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POST GRADUATE COMMON ENTRANCE TEST-2017
DATE and TIME COURSE SUBJECT
01-07-2017
2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.
ME/M.Tech/M.Arch/
courses offered by
VTU/UVCE/UBDTCE
BIO-TECHNOLOGY
MAXIMUM MARKS TOTAL DURATION MAXIMUM TIME FOR ANSWERING
100 150 Minutes 120 Minutes
MENTION YOUR PGCET NO. QUESTION BOOKLET DETAILS
VERSION CODE SERIAL NUMBER
A- 1. 121146
DOs :
1. Check whether the PGCET No. has been entered and shaded in the respective circles on the OMR answer sheet.
2. Ensure whether the circles corresponding to course and the specific branch have been shaded on the OMR
answer sheet.
3. This Question Booklet is issued to you by the invigilator after the 2"d Bell i.e., after 2.25 p.m.
4. The Serial Number of this question booklet should be entered and the respective circles should also be shaded
completely on the OMR answer sheet.
5. The Version Code of this question booklet should be entered on the OMR answer sheet and the respective circles
should also be shaded completely on the OMR answer sheet.
6. Compulsorily sign at the bottom portion of the OMR answer sheet in the space provided.
DON'Ts :
I. THE TIMING AND MARKS PRINTED ON THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHOULD NOT BE
DAMAGED / MUTILATED / SPOILED.
2. The 3'' Bell rings at 2.30 p.m., till then;
• Do not remove the paper seal / polythene bag of this question booklet.
• Do not look inside this question booklet.
• Do not start answering on the OMR answer sheet.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. This question booklet contains 75 (items) questions and each question will have one statement and four answers.
(Four different options / responses.)
2. After the 3rd Bell is rung at 2.30 p.m., remove the paper seal I polythene bag of this question booklet and check
that this booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by a
complete test booklet. Read each item and start answering on the OMR answer sheet.
3. During the subsequent 120 minutes:
• Read each question (item) carefully.
• Choose one correct answer from out of the four available responses (options / choices) given under
each question / item. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose only one response for each item.
• Completely darken / shade the relevant circle with a BLUE OR BLACK INK BALL POINT PEN
a!ainst the uestion number on the OMR answer sheet.
Correct Method of shading the circle on the OMR answer sheet is as shown below :
4. Use the space provided on each page of the question booklet for Rough Work. Do not use the OMR answer sheet
for the same.
5. After the last Bell is rung at 4.30 p.m., stop marking on the OMR answer sheet and affix your left hand thumb
impression on the OMR answer sheet as per the instructions.
6. Handover the OMR ANSWER SHEET to the room invigilator as it is.
7. After separating the top sheet (KEA copy), the invigilator will return the bottom sheet replica (Candidate's copy)
to you to carry home for self-evaluation.
8. Preserve the replica of the OMR answer sheet for a minimum period of ONE year.
9. Only Non-programmable calculators are allowed.
Marks Distribution
PART-1 : 50 QUESTIONS CARRY ONE MARK EACH (1 TO 50)
PART-2 : 25 QUESTIONS CARRY TWO MARKS EACH (51 TO 75)
BT-Al 1111111111111111111111
BIOTECHNOLOGY
PART — A
Each question carries one mark. (50 x 1 = 50)
1. The transfer of genetic material from
one cell to another by a phage is called
(A) Transformation
(B) Conjugation
(C) Transduction
(D) 'Hybridization
2. The key enzyme found in PCR that is
Taq polymerase is
(A) Methanogen
(B) Acidophil
(C) Thermophile
(D) Halophile
3. Which of the following is an a amino
acid ?
(A) Serine
(B) Threonine
(C) Valine
(D) Proline
4. Most common monomer of
carbohydrate is
(A) Nucleotides
(B) Glucose
(C) Amino acids
(D) Maltose
5. The catalytic activity of two different
enzymes can be compared by the
(A) pH of optimum value
(B) Molecular size of enzyme
(C) Formulation of the product
(1)) km value
6. Pribnao box contribute to
(A) Protein synthesis
(B) ATP synthesis
(C) RNA synthesis
(D) none of above
7. "Gene-battery model" of Gene
regulation in eukaryotes is proposed
by
(A) Jacob and Monad
(B) Britten and Davidson
(C) Beadle and Tatum
(D) Kornberg and Ochoa
8. Motation is
(A) Change that is inherited
(B) Change in parent not inherited
(C) Plant growth controlling factor
(D) Change that affects the
offsprings of F, generation
Space For Rough Work
BT 3 A-1
following
related with
9. Which of the
organelle/molecule is
genetic engineering ?
