bacteria
C. A basic protein
D. None of the above
112.Which of the following is responsible for the bactericidal
activity of the blood?
A. Complement
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 15 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
17. B. Natural antibodies
C. Phagocytes
D. All of the above
113.Properdin is not active against
A. Gram positive bacteria
B. Gram negative bacteria
C. Viruses
D. None of the above
114.High fever inhibits the replication of the infective agent.
A. True
B. False
115.Natural killer cells recognize the surface changes on
A. Tumour cells
B. Viral particles
C. Virally infected cells
D. A and B
E. A and C
116.Natural killers are found exclusively in the spleen
A. True
B. False
117.Which of the following is true about toll-like receptors?
A. They are lipoprotein in nature
B. They bind to pathogen associated molecular patterns on organisms
C. They cannot bind to viral particles
D. Their binding to PAMPs blocks the synthesis of interferon
118.inadequate decontamination has been responsible for
outbreaks of infection in hospitals.
A. True
B. False
119.there are ……. Levels of decontamination.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
120.……… is a soil-removing process that removes many
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 16 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
18. microorganisms.
A. cleaning
B. disinfection
C. sterialization
121.cleaning is used as an essential step before disinfection and
sterialization.
A. true
B. false
122.cleaning can be put as a method of
A. LLD
B. ILD
C. HLD
123.cleaning solutions don't kill
A. tubercle bacilli
B. Bacterial spores
C. both of them
D. none of them
124.soaps are cationic detergants.
A. true
B. false
125.quaternary ammonium compounds suppress growth of gram
negative bacteria.
A. true
B. false
126.Vaccination is …… immunity
A. Natural active
B. Natural passive
C. Artificial active
D. Artificial passive
127.Transplacental transmission of antibodies is …… immunity
A. Natural active
B. Natural passive
C. Artificial active
D. Artificial passive
128.Contacts of diphtheria are treated with
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 17 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
19. A. Antitoxins
B. Toxoids
C. Attenuated organisms
D. None of the above
129.Which of the following is not a role of macrophages?
A. They are antigen presenting cells
B. They secrete IL-1
C. They release cytotoxins
D. None of the above
130.B lymphocytes are responsible for the cell mediated immune
response
A. True
B. False
131.T lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow
A. True
B. False
132.B lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow
A. True
B. False
133.Which of the following cell cannot function as an antigen
presenting cell?
A. B lymphocyte
B. T lymphocyte
C. Langerhan’s cells of the skin
D. Dendritic cells
134.Activated T cytotoxic cells are responsible for the production
of antibodies.
A. True
B. False
135.Tumour cells are killed by
A. Cell mediated immune response
B. Humoral immune response
136.Virally infected cells are killed by
A. Cell mediated immune response
B. Humoral immune response
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 18 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
20. 137.Vaccination is the most cost-effective method of treatment of
serious viral infections.
A. True
B. False
138.Which of the following is not an example of inactivated
vaccines?
A. MMR
B. Human rabies
C. Influenza
D. Salk vaccine of polio
139.Mild formalin or ?-propiolactone treatment is used to
A. Cultivate the virus serially
B. Kill the virus
C. Purify viral preparations
D. Inactivate viral infectivity
140.Which of the following is an advantage of inactivated viral
vaccines?
A. Immunity conferred is more efficient and long-lasting than that of LAV
B. There is no potential of return to virulence
C. They induce good cell-mediated response
D. Local resistance is induced at the natural portal of entry
141.Which of the following is a disadvantage of inactivated viral
vaccines
A. Cannot be given to immunocompromised patients or pregnant females
B. They induce hypersensitivity to subsequent infections
C. The immunity conferred is brief and must be boosted
D. A and B
E. B and C
142.Magnesium chloride is used in Polio vaccines for
A. Extending shelf life
B. Deriving attenuated strains
C. Inactivating viral infectivity
D. None of the above
143.Which of the following vaccines have been successfully
synthesised in bacteria or yeast cells?
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 19 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
21. A. Hepatitis B
B. Human rabies
C. Influenza
D. All of the above
144.Which of the following is potentially simple, cheap and safe?
