6 reading practice test for the SSAT upper

6 READING PRACTICE TESTS FOR THE SSAT UPPER
Unauthorized coping or reuse of any part of this eBook is illegal.
Copyright September 2012
SSAT Upper Reading only!
SSAT Upper Reading only!
*** Other SSAT Elementary / Middle / Upper exam preparation materials
from “Test Masters” are available for your Amazon Kindle.
Word Count: 26,300
This Kindle eBook only contains SSAT Upper Level READING selections
and questions. The actual SSAT Upper Level contains Math, Verbal and
Writing sections as well, but this eBook does NOT cover those sections.
This Kindle eBook is intended for use by current EIGHTH, NINTH and
TENTH graders applying for private schools that require the SSAT Upper.
SSAT Upper Level readings (40 Questions – 40 Minutes) include narratives
(excerpts from novels / short stories / poetry) and essays. Passages are also
drawn from humanities (arts / biographies / poetry), social science (history /
economics / sociology) and science (medicine / astronomy / zoology).
The four main types of Reading questions are:
– Identifying the Main Idea ( Author’s Purpose / Best Title )
– Locating Details
– Drawing Inferences
– Identifying Tone or Mood
In our experience, SSAT Upper Level reading selections and questions are
comparable to high school graduate equivalency and sometimes college
entrance standardized reading tests. Therefore, students should take their
time at first and always look back to the passage for answers. With adequate
practice, all students can become proficient at answering the main types of
SSAT reading questions.

What is the purpose of these 6 SSAT Upper Level READING Practice
Tests?
A pervasive characteristic of SSAT private school admission exams is that
they are very difficult, oftentimes featuring test questions one to four grade
levels above your child’s current public or private school curriculum. The
SSAT targets a small, highly competitive group of students applying for top
private schools across the nation.
Using our years of experience developing training guides for a national test
preparation company, we’ve created SSAT study materials that closely
approximate the sequence, scope, phrasing and difficulty level of actual
exams. We’ve accomplished this through years of meticulous research into
individual SSAT test questions and through information acquired from
former test participants.
The practice tests, used at schools and tutorial centers, show you how to
compute your child’s Raw Score and identify its corresponding Scaled
Score which can be compared (if available) to the average SSAT scaled score
ranges of students admitted to a top private school near you. Thousands of
applicants have worked through the 240 SSAT Upper Level Reading practice
problems contained within this Kindle eBook to enhance their candidacies in
the private school admission process.
How do I use this Kindle eBook?
Administer the practice tests to your child, keeping in mind the time
constraints for each section. Students are PENALIZED one-fourth point
for each incorrect response. Therefore, on an actual SSAT exam, all
unsolvable questions should be skipped. Wild guessing is arguably the
greatest contributor to low scores.
Some parents choose not to time their child at first. Instead, they allow for an
adjustment period to become accustomed to the style and difficulty level of
the Reading selections and questions. Have your child attempt all unfinished
problems. The parent or tutor should review all incorrect responses with the

child.
Use the Answer Keys at the beginning of this eBook to record the number of
correct / wrong responses for each practice test. This eBook shows you how
to compute your child’s Raw Score and then identify the corresponding
Scaled Score. To help parents gauge their child’s standing, some top private
schools provide average scaled score ranges for students admitted for the
previous school year.
Parents should not overreact to “lower-than-expected” results. (Easy for us to
say!) In addition to SSAT scores, most private schools take into account
academic performance, teacher / counselor / coach recommendations,
extracurricular activities and the personal interview / essay / portfolio in their
admissions decision. But, of course, high SSAT scores help immensely.
Remember that every child can improve his or her SSAT performance with
the right mix of effort, instruction, materials, experience and encouragement!
The RAW SCORE to SCALED SCORE Conversion Chart below is a “best
approximation” or “happy medium” based on thousands of student test
results. For the actual SSAT, Raw to Scaled Score conversions can vary
from test to test as there are “harder” and “easier” test months each with a
different conversion formula.
How do I calculate my child’s RAW SCORE?
RAW SCORE = Total Number Correct (Out of 40) – Total Number Wrong
Divided by 4
Reading Raw Score of 40 = SSAT Upper Scaled Score of 800

ANSWER Key – Reading Practice Test 1 (40 Questions: #1 thru #40)
1. B
2. D

3. C
4. E
5. A
6. C
7. C
8. B
9. E
10. D
11. D
12. A
13. B
14. E
15. C
16. D
17. E
18. A
19. C
20. B
21. D
22. E
23. C
24. A
25. B
26. E
27. D
28. C
29. B
30. D
31. C
32. D
33. B

34. E
35. D
36. D
37. D
38. E
39. C
40. B
201. B
202. D
203. C
204. A
205. E
206. D
207. C
208. D
209. B
210. A
211. C
212. D
213. E
214. B
215. A
216. B
217. C
218. E
219. A
220. D
221. B
222. A

223. D
224. C
225. E
226. A
227. E
228. C
229. D
230. B
231. E
232. A
233. B
234. C
235. D
236. A
237. D
238. B
239. E
240. C
301. B
302. E
303. D
304. A
305. C
306. D
307. C
308. E
309. A
310. B
311. C

312. B
313. E
314. D
315. A
316. D
317. A
318. B
319. E
320. C
321. E
322. D
323. A
324. C
325. B
326. D
327. A
328. C
329. E
330. B
331. D
332. B
333. E
334. C
335. A
336. C
337. A
338. D
339. E
340. B

401. C
402. D
403. B
404. E
405. C
406. B
407. D
408. A
409. E
410. C
411. C
412. A
413. E
414. B
415. D
416. E
417. A
418. C
419. B
420. D
421. D
422. B
423. E
424. A
425. C
426. B
427. E
428. C
429. D
430. A
431. E

432. B
433. C
434. D
435. A
436. E
437. D
438. C
439. B
440. A
501. A
502. B
503. C
504. E
505. D
506. A
507. D
508. C
509. B
510. E
511. B
512. D
513. B
514. C
515. E
516. E
517. C
518. B
519. D
520. A

521. A
522. C
523. B
524. E
525. D
526. A
527. C
528. E
529. D
530. B
531. B
532. E
533. D
534. C
535. A
536. A
537. D
538. C
539. E
540. B
601. A
602. D
603. E
604. C
605. B
606. E
607. D
608. E
609. A
610. C

611. D
612. B
613. A
614. E
615. C
616. D
617. A
618. E
619. B
620. C
621. A
622. C
623. E
624. D
625. B
626. C
627. E
628. B
629. A
630. D
631. E
632. B
633. A
634. C
635. D
636. A
637. E
638. D
639. B
640. C

SSAT UPPER LEVEL – READING PRACTICE TEST #1 (40 Questions
– 40 Minutes)
SSAT Upper Level – Reading Practice Test 1 (for Questions #1 thru #5)
A government office confirmed that the bird flu outbreak in a farm
town in South Korea was of the H5 strain, but further tests are needed to
determine whether it was the deadly N1 type. South Korea has had three
outbreaks of the bird flu virus at chicken and quail farms. This has resulted in
the slaughter of more than one million poultry in an attempt to keep the
disease from spreading. Although some complained, South Korean farmers
have been largely cooperative in the government’s decision to cull the birds
as the government later paid them for their losses.
Most of the 154 people who have died worldwide from the bird flu
virus came into direct contact with infected birds. Experts fear the virus could
mutate into a form that becomes easily passed among people, potentially
starting a human pandemic. Indonesia, which was the worst hit by the bird flu
virus, initially protested against having to slaughter birds in infected areas
and vaccinate flocks, citing a lack of funds. But it recently launched a large-
scale public education campaign, including TV commercials, urging people
to wash their hands after coming into contact with poultry and to report sick
or dying birds to authorities.
1. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as being used to help stop the
spread of the bird flu?
(A) Cleansing hands after touching poultry
(B) Thoroughly cooking meat before eating
(C) Telling authorities about sick or dying birds
(D) Educating the public through the media
(E) Slaughtering sick birds
2. The word cull at the end of the first paragraph most closely means
(A) redirect
(B) sanitize
(C) devour

(D) collect
(E) verify
3. The style of the passage is most like that found in a
(A) novel about the bird flu
(B) agriculturalists’ diary
(C) newspaper article
(D) journal on pandemics
(E) science textbook
4. According to the passage, Indonesia did which of the following?
I. Complained about having to kill birds
II. Reported cases of the virus in two provinces
III. Used television to tell people about the bird flu
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I and III only
5. It can be inferred from the passage that
(A) the bird flu virus can change into a more deadly form
(B) humid Southeast Asian weather helps spread the flu
(C) radio messages are not as useful as TV commercials
(D) the H5 strain spreads faster than the N1 strain
(E) farmers should not accept help from the government
GO ON TO THE NEXT SELECTION
Historians place Caesar on the level of such military greats as
Alexander the Great, Hannibal, Genghis Khan, Napoleon Bonaparte and

Saladin. Although he suffered a few defeats, Caesar’s brilliance in war was
highlighted by the conquering of Alesia during the Gallic War, the defeat of
Pompey’s numerically superior forces at Pharsalus during the Civil War, and
the complete destruction of Pharnaces’ army at the Battle of Zela.
Caesar’s success on any land and under all weather conditions owes
much to the strict but fair discipline of his soldiers. Their admiration and
devotion to him were widely known due to his promotion of those of skill
over those of nobility. Additional factors that made him effective in war were
his army’s advanced engineering abilities and the legendary speed with
which he moved his troops. Caesar’s army sometimes marched as many as 40
miles a day. During an attack on one Gallic city built on a very steep and high
plateau, Caesar’s engineers were able to tunnel through solid rock. They
found the source of the spring that the town was drawing its water supply
from, and redirected it to their own army. The town, cut off from their water
supply, capitulated at once.
-
Wikipedia
6. The author’s main goal in this passage is to
(A) list several of Rome’s greatest military battles.
(B) compare Caesar against other military masterminds.
(C) report about Caesar’s great skill in war.
(D) describe Caesar’s defeat of a Gallic city.
(E) discuss the political motives of Caesar.
7. As used in the last line, capitulated most closely means
(A) attacked
(B) conquered
(C) surrendered
(D) abandoned
(E) passed away
8. Which of the following is true regarding the battle of Pharsalus during the
Civil War?

