MATERIALS ENGINEER REVIEWER

1. 1
Set No. 113
1. If after fifty (50%) completion, the work is satisfactorily undertaken and on schedule
no additional retention should be made otherwise the progress payment should be
imposed a retention rate of:
a) 5 %
b) 10 %
c) 15 %
d) 20 %
2. A project with delays due to reasons beyond the control of the contractor may be
granted a time extension if the affected works, as shown in the PERT/CPM diagram,
are:
a) dummy activities
b) critical activities
c) non-critical activities
d) hammock activities
3. Which of the following is not considered a Variation Order?
a) Change Order
b) Extra Work Order
c) Resume Order
d) Supplemental Agreement
4. Under which of the following conditions must a change order not be issued?
a) Where there is a decrease in work due to deletion of work items
b) Where there is reclassification of item of works
c) Where the aggregate cost has increased and is limited to 25 % of the original cost
d) Where there is increase in cost in construction materials
5. From the time of project was bid to the issuance of notice to proceed, how many
calendar days is required for a project to be entitled to contract priced adjustment?
a) 60
b) 90
c) 120
d) 150
6. The government may rescind the contract work if there is:
a) Delay in the payment of contractor’s claim for billing
b) Existing right-of-way problem
c) Undue delay attributable solely to the contractor
d) Adverse peace and order conditions

2. 2
Set No. 113
7. What is the allowable variance from the original unit price, so that a contract will be
entitled to contract price escalation?
a) Less than 2 %
b) Less than 5 %
c) More than 5 %
d) Less than 3 %
8. Where do we base and reckon the computation of the contract price escalation of a
project that is awarded thru simplified bidding?
a) Notice to proceed
b) Date of bidding
c) Approval of the contract
d) None of the above
9. Where do we base and reckon the computation of contract price escalation of a
project that is awarded thru public bidding?
a) Notice to proceed
b) Effectivity of the contract
c) Date of approval of the contract
d) Date of bidding
10. What formula is used in computing price escalation?
a) No loss – no gain formula
b) Economic Formula
c) Parametric Formula
d) Parabolic Formula
11. A logbook contains the following data with the exception of:
a) activities done during the day
b) materials delivered and used for the day
c) the day’s weather condition
d) survey data
12. In an inspection report, aside from the findings, which is the most important item to
be included?
a) duration of inspection
b) members of the inspectorate team
c) copy of the memorandum to inspectorate team
d) recommendation of possible actions to be undertaken

3. 3
Set No. 113
13. After the final inspection of a reported 100% accomplished project, before a certificate
of final inspection is issued, which of the following should be conducted in the field:
a) Emergency Conference
b) Exit Conference
c) Pre-construction Conference
d) Turn-over Ceremony
14. If a project is started more than 8 months after the bidding, the contractor is entitled to
claim for:
a) Bonus
b) Additional advance payment
c) Price adjustment
d) Extra work order
15. For reference in the preparation of catch-up plans the following are the prevailing
weather conditions in the Philippines with the exception of:
a) Two pronounced seasons, dry from November to April, wet during
the rest of the year
b) No dry season, with a very pronounced maximum rainfall from
November to January
c) Dry and rainy season is equally distributed throughout the year
d) Rainfall more or less distributed throughout the year
16. The catch-up schedule reflects:
a) Financial expenditures
b) Accomplishment-duration relationship
c) The advance accomplishment
d) Preliminary engineering activities
17. If a contractor continues to disregard agreed project plans and specifications, what
recommendation should you prepare?
a) Contract suspension
b) Termination of contract
c) Rescission of contract
d) Blacklisting of contractor
18. In project monitoring of a river channel, which of the following is the origin station
(Sta. 0+000) of a river?
a) at the river bank
b) at the uppermost station
c) at the confluence station
d) at the mouth of the river

