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POST GRADUATE COMMON ENTRANCE TEST-2017
DATE and TIME COURSE SUBJECT
2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.
01-07-2017 ENVIRONMENTAL
ME/M.Tech/M.Arch/
courses offered by
VTU/UVCE/UBDTCE
ENGINEERING
MAXIMUM MARKS TOTAL DURATION MAXIMUM TIME FOR ANSWERING
100 150 Minutes 120 Minutes
MENTION YOUR PGCET NO. QUESTION BOOKLET DETAILS
VERSION CODE SERIAL NUMBER
A - 1 109023
DOs :
1. Check whether the PGCET No. has been entered and shaded in the respective circles on the OMR answer sheet.
2. Ensure whether the circles corresponding to course and the specific branch have been shaded on the OMR
answer sheet.
3. This Question Booklet is issued to you by the invigilator after the 2"d Bell i.e., after 2.25 p.m.
4. The Serial Number of this question booklet should be entered and the respective circles should also be shaded
completely on the OMR answer sheet.
5. The Version Code of this question booklet should be entered on the OMR answer sheet and the respective circles
should also be shaded completely on the OMR answer sheet.
6. Compulsorily sign at the bottom portion of the OMR answer sheet in the space provided.
DON 'Ts :
1. THE TIMING AND MARKS PRINTED ON THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHOULD NOT BE
DAMAGED / MUTILATED / SPOILED.
2. The 3" Bell rings at 2.30 p.m., till then;
• Do not remove the paper seal polythene hag of this question booklet.
• Do not look inside this question booklet.
• Do not start answering on the OMR answer sheet.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. This question booklet contains 75 (items) questions and each question will have one statement and four answers.
(Four different options / responses.) .
2. After the 3' Bell is rung at 2.30 p.m., remove the paper seal / polythene bag of this question booklet and check
that this booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by a
complete test booklet. Read each item and start answering on the OMR answer sheet.
3. During the subsequent 120 minutes:
• Read each question (item) carefully.
• Choose one correct answer from out of the four available responses (options / choices) given under
each question / item. En case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose only one response for each item.
• Completely darken / shade the relevant circle with a BLUE OR BLACK INK BALL POINT PEN
a°ainst the uestion number on the OMR answer sheet.
Correct Method of shading the circle on the OMR answer sheet is as shown below :
4. Use the space provided on each page of the question booklet for Rough Work. Do not use the OMR answer sheet
for the same.
5. After the last Bell is rung at 4.30 pm, stop marking on the OMR answer sheet and affix your left hand thumb
impression on the OMR answer sheet as per the instructions.
6. Handover the OMR ANSWER SHEET to the room invigilator as it is.
7. After separating the top sheet (KEA copy), the invigilator will return the bottom sheet replica (Candidate's copy)
to you to carry'home for self-evaluation.
8. Preserve the replica of the OMR answer sheet for a minimum period of ONE year.
9. Only Non-programmable calculators are allowed.
Marks Distribution
PART-1 : 50 QUESTIONS CARRY ONE MARK EACH (1 TO 50)
PART-2 : 25 QUESTIONS CARRY TWO MARKS EACH (51 TO 75)
EN-Al I II111111 11111
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
PART - I
Each question carries one mark. (50 x 1 = 50)
i. Alkalinity is defined as the quantity of
ions in water that will reacts to
(A) neutralise hydrogen ion
(B) acidify hydrogen ions
(C) neutralise oxygen ions
(D) acidify oxygen ions
2. Noticeable discoloration of teeth when
fluoride concentration in drinking