(A) Pompey’s body was never found.
(B) Caesar’s army was outnumbered.
(C) It was the last major conflict of the Civil War.
(D) Caesar could not take full credit for this victory.
(E) It occurred at the same time as the Battle of Zela.
9. According to the first few sentences of the second paragraph, Caesar’s
policy of basing promotion on skill rather than social position
(A) angered members of the Senate back in Rome.
(B) allowed his men to focus on war rather than politics.
(C) was his most admirable quality as a military leader.
(D) eased the suffering of the soldier’s family in Rome.
(E) helped gain him the favor and loyalty of his men.
10. According to the passage, Caesar’s engineers
I. fought despite limited water supplies.
II. were very highly skilled.
III. once tunneled through solid rock.
(A) II only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III
On August 16, 1896, George Washington Carmack and two Indian
friends in the Yukon pried a gold nugget from the bed of Rabbit Creek, a
tributary of Canada’s Klondike River, and set in motion one of the most
frenzied and famous gold rushes in history. Over the next two years, at least
100,000 eager would-be prospectors from all over the world set out for the
new gold fields with dreams of a quick fortune dancing in their heads. Only

about 40,000 actually made it to the Klondike, and a precious few ever found
their fortune.
Swept along on this tide of gold seekers was a smaller and more
clever group, also seeking their fortunes but in a far more practical way. They
were the entrepreneurs, the people who made business from Klondike fever.
George Carmack, the man who began it all, was neither a die-hard
prospector nor a keen businessman. The California native was simply in the
right place at the right time. Not that this son of a Forty-Niner had anything
against being rich. But, like most of the white men who drifted north in the
1870s and ‘80s, he came as much for the solitude as for the gold.
-Gary L. Blackwood
11. The “entrepreneurs” mentioned in the second paragraph most likely
(A) wanted to explore the uncharted lands of the Yukon.
(B) traveled with the gold seekers as guides.
(C) knew all the “hot spots” for gold nuggets.
(D) sold housing and prospecting tools to gold seekers.
(E) were friends and relatives of George Carmack.
12. Which of the following will the author most likely discuss next?
(A) The history of gold in the Yukon.
(B) A detailed life story of George Carmack.
(C) The origins of Canadian exploration.
(D) Why gold holds so much value.
(E) The geography of Rabbit Creek.
13. This passage is primarily about
(A) the early career of George Carmack.
(B) a single discovery that started a gold rush.
(C) techniques on how to find gold nuggets.
(D) the history of gold prospecting in the U.S.
(E) the people who journeyed to the Yukon.
14. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that George Carmack

(A) later regretted discovering his famous gold nugget.
(B) became known as a great Forty-Niner.
(C) passed away either in the 1870s or 1880s.
(D) continued to find gold for many years.
(E) also came to Klondike to avoid crowded city life.
15. According to the passage, why did people travel to Klondike after
Carmack found the nugget?
I. They hoped to meet George Carmack.
II. They wanted to make money off the prospectors.
III. They also wanted to find gold.
(A) III only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II and III
I’ve come this far to freedom and I won’t turn back
I’m climbing to the highway from my old dirt track
I’m coming and I’m going
And I’m stretching and I’m growing
And I’ll reap what I’ve been sowing or my skin’s not black
I’ve prayed and slaved and waited and I’ve sung my song
You’ve bled me and you’ve starved me but I’ve still grown strong
You’ve lashed me and you’ve treed me
And you’ve everything but freed me
But in time you’ll know you need me and it won’t be long.
I’ve seen the daylight breaking high above the bough

I’ve found my destination and I’ve made my vow;
so whether you abhor me
Or deride me or ignore me
Mighty mountains loom before me and I won’t stop now.
-Naomi Long Madgett
16. Which of the following words best characterizes the poet?
(A) furious
(B) mournful
(C) victorious
(D) determined
(E) obedient
17. In the poem, the narrator’s life can best be described as a(n)
(A) brisk journey
(B) cautionary tale
(C) educational experience
(D) hazardous highway
(E) uphill climb
18. All of the following are used by the poet to overcome slavery EXCEPT
(A) strength in numbers
(B) belief in God
(C) patience
(D) keeping a merry heart
(E) surviving physical hardship
19. The poet believes she will reach her goal because
(A) there are many more slaves than slave owners.
(B) the Civil War is finally coming to an end.
(C) her oppressors will need her one day.
(D) she will find safety behind mighty mountains.
(E) the government will pass laws abolishing slavery.

20. The pattern of rhyme in this poem is most similar to:
(A) Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday
(B) apple, apple, banana, banana, apple
(C) black, white, black, white, black
(D) day, day, day, night, night
(E) girl, boy, boy, girl, girl
As early as 1939, scientists Leo Szilard and Albert Einstein had
urged President Franklin D. Roosevelt to begin government-sponsored
research to develop an atomic bomb for the United States. They knew that the
German effort, led by their former colleague, the brilliant Nobel laureate
Werner Heisenberg, could be a great threat. As it turned out, Germany was
unsuccessful, perhaps because Adolf Hitler was more interested in
developing rockets than nuclear weapons. But that was in the future, and the
only future the physicists in America could see at that point was the danger of
a German atomic bomb.
In response to the plea of Einstein and Szilard, FDR initiated a
modest program of uranium research. By June 1940, interest in uranium had
increased to the point that the president created a larger organization, the
National Defense Research Committee. He named as director Vannevar
Bush, the president of the Carnegie Institution in Washington, D.C. The
slowly growing effort gained further strength in 1941 from a startling British
document. Based on British nuclear research, the report stated that a very
small amount of uranium could produce an explosion similar to that of
several thousand tons of TNT. Roosevelt responded by creating a still larger
organization, the Office of Scientific Research and Development, which
would mobilize scientific resources to create an atomic weapon.
-Robert LaRue
21. As it is used in the last sentence, “mobilize” most nearly means

(A) transport
(B) investigate
(C) clutter
(D) assemble
(E) construct
22. This passage is primarily concerned with
(A) Szilard and Einstein’s role in scientific research.
(B) why Germany failed to build the atomic bomb.
(C) various types of wartime organizations.
(D) important decisions made by President Roosevelt.
(E) the early background of a powerful weapon.
23. All of the following were motivating factors for America to build the
atomic bomb EXCEPT:
(A) A German bomb would be a direct threat to the U.S.
(B) A report showed the bomb’s devastating effects.
(C) Adolf Hitler made the atomic bomb a top priority.
(D) An increased interest in the benefits of uranium.
(E) Their chief enemy in war was also trying to build it.
24. It can be inferred that Leo Szilard and Albert Einstein
(A) believed Heisenberg was a very good scientist.
(B) upset President Roosevelt with their constant pleas.
(C) directed the National Defense Research Committee.
(D) were suspicious of other American scientists.
(E) eventually gave up on atomic bomb research.
25. According to the passage, President Franklin D. Roosevelt
(A) believed Adolf Hitler was not a major threat.
(B) made atomic bomb research increasingly important.
(C) attempted to accumulate large amounts of uranium.
(D) was a close friend of Director Vannevar Bush.

(E) was the United States president for about two years.
It was Sunday afternoon. Beth was driving down the main street in
her community. It would be one of the most difficult days to get through
following the loss of Katie. Everywhere Beth looked, reminders of this
special occasion, Mother’s Day, decorated the fronts of stores, magazines and
flower shops. They all exhibited heartwarming advertisements of ways to
honor mothers. For Beth, a mother who had gone through the pain of losing a
daughter, these reminders continued to add hurt to a soul already grieving for
a child she loved so much.
Inside her home, Beth swathed her left palm and fingers around
Brad’s tiny cranium, and finished tucking in her infant son. Brad was only
nine months old, a stage when a young one is so vulnerable to the evils of the
world, but Beth intuitively knew her second child would be safe. She had
acquired this comforting through prayer. God had promised, she believed,
that nothing would happen to Brad. Her lone remaining child would see his
ninth birthday and beyond. He would graduate from high school, then
college, and set off into the world. He would live on past the deaths of his
parents.
Beth moved towards the carpeted staircase and walked downward
upon its steps one by one. There were family pictures hanging on the wall,
the times past they represented looking back upon her as she made the
discomfiting descent to the living room. Why was the emotional pain of
losing a child so severe? Why had God fused a mother’s love and a
daughter’s trust through potent spiritual intimacy only to allow the
severance of the bond with a single senseless gust of evil? Was this a test
and if so, were Beth and Lono facing the consequences of a sin as King
David had with the murder of Uriah?
26. In the last paragraph, Beth is
(A) trying to forget painful times of the past.
(B) hanging pictures of her daughter on the wall.