4. 4
Set No. 113
19. In a PERT/CPM network, this is the sequence of activities in the project that
comprises the longest time duration from start to finish:
a) Early Finish
b) Late Finish
c) Critical Path
d) Zero Slack
20. In the calculation of total project duration in an infrastructure project (equipment
oriented), which of the following is the most important consideration?
a) Right-of-Way acquisition
b) Local manpower capability
c) Climatic condition in the area
d) Availability of funds
21. Which of the following need not be resorted to when compressing the duration of a
project?
a) Use of two-shift work force
b) Use of advanced construction technology
c) Use of additional equipment
d) Use of additional materials
22. In PERT/CPM networking, the process of compressing the duration of a project is
called:
a) Time optimization
b) Crashing
c) Contract time adjustment
d) Reduction
23. Who gives orders to equipment operators, labor foremen and supply controllers in
the work operations at the project site?
a) Project Inspector
b) Resident Engineer
c) Project Engineer
d) Contractor’s Engineer
24. Who recommends actions to resolve problems during field implementation of a
project?
a) Project Engineer
b) Materials Engineer
c) Project Inspector
d) Resident Engineer

5. 5
Set No. 113
25. Who supervises the work and tests employed in project implementation?
a) Project Inspector
b) Contractor’s Engineer
c) Materials Engineer
d) Project Engineer
26. What is the required minimum field density for embankment materials?
a) 85 %
b) 90 %
c) 95 %
d) 100 %
27. In the DPWH Standard Specifications, what is the Item no. of Embankment?
a) 100
b) 102
c) 104
d) 106
28. What is Item 506 in the DPWH Standard Specifications?
a) Structural concrete
b) Prestressed concrete
c) Stone masonry
d) Riprap and grouted riprap
29. In laying stone components of Item 505 (Riprap and Grouted Riprap) each stone
should be:
a) Laid with its longest axis perpendicular to the slope
b) Pitched to line along the beds and joints
c) Laid with its face parallel to the faces of the walls
d) Reasonably uniform with no projections more than 150 mm
30. What is the minimum cement content (40 kg/bag) per cubic meter of class B
concrete?
a) 8 bags
b) 9 bags
c) 9.5 bags
d) 11 bags

6. 6
Set No. 113
31. The minimum testing requirement of concrete for Item 405 is the compressive
strength test on concrete cylinder samples consisting of a set of 3 concrete cylinder
samples to represent not more than:
a) 50 m3
of concrete
b) 75 m3
of concrete
c) 100 m3
of concrete
d) 125 m3
of concrete
32. To protect portland cement concrete pavement against rain before it has sufficiently
hardened, the contractor should be required to have at all times any of the following
materials with the exception of:
a) metal form or wood planks
b) burlaps or cotton mats
c) plastic sheeting material
d) plastic water stops
33. The minimum flexural strength requirement of concrete for Item 311 (Portland
Cement Concrete Pavement) is:
a) 500 psi
b) 550 psi
c) 3000 psi
d) 3,500 psi
34. The Item No. for Portland Cement Concrete Pavement in the DPWH Standard
Specifications is:
a) 200
b) 201
c) 310
d) 311
35. Soil classification is determined by:
a) Atterberg limits tests
b) Sieve analysis test
c) Hydrometer test
d) a and b
36. After three weeks of completion, the asphalt overlay exhibited reflection cracking.
What will you recommend to correct the said defect?
a) apply seal coat
b) apply additional bituminous mix
c) redo the construction of the asphalt overlay
d) apply cover aggregates

7. 7
Set No. 113
37. In identifying project location intended for asphalt pavement, which of the
following criteria is not appropriate to recommend?
a) Drainage facilities is well - maintained
b) Location is not in a typhoon belt area
c) Existing base course is stable
d) Flood-prone road section
38. When the grading test results of the three (3) stockpiles are not in accordance with
Item 201 requirements, which of the following is economical to recommend?
a) Replace the three (3) stockpiles with quality Item 201 materials
b) Blend the three (3) stockpiles to produce a correct proportion that will meet the
specified grading
c) Allow the use of the materials provided corresponding deduction in payment
will be affected
d) Increase the thickness of Item 201
39. The Plasticity Index (PI) required for Item 201, Aggregate Base Course materials,
should not be greater than:
a) 8 %
b) 12 %
c) 6 %
d) 9 %
40. If the type of soil in Item 200 material is non-plastic, what Atterberg limit test can
be performed.
a) Plastic limit
b) Liquid limit
c) Shrinkage limit
d) Both a and b
41. If the required thickness of Item 200 is 300 mm, the material may be spread and
compacted in __________ layer (s).
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Uniform
42. For a compacted pavement, what does the stability value in the Marshall test
measure?
a) cohesion resistance
b) resistance to displacement
c) diametric distortion
d) skid resistance