A. Use of avirulent virus vectors
B. Purified proteins produced using cloned genes
C. Naked DNA vaccines
D. Attenuation by genetic manipulation
145.In use of avirulent virus vectors
A. The viral protein (surface antigen) is inserted into the genome of an avirulent virus
B. The genes coding for the viral protein are inserted into the genome of an avirulent
virus
C. The genes coding for the viral protein are inserted into a plasmid which in turn is
inserted into a bacterial or a yeast cell
D. The genes coding for the viral protein are inserted into a plasmid which in turn is
inserted directly into the host cell
146.chlorine compounds are active against
A. HIV
B. HBV
C. Both of them
D. none of them
147.chlorine compounds are used for environmental cleaning at
....... concentration
A. 0.5 %
B. 0.1 %
C. 2 %
D. 0.6 %
148........... of the disadvantages of chlorine compounds
A. cprrosive effect
B. loss of activity after dilution to the required concentration
C. both of them
D. none of them
149.chlorine compound at high concentration can kill TB
A. true
B. false
150.disinfection is freeing of an article from all of its
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 20 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
22. contaminating microorganisms including bacterial spores
A. true
B. false
151.heating milk at 63 c for about 30 min is known as the flash
process
A. true
B. false
152.heating milk at 63 c or 72 c then rapidly cooling it at 4 c is
known as
A. boiling
B. tyndallization
C. pasteurization
D. washing
153.Boiling for about 20 min is a very effective process that can
be used if a sterilizer is not available
A. true
B. false
154.exposure to steam for about 30 min for 3 successive days is a
process known as
A. pasteurization
B. boiling
C. tyndallization
155.Uv RADIATION is characterized by all of the following
except
A. low energy
B. poor penetraion
C. ionizing
D. is lethal to microorganisms under optimmum conditions
156............... is restricted to disinfection of surfaces such as
laboratory safety cabinets and some piped water supplies
A. disinfection by moist heat below or at 100 c
B. disinfection by UV radiation
C. tyndallization
D. disinfection of air by filtration
157.HEPA filters rapidly free large volumes of air from infectious
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 21 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
23. particles that are so tiny achieving efficiency of 99.99 %
A. true
B. false
158.chemicals used for environment are called disinfectants
A. true
B. false
159.Antiseptics can't be applied to the skin as they are so irritant
A. true
B. false
160............. are most easily killed by many disinfectants
A. Gram + bacteria
B. Gram - bacteria
161.working solutions should be renewed every day
A. true
B. false
162.the life of a disinfectant varies according to
A. its formulation
B. dilution with water
C. microbial load and organic material
D. all of the above
163.Disinfectants may not kill susceptible bacteria if these are
present in large number
A. true
B. false
164.the time for effective disinfection will vary with
A. the microbial load
B. organic matter
C. the pH
D. the nature of exposed surfaces
E. all of the above
165.Disinfectants should be mixed with other disinfectants or
cleaning solutions
A. true
B. false
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 22 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
24. 166.ILD is an agent that destroys all vegetative bacteria including
TB
A. true
B. false
167.ILD can destroy
A. TB
B. bacterial spores
C. both of them
D. none of them
168.the used concentration of alcohol is
A. 4%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 75%
169.Hibiscrub is chlorexidine in 70% alcohol
A. true
B. false
170.a clear soluble phenolic compound , its effectiveness is not
reduced by organic matter
A. Iodophors
B. Clorexidine gluconate
C. Isopropyl
D. Cidex
171.Iodine compounds are more effective than alcohol alone
A. true
B. false
172.Betadine.........
A. non-irritating
B. non-toxic
C. can be used on mucous membranes
D. all of the above
173.Endoscopes are decontaminated by
A. Dettol
B. Alcohol
C. Cidex
D. Hydrogen peroxide
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 23 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
25. 174.sterilization by moist heat causes destructive oxidation of of
essential cell constituets
A. true
B. false
175......... is the most efficient and reliable method of sterilization
A. sterilization by filteration
B. Incinerator
C. Autoclave
D. Hot air oven
176.moist heat kill microorganisms by coagulation and
denaturation their enzymes and structural proteins
A. true
B. false
177.all glassware are sterilized by
A. Incinirator
B. Autoclave
C. Hot air oven
D. filteration
178.Inoculating wires , loops and points of forceps are sterilized
by holding them in the flame of a Bunsen burner. this process is
known as
A. Flaming
B. Red heat
C. Incineration
179.the temperature of sterilization of the oven is..........for 1-2
hours
A. 120-125 c
B. 60-70 c
C. 160-170
180.Hot air oven is used to sterilize
A. oils
B. powders
C. carbon steel microsurgical instruments
D. all of the above
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 24 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
26. 181............... is used for the sterilization and disposal of
contaminated materials such as surgical dressing sharp needles
and other clinical waste
A. Autoclave
B. Incinerator
C. Hot air oven
D. Red heat
182.......... for sterilization of single use items
A. gamma radiation
B. Ethylene oxide sterilizer
C. both of them
D. none of them
183.the equipment and safety procedures required for gamma
radiation limit its use within hospitals
A. true
B. false
184.all of the following about Ethylene oxide are true except
A. non-corrosive
B. non-toxic
C. highly explosive
D. used for sterilization of single use items
185.Ethylene oxide gas is used at a temperature below 60 c
A. true
B. false
186.thermolabile parentral fluids such as antibiotic solutions
,radiopharmacuticals and blood are sterilized by filtration
A. true
B. false
187.autoclaves are sterilized by filters
A. true
B. false
188.chamberland filters are made of
A. asbestos
B. glass
C. porcelain
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 25 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
27. D. rubber
189.membrane filters are made of
A. glass
B. asbestos
C. cellulose
D. porcelain
190.these indicators are part of the autoclave or oven , allow you
to observe time and temperature
A. mechanical indicators
B. chemical indicators
C. biological indicators
191.chemical indicators directly measure effectiveness of
sterilization but they are not immediate and take a long period
A. true
B. false
192............... indicators are tapes with lines change color when
the intended temperature has been reached
A. mechanical
B. chemical
C. biological
193.The virus has its own protein synthesis machinery.