(A) Mitochondrion
(B) Golgi Apparatus
(C) Plasmid
(D) Lysosome
13. The alignment method suitable for
finding out conserved patterns of DNA
or protein sequences is
(A) Multiple sequence alignment
(B) Pairwise alignment
(C) Global alignment
(D) Local alignment
10. The transgenic animals are those
which have
(A) Foreign DNA in some of the
cells.
(B) Foreign DNA in all of the cells.
(C) Foreign RNA in all of their cells.
(D) Foreign DNA and RNA in all of
their cells
11. The first hormone artificially produced
by culturing bacteria is
(A) Insulin
(B) Adrenali n
(C) Thyroxine
(D) Testosterone
12. Submission to Gen Bank are made
using
(A) Bankit and Sequin
(B) Bankit and Bankin
(C) Sequin and Rankin
(D) Entrez
14. Which of the following is the first
biological database ?
(A) Genbank
(B) DDRI
(C) Atlas of protein sequence and
structure
(D) OMIM
15. The first successfully cloned animal
was
(A) Monkey
(B) Gibbon
(C) Sheep
(D) Rabbit
16. The technique used in animal bio
technology for rapid multiplication
and production of animals with
desirable genotype is
(A) Protoplast fusion and embryo
transfer
(B) Hybrid selection and embryo
transfer
(C) Invitro fertilization and embryo
transfer
(D) Protoplast fusion and hybrid
selection
Space For Rough Work
A-1 4 BT
17. The most common solidifying agent
used in micro propagation is
(A) Agar
(B) Dextran
(C) Mannan
(D) Agarose
18. Sudden and sharp rise in rate of
respiration of matured fruits is called -
22. itai-itai disease is due to
contamenation of metal in
water body.
(A) Cadmium
(B) Mercury
(C) Selenium
(D) Lead
(A) clinostat
(B) climactrie rise
(C) circumvallation vortex
(D) red drop emerson effect
19. Richest source of vitamin A is -
(A) Knol-khol
(B) Tomato
(C) Mango
(D) Capsicum
20. Emblica officenale is richest source of
(A) Iron
(B) Cobalt rich vitamin
(C) Ascorbic acid
(D) Lysergic acid
21. Increase in level of biodegradation
through manipulation of genes is
called as -
(A) Biostimulation
(B) Biomagnification
(C) Bioaccumulation
(D) Bioaugmentation
23. Algal blooms occur due to
Eutrophication of lakes & ponds. This
can be attributed to enr•icchment of
(A) Phosphates and carbonates
(B) Phosphates and nitrates
(C) Carbonates & bicarbonates
(D) Sulphates, carbonates and
phosphates
24. Selection of hybridoma for production
of monoclonal antibody is done by
(A) HGPRT
(B) HAT
(C) PEG
(D) Tween 20 & PEG
25. Allergic contact dermatitis is
type of hypersensitivity
reaction.
(A) Type I
(B) Type II
(C) Type III
(D) Type IV
Space For Rough Work
BT 5 A-1
26. Xenografts are rejected rapidly due to
(A) rejection by IgM or cell
mediated rejection.
(B) host graft responses
(C) lymphocyte attack on graft
recipient
(D) T-cell inactivation
30. The first completed genome
sequencing project is of
(A) E. coli
(B) Haemophilus influenzae
(C) (I) X 174
(D) Drosophila melanogastcr
that regulate
cytokines arc
27. Antiviral proteins,
immune response as
called as
(A) Interleukin
(B) Interferon
(C) Chemokines
(D) Monokines
31. The best method to protect genetic
resources is
(A) Gene library
(B) Cloning of plants
(C) Cryopreservation
(D) Multiplication
28. CDR's (Complementarity determining
Regions) are —
Antigen binding fragment of Ig
generated by proteolysis.