(C) searching for the right grief counselor.
(D) studying the history of King David and Uriah.
(E) struggling with why she lost her daughter.
27. All of the following add to Beth’s hurt EXCEPT
(A) memories evoked by pictures on the wall.
(B) going through Mother’s Day without her daughter.
(C) guilty feelings from possible disobedience to God.
(D) knowing her daughter will not graduate from school.
(E) the lingering pain of losing a family member.
(A) Beth’s daughter is older than nine years old.
(B) Beth is a single parent with one son.
(C) King David had also lost a child.
(D) Mother’s Day rarely falls on a Sunday.
(E) Beth’s daughter has been missing for some time.
29. The question, “Why had God fused…gust of evil?” in the last paragraph
refers to
(A) the momentary victory of evil over motherly love.
(B) a girl’s precious birth and later wasteful death.
(C) similarities between royal and normal families.
(D) the time it takes for emotional pain to subside.
(E) the nature of bonds between mothers and daughters.
After several turns, he sat down again. As he threw his head back in
the chair, his glance happened to rest upon a bell, a disused bell, which hung
in the room, and communicated for some purpose now forgotten with a
chamber in the highest story of the building. It was with great astonishment,

and with a strange, inexplicable dread, that as he looked, he saw this bell
begin to swing. It swung so softly in the outset that it scarcely made a sound;
but soon it rang out loudly, and so did every bell in the house.
This might have lasted half a minute, or a minute, but it seemed an
hour. The bells ceased as they had begun, together. They were succeeded by
a clanking noise, deep down below; as if some person were dragging a heavy
chain over the casks in the wine-merchant’s cellar. Scrooge then remembered
to have heard that ghosts in haunted houses were described as dragging
chains.
The cellar-door flew open with a booming sound, and then he heard
the noise much louder, on the floors below; then coming up the stairs; then
coming straight towards his door.
“It’s humbug still!” said Scrooge. “I won’t believe it.”
His color changed though, when, without a pause, it came on through
the heavy door, and passed into the room before his eyes. Upon its coming in,
the dying flame leaped up, as though it cried, “I know him! Marley’s Ghost!”
and fell again.
-Charles Dickens
30. Most of the events in this passage take place as Scrooge is
(A) reading a book in his den.
(B) finishing work in his office.
(C) working in a store full of bells.
(D) sitting on a chair in his home.
(E) visiting a house that is haunted.
31. All of the following contribute to the suspense of the story EXCEPT
(A) clanking noises of a heavy chain being dragged.
(B) the very loud sound of the cellar door opening.
(C) faint cries from the highest story in the building.
(D) something mysterious moving towards Scrooge’s door.
(E) bells starting to ring all by themselves.
32. According to the passage, the first bell that began to swing

(A) was used by Scrooge as a type of fire alarm.
(B) rang loudly at first and then diminished in volume.
(C) was apparently the only bell in the building.
(D) had been used to communicate with another room.
(E) was frantically shaken by Scrooge out of sheer fright.
33. According to the selection, which of the following probably affected
Scrooge the most?
(A) The clanking sound of chains in the wine cellar.
(B) The sight of Marley’s ghost passing through a door.
(C) The report of ghosts living in haunted houses.
(D) The deafening noise of bells stopping all at once.
(E) An unidentified sound closing in on Scrooge’s location.
(A) Marley’s ghost has visited Scrooge many times.
(B) the ringing of the bells lasted for about an hour.
(C) Scrooge’s home would be an easy target for robbers.
(D) Marley is the original owner of Scrooge’s home.
(E) Scrooge does not reside in a one-story house.
35. All of the following words can be used to describe the mood of this
passage EXCEPT:
(A) mysterious
(B) absorbing
(C) escalating
(D) dynamic
(E) frightening
Miami, Puerto Rico and Bermuda are prime holiday destinations

boasting sun, beaches and coral seas. But between these idyllic settings, there
is a dark side: countless ships and planes have mysteriously gone missing in
the one and a half million square miles of ocean separating them. About 60
years ago, the area was claiming about five planes every day and was
nicknamed the Bermuda Triangle by a magazine in 1964. Today, about that
many planes disappear in the region each year and there are a number of
theories explaining what could be happening.
Twins George and David Rothschild are among the first passengers
to have experienced bizarre effects in the Bermuda Triangle. In 1952, when
they were 19 years old, the two naval men had to make an emergency trip
home on a navy light aircraft, north over the Florida Keys, to attend their
father’s funeral. They had been flying for probably 20 or 30 minutes when all
of a sudden the pilot yelled out that the instruments were dead and he became
very frantic. The pilot had lost his bearings, and not only did he not know
where he was, he also had no idea how much gas was left in the fuel tanks.
After what seemed like hours, they landed safely in Norfolk, on the Florida
coast.
Some speculate that it had nothing to do with the location, but rather
the instruments that were available at the time. Pilot Robert Grant says that
back in the 1940s, navigating a plane involved a lot of guesswork since they
relied completely on a magnetic compass to guide them. ‘Dead reckoning’
was used, which means that pilots would trust their compass and then
estimate how the wind would influence their planned flight path to remain on
track. “No matter what your mind tells you, you must stay on that course,”
says Grant. “If you don’t, and you start turning to wherever you think you
should be going, then you’re toast.”
-Sandrine Ceurstemont
36. Which of the following is the best title for the selection?
(A) Perils of Miami, Puerto Rico, and Bermuda
(B) The Rothschild Incident
(C) Danger in the Open Seas
(D) Mysteries of the Bermuda Triangle
(E) Was it Location or Instruments?
37. The Rothschilds’ pilot became “frantic” for which of the following

reasons?
I. He did not know how much gas he had left.
II. The plane had arrived in the wrong place.
III. He lost his sense of direction.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) II and III only
38. Which of the following is the author most likely to discuss next?
(A) Other incidences of missing planes around the world.
(B) The advantages of spending the holidays in Bermuda.
(C) A detailed account of the Rothschild flight.
(D) What pilots can do in the event of an emergency.
(E) The weather conditions near the island of Bermuda.
39. This passage
(A) establishes a debate and then shows both sides of the argument.
(B) proposes a theory and then provides evidence on why it could be false.
(C) introduces a phenomenon and then offers insight based on facts.
(D) provides a conclusion and then moves on to different topics.
(E) describes a historical problem and then presents a few modern-day
solutions.
40. ‘Dead reckoning’ as described in the last paragraph is most like
(A) a chef looking for all the right ingredients for a very special dish.
(B) a blind girl trying to find her way by the sound of her mother’s voice.
(C) a coach devising a strategy on how to win without his best player.
(D) a politician searching for the proper words for a campaign speech.
(E) a surgeon using a new medical procedure to save a patient’s life.

STOP! DO NOT GO ON TO THE NEXT SECTION
SSAT UPPER LEVEL – READING PRACTICE TEST # 2 (40 Questions
– 40 Minutes)
SSAT Upper Level – Reading Practice Test 2 (for Questions #201 thru
#205)
Dance schools often participate in dance competitions by sponsoring
teams that go to regional and national competitions. Competitive dancing
requires many months of dedication practicing and developing dance
routines. During competitions, dancers perform in front of judges who
evaluate their efforts and score each routine. The ranks awarded by different
judges are combined into a final score, and medals or trophies are awarded
accordingly.
Each routine is required to comply with certain rules. It must enter a
category which is consistent with the music, style, content, and dancers of the
routine. A common limitation is the number of dancers. There are different
categories for solos, duos & trios, small groups (4-9), large groups (10-19),
and super groups (20 or more). Other grouping factors include average age of
the dancer, average number of hours a week the dancer dances, appropriate
music, and style of dance. Routines which fail to comply with the
requirements the competition has laid out will be disqualified.
-Wikipedia
201. The author’s main purpose for writing the passage is
(A) to explain how dance schools help dancers.
(B) to inform people about dance competitions.
(C) to compare regional and national contests.
(D) to describe the basic rules of dance routines.
(E) to encourage dancers to enter tournaments.
202. It can be inferred that dance competitors who do not follow rules
(A) are usually the most inexperienced dancers.

(B) can still win but must forfeit prizes.
(C) were not properly trained by dance schools.
(D) can be eliminated from competition.
(E) should be limited to the “no rules” category.
203. According to the passage, how are dance schools involved in dance
competitions?
(A) They provide judges for regional competitions.
(B) They educate participants on tournament rules.
(C) They help pay for travel to national contests.
(D) They aid dancers in locating competitions.
(E) They offer discounts on trophies and medals.
204. As it is used at the end of the first paragraph, the word accordingly most
nearly means
(A) appropriately
(B) especially
(C) visibly
(D) differently
(E) hurriedly
205. According to the passage, dance competition rules are based on which of
the following?
I. Amount of practice hours
II. Size of the dance group
III. The music must match the routine
(A) II only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II and III

#210)
Think Minnesota gets cold?
Try Titan, another land of a thousand lakes. Saturn’s haze-shrouded
moon is an exotic land of liquid methane lakes. First spotted by the
international Cassini spacecraft, the lakes explain the clouds that cover the
mysterious Titan. At minus 290 degrees on its surface, Titan’s weather is a
chilly model of Earth’s climate, with methane rains and rivers falling and
flowing into lakes, which evaporate once more to form the moon’s clouds.
Confirmation of the lakes’ existence is the latest success in the
Cassini mission, which arrived at Saturn, the second-largest planet, in 2004.
The spacecraft has provided information on Saturn’s rings, discovered new
moons and found an interesting watery geyser on the small moon Enceledus.
Titan, whose atmosphere behaves in ways similar to Earth’s, is a great
scientific opportunity. Seventeen more flybys of the moon are planned for
2006.
At 3,200 miles wide, Titan is the second-largest moon in the solar
system. It has fascinated scientists since its hazy atmosphere was
photographed by Voyager probes in the early 1980s. Methane, which is
known on Earth as natural gas, in Titan’s lakes fills a role played by oceans
on our planet. The materials may be different, and certainly the temperatures,
but a lot of the basic physical processes, which control any weather cycle, are
similar.
-Dan Vergano
206. Titan and Earth have all of the following in common EXCEPT:
(A) They both experience evaporation.
(B) They both have an atmosphere.
(C) They both have liquid lakes.
(D) They both have their own moons.
(E) They both have rainfall.
207. The primary purpose of the third paragraph (“Confirmation of the lakes’
existence…”) is to

(A) explain how lakes form on Titan’s surface.
(B) clarify a few of the mysteries of Saturn ring’s.
(C) describe the findings of a spacecraft mission.
(D) compare the surface features of two moons.
(E) understand how scientists study moons and planets.
208. In the last paragraph, the author uses an analogy to illustrate that
methane in Titan’s lakes
(A) are the source of Titan’s clouds.
(B) can be photographed by Voyager probes.
(C) are an essential part of Titan’s weather cycle.
(D) serve a similar purpose to oceans on Earth.
(E) are unlike the lakes of Minnesota.
209. It can be inferred from the text that scientists are interested in Titan
because
(A) its closeness to Earth allows for more missions.
(B) it has similar atmospheric processes to Earth.
(C) its unique climate helps predict weather on Earth.
(D) it is the largest moon in the solar system.
(E) it was formed in the same way as Earth’s moon.
(A) The additional findings of a recent Titan flyby.
(B) The differences between methane and natural gas.
(C) The atmospheric conditions on Enceledus.
(D) The technical framework of the Cassini spacecraft.
(E) Climatic differences between Minnesota and Titan.
#215)