A. true
B. false
194.The state in which the host cell ruptures and releases newly
formed virions is called
A. Steady state
B. Integrated state
C. Latent state
D. none of the above
195.The state in which the viral genome remains in the host cell
and replicates with its genome without the production of virions
until it is activated is called
A. Latent state
B. lytic state
C. steady state
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 26 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
28. D. none of the above
196.The early transcription and translation phase of the virus
growth cycle results in the formation of all except
A. polymerase
B. regulatory proteins
C. structural proteins
D. none of the above
197.Enveloped viruses are released by budding.
A. true
B. false
198.Paramyxoviruses induce the host cell to fuse to neighbouring
cells to form a syncytia to spread the infection.
A. true
B. false
199.Immune response stimulated by the entry of antigen in the
body is in the form of
A. Antibody formation
B. Cell mediated immunity
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above
200.For a substance to be antigenic , it must be recognized by the
body as being
A. Self
B. Foreign
C. Known
D. None of the above
201.From types of antigens
A. Incomplete
B. Complete
C. Both a & b
202.Haptens are like :
A. Sulpha
B. Tranquillizers
C. Cosmetics
D. All of the above
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 27 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
29. 203.Hapten is capable by itself of producing an antibody
A. True
B. False
204.When hapten binds to body proteins it become antigenic and
stimulate Ab production
A. True
B. False
205.From types of complete antigens all of the following except
A. Auto antigens
B. Fungal antigens
C. Heterophile antigens
D. Viral antigens
E. Super antigens
206.As an example of iso-antigens
A. ABO system
B. “Rh” factor
C. HLA
D. All of the above
207.HLA are of viral importance in organ transplant
A. True
B. False
208.Bacterial antigens are like
A. Capsular
B. Flagellar
C. Somatic
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
209.All of the following are true concerning IgG except :
A. Consists of 4 polypeptide chains
B. Forms 75% of all Igs in the serum
C. A good agglutinating Ab
D. There are 4 subclasses
210.All of the following are false concerning IgM except :
A. Consists of 4 uits
B. Joined together by dissulphide bridges
C. Comprises about 17% of Igs in normal human serum
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 28 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
30. D. Appears early in the specific immune response
E. The lowest molecular weight
211.Choose the false statement about IgA :
A. Basic structural unit is similar to that of IgM
B. Forming 15% of the circulating Ig
C. May found as a dimer in secretions
D. Protects the mucous membrane from attack by bacteria and viruses
212.IgD found in a great concentration in body serum
A. True
B. False
213.IgD found mainly on the surface of T-lymphocyte
A. True
B. False
214.The Ab in the primary response is mainly of the IgG , but in
secondary is mainly IgM
A. True
B. False
215.Abs which cause clumbing of the cells is called
A. Precipitin
B. Fixing antibodies
C. Opsonins
D. Agglutinins
E. Non of the above
216.Neutralizing Ab render microorganisms especially bacteria
non infective
A. True
B. False
217.Incomplete antibodies bind to specific Ag and produce
visible effect
A. True
B. False
218.……… is the stable, heritable, non-infectious form of phage that
reproduces with the host cell.
A. mature phage
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 29 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
31. B. vegetative phage
C. prophage
D. temperate phage
219.……… exists outside the host cell and is metabolically inert
A. mature phage
B. vegetative phage
C. prophage
D. temperate phage
220.……… is the multiplying intracellular stage of virulent phage.
A. mature phage
B. vegetative phage
C. prophage
D. temperate phage
221.The nucleic acid of the bacteriophage is always single
stranded RNA.