Crystallisable fragment of Ig
generated by proteolysis,
medietes phagocytosis and
triggers inflammation.
Hypervariable loop in
immunoglobulin polypeptide
forms antigen bending site.
Materials that elicits antibody
production.
29. Immunoglobulin abundantly found in
milk, sweat, tear and colostrum is
(A) IgG
(B) IgE
(C) IgA
(D) IgM
32. The term genomics is coined by
(A) Thomas Cech
(B) T.H. Morgan
(C) Thomas Roder
(D) Craig Venter
33. Which amino acid is phosphorylated
in bacterial proteins
(A) Arginine
(B) Cysteine
(C) Lysine
(D) Histidine
34. Which of the following is NOT a
common feature of reterovirus ?
(A) They are enveloped
(B) Their RNA is spliced
(C) They contain ETR's
(D) They integrate into host DNA
Space For Rough Work
A-1 6 BT
35. Parkinson's disease is characterised by
cell death in the
(A) spinal cord
(B) substantia nigra
(C) Frontal cortex
(D) Motor cortex
36. Which phytohonnone induces seed
dormancy ?
(A) Gibberellin
(B) Abscisic Acid
(C) Auxin
(D) Ethylene
37. The released energy obtained by
oxidation of glucose is stored as
(A) a concentration gradient across a
membrane
(B) ADD
(C) ATP
(D) NAD-
38. A kinase is an enzyme that
(A) removes phosphate groups of
substrates
(B) Uses ATP to add a phosphate
group to the substrate
(C) Uses NADH to change oxidation
state of the substrate
(D) Removes water from double
bond
39. The first protein to have its primary
structure determined was
(A) Urease
(B) Insulin
(C) Glucagon
(D) Histone
40. In which of the disorders, blood has
defective hemoglobin ?
(A) hemophila
(B) hematuria
(C) hematoma
(D) sickle cell anaemia
41. When cells respond to an extracellular
signal,, they most often convert the
information from one form to another.
This process is called :
(A) signal transformation
(B) signal transduction
(C) signal interference
(D) signal amplification
42. Albinism is a congenital human
disorder resulting from lack of enzyme
(A) Catalase
(B) Fructokinase
(C) Tyrosinase
(D) Xanthine oxidase
Space For Rough Work
BT 7 A-1
43. Small charged molecules, often
biogenie amines function as
(A) Hormones
(B) Neurotransmitters.
(C) Harmones and Neurotransmitters
(D) Transmitter
44. The terminator codons are
(A )
% A If A /- I'r"
(B) AUG. LAG. UGA
(C) UAC, AUG, UAG
(D) AUG, ACG, GAG
45. Transcription takes place in
(A) Matrix
(B) Nucleus
(C) Cytosol
(D) Cytoplasm
46. The unwinding of DNA duplex is
performed by an enzyme called
(A) Gyrase
(B) Lactase
(C) Maltase
(D) Ligase
47. The gene not expressing any protein is
known as
(A) Epistatic gene
(B) Hypostatic gene
(C) Pseudo gene
(D) Split gene
48. An open system in which the growth
rate is maintained by the removal and
addition of media at such a rate as to
maintain a constant call density is
called
( A ) manostat
(B) chemostat
(C) tubidostat
(D) culturostat
49. The pairing of homologous
chromosomes
(A) Tetrad's
(B) Crossing over
(C) Synapsis
(D) Terminalization
50. Enzyme papain is used with success to
(A) Increase meat production
(B) Ripen papaya fruit
(C') Leaven bread
(D) Tenderize meat
Space For Rough Work
A-1 8 BT
PART — B
Each question carries two marks. (25 x 2 = 50)
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
The ability of bacteria to change their
morphological form frequently is
termed as :
(A) Lysogeny
(B) Pleomorphism
(C) Alteromorphism
(D) Polymorphism
Bacterial chromosome is
(A) Single stranded and linear
(B) Single stranded and circular
(C) Double stranded and linear
(D) Double stranded and circular
Positively charged basic amino acids are
(A) Lysine and glutamine
(B) Glutamine and arginine
(C) Lysine and aspargine
(D) Lysine and arginine
All of them are monosaccharides
except
(A) Glucose
(B) Fructose
(C) Maltose
(D) Galactose
The Ti-plasmid is often used for
making Transgenic plants. This
plasmid is found in —
(A) Azo bacter
(B) Riz obium roots of Leguminous
plants
(C) Agrobacteri um
(D) Yeast as in vim plasmid
56.