What is Weir Like?
The skies they were ashen and sober;
The leaves they were crisped and sere—
The leaves they were withering and sere:
It was night in the Lonesome October
Of my most immemorial year;
It was hard by the dim lake of Auber;
In the misty mid region of Weir—
It was down by the dank tarn of Auber
In the ghoul-haunted woodland of Weir
-from “Ulalume” by Edgar Allen Poe
211. The author uses adjectives throughout the passage to
(A) reveal his fondness of Auber.
(B) foreshadow his death in October.
(C) establish the mood of Weir.
(D) hide the true feelings of the main character.
(E) build to the climax of Ulalume.
212. The words “ashen” (line 1) and “sere” (line 2-3), respectively, most
nearly mean
(A) stormy and rough
(B) pale and moist
(C) distant and abundant
(D) gray and dry
(E) sunny and wrinkled
213. All of the following are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT
(A) nature displaying the changing of the seasons
(B) an atmosphere of loneliness and silence
(C) evidence that it is the end of the day

(D) difficulty seeing things in the distance
(E) the peacefulness and quiet of a nearby lake
214. The passage answers which of the following questions?
I. What is the setting of the passage?
II. When do these events happen?
III. Why is the narrator going to this place?
(A) II only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III
215. The passage indicates that the speaker
(A) is drawn to this place of uncertainty and anguish.
(B) will meet an old friend by the lake in the evening.
(C) has never been to this isolated region before.
(D) ignores the warnings of ghosts not to enter the forest.
(E) cannot wait to pass through this frightening country.
#220)
It’s difficult to imagine road-building conditions any worse than
those workers faced in 1942, when they began carving a supply route over
the Canadian Rockies, through the Yukon Territory, all the way to remote
military outposts in Alaska. “Men hired for this job will be required to work
and live under the most extreme conditions imaginable,” read one recruitment
notice. “Temperatures will range from 90 degrees above zero to 70 degrees
below zero. Men will have to fight swamps, rivers, ice and cold. Mosquitoes,
flies and gnats will not only be annoying but will cause bodily harm. If you
are not prepared to work under these and similar conditions, do not apply.”

The idea of laying a roadway to connect the United States with the
continent’s “far north” can be traced all the way back to the Yukon gold
rushes of the 1890s. But it wasn’t until the 1930s that Alaska’s territorial
legislature commissioned a study of possible routes—and it took the Japanese
attack on Pearl Harbor to finally get the work started. Once drawn into World
War II, the U.S. government worried that Japan would follow the destruction
of the U.S. Pacific fleet in Hawaii with an invasion of Alaska. Within a few
weeks of the Pearl Harbor attack, President Franklin D. Roosevelt decided
that plans for a highway to Alaska deserved re-examination.
-J. Kingston Pierce
216. This passage deals primarily with the road’s
(A) route through the Yukon Territory.
(B) history leading up to it being built.
(C) construction from 1890 to 1942.
(D) design by President Roosevelt.
(E) building conditions in wintertime.
217. The “far north” mentioned at the beginning of the second paragraph
most likely refers to
(A) Japan
(B) the Pacific
(C) Alaska
(D) the Yukon
(E) Canada
218. All of the following are mentioned as working conditions of building the
road in 1942 EXCEPT:
(A) The insects were harmful.
(B) The surface was not all land.
(C) The temperatures were extreme.
(D) Workers had to live there.
(E) The pay was not very good.

(A) most of the road did not go through the U.S.
(B) construction of the road never got started.
(C) many men died while building the road.
(D) the gold rushes helped to buy materials for the road.
(E) Pearl Harbor was located near Alaskan posts.
220. The author would most likely agree that
(A) a Japanese invasion of Alaska was highly unlikely.
(B) Canada should have helped pay for the road.
(C) the road was not worth risking human life.
(D) a demand for gold first sparked interest in the road.
(E) President Franklin D. Roosevelt acted too slowly.
#225)
What constitutes an American? Not color nor race nor religion. Not
the pedigree of his family nor the place of his birth. Not his social status nor
his bank account. Not his trade nor his profession. An American is one who
loves justice and believes in the dignity of man. An American is one who will
fight for his freedom and that of his neighbor. An American is one who will
sacrifice property, ease and security in order that he and his children may
retain the rights of free men.
Americans have always known how to fight for their rights and their
way of life. Americans are not afraid to fight. They fight joyously in a just
cause.
We Americans know that freedom, like peace, is inseparable. We
cannot retain our liberty if three-fourths of the world is enslaved. Brutality,
injustice and slavery, if practiced as dictators would have them, universally
and systematically, in the long run would destroy us as surely as a fire raging
in our nearby neighbor’s house would burn ours if we didn’t help to put out
his.

-Harold Ickes from What is an American?
221. According to the speaker, all of the following describes an American
EXCEPT
(A) his desire to go to war for a good reason.
(B) his status in society.
(C) his readiness to fight for his friends.
(D) his love of justice.
(E) his willingness to sacrifice for his family.
222. The author’s tone can best be described as
(A) blunt
(B) ecstatic
(C) argumentative
(D) cunning
(E) sad
(A) knowing how to identify an American imposter.
(B) the brutality and injustices of world dictators.
(C) rights contained in the Declaration of Independence.
(D) what does and does not define an American.
(E) the differences between Americans and foreigners.
224. In the last sentence, the speaker is urging Americans to
(A) avoid out-of-control forest fires.
(B) recognize the injustices practiced by dictators.
(C) fight with partnering countries against evil.
(D) realize that war is not the solution in the long run.
(E) know that neighbors can sometimes be the enemy.
225. As it is used at the beginning of the last paragraph, the statement
“freedom, like peace, is inseparable” means

(A) you must fight for freedom in order to obtain peace.
(B) freedom and peace are the same to true Americans.
(C) free will is guaranteed to people who fight for it.
(D) freedom and peace cannot be seen without sacrifice.
(E) America is not free if most of the world is not free.
#230)
Shortly Tom came upon the juvenile pariah of the village,
Huckleberry Finn, son of the town drunkard. Huckleberry was cordially hated
and dreaded by all the mothers of the town, because he was idle and lawless
and vulgar and bad—and because all their children admired him so, and
delighted in his forbidden society, and wished they dared to be like him. Tom
was like the rest of the respectable boys, in that he envied Huckleberry his
gaudy outcast condition, and was under strict orders not to play with him. So
he played with him every time he got a chance. Huckleberry was always
dressed in the cast-off clothes of full-grown men, and they were in perennial
bloom and fluttering with rags. His hat was a vast ruin with a wide crescent
lopped out of its brim; his coat, when he wore one, hung nearly to his heels
and had the rearward buttons far down the back; but one suspender supported
his trousers; the seat of the trousers bagged low and contained nothing, the
fringed legs dragged in the dirt when not rolled up.
Huckleberry came and went, at his own free will. He slept on
doorsteps in fine weather and in empty hogsheads in wet; he did not have to
go to school or to church, or call any being master or obey anybody; he could
go fishing or swimming when and where he chose, and stay as long as it
suited him; nobody forbade him to fight; he could sit up as late as he pleased;
he was always the first boy that went barefoot in the spring and the last to
resume leather in the fall; he never had to wash, nor put on clean clothes; he
could swear wonderfully. In a word, everything that goes to make life
precious that boy had. So thought every harassed, hampered, respectable boy
in St. Petersburg.
-Mark Twain from The Adventures of Tom Sawyer

226. As it is used in the first line, “pariah” most nearly means
(A) outsider
(B) convict
(C) adventurer
(D) student
(E) drifter
227. All of the following are true regarding items worn by Huckleberry Finn
EXCEPT:
(A) He sometimes rolled up his pants.
(B) A part of his hat had been cut out.
(C) His clothes had been worn by other people.
(D) His pants were held up by one suspender.
(E) He wore clothes he had made by himself.
228. The main purpose of this selection is to
(A) explain why Finn was not like other children.
(B) describe the dressing habits of a boy.
(C) introduce a new boy character in a book.
(D) portray Finn through the eyes of a mother.
(E) show a different side of a boy’s personality.
229. The mothers in the town disliked and feared Huckleberry Finn for which
of the following reasons?
I. The other children in the town looked up to him.
II. He said things that were inappropriate.
III. His club did not include all the children.
IV. He did not follow the rules of the town.
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I, II and III only