8. 8
Set No. 113
43. The flexural strength of concrete is considered satisfactory when the average
strength of al sets of 3 consecutive strength of all sets of 3 consecutive strength test
results equal or exceed the specified strength and when no individual strength test
result is deficient by more than:
a) 10 % of 550 psi
b) 15 % of 550 psi
c) 20 % of 550 psi
d) 25 % of 550 psi
44. To attain a uniform consistency of concrete during the pouring operation of a
concrete pavement, the slump should not be more than:
a) 40 mm (1½ inches)
b) 50 mm (2 inches)
c) 62 mm (2½ inches)
d) 75 mm (3 inches)
45. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if their
average strength is equal to:
a) at least 85% of and no single core is less than 85% of f ’c
b) at least 75% of and no single core is less than 75% of f ’c
c) at least 85% of and no single core is less than 75% of f ’c
d) at least 75% of and no single core is less than 85% of f ’c
46. Which of the following project documents attests that the materials incorporated
into the project works corresponds to the quantity accomplished and conform with
specifications?
a) Certificate of Quality Control Assurance
b) Quality Control Program
c) Notice to Proceed
d) Statement of Work Accomplished
47. What kind of joint is required to be constructed when there is an interruption of
more than 30 minutes in the concreting operations of a road pavement?
a) longitudinal
b) transverse expansion
c) transverse contraction
d) transverse construction

9. 9
Set No. 113
48. Which of the following is not a quality test for cement?
a) Compressive strength
b) Loss of ignition
c) Soundness
d) California Bearing Ratio
49. What is the apparatus used in determining the consistency of a liquid asphalt?
a) penetrometer
b) Viscometer
c) Thermometer
d) viscometric meter
50. If the void ratio (e) of a soil is 1, the porosity (n) is equal to:
a) 10 %
b) 20 %
c) 30 %
d) 50 %
51. Before actual construction of a dam is started, which of the following should be
secured first?
a) Maintenance of access road
b) Delivery of construction materials
c) Stripping of ground surface
d) Installation of safety requirements
52. In embankment works, which of the following is undertaken first?
a) Clearing and grubbing
b) Excavation of core trench
c) As-stake survey works
d) Construction of the impervious fill
53. Which of the following complements as a regulating flood control structure:
a) main canal
b) weir or control gate
c) drainage lateral
d) groin and spurdike
54. Dams are hydraulic structures constructed to:
a) Increase conveyance capacity of the river
b) Arrest scouring on meandering river sections
c) Protect river banks from heavy run-off
d) Retard flood runoff and minimize effect of flash floods

10. 10
Set No. 113
55. Which of the following structures is constructed parallel to the flow of the river?
a) Spurdike
b) Revetment
c) Mini dam
d) Groin
56. You are assigned as a new Project Engineer on an almost completed spillway
project and you found out per field survey that the spillway elevation is lower by
one meter. What should you do?
a) Accept the project as is
b) Require the contractor to redo the spillway
c) Install corresponding ogee
d) Reprimand the former Project Engineer
57. Excavation of indurated rocks can be undertaken by:
a) Pick and shovel
b) Ripper
c) Road grader
d) Bulldozer
58. A project is about to be started, but the as-staked plan shows a reduction in length or
shortening of the proposed structure. What should the Project Engineer do?
a) Issue Notice to Proceed and disregard the as-staked survey
b) Proceed with work, reflect the underrun in the as-built plan
c) Suspend work and request for review if redesign is needed
d) Recheck the as-staked plan
59. What do you call the additional support on steel sheet piles to support embankment
of the abutment of a bridge embedded in the ground designed to increase load safety
factor against overturning?
a) Dead man
b) Pile
c) Bridge panel
d) Cross bracing
60. What is the simplest type of superstructure of a concrete bridge with a limited span
of 8 meters?
a) Reinforced concrete slab
b) Concrete plank deck
c) Girder and slab superstructure
d) Beam or plank bridge