57.
58.
59.
One of the following is a transgenic
organism :
(A) Flavr Savr tomato and BT cotton
(B) Dolly sheep and BT cotton
(C) Holly sheep and BT cotton
(D) Holly sheep and Flavr savr
tomato
Fisher and Krebs got Nobel Prize in
1992 for their discovery of —
(A) Organ and Cell Transplantation
(B) Reversible protein phosphorylation
as biological regulatory mechanism
(C) Single ion channels
(D) All of the above
A gene that specifies the amino acid
sequence of a polypeptide chain
termed as
(A) Structural gene
(B) Regulator gene
(C) Operator gene
(D) Split gene
Which of the following is a sequence
alignment tool ?
(A) BLAST
(B) PRINT
(C) PROSITE
(D) PIR
Space For Rough Work
BT 9 A-1
60. All the following are protein sequence
databases except
(A) P1R
(B) PSD
(C) SWISS PROT
(D) EMBL
61. In callus culture
(A) Increasing level of Cytokinin to
a callus induces shoot formation
and increasing le,-cl of auxin
promote root formation.
(B) Increasing level of auxin to a
callus induces shoot formation
and increasing level of cytokinin
promote root formation
(C) Auxins and cytokinins are not
required
(D) Only auxin is required for root
and shoot formation.
62. Poise is unit of
(A) Surface tension
(B) Viscosity
(C) Intensity of fire
(D) Angular momentum
64. Genome wise gene expression analysis
is performed using
(A) DNA microarrays
(B) Northern blotting
(C) Real time PCR
(D) RT-PCR
65. To determine 'variation in wing length
of butterfly from five different places.
Which would be the best statistical
test ?
(A) F Test
(B) Student T-test
(C) Regression Analysis
(D) Chi-square test
66. C language developed at
(A) AT & T's Bell laboratories of
USA in 1972
(B) AT & T's Bell laboratories of
USA in 1970
(C) Sun Microsystems in 1973
(D) Cambridge University in 1977
63. bioreactor is used for
temperature dependent formation of
products.
(A) Tower hioreactor
(B) Bubble column hioreactor
(C) Stirred tank bioreactor
(D) Two stage airlift hioreactor
67. Travelling salesman problem is an
example of
(A) Dynamic Algorithm
(B) Greedy Algorithm
(C) Recursive Approach
(D) Divide and Conquer
Space For Rough Work
A-1 10 BT
68. If a father is blood group 'AB' and
mother is blood group '0', what blood
group their children will he never
have ?
(A) AB
(B) 0
(C) A & B
(D) AB & 0
69. Amino acid derivative functioning as
chemical messenger in communication
between cells
(A) Dopamine
(B) Histamine
(C) Thymine
(D) GABA
70. The Enzyme telomerase has
(A) Polymerase activity
(B) Ligase activity
(C) Reverse transcriptase activity
(D) Hydrolases activity
71. Why klenow DNA polyrnerase cannot
be used in nick translation ?
(A) Because it has 5' --> 3',
exonuclease activity
(B) Because it has 3' —>
exonuclease activity
(C) Because it does not have 5' —> 3',
exonuclease activity
(D) Because it does not have 5' --> 3',
endonuclease activity
72. Which enzyme causes releases of
pyrophosphate from ATP ?
(A) Glycogen Phosphorylases
(B) RNA polymerase
(C) ATPase
(D) Aspartate transcarbamylase
73. Chloroform is more miscible with
water than carbon tetrachloride
because chloroform has a
(A) lower dipole moment than
carbon tetrachloride
(B) lower dielectric constant than
carbon tetrachloride
(C) higher dipole moment than
carbon tetrachloride
(D) higher order of symmetry than
carbon tetrachloride
74. Which compound cannot cross the
inner membrane of mitochondria ?