(D) I, II and IV only
(E) II, III and IV only
230. In the second paragraph, which of the following is NOT mentioned?
(A) Finn did not receive adult supervision.
(B) Finn did not eat his meals in the correct area.
(C) Finn did not follow a specific schedule.
(D) Finn did not have to answer to anybody.
(E) Finn did not always sleep in a bed.
#235)
The Battle of Iwo Jima represented to the Americans the pinnacle of
forcible entry from the sea. This particular amphibious assault was the
ultimate “storm landing,” the Japanese phrase describing the American
propensity for concentrating overwhelming force at the point of attack. The
huge striking force was more experienced, better armed and more powerfully
supported than any other offensive campaign to date in the Pacific War. The
Fifth Fleet enjoyed total domination of air and sea around the small, sulfuric
island, and the 74,000 Marines in the landing force would muster a healthy 3-
to-1 preponderance over the Japanese garrison. Seizing Iwo Jima would be
tough, planners admitted, but the operation should be over in a week, maybe
less.
By all logic, the force invading Iwo Jima should have prevailed,
quickly and violently. But the Japanese had also benefited from the
prolonged island campaigns in the Pacific. Lieutenant General Tadamichi
Kuribayashi commanded the 21,000 troops on the island. Formerly a cavalry
officer, Kuribayashi was a savvy fighter, one who could pick up realistic
lessons from previous combat disasters. Significantly, Japanese forces on Iwo
Jima would defend the island in depth—from hidden interior positions, not at
the water’s edge—and they would avoid the massive, suicidal banzai attacks.
Kuribayashi figured if the garrison could maintain camouflage and fire
discipline, husband its resources and exact disproportionate losses on the

invaders, maybe the Americans would lose heart. His senior subordinates
may have grumbled at this departure from tradition, but Kuribayashi’s plan
made intelligent use of Iwo Jima’s forbidding terrain and his troops’ fighting
skills.
-Colonel Joseph H. Alexander
231. All of the following are mentioned as advantages the Americans had
against the Japanese EXCEPT:
(A) The Americans had extensive experience in battle.
(B) The Americans had powerful weapons.
(C) The Americans outnumbered the Japanese.
(D) The Americans had better air and sea support.
(E) The Americans had better knowledge of Iwo Jima.
(A) a battle for an island in the Pacific Ocean.
(B) how to engage the enemy in unfamiliar territory.
(C) why Iwo Jima was important to the Americans.
(D) General Kuribayashi’s military strategies.
(E) the final battle in a very long war.
233. It is reasonable to assume from the passage that
(A) Kuribayashi had the unanimous support of his men.
(B) the Japanese put up a stronger fight than expected.
(C) the Americans attacked with a few men at the start.
(D) the Japanese were successful in defending Iwo Jima.
(E) the Americans were hurt by suicidal banzai attacks.
234. According to the passage, the Japanese forces
(A) initially engaged the Americans from the air and sea.
(B) had more ammunition than the Americans.
(C) fought from locations that were not in plain sight.
(D) wanted the island for its sulfur deposits.

(E) tried to evacuate before the arrival of the Americans.
(A) The military history of General Kuribayashi
(B) Other battles fought on the Pacific front
(C) How marines prepare to fight on an island
(D) The results of the Battle of Iwo Jima
(E) The reasoning behind a “storm landing”
#240)
The Loch Ness is a lake in Scotland that holds the largest volume of
freshwater in the United Kingdom. But rather than being known for its size, it
is famous for the mysterious legend of the Loch Ness monster. For hundreds
of years, people have reported catching a glimpse of a huge creature in the
lake while others have shared photos they claim to have taken of this sea
creature. The legend is so great that even scientists have been intrigued and
many have conducted experiments and come up with theories to try and
explain what people could be witnessing.
It has been proposed that Nessie—as the Loch Ness monster is
commonly called—could be a prehistoric creature called a plesiosaur, an
animal that spanned up to ten meters in length and has long been considered
to be extinct. Adrian Shine, the leader of a British team called the Loch Ness
Project, has spent over 30 years trying to rationally explain the monster
sightings by researching the ecology of the region. If in fact a large creature
was living in the lake, there would have to be evidence of a food chain for it
to survive. A creature like the Loch Ness monster would most likely eat fish,
which in turn would live off large quantities of microscopic animals called
zooplankton. There would have to be enough zooplankton in the lake to
support populations of larger animals.
A way of estimating the amount of zooplankton in the lake is to
examine the quantities of green algae—the bottom rung of the food chain—
that zooplankton feed from. Green algae needs some light to thrive, and so by

examining how deep down in the lake sunlight can penetrate, researchers can
estimate the amount of green algae and following from this, the type of
population that could be sustained.
-Sandrine Ceurstemont
236. Which of the following is the best title for the selection?
(A) A Monster in the Lake?
(B) The Mysteries of Scotland
(C) What Could It Eat?
(D) The Loch Ness Lake
(E) Where is the Evidence?
(A) green algae feed off of zooplankton.
(B) the Loch Ness scientists work with dinosaur fossils.
(C) Loch Ness is one of the smallest lakes in Scotland.
(D) a plesiosaur was a creature that lived in the water.
(E) Adrian Shine is not looking in the right places.
238. According to the passage, why are scientists studying green algae in
Loch Ness lake?
(A) To know if it is good bait for the Loch Ness monster.
(B) To estimate the amount of zooplankton in the lake.
(C) Because sunlight is required to view underwater life.
(D) To prove that the food chain model is erroneous.
(E) To study how smaller animals survive in the lake.
239. The hypothetical Loch Ness food chain mentioned in the passage
includes which of the following?
I. Loch Ness monster
II. Green algae
III. Fish
IV. Zooplankton

(A) I, II and III only
(B) I, II and IV only
(C) I, III and IV only
(D) II, III and IV only
(E) I, II, III and IV
240. Which of the following strengthens the legend of the Loch Ness
monster?
(A) Tourists have claimed to have photos of a creature.
(B) A legitimate food chain exists in Loch Ness lake.
(C) Scientists have conducted experiments in the lake.
(D) The Loch Ness lake supports other aquatic life.
(E) Experts have found fossils of the plesiosaur creature.
– 40 Minutes)
#305)
Backyard ponds and water gardens are for birds, butterflies, frogs,
fish—and you and your family. These ponds are typically three to four feet in
diameter, and may be built in barrels or other patio containers. Water is
effective in drawing wildlife to your backyard, and is a natural, relaxing and
scenic addition that can provide interest and enjoyment.
Consider locating your backyard pond where you can see it from a
deck or patio. There, it can blend in with its natural surroundings. Slightly
elevate the soil around the pond so excess water will flow away from the
pond. Plan to landscape around the pond to provide a habitat for frogs and
birds that need land and water. If you would like to use a pump to re-circulate
water, be sure electrical service is available in that area. Also, there will be
less maintenance if your pond is not under a tree, and most aquatic plants will

grow better in full sun.
If you do not have space in your yard for a built-in earthen pond,
consider a “tub” pond or a large water bowl. It can be placed on the patio and
provide many of the same benefits as a built-in pond. There are numerous tub
kits available that can be as simple as adding water, a pump and some plants.
They can also be moved inside in the winter as long as good lighting is
provided for plants.
-National Association of Conservation Districts
301. According to the passage, all of the following are benefits of backyard
ponds EXCEPT:
(A) It will attract animal life to the yard.
(B) It will increase the value of the home.
(C) It will be fun and interesting for the family.
(D) It will add to the beauty of the home.
(E) It will be a natural home for various pets.
302. The second paragraph is most concerned with
(A) why backyard ponds are so helpful.
(B) how to build a backyard pond.
(C) when to install the backyard pond.
(D) the advantages of backyard ponds.
(E) where to put a backyard pond.
303. According to the passage, a pump for the pond needs to go together with
(A) directions on how to use the pump.
(B) a tub or large water bowl.
(C) animals that are not harmed by the device.
(D) a power source that is nearby.
(E) knowledge on how to fix the pump.
304. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that
(A) there are alternatives to built-in ponds

(B) tub kits are available on a limited basis.
(C) water bowls are more expensive than built-in ponds.
(D) earthen ponds are only good in the winter.
(E) good lighting is not needed for earthen ponds.
(A) The differences between tubs and water bowls
(B) A detailed history of the water pump
(C) Instructions on how to install a backyard pond
(D) Food options for water-based animal life
(E) Possible reasons why patios are good for pets
#310)
Thomas Edison created many inventions, but his favorite was the
phonograph. While working on improvements to the telegraph and the
telephone, Edison figured out a way to record sound on tinfoil-coated
cylinders. In 1877, he created a machine with two needles: one for recording
and one for playback. When Edison spoke into the mouthpiece, the sound
vibrations of his voice would be indented onto the cylinder by the recording
needle.
“Mary had a little lamb” were the first words that Edison recorded on
the phonograph and he was amazed when he heard the machine play them
back to him. In 1878, Edison established a company to sell his new machine.
Edison suggested other uses for the phonograph, such as: letter
writing and dictation, phonographic books for blind people, a family record
(recording family members in their own voices), music boxes and toys,
clocks that announce the time, and a connection with the telephone so
communications could be recorded.
The phonograph also allowed soldiers to take music off to war with
them. During World War I, Edison’s company created a special phonograph
for the U.S. Army. Many Army units purchased these phonographs because it
meant a lot to the soldiers to have music remind them of home. In a

recording, Edison himself reminded Americans of the enormous sacrifice
made by the soldiers.
-America’s Library
(A) the life of a great American inventor.
(B) the many inventions of Thomas Edison.
(C) the role of the phonograph in modern society.
(D) the origin and uses of an invention.
(E) how the phonograph changed World War I.
(A) Edison sold many of the phonographs all by himself.
(B) the phonograph was most important for letter writing.
(C) the phonograph had a positive effect on U.S. troops.
(D) Edison used tinfoil in the invention of the telephone.
(E) Edison loved to read nursery rhymes as a child.
308. Edison believed that a phonograph could be used for each of the
following reasons EXCEPT
(A) to help disabled people.
(B) to entertain children.
(C) to announce the time.
(D) to record voices.
(E) to interpret languages.
309. Each of the following words may be used to describe Edison EXCEPT:
(A) Submissive
(B) Appreciative
(C) Imaginative
(D) Spontaneous
(E) Predictive

310. According to the passage, needles were used to
(A) create the telegraph, but not the telephone.
(B) indent sound vibrations onto a cylinder.
(C) connect the mouthpiece to the playback button.
(D) produce sound vibrations.
(E) secure the tinfoil on each cylinder.
#315)
In the 1950s, Native Americans struggled with the government’s
policy of moving them into cities where they might assimilate into
mainstream America. Many had difficulties adjusting to urban life. When the
policy was discontinued in 1961, the government noted that “poverty and
deprivation are common” for Native Americans.
In the 1960s and 1970s, watching both Third World nationalism and
the civil rights movement, Native Americans became more aggressive in
fighting for rights. New leaders went to court to protect tribal lands or to
recover those which had been taken away. In 1967, they gained victories
guaranteeing long-abused land and water rights. The American Indian
Movement helped direct government funds to Native-American organizations
and assist neglected Native Americans in cities.
Confrontations became more common. In 1969 a landing party of 78
Native Americans took over Alcatraz Island and held it until federal officials
removed them in 1971. In 1973 AIM took over the South Dakota village of
Wounded Knee, where soldiers in the late 19th century had massacred a
Sioux camp. Militants hoped to dramatize the poverty and alcoholism in the
reservation surrounding the town. The episode ended after one Native
American was killed and another wounded, with a governmental agreement
to re-examine treaty rights.
-U.S. Dept. of State
311. According to the passage, all of the following were gained by Native
Americans EXCEPT

(A) a governmental review of treaty rights
(B) financial support for Native American groups
(C) equal opportunities in the military
(D) help for uncared for city-based Native Americans
(E) land and water rights
312. The word assimilate as used in the first sentence most closely means
(A) struggle
(B) adapt
(C) learn
(D) thrive
(E) connect
313. It can be inferred from the passage that one reason militants took over
Wounded Knee was
(A) it was the next logical target after Alcatraz Island.
(B) its location far away from South Dakota officials.
(C) they wanted to profit from alcohol sales in the town.
(D) this town did not have a strong police presence.
(E) it had historical meaning for Native Americans.
314. In the second paragraph, Native American leaders are described as
(A) mistreated
(B) disadvantaged
(C) unforgiving
(D) determined
(E) violent
315. According to the passage, Native Americans fought for which of the
following reasons?
I. To battle poverty among their people.
II. They were inspired by movements across the globe.