A. true
B. false
222.Bacterial susceptibility to the phage is determined by
A. The ability to adsorb phage
B. The strength of the cell wall
C. The protein synthesis machinery
D. none of the above
223.Absence of cell wall in Mycoplasma is an example of innate
resistance of bacteria
A. true
B. false
224.innate property of bacteria is predictable
A. true
B. false
225.many bacteria that are metabolically inactive may be resistant
to drugs
A. true
B. false
226.an organism may lose its susceptibility to an antibiotic during
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 30 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
32. course of treatment
A. true
B. false
227.chromosomal mutation is most commonly resistant by virtue
of a change in a structural receptor for a drug
A. true
B. false
228.plasmid genes for antimicrobial resistance often control
formation of enzymes capable of destroying the antimicrobial
drugs
A. true
B. false
229.plasmids carry genes for production of B-lactamase so
bacteria become resistant to
A. penicillin
B. cephalosporins
C. amphotericin B
D. both a and b
E. both a and c
230.plasmids carry genes that code for enzymes that determine
the active transport of tetracyclines across cell membrane
A. true
B. false
231.bacteria may be resistant to chloramphenicol if they produce
a chloramphenicol acetyltransferase
A. true
B. false
232.microorganisms become resistant to drug by
A. producing enzymes that destroy active drug
B. changing the permeability to the drug
C. develop an altered metabolic pathway that bypass the reaction inhibited by the drug
D. all of the above
233.chromosomal resistance to aminoglycosides is associated
with the loss or alteration of a specific protein on the 50 S subunit
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 31 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
33. of the ribosome
A. true
B. false
234.emergence of drug resistance in infections may be minimized
by exposure of microorganisms to a particular valuable drug
A. true
B. false
235.simultaneously administer 2 drugs ,each of which delays the
emergence of mutants resistant to the other drug
A. true
B. false
236.All of the following are narrow spectrum antibacterial agents
that work on gram positive organisms except
A. Benzyl penicillin
B. Chloroamphenicole
C. Vancomycins
D. Macrolides
237.All of the following are broad spectrum antibacterial agents
except
A. Sulphonamides
B. Trimethoprim
C. Vancomycin
D. Tetracyclins
238.All of the following are narrow spectrum antibacterial agents
that work on gram negative organisms except
A. Amphicilin
B. Polymyxins
C. Nalidixic acid
D. Aminoglycosides
239.Are capable of inhibiting the growth or reproduction of
bacetria
A. Bactericidal
B. Bacteriostatic
C. Both
240.From selective inhibitors of bacterial cell wall synthesis
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 32 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
34. A. Cephalosporins
B. Penicilins
C. Monobactams
D. Carbanems
E. All of the previous
241.The initial step in drug action consists of binding the drug to
the receptors
A. True
B. False
242.PBPs are under chrosomal control
A. True
B. False
243.Bacitracin inhibit early steps in protein synthesis
A. True
B. False
244.All antibiotics working on the cell wall synthesis are
effective ONLY on growing cells
A. True
B. False
245.One advantage of the inhibition of cell wall function that they
are lethal to non growing bacteria
A. True
B. False
246.Polymyxins are toxic to the kidneys and more toxic on the
CNS
A. True
B. False
247.Drugs acting on 30S
A. Macrolides
B. Streptomycin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Linomycins
248.Inhibit bacterial growth by binding to the DNA dependent
RNA
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 33 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
35. A. Quinolones
B. Rifampin
C. Sulphonamides
D. Trimethoprim
249.Inhibit bacterial gyrase
A. Quinolones
B. Rifampin
C. Sulphonamids
D. Trimethoprim
250.Used as a precursor for folic acid
A. Quinolones
B. Rifampin
C. Sulphonamides
D. Trimethoprim
251.Inhibit dihydrofolic acid reductase
A. Quinolones
B. Rifampin
C. Sulphonamides
D. Trimethoprim
252.Genetics is the study of hereditery
A. true
B. false
253.the unit of hereditery is
A. plasmid
B. chromosome
C. gene
D. chromatin
254.a segment of DNA that carries in its nucleotide sequence
information for a specific property
A. chromosome
B. plasmid
C. gene
D. none of the above
255.baterial genes are carried only on the bacterial chromosomes
A. true
B. false
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 34 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
36. 256.plasmids of bacteria carry genes essential for survival of
bacteria
A. true
B. false
257.DNA in bacteria are present in
A. chromosome
B. plasmids
C. transposable elements
D. all of the above
258.a single supercoiled circular double-stranded helix of DNA
molecule
A. plasmid
B. gene
C. chromosome