(A) ATP
(B) Pyruvate
(C) Acetyl CoA
(D) Pyrophosphate
75. Which of the following common drugs
is not a specific enzyme inhibitor ?
(A) Sulfonil amide
(B) Iodine
(C) Methotrexate
(D) Azeduvidine
Space For Rough Work
BT 11 A-1
MI • Mal
Space For Rough Work
I
A-1 12 BT

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PGCET Biotechnology 2017 question paper

  • 1. POST GRADUATE COMMON ENTRANCE TEST-2017 DATE and TIME COURSE SUBJECT 01-07-2017 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m. ME/M.Tech/M.Arch/ courses offered by VTU/UVCE/UBDTCE BIO-TECHNOLOGY MAXIMUM MARKS TOTAL DURATION MAXIMUM TIME FOR ANSWERING 100 150 Minutes 120 Minutes MENTION YOUR PGCET NO. QUESTION BOOKLET DETAILS VERSION CODE SERIAL NUMBER A- 1. 121146 DOs : 1. Check whether the PGCET No. has been entered and shaded in the respective circles on the OMR answer sheet. 2. Ensure whether the circles corresponding to course and the specific branch have been shaded on the OMR answer sheet. 3. This Question Booklet is issued to you by the invigilator after the 2"d Bell i.e., after 2.25 p.m. 4. The Serial Number of this question booklet should be entered and the respective circles should also be shaded completely on the OMR answer sheet. 5. The Version Code of this question booklet should be entered on the OMR answer sheet and the respective circles should also be shaded completely on the OMR answer sheet. 6. Compulsorily sign at the bottom portion of the OMR answer sheet in the space provided. DON'Ts : I. THE TIMING AND MARKS PRINTED ON THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHOULD NOT BE DAMAGED / MUTILATED / SPOILED. 2. The 3'' Bell rings at 2.30 p.m., till then; • Do not remove the paper seal / polythene bag of this question booklet. • Do not look inside this question booklet. • Do not start answering on the OMR answer sheet. IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This question booklet contains 75 (items) questions and each question will have one statement and four answers. (Four different options / responses.) 2. After the 3rd Bell is rung at 2.30 p.m., remove the paper seal I polythene bag of this question booklet and check that this booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet. Read each item and start answering on the OMR answer sheet. 3. During the subsequent 120 minutes: • Read each question (item) carefully. • Choose one correct answer from out of the four available responses (options / choices) given under each question / item. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose only one response for each item. • Completely darken / shade the relevant circle with a BLUE OR BLACK INK BALL POINT PEN a!ainst the uestion number on the OMR answer sheet. Correct Method of shading the circle on the OMR answer sheet is as shown below : 4. Use the space provided on each page of the question booklet for Rough Work. Do not use the OMR answer sheet for the same. 5. After the last Bell is rung at 4.30 p.m., stop marking on the OMR answer sheet and affix your left hand thumb impression on the OMR answer sheet as per the instructions. 6. Handover the OMR ANSWER SHEET to the room invigilator as it is. 7. After separating the top sheet (KEA copy), the invigilator will return the bottom sheet replica (Candidate's copy) to you to carry home for self-evaluation. 8. Preserve the replica of the OMR answer sheet for a minimum period of ONE year. 9. Only Non-programmable calculators are allowed. Marks Distribution PART-1 : 50 QUESTIONS CARRY ONE MARK EACH (1 TO 50) PART-2 : 25 QUESTIONS CARRY TWO MARKS EACH (51 TO 75) BT-Al 1111111111111111111111