III. To support Native Americans in foreign countries.
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II and III
(E) II only
#320)
Life was exciting for Ensign Lee Royal in the summer of 1950. The
Texan had recently graduated from the U.S. Naval Academy and reported for
duty on the most famous warship in the world, the USS Missouri. Royal was
a commissioned officer, a step up from the previous year when he had served
on the same ship as a midshipman on a training cruise.
The Missouri had visited England during that cruise, and Royal and
two classmates had been brave enough to go to Winston Churchill’s country
home unannounced. The former British prime minister was very welcoming,
taking the three young midshipmen on a tour and then presenting them with
books, cigars, and wine. An amazed bodyguard told them privately that
Churchill had been much more hospitable to them than to many of his famous
visitors.
By 1950, the Missouri was the U.S. Navy’s only active battleship—
just a decade after the navy had considered battleships to be its foremost
fighting ships. The Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor in 1941, however, had
changed the situation. Soon aircraft carriers and submarines became the
navy’s primary offensive weapons. Battleships had been designed to fight
gun duels against large surface vessels, but those encounters rarely occurred
in World War II. The U.S. entered the war with a number of old, slow
battleships, which were primarily used for shore attack and to support
landings.
-Paul Stillwell
316. All of the following are true regarding Ensign Lee Royal EXCEPT:

(A) He was promoted while serving on the Missouri.
(B) He received gifts from Winston Churchill.
(C) He visited England while on a training cruise.
(D) He fought for the United States during World War II.
(E) His naval career had just begun in 1950.
317. It can be inferred from the second paragraph that Winston Churchill
(A) did not offer books, cigars and wine to all his guests.
(B) previously served in the United States Navy.
(C) sent out invitations to Royal and his classmates.
(D) employed more than one bodyguard.
(E) was on vacation from his job as prime minister.
318. An underlying theme throughout the passage is
(A) how World War II affected the U.S. Navy.
(B) a famous U.S. naval warship.
(C) an unexpected visit to a prime minister’s home.
(D) the early life of a naval officer.
(E) American and English relations in the 1950s.
319. All of the following contributed to why the USS Missouri “was the U.S.
Navy’s only active battleship” in 1950 EXCEPT:
(A) Battleships were rarely used in combat anymore.
(B) Most of the wartime battleships were old and slow.
(C) Submarines were more important during the war.
(D) The surprise Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor.
(E) Most battleships were converted to aircraft carriers.
320. The author would most likely agree with which of the following
statements?
(A) The Navy is the most popular of the armed forces.
(B) The U.S. should not have given up on battleships.

(C) Ensign Lee Royal is not afraid to take risks.
(D) Promotion in the Navy should be more difficult.
(E) Winston Churchill should not have retired so young.
#325)
What Happened to Ozymandias?
I met a traveler from an antique land
Who said: “Two vast and trunkless legs of stone
Stand in the desert, Near them, on the sand,
Half sunk, a shattered visage lies, whose frown
And wrinkled lip, and sneer of cold command,
Tell that its sculptor well those passions read
Which yet survive, stamped on these lifeless things,
The hand that mocked them, and the heart that fed:
And on the pedestal these words appear:
‘My name is Ozymandias, king of kings:
Look on my works ye Mighty, and despair!’
Nothing beside remains. Round the decay
Of that colossal wreck, boundless and bare
The lone and level sands stretch far away.”
-Percy Bysshe Shelley
321. The wrecked statue of Ozymandias indicates all of the following
EXCEPT:
(A) Ozymandias was sending a message to other kings.
(B) Ozymandias was a merciless leader.
(C) Ozymandias had great pride in his accomplishments.
(D) Ozymandias intended for his legacy to last.
(E) Ozymandias possessed great architectural skill.

322. Which statement would be most consistent with the message expressed
in the poem?
(A) It is wiser to build a house on rock than on sand.
(B) He who lives by the sword, dies by the sword.
(C) The bigger they are, the harder they fall.
(D) Art and language outlast power and kingdoms.
(E) The passage of time helps to heal old wounds.
323. The word them (line 8) most likely refers to
(A) Ozymandias’ people
(B) the traveler’s people
(C) historians
(D) builders of the statue
(E) Ozymandias’ enemies
324. The destruction of the statue demonstrates which of the following?
I. The destructive power of history
II. The lasting influence of humans throughout time
III. The temporary nature of political power
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III
325. The poet most likely has a tourist tell the tale of Ozymandias’ statue in
order to
(A) show that Ozymandias’ sculpture is just one of many sculptures.
(B) further reduce the power and influence of a great king.
(C) describe the facial features of Ozymandias’ statue in greater detail.
(D) strengthen the imagery of a country from ancient times.
(E) narrate this story from the viewpoint of a foreigner.

#330)
For the next eight or ten months, Oliver was the victim of a
systematic course of treachery and deception. He was brought up by hand.
The hungry and destitute situation of the infant orphan was duly reported by
the workhouse authorities to the parish authorities. The parish authorities
inquired with dignity of the workhouse authorities, whether there was no
female then established in “the house” who was in a situation to impart to
Oliver Twist, the consolation and nourishment of which he stood in need.
The workhouse authorities replied with humility, that there was not. Upon
this, the parish authorities magnanimously and humanely resolved, that
Oliver should be “farmed”, or, in other words, that he should be dispatched to
a branch-workhouse some three miles off, where twenty or thirty other
juvenile offenders against the poor-laws, rolled about the floor all day,
without the inconvenience of too much food or too much clothing, under the
parental superintendence of an elderly female, who received the culprits at
and for the consideration of sevenpence-halfpenny per small head per week.
Sevenpence-halfpenny’s worth per week is a good round diet for a child; a
great deal may be got for sevenpence-halfpenny, quite enough to overload its
stomach, and make it uncomfortable. The elderly female was a woman of
wisdom and experience; she knew what was good for children; and she had a
very accurate perception of what was good for herself. So, she appropriated
the greater part of the weekly stipend to her own use, and consigned the
rising parochial generation to even a shorter allowance than was originally
provided for them. Thereby finding in the lowest depth a deeper still; and
proving herself a very great experimental philosopher.
-Charles Dickens
326. This selection is primarily about
(A) the living conditions of a specific branch-workhouse.
(B) the early childhood and education of Oliver Twist.
(C) the history of young orphans in the 19th
century.

(D) the circumstances of a young child’s relocation.
(E) the philosophy of a workhouse superintendent.
327. It can be inferred from the passage that “sevenpence-halfpenny” was
(A) enough money to take care of a child for a week.
(B) the weekly pay of the branch-workhouse overseer.
(C) the cost of ownership of Oliver Twist.
(D) just enough money to pay for food for one day.
(E) used specifically to buy clothing for infant orphans.
328. According to the passage, the overseer of the branch-workhouse
(A) was too young to handle the raising of children.
(B) had a poor relationship with parish authorities.
(C) secretly stole money that was meant for child care.
(D) was trying to quit her job as a caregiver of children.
(E) had a particular dislike for young Oliver Twist.
329. The style of the passage is most like that found in a
(A) personal letter
(B) diary of an orphan
(C) history textbook
(D) philosopher’s manual
(E) novel about an orphan
330. In the last sentence, “finding in the lowest depth a deeper still” refers to
the
(A) great difficulty of adjusting to a branch-workhouse.
(B) highly immoral nature of a woman’s actions.
(C) amount of experience of an overseer of orphans.
(D) experimental aspect of a woman’s philosophy.
(E) extent to which orphaned children must suffer.