water exceeds 1.5 ing/lt is called
(A) Leaching
(B) Bleaching
(C) Mottling
(D) Hardness
4. The process of movement of nutrients
from the soil by the acid rain is called
(A) Transpiration
(B) Evapotranspiration
(C) Run off
(D) Infiltration
5. The ability of a community to
establish itself in a different
habitat/area is also a form of
(A) Eutrophication
(B) Ecological resilince
(C) Trophic level
(D) Food web
6. Paramxcovirus causes measles and it
is
(A) Water borne
(B) Air borne
(C) Chemical borne
(D) Pesticide borne
3. During waste water treatment
protozoan consume
(A) Suspended bacteria
(B) Cysts of amoeba
(C) Mycelium of fungi
(D) Calcium and magnesium
Space For Rough Work
EN 3 A-1
7. Earth day is held every year on
(A) June 5th
(B) November 73rd
(C) April
(D) January 28th
8. Waterlogging is a phenomena in
which
(A) Crop patterns arc rotated
(B) Soil root zones becomes
saturated due to over irrigation
(C) Erosion of soil
(D) Organic farming
9. Plants can take up nitrogen in two
forms they are
(A) NH +4 and NO
(B) NH and NO
,
(C) NO1
(D) NO,
10. A common impurity that impair the
aesthetic quality of water is
(A) 1-17S
(B) Calcium
(C) Fluoride
(D) pH
11. Bacteriophage is used to monitor
(A) COD
(B) Microbial pollution
(C) Fluoride
(D) Eutrophication
12. Red tides are produced by
(A) Algae
(B) Fungi
(C) Virus
(D) Bacteria
13. In a static fluid, the pressure at any
given point is
(A) zero
(B) different in different directions
(C) the same in all directions
(D) acting in only one direction
Space For Rough Work
A-1 4 EN
14. Viscosity is the property of a fluid and
in the SI system, it has the units of
(A) poise
(B) Stoke (cm-/s)
(C) gm/(cm.$)
(D) Pa-s (N.S/m2)
15. For laminar flow in a circular pipe,
average velocity is
(A) one third of the maximum
velocity
(B) equal to maximum velocity
(C) half of the maximum velocity
(D) three fourth of maximum
velocity
16. The friction loss from a sudden
contraction of the cross-section of the
pipe is proportional to
(A) Pressure head
(B) Gravity head
(C) Velocity head
(D) Potential head
17. Diaphragm pump is an example of
(A) Centrifugal pump
(B) Reciprocating pump
(C) Gear pump
(D) Mono pump
18. The equation for steady state yield
from a tube-well was first developed
by
(A) Darcy
(B) Jacob
(C) Chow
(D) Dupuit
19. S-curve hydrograph is used
(A) to estimate the peak flood from a
basin due to a given storm.
(B) to develop synthetic unit
hydrogrpah.
(C) to convert the unit hydrograph of
given duration into a unit
hydrograph of any other
duration.
(D) to estimate the infiltration losses.
Space For Rough Work
EN 5 A-1
23. F/M is accurately given by
(A)
BOD
Total solids
(B)
COD
MLSS
(C)
MLVSS
BOD
20. Which one of the following formations
does not contain ground water ?
(A) Aquifer
(B) Aquitard
(C) Aquifuge
(D) Aquicludc
(D) BUD
MLSS
21. The chemical compound which is
itenerally used to reduce the
evaporation from water bodies is
(A) D.D.T.D.
(B) Alum
(C) Potassium dichromate
(D) Acetyl alcohol
11. Depth of standard rate of trickling
filter is
(A) 0.5 to 1.0 m
(B) 1 to 2.0 in
(C) 1.5 to 4.8 m
(D) 1 to 8.0 in
24. Organic loading of ASP is
(A) 100 to 200 g/m3/day
(B) 200 to 400 g/m3/day
(C) 500 to 650 g/m3/day
(D) 650 to 800 glm3iday
25. Sludge from a Biological treatment is
(A) Harmless inorganic sediment.
(B) Rich in organic matter and
Bacteria.
(C) Rich in organic matter and
micro-organisms.
(D) Rich in Bigger inert solids.
Space For Rough Work
A-1 6 EN
26. Waters from the following source is
likely to be hard :
(A) Lake
(B) Pond
(C) Deep well
(D) River
27. Design period mainly depends on
(A) pecentage interest at which the
loan is taken.
(B) capacity of the municipality to
repay.
(C) rate of growth of population.
(D) maintaining of fittings.