  • 2. BIOTECHNOLOGY PART — A Each question carries one mark. (50 x 1 = 50) 1. The transfer of genetic material from one cell to another by a phage is called (A) Transformation (B) Conjugation (C) Transduction (D) 'Hybridization 2. The key enzyme found in PCR that is Taq polymerase is (A) Methanogen (B) Acidophil (C) Thermophile (D) Halophile 3. Which of the following is an a amino acid ? (A) Serine (B) Threonine (C) Valine (D) Proline 4. Most common monomer of carbohydrate is (A) Nucleotides (B) Glucose (C) Amino acids (D) Maltose 5. The catalytic activity of two different enzymes can be compared by the (A) pH of optimum value (B) Molecular size of enzyme (C) Formulation of the product (1)) km value 6. Pribnao box contribute to (A) Protein synthesis (B) ATP synthesis (C) RNA synthesis (D) none of above 7. "Gene-battery model" of Gene regulation in eukaryotes is proposed by (A) Jacob and Monad (B) Britten and Davidson (C) Beadle and Tatum (D) Kornberg and Ochoa 8. Motation is (A) Change that is inherited (B) Change in parent not inherited (C) Plant growth controlling factor (D) Change that affects the offsprings of F, generation Space For Rough Work BT 3 A-1
  • 3. following related with 9. Which of the organelle/molecule is genetic engineering ? (A) Mitochondrion (B) Golgi Apparatus (C) Plasmid (D) Lysosome 13. The alignment method suitable for finding out conserved patterns of DNA or protein sequences is (A) Multiple sequence alignment (B) Pairwise alignment (C) Global alignment (D) Local alignment 10. The transgenic animals are those which have (A) Foreign DNA in some of the cells. (B) Foreign DNA in all of the cells. (C) Foreign RNA in all of their cells. (D) Foreign DNA and RNA in all of their cells 11. The first hormone artificially produced by culturing bacteria is (A) Insulin (B) Adrenali n (C) Thyroxine (D) Testosterone 12. Submission to Gen Bank are made using (A) Bankit and Sequin (B) Bankit and Bankin (C) Sequin and Rankin (D) Entrez 14. Which of the following is the first biological database ? (A) Genbank (B) DDRI (C) Atlas of protein sequence and structure (D) OMIM 15. The first successfully cloned animal was (A) Monkey (B) Gibbon (C) Sheep (D) Rabbit 16. The technique used in animal bio technology for rapid multiplication and production of animals with desirable genotype is (A) Protoplast fusion and embryo transfer (B) Hybrid selection and embryo transfer (C) Invitro fertilization and embryo transfer (D) Protoplast fusion and hybrid selection Space For Rough Work A-1 4 BT
  • 4. 17. The most common solidifying agent used in micro propagation is (A) Agar (B) Dextran (C) Mannan (D) Agarose 18. Sudden and sharp rise in rate of respiration of matured fruits is called - 22. itai-itai disease is due to contamenation of metal in water body. (A) Cadmium (B) Mercury (C) Selenium (D) Lead (A) clinostat (B) climactrie rise (C) circumvallation vortex (D) red drop emerson effect 19. Richest source of vitamin A is - (A) Knol-khol (B) Tomato (C) Mango (D) Capsicum 20. Emblica officenale is richest source of (A) Iron (B) Cobalt rich vitamin (C) Ascorbic acid (D) Lysergic acid 21. Increase in level of biodegradation through manipulation of genes is called as - (A) Biostimulation (B) Biomagnification (C) Bioaccumulation (D) Bioaugmentation 23. Algal blooms occur due to Eutrophication of lakes & ponds. This can be attributed to enr•icchment of (A) Phosphates and carbonates (B) Phosphates and nitrates (C) Carbonates & bicarbonates (D) Sulphates, carbonates and phosphates 24. Selection of hybridoma for production of monoclonal antibody is done by (A) HGPRT (B) HAT (C) PEG (D) Tween 20 & PEG 25. Allergic contact dermatitis is type of hypersensitivity reaction. (A) Type I (B) Type II (C) Type III (D) Type IV Space For Rough Work BT 5 A-1