D. pili
259.plasmids may exist as a separate replication or integrated in
the chromosome
A. true
B. false
260.plasmids that are integrated in the chromosomes are called
episomes
A. true
B. false
261.plasmids can code for
A. toxin production
B. some surface antigen
C. bacteriocines
D. antibiotic resistance
E. all of the above
262.some plasmids in Gram +ve bacteria carry genes for self
transfer and are called conjugative plasmids
A. true
B. false
263.transposable elements do not contain genetic information
necessary for their own replication
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 35 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
37. A. true
B. false
264.......... are transposable segments of DNA containing genes
beyond those needed for transposition
A. transposons
B. IS elements
265.transposons are responsible for the spread of antibiotic
resistance
A. true
B. false
266.IS elements are much larger than transposons
A. true
B. false
267.phenotypic variation
A. is heritable
B. genes are not altered
C. genes expression is changed
D. both a and b
E. both b and c
268.genotypic variation results from genetic alteration so it's
heritable
A. true
B. false
269.change in gene sequence is known as
A. transposition
B. transformation
C. transduction
D. mutation
270.mutation can be induced by
A. UVR
B. ionizing agents
C. Nitrous oxide
D. all of them
E. all except c
271.transfer of DNA between bacterial cells can be done by
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 36 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
38. A. transformation
B. transduction
C. conjugation
D. all of the above
272............ involves the release of DNA into environment by
lysis of some cells , followed by direct uptake of that DNA by
recepient cells
A. transduction
B. transformation
C. conjugation
273.any gene may be transferred by transformation as any portion
of the chromosome DNA may be taken up by the recipient cells
A. true
B. false
274.A type of genetic transfer depends mainly on bacteriophages
A. conjugation
B. transduction
C. transformation
D. mutation
275.transducing phages transfer chromosomal and
extrachromosomal DNA
A. true
B. false
276.it's a plasmid mediated transfer of DNA from donor to
recipient bacteria through direct wall to wall contact
A. transduction
B. transformation
C. mutation
D. conjugation
277.in conjugation , recipient cell must contain a conjugative
plasmid called sex plasmid
A. true
B. false
278.F+ cell must carry
A. F-factor
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 37 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
39. B. sex plasmid
C. fertility factor
D. all of the above
279.plasmid transfer in G-ve bacteria begins by extrusion of a sex
pilus from F+cell to be attached to the surface of F- cell
A. true
B. false
280.a successful gene transfer between bacteria must not be
followed by recombination step
A. true
B. false
281.tissue Ag is called
A. major histocompatibilty (MHC)
B. membrane attack complex (MAC)
C. human leuckocyte antigen
D. a&c
282.MHC present on chromosome
A. 6
B. 7
C. x
D. 21
283.MHC class I determined by
A. region D
B. region between D&B
C. region A
D. region B&c
E. C&D
284.the class that not concerned with graft reaction
A. I
B. II
C. III
285.class I MHC antigen include
A. HLA_DP
B. HLA_DQ
C. HLA_DR
D. HLA_DM
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 38 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
40. E. none of the above
286...................... will triggered when they recognize both Ag &
class I MHC
A. t_helper cell
B. T_cell
C. B_cell
D. plasma cell
287.All of the following are examples od APCs except
A. monocyte
B. macrophage
C. dendritic cell
D. neutophils
288.HLA-B8 its presence associated with
A. myasthenia gravis
B. multiple sclerosis
C. rheumatoid arthritis
D. typhoid fever
289.complement components are synthesized by all the following
except
A. hepatic parenchymal cell
B. monocyte
C. lymphocyte
D. macrophage
290.complement activation occur by
A. classical pathway
B. alternativepathway
C. a&c
291.the key protein that is common to the 2 pathways is
A. c5a
B. c5b
C. c9
D. c3
292.classical pathway is initiated by
A. Ag_Ab compllex
B. in absence of Ab
C. in absence of Ag
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 39 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
41. 293.the alternative pathway is
A. 1st line of defense
B. occurs in the absence of Ab
C. triggered by presence of aggregated IgA
D. all of the above
294.the biologic function of complement system is all of the
following except
A. cell lysis
B. opsonization
C. cell deactivation
D. inflammatory function
295.antigen_antibody complexes are phagocytosed more
efficiently in presence of
A. c3a
B. c3b
C. c5a
D. c5b
296............. can produce degranulation of mast cell
A. c3a
B. c3b
C. c5a
D. c5b
E. a&c
Answers:
1.d
2.a
3.b
4.d
5.d
6.c
7.d
8.a
Infection & Immunity - Microbiology Quiz 40 of 49 Alex School of Medicine - ASM