28. The average domestic demand of
water for an Indian city is
(A) 2701pcd
(B) 400 Ipcd
(C) 700 Iped
(D) 135 1pcd
29. For an old city with constraints for
growth the best method of forecasting
future population is
(A) Incremental increase method
(B) Geometrical increase method
(C) Logestic curve method
(D) Arithmetical increase method
30. The usual amount of residual chlorine
required after 10 minutes of contact is
(A) 0.1 mg//
(B) 0.2 mg//
(C) 1 mg//
(D) more than 3 mgil
31. Free chlorine residual means
(A) HOC1 + HCI
(B) HC1 + OCI
(C) HOCI + 0C1
(D) Chloramines
Space For Rough Work
EN 7 A-1
32. A lamp hole is helpful in
(A) illuminating sewer line
(B) cleaning sewer line
(C) repairing
(D) testing sewers
33. In General Imperviousness of any
catchment shall be between
(A) 1% to 95%
(B) 0.1% to 10%
(C) 0.01% to 95%
(D) 0.0001% to 100%
34. Moisture content of solid waste is
found in
(A) Proximate analysis
(B) Ultimate analysis
(C) Potential analysis
(D) Carbon analysis
35. Energy content of a solid waste is
expressed in
(A) kJ
(B) kJ.kg
(C) kJ/kg
(D) kg
36. OTEC means
(A) Optimal Thermal Energy
Conversion
(B) Ocean Thermal Energy
Conversion
(C) Ocean Tidal Energy Conversion
(D) Optimal Tidal Energy
Conversion
37. Mining acitvity
(A) Devastates ecosystem
(B) Creates biodiversity
(C) Recycles solid waste
(D) Controls pollution
38. Under superadiabatic conditions, with
light to moderate wind speed, on a hot
summer afternoon when large scale
thermal eddies are present, the plume
behaviour would be
(A) Coning
(B) Looping
(C) Fanning
(D) Trapping
Space For Rough Work
A-1 8 EN
39. The air sample collected by filling an
evaculated flask or an inflotable bag is
called
(A) Freeze out sampling
(B) Grab sampling
(C) Coarse sampling
(D) Grannular sampling
40. Formation of ozone layer is explained
by
(A) Rosenmund's reaction
(B) Chapman's reaction
(C) Henderson's reaction
(D) Perkin's reaction
41. Estimated residence time of SO, in a
dry atmosphere is
42. Widely used device for controlling
particulate emissions at industrial
installations ranging from power
plants, cement and paper mills to oil
refineries are
(A) Catalytic convertors
(B) Electrostatic precipitators
(C) Cyclone separators
(D) Settling chambers
43. Rate of oxidation of organic matter
can be approximated as
(A) First order reaction
(B) Second order reaction
(C) Third order reaction
(D) Zero order reaction
44. Fick's law can be represented as
(A) JA
dt
(B) JA =
dc
At
(A) 4 days cbc
(B) 7 days (C) -DABaCAaz
(C) 8 months
(D) JA — aCA
(D) 3 years aZ
Space For Rough Work
EN 9 A-1
45. The ditThrence between the saturation
concentration of DO(CS) and the
concentration actually present in water
(CL) is called as
(A) Additional DO
(B) Excess DO
(C) Ultimate DO
(D) 1)0 deficit
46. The record of repeated observations
made at a particular location in the
environment is called
(A) Observations
(B) Time series
(C) Polynomial series
(D) Comprehensive
47. The term EIA came into existence
through NEPA on
(A) 20 Jan 1972
(B) 10 Jan 1980
(C) I Jan 1970
(D) 15 Aug 1980
48. Most air pollution episodes have
occurred in the season
(A) Rainy
(B) Summer
(C) Winter
(D) August to September
49. The analytical function not associated
with environmental impact assessment
include
(A) Prediction
(B) Defining scope of EIA
(C) Impact evaluation and analysis
(D) Recycle and Reuse
50. In comprehensive EIA, the radius of
influence of the project on the
environment is
(A) 100 kin
(B) 25 km
(C) 10 km
(D) 500 km
Space For Rough Work
A-I 10 EN
PART - 2
Each question carries two marks. (25 x 2 = 50)
51. What is the suitable diameter for the
pores in a filter used for concentrating
virus from a 100 ml water sample ?
54. The head loss due to friction measured
in terms of metre(m) of a flowing fluid
is given by
(A) 10 pm
(B) 100 psn
(C) 10 nm
(D) 100 nm
411 u2
(A)
= 2gD
(B) AE, =
52. Nobel Peace Price (2004) for
contribution to sustainable
development was awarded to
(A) Madhav Gadgil
(B) Wangari Maathai
(C) Medha Patkar
(D) Sunderlal Bahuguna
53. Reynold's number is the ratio of
(A) Gravity three to pressure force
(B) Inertia force to the viscous force
(C) Pressure force to shear force
(D) Gravity force to viscous force
(C) h t, -=
(D) he, =
55. Overall efficiency of a pump is
defined as ratio of
(A) pressure to head
(B) useful work to pressure
(C) hydraulic work performed to the
actual work input
(D) actual work input to velocity
AP
2gD
4L2
2uD
Space For Rough Work
EN 11 A-1
56. Water of density 1000 kg/m3 and
viscosity 0.0008 (N.S)/m2 is pumped
at a rate of 1000 cm.'Is through a
25 mm i.d. pipe. Reynold's number of
water will be
(A) 2246
(B) 63662
(C) 5001
(D) 2x 104
57. If the gauge pressure is 32424 N/m2,
the absolute pressure is equal to
(A) 1421 N/m2
(B) 22 x 10' N/m2
(C) 44313 N/m2
(D) 133749 N/m2
58. Discharge through a rectangular notch
varies as
(A) H9-5
(B) H2.5
(C) H1 '
(D) 1-1().5
59. A catchment of 20.000 m3 has runoff
co-efficient 0.4 and received rainfall at
an uniform rate of 5 mm/hour, what is
the maximum rate of runoff?