  • 5. 26. Xenografts are rejected rapidly due to (A) rejection by IgM or cell mediated rejection. (B) host graft responses (C) lymphocyte attack on graft recipient (D) T-cell inactivation 30. The first completed genome sequencing project is of (A) E. coli (B) Haemophilus influenzae (C) (I) X 174 (D) Drosophila melanogastcr that regulate cytokines arc 27. Antiviral proteins, immune response as called as (A) Interleukin (B) Interferon (C) Chemokines (D) Monokines 31. The best method to protect genetic resources is (A) Gene library (B) Cloning of plants (C) Cryopreservation (D) Multiplication 28. CDR's (Complementarity determining Regions) are — Antigen binding fragment of Ig generated by proteolysis. Crystallisable fragment of Ig generated by proteolysis, medietes phagocytosis and triggers inflammation. Hypervariable loop in immunoglobulin polypeptide forms antigen bending site. Materials that elicits antibody production. 29. Immunoglobulin abundantly found in milk, sweat, tear and colostrum is (A) IgG (B) IgE (C) IgA (D) IgM 32. The term genomics is coined by (A) Thomas Cech (B) T.H. Morgan (C) Thomas Roder (D) Craig Venter 33. Which amino acid is phosphorylated in bacterial proteins (A) Arginine (B) Cysteine (C) Lysine (D) Histidine 34. Which of the following is NOT a common feature of reterovirus ? (A) They are enveloped (B) Their RNA is spliced (C) They contain ETR's (D) They integrate into host DNA Space For Rough Work A-1 6 BT
  • 6. 35. Parkinson's disease is characterised by cell death in the (A) spinal cord (B) substantia nigra (C) Frontal cortex (D) Motor cortex 36. Which phytohonnone induces seed dormancy ? (A) Gibberellin (B) Abscisic Acid (C) Auxin (D) Ethylene 37. The released energy obtained by oxidation of glucose is stored as (A) a concentration gradient across a membrane (B) ADD (C) ATP (D) NAD- 38. A kinase is an enzyme that (A) removes phosphate groups of substrates (B) Uses ATP to add a phosphate group to the substrate (C) Uses NADH to change oxidation state of the substrate (D) Removes water from double bond 39. The first protein to have its primary structure determined was (A) Urease (B) Insulin (C) Glucagon (D) Histone 40. In which of the disorders, blood has defective hemoglobin ? (A) hemophila (B) hematuria (C) hematoma (D) sickle cell anaemia 41. When cells respond to an extracellular signal,, they most often convert the information from one form to another. This process is called : (A) signal transformation (B) signal transduction (C) signal interference (D) signal amplification 42. Albinism is a congenital human disorder resulting from lack of enzyme (A) Catalase (B) Fructokinase (C) Tyrosinase (D) Xanthine oxidase Space For Rough Work BT 7 A-1
  • 7. 43. Small charged molecules, often biogenie amines function as (A) Hormones (B) Neurotransmitters. (C) Harmones and Neurotransmitters (D) Transmitter 44. The terminator codons are (A ) % A If A /- I'r" (B) AUG. LAG. UGA (C) UAC, AUG, UAG (D) AUG, ACG, GAG 45. Transcription takes place in (A) Matrix (B) Nucleus (C) Cytosol (D) Cytoplasm 46. The unwinding of DNA duplex is performed by an enzyme called (A) Gyrase (B) Lactase (C) Maltase (D) Ligase 47. The gene not expressing any protein is known as (A) Epistatic gene (B) Hypostatic gene (C) Pseudo gene (D) Split gene 48. An open system in which the growth rate is maintained by the removal and addition of media at such a rate as to maintain a constant call density is called ( A ) manostat (B) chemostat (C) tubidostat (D) culturostat 49. The pairing of homologous chromosomes (A) Tetrad's (B) Crossing over (C) Synapsis (D) Terminalization 50. Enzyme papain is used with success to (A) Increase meat production (B) Ripen papaya fruit (C') Leaven bread (D) Tenderize meat Space For Rough Work A-1 8 BT