#335)
Of all the men who wore blue uniforms in the Civil War, none felt
more keenly the purpose of his mission than the African-American soldier.
Every marching step, every swing of a pick and every round fired at
Confederate enemies gave him a chance to strike a blow against slavery and
prove himself equal to his white comrades. U.S. Colored Troops were
consistently good fighters, performing well in every engagement in which
they fought. Even their enemies had to grudgingly admit that fact. One USCT
member, William H. Carney, transcended good to become great, and was the
first black U.S. soldier to earn the Medal of Honor.
On February 17, 1863, at age 23, Carney heeded the call for African
Americans to join a local militia unit, the Morgan Guards, with 45 other
volunteers from his hometown of New Bedford, Mass. That unit would later
become Company C of the 54th Massachusetts Infantry Regiment.
There was something unique about the new regiment, commanded by
Colonel Robert Gould Shaw; it was an all-black unit with the exception of
senior officers and a few senior noncommissioned sergeants. The 54th
Massachusetts was created to prove that black men could be good soldiers.
-Thomas Hammond
331. The main focus of this passage is
(A) how a few men changed the course of the Civil War.
(B) the strengths and flaws of African-American soldiers.
(C) the impact of the Civil War on American history.
(D) the achievement of black soldiers in the Civil War.
(E) the battles fought by a famous Civil War regiment.
332. According to the passage, the enemy’s attitude towards the U.S. Colored
Troops may best be described as
(A) sarcastic exaggeration
(B) reluctant respect
(C) enthusiastic optimism

(D) sincere criticism
(E) angry condemnation
333. In the selection, all of the following questions are answered regarding
William H. Carney EXCEPT:
(A) How old was he when he became a fighting man?
(B) Was he a member of the U.S. Colored Troops?
(C) Did he receive any awards for his actions in war?
(D) How many men volunteered for the unit with him?
(E) What rank did he hold in the infantry regiment?
334. According to the passage, the African-American soldier wanted to do
well in the Civil War for which of the following reasons?
I. To show he could fight as well as white soldiers.
II. To find better jobs after the war.
III. To help get rid of slavery.
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III
335. The passage implies that
(A) the soldiers with blue uniforms were fighting against slavery.
(B) Colonel Robert Gould Shaw was an African-American.
(C) the Confederate army also had many African-American soldiers.
(D) the Morgan Guards never met Company C of the 54th
Massachusetts.
(E) the Medal of Honor was given to only one soldier in the war.
#340)

The energy crisis has rocketed from a textbook concept into the most
pressing political issue of our time. Future energy supplies are increasingly
vulnerable and global consumption is expected to escalate dramatically,
increasing by 71% in 2030 and continuing to rise. Energy shortages would
have a dramatic impact on every area of modern life: business, transport,
food, health and communications. This looming crisis has drawn scientific
minds and encouraged radical research into other technologies, such as the
once-neglected area of nuclear fusion.
Our sun is powered by nuclear fusion. Similar to traditional nuclear
power, or fission, it can produce huge amounts of carbon-neutral energy. But
there is one vital difference: no dangerous, long-lasting radioactive waste.
Waste from nuclear fusion is only radioactive for 50–70 years, compared to
the thousands of years of radioactivity that result from fission. This is a long-
term supply of energy from a small amount of fuel, and the by-products are
harmless.
Raw materials for nuclear fusion—water and silicon—are plentiful
and widespread on Earth. This should prevent the situations where energy
supplies can be threatened by political instability; as demonstrated in January
2007 when Russia shut down a main oil pipeline to Europe after a political
spat with Belarus.
Nuclear fusion could also help meet international climate change
targets, such as those agreed by politicians in Washington last month. Current
zero-carbon technologies are unlikely to meet our energy demands this
century. Nuclear power is deeply unpopular while renewable energy sources
—wind, solar and tidal—yield relatively little energy for their high cost. But
nuclear fusion could render carbon dioxide-producing fossil fuels obsolete by
2100.
-Nigel Praities
336. According to the passage, an important difference between nuclear
fusion and nuclear fission is
(A) nuclear fusion produces both water and silicon.
(B) nuclear fission contributed more to the energy crisis.
(C) nuclear fusion has no harmful long-term side effects.
(D) nuclear fission will have a big impact on modern life.

(E) one draws energy from the sun and the other doesn’t.
337. The author’s main purpose in this passage is to
(A) show the advantages of an alternative energy source.
(B) describe the escalation of the energy crisis.
(C) compare the pros and cons of new energy sources.
(D) explain how nuclear power will help in the future.
(E) criticize an emerging trend in the energy crisis.
338. All of the following are mentioned as benefits of nuclear fusion
EXCEPT:
(A) It does not produce carbon dioxide.
(B) The raw materials for it are abundant on Earth.
(C) It will help meet environmental goals.
(D) It will generate ideas for new technologies.
(E) Its radioactive waste lasts must shorter than fission.
339. The author mentions “a political spat with Belarus” (third paragraph) in
order to
(A) determine how water and silicon are used in the process of nuclear
fusion.
(B) report about the political instability caused by the development of nuclear
power.
(C) illustrate the secondary role oil pipelines play to the actual oil reserves.
(D) show how different countries can cooperate to solve energy-related
problems.
(E) provide an example of a situation that would not happen with nuclear
fusion.
340. It can be inferred from the passage that nuclear fusion
(A) will not become a reality in the next 50-70 years due to radioactive waste.
(B) can produce more energy than wind, solar or tidal power at the same cost.
(C) is not being used by many countries due to the high amount of fuel it

consumes.
(D) will use the power of the sun to eliminate energy shortages worldwide.
(E) can produce carbon dioxide at a much lower cost than other fossil fuels.
– 40 Minutes)
#405)
No man can fully grasp how far and how fast we have come in the
50,000 years of man’s recorded history. We know very little about the first
40,000 years, except at the end of them advanced man had learned to use the
skins of animals to cover them. Then about 10,000 years ago, man emerged
from his caves to construct other kinds of shelter. Only 5,000 years ago man
learned to write and use a cart with wheels. Christianity began less than 2,000
years ago. The printing press came within the last 1,000 years, and then less
than 200 years ago, during this whole span of human history, the steam
engine provided a new source of power. Newton explored the meaning of
gravity. In the last century, electric lights and telephones and automobiles and
airplanes became available. Only in the last 50 years did we develop
penicillin and television and nuclear power, and now if America’s new
spacecraft succeeds in reaching Venus, we will have literally reached the
stars.
-John F. Kennedy from “We choose to go to the moon…”
401. According to the speaker, man learned to write about how many years
ago?
(A) 300
(B) 1,000
(C) 5,000
(D) 10,000
(E) 20,000

402. The main idea of this passage is that
(A) space travel has been a goal for a very long time.
(B) man has learned from the past during each era.
(C) 50,000 years has gone by in a blink of an eye.
(D) mankind is learning at an increasingly faster rate.
(E) certain inventions have changed the course of history.
403. The speaker’s tone can best be described as
(A) serious
(B) inspirational
(C) casual
(D) argumentative
(E) nervous
(A) Venus was discovered only a few years ago.
(B) gravity has been studied for over ten thousand years.
(C) most major events occurred earlier in human history.
(D) Christianity had its origins about 1,000 years ago.
(E) nuclear power came after electric and steam power.
405. In the selection, all of the following are mentioned as turning points in
history EXCEPT
(A) the invention of new power sources.
(B) improvements in transportation.
(C) the discovery of America.
(D) the start of Christianity.
(E) faster ways of making books.
#410)

When large cruise ships get too close to harbor seals, the animals can
become distressed. A study found that when large ships got closer than 1,600
feet, seals were more likely to jump off the ice floes. The closer the ships got,
the more likely the seals were to dive into the water. One concern is that if
seals are routinely disturbed, it will drain their energy reserves, possibly
resulting in lower reproduction or reduced survival.
As a result, some cruise ship associations have practices in place to
minimize the disturbance of the animals. However, that is not always
possible because of weather, navigational and other reasons, including
not being able to see the seals. Also, the more time ships spend in bays, the
closer the seals come to one another. Such huddling behavior is common
among animals that feel threatened.
Another study compared harbor seal numbers in Disenchantment Bay
with those of Icy Bay, a nearby glacial fjord with similar characteristics. The
only major difference between the two bays is that cruise ships do not visit
Icy Bay. Both bays started out with roughly the same number of seals in
May. The study found that seal populations in Icy Bay increased from May to
August, while in Disenchantment Bay, they peaked in June and then declined
slightly.
-Associated Press
406. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that a fjord is a
(A) type of glacier
(B) body of water
(C) harbor with animals.
(D) series of piers.
(E) haven for seals.
407. Which of the following best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Disenchantment Bay is safer for seals than Icy Bay.
(B) The disturbance of seals can happen to other species.
(C) Man is a major factor in the extinction of animals.
(D) Large cruise ships affect the welfare of harbor seals.
(E) The closer a ship, the more likely the seal will jump.

408. What message is the author sending in the second paragraph when he
says “However, that is not…see the seals.”?
(A) Despite efforts, avoiding seals is still difficult.
(B) Weather is very unpredictable in coastal areas.
(C) Cruise ships must keep away from seals at all costs.
(D) Weather and visibility should not be used as excuses.
(E) No animal should come before passenger safety.
409. The author suggests which of the following in the last paragraph?
(A) Icy Bay should harbor cruise ships, because few seals live there.
(B) Cruise ships should not visit Disenchantment Bay during the summer.
(C) Very few similarities exist between Icy Bay and Disenchantment Bay.
(D) It is abnormal for seal population to increase between May and August.
(E) Seal numbers fell off in Disenchantment Bay due to cruise ship activity.
410. According to the passage, large cruise ships getting too close to harbor
seals is a concern for which of the following reasons?
I. It hinders the seals’ ability to reproduce.
II. The seals move to colder areas in the summer.
III. Disturbing the seals could shorten their lifespan.
(A) III only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III
#415)
The Bay of Pigs Invasion was an unsuccessful attempt by United

States-backed Cuban exiles to overthrow the government of Cuban dictator
Fidel Castro. Increasing conflict between the U.S. government and Castro’s
regime led President Dwight D. Eisenhower to break off diplomatic relations
with Cuba in January 1961. Even before that, the Central Intelligence Agency
had been training Cuban exiles for a possible invasion of the island. The
invasion plan was approved by Eisenhower’s successor, John F. Kennedy.
On April 17, 1961 about 1300 exiles, armed with U.S. weapons,
landed at the Bay of Pigs on Cuba. Hoping to find support from the local
population, they intended to cross the island to Havana. It was evident from
the first hours of fighting, however, that the exiles were likely to lose.
President Kennedy had the option of using the U.S. Air Force against the
Cubans but decided against it. Consequently, Castro’s army stopped the
invasion. By the time the fighting ended on April 19, ninety exiles had been
killed and the rest had been taken prisoner.
The failure of the invasion seriously embarrassed the young Kennedy
administration. Some critics blamed Kennedy for not giving it enough
support and others for allowing it to take place at all. Private groups in the
United States later ransomed the captured exiles. Additionally, the invasion
made Castro wary of the United States. From the Bay of Pigs on, Castro was
convinced that the Americans would try to take over Cuba again.
-America’s Library
411. This passage deals primarily with
(A) the consequences of mistakes in politics.
(B) diplomatic relations between the U.S. and Cuba.
(C) a failed U.S. raid on a foreign country.
(D) the early history of a presidential administration.
(E) an attempt to bargain with Fidel Castro.
412. The “exiles” mentioned in the first sentence refer to
(A) former Cuban citizens
(B) past employees of Fidel Castro
(C) government officials
(D) U.S. ambassadors to Cuba
(E) residents of the Bay of Pigs