(A) 0.011 m3/s
(B) 2 m3/s
(C) 1.4 m3/s
(D) 2.5 m'is
60. An isolated 4h storm occured over a
catchment as follows :
Time
H
1r
1st hr I '-)11 hr
I
3rd hr!4th hr.
Rainfall (mm) 9 28 12
1
; 7
The index for the catchment is
10 numb. The estimated run-off depth
from the catchment due to the above
storm is
(A) 10 mm
(B) 20 mm
(C) 23 mm
(D) 16 mm
Space For Rough Work
A-1 12 EN
61. In the application of rational formula
for computing the design discharge,
the rainfall duration is stipulated as the
time of concentration because
(Q) This leads to the largest possible
rainfall intensity.
(B) This leads to the smallest
possible rainfall intensity.
(C) The time of concentration is the
smallest rainfall duration for
which the rational formula is
applicable.
(D) The time of concentration is the
largest rainfall duration for
which the rational formula is
applicable.
62. The vertical hydraulic conductivity of the
top soil at certain stage is 0.2 cm/h a storm
of intensity 0.5 cm/h occurs over the soil
for an indefinite period. Assuming the
surface drainage to be adequate, the
infiltration rate after the storm has lasted
for a very long time, shall be
(A) 0.2 cm/h
(B) smaller than 0.2 em/h
(C) 0.5 cm/h
(D) between 0.2 and 0.5 cm/h
63. The detention period for a standard
rate digester is
(A) 10 to 20 days
(B) 20 to 30 days
(C) 30 to 90 days
(D) 90 to 180 days
64. The last trap provided in a house
drainage system is
(A) Q-trap
(B) Floor trap
(C) Nahani trap
(D) Interception trap
65. Design a circular settling tank unit
for a primary treatment of sewage at
12 million Its/day. Assume suitable
values of detention period and surface
loading.
(A) Settling tank with 18.7 m dia and
3.2 in water depth
(B) Settling tank with 19.6 in dia and
3.2 m water depth
(C) Settling tank with 20.7 in dia and
3.2 m water depth
(D) Settling tank with 20.99 m dia
and 3.2 m water depth
Space For Rough Work
EN 13 A-1
66. Amount of return sludge in
conventional ASP is
(A) 10 — 20%
(B) 25 — 50%
(C) 50 — 100%
(D) 100 -- 300%
67. If a sample is heated to 600 °C the
fraction getting evaporated represents
(A) fixed solids
(B) volatile solids
(C) total dissolved solids
(D) settleble solids
69. Zero hardness of water is achieved
by
(A) Lime soda process
(B) iuri exchangL:
(C) Excess lime treatment
(D) Excess alum and lime treatment
70. What is the density of the sludge
removed from the aeration tank ?