11. 11
Set No. 113
61. Which of the following is not classified as a type of caisson foundation?
a) Pneumatic foundation
b) Box Caisson
c) Open Caisson
d) Hydraulic Caisson
62. In underpinning a pier the following methods may be undertaken before the repair
work starts, with exception of:
a) Earth-filled wood cofferdaming
b) Water diversion on thru dikes of rock and earth
c) Use of steel sheet piles
d) Spurdiking
63. What is the technical term used in repairing the foundation of piers and abutments
that have an indication of scouring and erosion?
a) Shotcreting
b) Underpinning
c) Riveting
d) Plastering
64. In pile driving, when the desired penetration cannot be obtained by driving alone,
other schemes are used. Which of the following is not acceptable?
a) Water jets
b) Pilot holes
c) Both jet and holes
d) Square hole
65. What is the maximum allowable variation at the butt end of a pile in any direction
from its location shown in the approved plans?
a) 75 mm
b) 50 mm
c) 25 mm
d) 40 mm
66. What is the allowable minimum penetration of piles in firm material?
a) 4.0 m
b) 2.5 m
c) 3.0 m
d) 2.0 m

12. 12
Set No. 113
67. What is the required minimum weight of the gravity hammer used in pile driving?
a) 2000 kg
b) 1500 kg
c) 1800 kg
d) 1700 kg
68. As practically possible, concrete mix should not be placed where this can be subject
to manual dropping by not more than __________ and where no other special tools
and means are used.
a) 3.0 m
b) 2.5 m
c) 2.0 m
d) 1.5 m
69. Concrete should be kept continuously wet by the application of water for a
minimum period of how many days after it has been placed?
a) 28
b) 30
c) 14
d) 7
70. Concrete class A mix used and deposited in water for footing construction shall
maintain a slump between:
a) 5 and 10 cm
b) 10 and 20 cm
c) 20 and 30 cm
d) 30 and 40 cm
71. The maintenance work, under vegetation control, the remaining height grasses and
shrubs should be left uncut is:
a) 50 mm
b) 100 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 400 mm
72. The equivalent physical measurement used in the determination of the cost of
maintenance of our national roads and bridges and all its facilities is known as:
a) lane kilometer
b) equivalent kilometer unit
c) equivalent maintenance kilometer
d) standard kilometer unit

13. 13
Set No. 113
73. What do you call the process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to
make them denser and grow straight?
a) pruning
b) grafting
c) felling
d) budding
74. Repainting of steel bridges is an activity under:
a) special maintenance
b) preventive maintenance
c) routine maintenance
d) periodic maintenance
75. The inside face of a pothole, aside from squaring, must be made vertical before
patching using cold or hot mix asphalt in order to:
a) ensure bond between the new mix and old surface
b) prevent pumping
c) minimize spalling
d) prevent faulting
76. What is the minimum allowable/required atmospheric temperature in the application
of Item 305 bituminous material?
a) 5 O
C
b) 10 O
C
c) 12 O
C
d) 15 O
C
77. Concrete mix not placed within __________ minutes from the time ingredients
were charged into the mixing drum or has developed initial set, should not be used.
a) 90
b) 45
c) 30
d) 15
78. What should the condition of the tack coat be before the next course is applied?
a) Wet
b) Sticky
c) Plastic
d) Dry

14. 14
Set No. 113
79. What is the permitted variation from the design thickness of a layer of aggregate
base course?
a) ± 20 mm
b) ± 15 mm
c) ± 25 mm
d) ± 10 mm
80. What is the permitted variation from the design thickness of a layer of aggregate
subbase course?
a) ± 20 mm
b) ± 10 mm
c) ± 30 mm
d) ± 15 mm
81. What is the required area of the trial section needed to check the suitability of the
materials and efficiency of the equipment and construction method the contractor
will use?
a) about 500 sq.m.
b) about 400 sq.m.
c) about 100 sq.m.
d) about 600 sq.m.
82. What is the accepted proportion mixture of cement to be added to the soil aggregate
(dry soil) in a Portland Cement Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 204)?
a) 4 to 20 mass percent
b) 6 to 10 mass percent
c) 5 to 12 mass percent
d) 3 to 12 mass percent
83. What is the accepted proportion mixture of lime to be added to the soil aggregate
(dry soil), in a Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 203)?
a) 2 to 10 mass percent
b) 4 to 15 mass percent
c) 3 to 18 mass percent
d) 3 to 12 mass percent
84. Sub-grade soil is well compacted under the controlled condition of:
a) Over saturation with water
b) Optimum moisture content and maximum dry density
c) Dry soil
d) Cold weather