  • 8. PART — B Each question carries two marks. (25 x 2 = 50) 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. The ability of bacteria to change their morphological form frequently is termed as : (A) Lysogeny (B) Pleomorphism (C) Alteromorphism (D) Polymorphism Bacterial chromosome is (A) Single stranded and linear (B) Single stranded and circular (C) Double stranded and linear (D) Double stranded and circular Positively charged basic amino acids are (A) Lysine and glutamine (B) Glutamine and arginine (C) Lysine and aspargine (D) Lysine and arginine All of them are monosaccharides except (A) Glucose (B) Fructose (C) Maltose (D) Galactose The Ti-plasmid is often used for making Transgenic plants. This plasmid is found in — (A) Azo bacter (B) Riz obium roots of Leguminous plants (C) Agrobacteri um (D) Yeast as in vim plasmid 56. 57. 58. 59. One of the following is a transgenic organism : (A) Flavr Savr tomato and BT cotton (B) Dolly sheep and BT cotton (C) Holly sheep and BT cotton (D) Holly sheep and Flavr savr tomato Fisher and Krebs got Nobel Prize in 1992 for their discovery of — (A) Organ and Cell Transplantation (B) Reversible protein phosphorylation as biological regulatory mechanism (C) Single ion channels (D) All of the above A gene that specifies the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide chain termed as (A) Structural gene (B) Regulator gene (C) Operator gene (D) Split gene Which of the following is a sequence alignment tool ? (A) BLAST (B) PRINT (C) PROSITE (D) PIR Space For Rough Work BT 9 A-1
  • 9. 60. All the following are protein sequence databases except (A) P1R (B) PSD (C) SWISS PROT (D) EMBL 61. In callus culture (A) Increasing level of Cytokinin to a callus induces shoot formation and increasing le,-cl of auxin promote root formation. (B) Increasing level of auxin to a callus induces shoot formation and increasing level of cytokinin promote root formation (C) Auxins and cytokinins are not required (D) Only auxin is required for root and shoot formation. 62. Poise is unit of (A) Surface tension (B) Viscosity (C) Intensity of fire (D) Angular momentum 64. Genome wise gene expression analysis is performed using (A) DNA microarrays (B) Northern blotting (C) Real time PCR (D) RT-PCR 65. To determine 'variation in wing length of butterfly from five different places. Which would be the best statistical test ? (A) F Test (B) Student T-test (C) Regression Analysis (D) Chi-square test 66. C language developed at (A) AT & T's Bell laboratories of USA in 1972 (B) AT & T's Bell laboratories of USA in 1970 (C) Sun Microsystems in 1973 (D) Cambridge University in 1977 63. bioreactor is used for temperature dependent formation of products. (A) Tower hioreactor (B) Bubble column hioreactor (C) Stirred tank bioreactor (D) Two stage airlift hioreactor 67. Travelling salesman problem is an example of (A) Dynamic Algorithm (B) Greedy Algorithm (C) Recursive Approach (D) Divide and Conquer Space For Rough Work A-1 10 BT
  • 10. 68. If a father is blood group 'AB' and mother is blood group '0', what blood group their children will he never have ? (A) AB (B) 0 (C) A & B (D) AB & 0 69. Amino acid derivative functioning as chemical messenger in communication between cells (A) Dopamine (B) Histamine (C) Thymine (D) GABA 70. The Enzyme telomerase has (A) Polymerase activity (B) Ligase activity (C) Reverse transcriptase activity (D) Hydrolases activity 71. Why klenow DNA polyrnerase cannot be used in nick translation ? (A) Because it has 5' --> 3', exonuclease activity (B) Because it has 3' —> exonuclease activity (C) Because it does not have 5' —> 3', exonuclease activity (D) Because it does not have 5' --> 3', endonuclease activity 72. Which enzyme causes releases of pyrophosphate from ATP ? (A) Glycogen Phosphorylases (B) RNA polymerase (C) ATPase (D) Aspartate transcarbamylase 73. Chloroform is more miscible with water than carbon tetrachloride because chloroform has a (A) lower dipole moment than carbon tetrachloride (B) lower dielectric constant than carbon tetrachloride (C) higher dipole moment than carbon tetrachloride (D) higher order of symmetry than carbon tetrachloride 74. Which compound cannot cross the inner membrane of mitochondria ? (A) ATP (B) Pyruvate (C) Acetyl CoA (D) Pyrophosphate 75. Which of the following common drugs is not a specific enzyme inhibitor ? (A) Sulfonil amide (B) Iodine (C) Methotrexate (D) Azeduvidine Space For Rough Work BT 11 A-1 MI • Mal
  • 11. Space For Rough Work I A-1 12 BT