(A) 990 kinim-1
(B) 1000 kg/m3
(C) 1011 kg/m3
(D) 1022 kg/m3
71. Permissible standards of air quality
fixed in India for residential areas for
(D) Suspended and colloidal solids
Space For Rough Work
68. Volatile solids represents
(A) Organic dissolved solid
(B) Inorganic dissolved solid
(C) Total dissolved solid
SPM, SO,, NO & CO in µg/m-1
respectively are
(A) 500, 120, 5000, 6000
(B) 160, 80, 100, 1000
(C) 100, 30, 30, 1000
(D) 200, 80, 80, 2000
A-1 14 EN
74. EIA-report is prepared refering72. An anemometer at a height of 10 in
above the ground measures the wind
speed at 2.5 m/s, the wind speed at an
elevation of 300 m in rough terrain for
atmospheric stability class C with
exponent P = 0.2 is
(A) 5 m/s
(B) 4.9 m/s
(C) 6 m/s
(D) 9 m/s
(A) Base line data
(B) Composting
(C) Geological data only
(D) Previous reports
75. Specific surface area of Activated
Carbon is around
73. An aerobic method of decomposing of
solid waste is called
(A) Incineration
(B) Burning
(C) Pyrolysis
(D) Composting
(A) 1 — 2 m2/g
(B) 10 — 20 in2/g
(C) 100 — 200 m'-/g
(D) 1000 — 1500 m2/g
Space For Rough Work
EN 15 A-1
Space for Rough Work
A-1 16 EN

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  • 1. POST GRADUATE COMMON ENTRANCE TEST-2017 DATE and TIME COURSE SUBJECT 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m. 01-07-2017 ENVIRONMENTAL ME/M.Tech/M.Arch/ courses offered by VTU/UVCE/UBDTCE ENGINEERING MAXIMUM MARKS TOTAL DURATION MAXIMUM TIME FOR ANSWERING 100 150 Minutes 120 Minutes MENTION YOUR PGCET NO. QUESTION BOOKLET DETAILS VERSION CODE SERIAL NUMBER A - 1 109023 DOs : 1. Check whether the PGCET No. has been entered and shaded in the respective circles on the OMR answer sheet. 2. Ensure whether the circles corresponding to course and the specific branch have been shaded on the OMR answer sheet. 3. This Question Booklet is issued to you by the invigilator after the 2"d Bell i.e., after 2.25 p.m. 4. The Serial Number of this question booklet should be entered and the respective circles should also be shaded completely on the OMR answer sheet. 5. The Version Code of this question booklet should be entered on the OMR answer sheet and the respective circles should also be shaded completely on the OMR answer sheet. 6. Compulsorily sign at the bottom portion of the OMR answer sheet in the space provided. DON 'Ts : 1. THE TIMING AND MARKS PRINTED ON THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHOULD NOT BE DAMAGED / MUTILATED / SPOILED. 2. The 3" Bell rings at 2.30 p.m., till then; • Do not remove the paper seal polythene hag of this question booklet. • Do not look inside this question booklet. • Do not start answering on the OMR answer sheet. IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This question booklet contains 75 (items) questions and each question will have one statement and four answers. (Four different options / responses.) . 2. After the 3' Bell is rung at 2.30 p.m., remove the paper seal / polythene bag of this question booklet and check that this booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet. Read each item and start answering on the OMR answer sheet. 3. During the subsequent 120 minutes: • Read each question (item) carefully. • Choose one correct answer from out of the four available responses (options / choices) given under each question / item. En case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose only one response for each item. • Completely darken / shade the relevant circle with a BLUE OR BLACK INK BALL POINT PEN a°ainst the uestion number on the OMR answer sheet. Correct Method of shading the circle on the OMR answer sheet is as shown below : 4. Use the space provided on each page of the question booklet for Rough Work. Do not use the OMR answer sheet for the same. 5. After the last Bell is rung at 4.30 pm, stop marking on the OMR answer sheet and affix your left hand thumb impression on the OMR answer sheet as per the instructions. 6. Handover the OMR ANSWER SHEET to the room invigilator as it is. 7. After separating the top sheet (KEA copy), the invigilator will return the bottom sheet replica (Candidate's copy) to you to carry'home for self-evaluation. 8. Preserve the replica of the OMR answer sheet for a minimum period of ONE year. 9. Only Non-programmable calculators are allowed. Marks Distribution PART-1 : 50 QUESTIONS CARRY ONE MARK EACH (1 TO 50) PART-2 : 25 QUESTIONS CARRY TWO MARKS EACH (51 TO 75) EN-Al I II111111 11111