15. 15
Set No. 113
85. The rate of application of emulsified asphalt used as tack coat, should be within the
range of:
a) 0.2 – 0.5 1/m2
b) 0.2 – 0.7 1/m2
c) 0.15 – 0.7 1/m2
d) 0.15 – 0.5 1/m2
86. For creeks in urban and rural areas and not subject to overbank flows, a minimum
easement to be provided measured from the edge of the existing bank or the
improved bank should be:
a) 3.0 m
b) 4.0 m
c) 4.5 m
d) 20.0 m
87. Culvert flow under entrance control is synonymous with flow under:
a) outlet control
b) inlet control
c) submerged outlet
d) normal depth greater than barrel height
88. What do you call the vertical distance from the culvert invert at the entrance to the
water surface elevation permissible in the approach channel?
a) Freeboard
b) headwater depth
c) trailwater depth
d) scour depth
89. In foundation design, the allowable load or bearing capacity is obtained by reducing
the ultimate bearing capacity by a factor of safety of:
a) 1.5
b) 2.0
c) 1 to 2
d) 2 to 3
90. When considering wind or earthquake forces either acting alone or in combination
with vertical loads, all allowable stresses and soil-bearing value for working stress
design may be increased by:
a) 1/4
b) 1/3
c) ½
d) ¾

16. 16
Set No. 113
91. The maximum value of impact applied to the superstructure of a bridge should be:
a) 15.24/(L+38); where L=portion of the span loaded for maximum
b) 50/(L+125)
c) 30%
d) 50%
92. For service load design of bridges, the flexural stress in the extreme fiber stress in
compression, fc (in MPa), is:
a) 0.30 f’c
b) 0.40 f’c
c) 0.45 f’c
d) 0.50 f’c
93. Bearings for bridges are designed to provide free movement of girders. Which of
the following is not used to allow such movement?
a) expansion joints
b) Rockers
c) sliding plates
d) Rollers
94. A contractor encountered an equation on the plans. Quite confused, he clarified the
terms “BK” and “AH” from the Engineer. If you were the Engineer, you would say
that:
a) BK means new survey stationing
b) AH means old survey stationing corrected
c) BK means old survey stationing corrected;
AH, new survey stationing
d) Both a and b
95. In practice, K – factor is used to convert average annual daily traffic to the 30th
highest annual hourly volume (DHV) and is defined as:
a) DHV/AADT
b) DDHV/ (DxAADT)
c) V/PHF
d) L/A

17. 17
Set No. 113
96. The maximum length of ascending gradient which a loaded truck can operate
without undue reduction in speed is called:
a) critical length of grade for design
b) exceptional gradient
c) limiting gradient
d) ruling gradient
97. To find the time of flow, it is required to determine the length of channel. This can
be done by transforming the drainage area into a rectangle whose two sides are in
the proportion of 1:1.5. The length of the stream is assumed one diagonal of this
rectangle plus one-half of the shorter side of the rectangle, which is the:
a) square root of the square of width (W) plus half of
b) square root of the sum of the squares of longer side (L) and W plus half of W
c) square root of the square of the squares of L plus half of W
d) 3.0 W
98. Profile along the centerline of the river channel should be extended from the
centerline of the bridge by at least
a) 100 to 200 m upstream only
b) 100 to 200 m downstream only
c) 100 to 200 m upstream and downstream
d) 300 m upstream and downstream
99. For any proposed bridge site, the topographic and river surveys should be extended
from the centerline of the bridge at least
a) 100 to 200 m upstream only
b) 100 to 200 m downstream only
c) 100 to 200 m upstream and downstream
d) 300 m upstream and downstream
100. To avoid hitting a waterfall, realignment of the route must be done. Being a new
road that will pass through loose or heterogeneous strata, auger borings should be
made on the proposed alignment at an average interval of:
a) 150 m
b) 200 m
c) 250 m
d) 500 m