413. Based on the passage, all of the following led to the Bay of Pigs
invasion EXCEPT
(A) a desire to remove Fidel Castro from power.
(B) the order of the invasion by President Kennedy.
(C) the training of Cuban exiles by the CIA.
(D) increased tension between Castro and Eisenhower.
(E) the imprisonment of U.S. citizens by Cuba.
414. It can be inferred from the passage that the 1,300 exiles
(A) were captured because they were not properly trained by the CIA.
(B) did not receive as much assistance from the Cuban people as hoped.
(C) fought bravely for about two months, but eventually yielded to the
enemy.
(D) were Cuban prisoners of war for many years before being killed.
(E) never forgave President Kennedy for not providing aircraft support.
415. According to the passage, results of the invasion included which of the
following?
I. President Kennedy’s reputation was strengthened.
II. The Cuban leader believed in a second attack.
III. Money was paid to free the surviving exiles.
(A) II only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III
#420)

The Road Not Taken
Two roads diverged in a yellow wood,
And sorry I could not travel both
And be one traveler, long I stood
And looked down one as far as I could
To where it bent in the undergrowth;
Then took the other, as just as fair
And having perhaps the better claim,
Because it was grassy and wanted wear;
Though as for that, the passing there
Had worn them really about the same,
And both that morning equally lay
In leaves no step had trodden black
Oh, I kept the first for another day!
Yet knowing how way leads on to way,
I doubted if I should ever come back.
I shall be telling this with a sigh
Somewhere ages and ages hence:
Two roads diverged in a wood, and I—
I took the one less traveled by.
And that has made all the difference.
-Robert Frost
416. The poem suggests that if the speaker had traveled the road not taken,
his life would have been
(A) easier
(B) harder
(C) similar
(D) special
(E) different

417. In lines 9-12, the author is most likely saying that
(A) neither road is less traveled than the other.
(B) the goal is to find the road most people take.
(C) stepping on leaves is like stepping on people.
(D) travelers need to rest between making decisions.
(E) hesitation can lead people in the wrong direction.
418. The poem focuses mainly on
(A) hope for the future
(B) the nature of the roads we travel
(C) moments of decision
(D) learning from past mistakes
(E) the regret of wrong choices
419. The poet would most likely agree with all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) People are free to choose, but really don’t know their choices till later.
(B) People should offer advice on which road to travel.
(C) People cannot travel all the roads.
(D) Our lives are a mixture of choice and chance.
(E) Moments of decision, one after another, mark the passing of time.
420. It can be inferred from the last stanza (lines 16-20) that the speaker will
one day
(A) sigh that he even worried about the critical decisions in life.
(B) be too old to remember choices made in the distant past.
(C) yearn to go back in time and change the mistakes he made.
(D) wonder what awaited him down the path he didn’t choose.
(E) rejoice at his life built on good and bad choices.
#425)

The free market system puts cooperation above competition, or
rather, businesses cooperate first, compete second. A company’s primary aim
is to grow the market for its product, which it does through advertising. An
ad sells two things at the same time: first, it sells the product type, and
second, it sells the company’s brand. A car ad will first sell driving or “the
car”, and then it will sell, say Ford’s version of the car. The effect of this is
that, through advertising, companies are cooperating in order to increase the
demand for their type of product, and then they are competing against each
other for market share.
One way to increase the market for a product or service is by
attacking a competing idea or product. For example, in an advertisement for
Ford, a van is seen driving past people waiting at a bus stop, looking
miserable, in the rain. The people at the bus stop represent a portion of the
potential car buying public; the road is perfectly clear, the bus doesn’t come.
We know that good vehicles aren’t in competition with buses. But, if Ford
can weaken the desire for public transport while promoting one of their vans,
they are helping the automobile industry as a whole, and they are doing it in a
slightly covert way.
-Bill Morgan
421. In their advertisement, Ford makes the “people waiting at a bus stop”
look unhappy in order to
(A) build sympathy for people who do not drive cars.
(B) show that all bus stops need protection from the rain.
(C) compare the driving time of a Ford van to a city bus.
(D) discourage public transportation in an indirect way.
(E) explain that buses and trains cost too much money.
422. As it is used in the last sentence, the word “covert” most nearly means
(A) illegal
(B) hidden
(C) public
(D) common
(E) showy

423. The author believes that the first goal of a business is to
(A) maximize profits and minimize expenses.
(B) cooperate and then merge with other businesses.
(C) understand fully the details of its industry.
(D) convince the public that their brand is the best.
(E) create interest in its products and services.
424. Which of the following questions is answered by information in the
passage?
(A) Why do businesses need to cooperate at times?
(B) When is the best time to use public transportation?
(C) How do you place an advertisement for cars?
(D) What are the advantages and disadvantages of trains?
(E) Who is responsible for marketing in most businesses?
425. The author’s main point in the first paragraph is that
(A) getting off to a strong start is important because the free market is
competitive.
(B) if businesses do not cooperate with each other, they will all fail.
(C) businesses first cooperate to promote their product and then compete for
business.
(D) the automobile industry is extremely competitive due to high
manufacturing costs.
(E) demand for a product remains high as long as the supply of the product
remains low.
#430)
One of Sherlock Holmes’s defects—if, indeed, one may call it a
defect—was that he was exceedingly loath to communicate his full plans to

any other person until the instant of their fulfillment. Partly it came no doubt
from his own masterful nature, which loved to dominate and surprise those
who were around him. Partly also from his professional caution, which urged
him never to take any chances. The result, however, was very trying for those
who were acting as his agents and assistants. I had often suffered under it, but
never more so than during that long drive in the darkness. The great ordeal
was in front of us; at last we were about to make our final effort, and yet
Holmes had said nothing, and I could only surmise what his course of action
would be. My nerves thrilled with anticipation when at last the cold wind
upon our faces and the dark, void spaces on either side of the narrow road
told me that we were back upon the moor once again. Every stride of the
horses and every turn of the wheels was taking us nearer to our supreme
adventure.
Our conversation was hampered by the presence of the driver of the
hired wagonette, so that we were forced to talk of trivial matters when our
nerves were tense with emotion and anticipation. It was a relief to me, after
that unnatural restraint, when we at last passed Frankland’s house and knew
that we were drawing near to the Hall and to the scene of action. We did not
drive up to the door but got down near the gate of the avenue. The wagonette
was paid off and ordered to return to Coombe Tracey forthwith, while we
started to walk to Merripit House.
-Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
426. Why were the speaker and Holmes “forced to talk of trivial matters”
(last paragraph)?
(A) The driver of the wagonette did not know English.
(B) So no one would overhear confidential information.
(C) To organize their plans before the scene of action.
(D) They could not wait to arrive at the Frankland house.
(E) To hide their professional distrust of the driver.
427. According to the passage, the speaker’s trip involved all of the following
EXCEPT
(A) the chill of the wind touching his skin.
(B) passing through land with open areas.

(C) a frustration with Sherlock Holmes’s silence.
(D) getting off near a gate to a house.
(E) a drive through a city at a very late hour.
428. The “defect” mentioned in the first line refers to Sherlock Holmes’s
(A) conservative nature regarding critical decisions.
(B) difficulty in clearly communicating his thoughts.
(C) hatred of revealing his plans ahead of time.
(D) inability to relate to agents and assistants.
(E) tendency to surprise friends inappropriately.
429. The speaker’s mood in the selection may best be described as one of
(A) frustrated criticism
(B) unexpected confusion
(C) enthusiastic optimism
(D) controlled eagerness
(E) reluctant approval
430. It can be inferred from the passage that the speaker is a
(A) work associate of Sherlock Holmes.
(B) family member of the Frankland house.
(C) paid guide from the Merripit House.
(D) close relative of Sherlock Holmes.
(E) newspaper writer from Coombe Tracey.
#435)
The Lewis and Clark Expedition of 1804-06 was the fulfillment of a
longtime dream of Thomas Jefferson, and the success of that incredible
enterprise owes much to its two leaders, the scientific-minded Meriwether
Lewis and the more practical-minded William Clark. What their Corps of

Discovery accomplished—essentially opening up all the possibilities of the
vast trans-Mississippi West to the people of the United States—has rightly
been called one of the great feats of exploration. But Lewis and Clark did not
do it alone. Their most famous assistant during the transcontinental trek was a
young Indian woman whose life remains largely a mystery but whose legend
lives on as strong as ever—Sacagawea.
Early twentieth-century historians tended to glorify her role. More
recent writers, however, are inclined to minimize her contribution, and even
to adopt a somewhat scornful view of her assistance to the explorers. The
truth no doubt lies somewhere in between. It certainly was not the
“Sacagawea Expedition”; she did not guide Captains Lewis and Clark all the
way to the Pacific Ocean. But she did know some of the geography they
passed through, and she did interpret for them when they came across
Shoshone-speaking Indians. The U.S. government has not overlooked her
accomplishments. A Sacagawea one-dollar coin is expected to replace the
Susan B. Anthony dollar coin.
-Quig Nielsen
431. The passage is mainly about
(A) the strengths and limitations of a famous expedition.
(B) the role of Native Americans in U.S. exploration.
(C) the historical accomplishments of Lewis and Clark.
(D) the realization of a vision by President Jefferson.
(E) the extent to which Sacagawea helped an expedition.
432. According to the passage, it is reasonable to assume that
(A) Susan B. Anthony was of Native American ancestry.
(B) Lewis and Clark had different thinking styles.
(C) Early historians were very critical of Sacagawea.
(D) William Clark had visited the Pacific many times.
(E) Meriwether Lewis was born in Mississippi.
433. Which of the following is mentioned as a major accomplishment of the
Lewis and Clark Expedition?

6 reading practice test for the SSAT upper

6 reading practice test for the SSAT upper

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