  • 2. ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING PART - I Each question carries one mark. (50 x 1 = 50) i. Alkalinity is defined as the quantity of ions in water that will reacts to (A) neutralise hydrogen ion (B) acidify hydrogen ions (C) neutralise oxygen ions (D) acidify oxygen ions 2. Noticeable discoloration of teeth when fluoride concentration in drinking water exceeds 1.5 ing/lt is called (A) Leaching (B) Bleaching (C) Mottling (D) Hardness 4. The process of movement of nutrients from the soil by the acid rain is called (A) Transpiration (B) Evapotranspiration (C) Run off (D) Infiltration 5. The ability of a community to establish itself in a different habitat/area is also a form of (A) Eutrophication (B) Ecological resilince (C) Trophic level (D) Food web 6. Paramxcovirus causes measles and it is (A) Water borne (B) Air borne (C) Chemical borne (D) Pesticide borne 3. During waste water treatment protozoan consume (A) Suspended bacteria (B) Cysts of amoeba (C) Mycelium of fungi (D) Calcium and magnesium Space For Rough Work EN 3 A-1
  • 3. 7. Earth day is held every year on (A) June 5th (B) November 73rd (C) April (D) January 28th 8. Waterlogging is a phenomena in which (A) Crop patterns arc rotated (B) Soil root zones becomes saturated due to over irrigation (C) Erosion of soil (D) Organic farming 9. Plants can take up nitrogen in two forms they are (A) NH +4 and NO (B) NH and NO , (C) NO1 (D) NO, 10. A common impurity that impair the aesthetic quality of water is (A) 1-17S (B) Calcium (C) Fluoride (D) pH 11. Bacteriophage is used to monitor (A) COD (B) Microbial pollution (C) Fluoride (D) Eutrophication 12. Red tides are produced by (A) Algae (B) Fungi (C) Virus (D) Bacteria 13. In a static fluid, the pressure at any given point is (A) zero (B) different in different directions (C) the same in all directions (D) acting in only one direction Space For Rough Work A-1 4 EN
  • 4. 14. Viscosity is the property of a fluid and in the SI system, it has the units of (A) poise (B) Stoke (cm-/s) (C) gm/(cm.$) (D) Pa-s (N.S/m2) 15. For laminar flow in a circular pipe, average velocity is (A) one third of the maximum velocity (B) equal to maximum velocity (C) half of the maximum velocity (D) three fourth of maximum velocity 16. The friction loss from a sudden contraction of the cross-section of the pipe is proportional to (A) Pressure head (B) Gravity head (C) Velocity head (D) Potential head 17. Diaphragm pump is an example of (A) Centrifugal pump (B) Reciprocating pump (C) Gear pump (D) Mono pump 18. The equation for steady state yield from a tube-well was first developed by (A) Darcy (B) Jacob (C) Chow (D) Dupuit 19. S-curve hydrograph is used (A) to estimate the peak flood from a basin due to a given storm. (B) to develop synthetic unit hydrogrpah. (C) to convert the unit hydrograph of given duration into a unit hydrograph of any other duration. (D) to estimate the infiltration losses. Space For Rough Work EN 5 A-1
  • 5. 23. F/M is accurately given by (A) BOD Total solids (B) COD MLSS (C) MLVSS BOD 20. Which one of the following formations does not contain ground water ? (A) Aquifer (B) Aquitard (C) Aquifuge (D) Aquicludc (D) BUD MLSS 21. The chemical compound which is itenerally used to reduce the evaporation from water bodies is (A) D.D.T.D. (B) Alum (C) Potassium dichromate (D) Acetyl alcohol 11. Depth of standard rate of trickling filter is (A) 0.5 to 1.0 m (B) 1 to 2.0 in (C) 1.5 to 4.8 m (D) 1 to 8.0 in 24. Organic loading of ASP is (A) 100 to 200 g/m3/day (B) 200 to 400 g/m3/day (C) 500 to 650 g/m3/day (D) 650 to 800 glm3iday 25. Sludge from a Biological treatment is (A) Harmless inorganic sediment. (B) Rich in organic matter and Bacteria. (C) Rich in organic matter and micro-organisms. (D) Rich in Bigger inert solids. Space For Rough Work A-1 6 EN
  • 6. 26. Waters from the following source is likely to be hard : (A) Lake (B) Pond (C) Deep well (D) River 27. Design period mainly depends on (A) pecentage interest at which the loan is taken. (B) capacity of the municipality to repay. (C) rate of growth of population. (D) maintaining of fittings. 28. The average domestic demand of water for an Indian city is (A) 2701pcd (B) 400 Ipcd (C) 700 Iped (D) 135 1pcd 29. For an old city with constraints for growth the best method of forecasting future population is (A) Incremental increase method (B) Geometrical increase method (C) Logestic curve method (D) Arithmetical increase method 30. The usual amount of residual chlorine required after 10 minutes of contact is (A) 0.1 mg// (B) 0.2 mg// (C) 1 mg// (D) more than 3 mgil 31. Free chlorine residual means (A) HOC1 + HCI (B) HC1 + OCI (C) HOCI + 0C1 (D) Chloramines Space For Rough Work EN 7 A-1
  • 7. 32. A lamp hole is helpful in (A) illuminating sewer line (B) cleaning sewer line (C) repairing (D) testing sewers 33. In General Imperviousness of any catchment shall be between (A) 1% to 95% (B) 0.1% to 10% (C) 0.01% to 95% (D) 0.0001% to 100% 34. Moisture content of solid waste is found in (A) Proximate analysis (B) Ultimate analysis (C) Potential analysis (D) Carbon analysis 35. Energy content of a solid waste is expressed in (A) kJ (B) kJ.kg (C) kJ/kg (D) kg 36. OTEC means (A) Optimal Thermal Energy Conversion (B) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (C) Ocean Tidal Energy Conversion (D) Optimal Tidal Energy Conversion 37. Mining acitvity (A) Devastates ecosystem (B) Creates biodiversity (C) Recycles solid waste (D) Controls pollution 38. Under superadiabatic conditions, with light to moderate wind speed, on a hot summer afternoon when large scale thermal eddies are present, the plume behaviour would be (A) Coning (B) Looping (C) Fanning (D) Trapping Space For Rough Work A-1 8 EN
  • 8. 39. The air sample collected by filling an evaculated flask or an inflotable bag is called (A) Freeze out sampling (B) Grab sampling (C) Coarse sampling (D) Grannular sampling 40. Formation of ozone layer is explained by (A) Rosenmund's reaction (B) Chapman's reaction (C) Henderson's reaction (D) Perkin's reaction 41. Estimated residence time of SO, in a dry atmosphere is 42. Widely used device for controlling particulate emissions at industrial installations ranging from power plants, cement and paper mills to oil refineries are (A) Catalytic convertors (B) Electrostatic precipitators (C) Cyclone separators (D) Settling chambers 43. Rate of oxidation of organic matter can be approximated as (A) First order reaction (B) Second order reaction (C) Third order reaction (D) Zero order reaction 44. Fick's law can be represented as (A) JA dt (B) JA = dc At (A) 4 days cbc (B) 7 days (C) -DABaCAaz (C) 8 months (D) JA — aCA (D) 3 years aZ Space For Rough Work EN 9 A-1
  • 9. 45. The ditThrence between the saturation concentration of DO(CS) and the concentration actually present in water (CL) is called as (A) Additional DO (B) Excess DO (C) Ultimate DO (D) 1)0 deficit 46. The record of repeated observations made at a particular location in the environment is called (A) Observations (B) Time series (C) Polynomial series (D) Comprehensive 47. The term EIA came into existence through NEPA on (A) 20 Jan 1972 (B) 10 Jan 1980 (C) I Jan 1970 (D) 15 Aug 1980 48. Most air pollution episodes have occurred in the season (A) Rainy (B) Summer (C) Winter (D) August to September 49. The analytical function not associated with environmental impact assessment include (A) Prediction (B) Defining scope of EIA (C) Impact evaluation and analysis (D) Recycle and Reuse 50. In comprehensive EIA, the radius of influence of the project on the environment is (A) 100 kin (B) 25 km (C) 10 km (D) 500 km Space For Rough Work A-I 10 EN
  • 10. PART - 2 Each question carries two marks. (25 x 2 = 50) 51. What is the suitable diameter for the pores in a filter used for concentrating virus from a 100 ml water sample ? 54. The head loss due to friction measured in terms of metre(m) of a flowing fluid is given by (A) 10 pm (B) 100 psn (C) 10 nm (D) 100 nm 411 u2 (A) = 2gD (B) AE, = 52. Nobel Peace Price (2004) for contribution to sustainable development was awarded to (A) Madhav Gadgil (B) Wangari Maathai (C) Medha Patkar (D) Sunderlal Bahuguna 53. Reynold's number is the ratio of (A) Gravity three to pressure force (B) Inertia force to the viscous force (C) Pressure force to shear force (D) Gravity force to viscous force (C) h t, -= (D) he, = 55. Overall efficiency of a pump is defined as ratio of (A) pressure to head (B) useful work to pressure (C) hydraulic work performed to the actual work input (D) actual work input to velocity AP 2gD 4L2 2uD Space For Rough Work EN 11 A-1
  • 11. 56. Water of density 1000 kg/m3 and viscosity 0.0008 (N.S)/m2 is pumped at a rate of 1000 cm.'Is through a 25 mm i.d. pipe. Reynold's number of water will be (A) 2246 (B) 63662 (C) 5001 (D) 2x 104 57. If the gauge pressure is 32424 N/m2, the absolute pressure is equal to (A) 1421 N/m2 (B) 22 x 10' N/m2 (C) 44313 N/m2 (D) 133749 N/m2 58. Discharge through a rectangular notch varies as (A) H9-5 (B) H2.5 (C) H1 ' (D) 1-1().5 59. A catchment of 20.000 m3 has runoff co-efficient 0.4 and received rainfall at an uniform rate of 5 mm/hour, what is the maximum rate of runoff? (A) 0.011 m3/s (B) 2 m3/s (C) 1.4 m3/s (D) 2.5 m'is 60. An isolated 4h storm occured over a catchment as follows : Time H 1r 1st hr I '-)11 hr I 3rd hr!4th hr. Rainfall (mm) 9 28 12 1 ; 7 The index for the catchment is 10 numb. The estimated run-off depth from the catchment due to the above storm is (A) 10 mm (B) 20 mm (C) 23 mm (D) 16 mm Space For Rough Work A-1 12 EN
  • 12. 61. In the application of rational formula for computing the design discharge, the rainfall duration is stipulated as the time of concentration because (Q) This leads to the largest possible rainfall intensity. (B) This leads to the smallest possible rainfall intensity. (C) The time of concentration is the smallest rainfall duration for which the rational formula is applicable. (D) The time of concentration is the largest rainfall duration for which the rational formula is applicable. 62. The vertical hydraulic conductivity of the top soil at certain stage is 0.2 cm/h a storm of intensity 0.5 cm/h occurs over the soil for an indefinite period. Assuming the surface drainage to be adequate, the infiltration rate after the storm has lasted for a very long time, shall be (A) 0.2 cm/h (B) smaller than 0.2 em/h (C) 0.5 cm/h (D) between 0.2 and 0.5 cm/h 63. The detention period for a standard rate digester is (A) 10 to 20 days (B) 20 to 30 days (C) 30 to 90 days (D) 90 to 180 days 64. The last trap provided in a house drainage system is (A) Q-trap (B) Floor trap (C) Nahani trap (D) Interception trap 65. Design a circular settling tank unit for a primary treatment of sewage at 12 million Its/day. Assume suitable values of detention period and surface loading. (A) Settling tank with 18.7 m dia and 3.2 in water depth (B) Settling tank with 19.6 in dia and 3.2 m water depth (C) Settling tank with 20.7 in dia and 3.2 m water depth (D) Settling tank with 20.99 m dia and 3.2 m water depth Space For Rough Work EN 13 A-1
  • 13. 66. Amount of return sludge in conventional ASP is (A) 10 — 20% (B) 25 — 50% (C) 50 — 100% (D) 100 -- 300% 67. If a sample is heated to 600 °C the fraction getting evaporated represents (A) fixed solids (B) volatile solids (C) total dissolved solids (D) settleble solids 69. Zero hardness of water is achieved by (A) Lime soda process (B) iuri exchangL: (C) Excess lime treatment (D) Excess alum and lime treatment 70. What is the density of the sludge removed from the aeration tank ? (A) 990 kinim-1 (B) 1000 kg/m3 (C) 1011 kg/m3 (D) 1022 kg/m3 71. Permissible standards of air quality fixed in India for residential areas for (D) Suspended and colloidal solids Space For Rough Work 68. Volatile solids represents (A) Organic dissolved solid (B) Inorganic dissolved solid (C) Total dissolved solid SPM, SO,, NO & CO in µg/m-1 respectively are (A) 500, 120, 5000, 6000 (B) 160, 80, 100, 1000 (C) 100, 30, 30, 1000 (D) 200, 80, 80, 2000 A-1 14 EN
  • 14. 74. EIA-report is prepared refering72. An anemometer at a height of 10 in above the ground measures the wind speed at 2.5 m/s, the wind speed at an elevation of 300 m in rough terrain for atmospheric stability class C with exponent P = 0.2 is (A) 5 m/s (B) 4.9 m/s (C) 6 m/s (D) 9 m/s (A) Base line data (B) Composting (C) Geological data only (D) Previous reports 75. Specific surface area of Activated Carbon is around 73. An aerobic method of decomposing of solid waste is called (A) Incineration (B) Burning (C) Pyrolysis (D) Composting (A) 1 — 2 m2/g (B) 10 — 20 in2/g (C) 100 — 200 m'-/g (D) 1000 — 1500 m2/g Space For Rough Work EN 15 A-1
  • 15. Space for Rough Work A-1 16 EN