Carquestion

CAR- DATA BANK
1. Rectification of a minor defect may be deferred:
a) If it is included in MEL
b) Included in MEL and pilot in charge is satisfied with regard to safe operation
c) As in (b) at any transit / Terminal Station
d) For al Flights
2. In house audit of an organization can be carried out:
a) 80 days prior to expiry of the validity of approval
b) 45 days prior to expiry of the validity of approval
c) 90 days prior to expiry of the validity of approval
d) 61 days prior to expiry of the validity of approval
3. Maintenance planning document is issued by:
a) DGCA b) FAA c) JAA d) None
4. Employment of foreign AME by Indian operator is subject to
a) Security clearance through DGCA
b) Oral check by DGCA
c) (1) and (2) are correct
d) None
5. Condition existing in an aircraft arising because of damage precluding the particular
item performing their intended function is:
a) Minor defect b) Defect c) Major Defect
d) None
6. Who is responsible to procure the copy of amendments to CAR?
a) Owner b) Operator c) Owner / Operator
d) None of the above
7. All delays to scheduled service of 15 minutes duration or more on account of aircraft
defect shall be reported to
a) QCM b) DGCA c) RAWO
d) Not required to be reported
8. Fleet performance and ESR of a scheduled operator shall be forwarded to
a) One copy each to RAWO/DGCA
b) As in (1) every month
c) RAWO every month
d) DGCA every month
9. Records, associated with defects and rectificationshall be preserved for a period of:
a) One year
b) May be required for consultation at the time of renewal of C of A
c) a & b are correct d) As decided by DGCA
10. Amendments to MEL based on revised MMEL shall be approved by
a) RAWO/Sub RAWO b) DGCA c) QCM
d) Manufacturer
11. In Service deterioration of engine or airframe performance are early indicated by;
a) Inspection finding
b) Intelligently monitoring of in flight instrument reading
c) Monthly information submitted to RAWO
d) Defects reported by Flight crew
12. Maintenance reliability control programme of scheduled operator is required to be
approved by
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Manufacturer d) QCM
13. Remedial measures to restore normal established trends within acceptable limits of
performance are developed by
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) QCM d) RMU

14. Alert Notice is issued by:
a) RMU b) DGCA c) RAWO d) QCM
15. Alert values will be formed by scheduled operator, which will be numerically equal to
a) Mean value b) Mean value plus two standard deviations
c) Mean values plus one standard deviation
d) As recommended by manufactures
16. Whenever scheduled operator is over alert, a report is submitted:
a) In duplicate, to RAWO within 72 hours
b) In duplicate to DGCA with in 72 hours
c) In duplicate to DGCA
d) In duplicate to RAWO who in turn relay one copy of report to DGCA within 72
hours
17. To determine performance of airframe:
a) Relationship between fuel flow and TAS shall be established
b) Relationship between N1 and N2 shall be established
c) Recorded value of TAS shall be compared to its alert value
d) None
18. What are the defects reported to RAWO
a) Defects causing mechanical delay of 15 min or more
b) Major defect or defect requiring major repair of all operators
c) Defect whether major and minor on a public transport a/c
d) A and B
19. Following defects are included for computing reliability indices
a) All major defects
b) All defects including repetitive ones
c) As in (a) for public transport a/c and as in (b) for other
d) All are correct
20. Fleet performance, engineering statistics are prepared
a) By all operators every moth
b) Every month by scheduled operators
c) Every three months by scheduled operators
d) None
22. Un-acceptable deviation observed during evaluation of instrument reading would call
for
a) Replacement of item
b) Maintenance actions by the operators
c) Reporting to manufacturers
d) Reporting to DGCA HQs
24. When deterioration is observed in engine
a) RAWO ask for such curative action as considered necessary
b) RAWO may ask for removal of engine
c) RAWO may ask for test flight except schedule operator
d) As in (A) or may even require replacement of deteriorated engine
25. Maintenance reliability control programme is useful in:
a) In detecting problem area existing on a/c engine or accessories
b) As in (A) which will help in planning preventive action in time
c) Amend its existing system of maintenance if required in consultation with
RAWO
d) All are correct
26. Corrective maintenance as a result of pilot reported defect is:
a) Scheduled maintenance b) Un-scheduled maintenance
c) May be either of the two d) All are correct

27. A/C system reliability will be measured by:
a) No of pilot reported defects
b) No of confirmed failure
c) No of pilot reports for 1000 flight hours
d) None
28. MTBUR /MTBF are:
a) Computed values of expected reliability of a/c assumed in designing of aircraft
b) As in (a) which are used for setting alert values for latest aircraft
c) As in (b) since they are initial predictions, should be replaced after
accumulating sufficient experience
d) None
29. Reliability displays are prepared by:
a) Scheduled operators / every month
b) All operators / Quarterly
c) Schedule/Non schedule operators / monthly
d) None
30. Reliability display should summarize experience of
a) One year b) Two years c) 2 to 3 years
d) None of these
31. When operators reliability index of engine is above the alert value corrective
pgrogramme is submitted to :
a) RAWO by 25th of the month b) DGCA by 25th of the month
c) RAWO by 10th of the month d) To RAWO
32. Structural significant item means:
a) Item which is fail safe
b) Item, failure of which may result in lower of residual strength
c) Item which can sustain damage so that the remaining structural can carry
reasonable load
d) None
33. Maintenance action such as overhaul, servicing carried out at pre-determined interval
for the purpose of limiting deterioration to acceptable level is known as:
a) Hard time b) On condition c) Condition monitoring
d) All the above
34. Which one of the following can be called as on condition maintenance
a) Bench test to determine level of in-service deterioration
b) Physical inspection without removing the item
c) Internal leak rate check
d) All the above
35. C.M items are such that:
a) Have no overhaul control
b) No maintenance task is required to evaluate condition
c) No maintenance action can control the reliability
d) All are correct
36. Placarding of unusable fuel quantity is not mandatory:
a) When unusable fuel is less than 5% of total fuel capacity
b) When fuel quantity gauge is calibrated to read only unusable fuel
c) Unusable fuel is mentioned in the flight manual
d) All are correct
37. Quantity of unusable fuel or weight of the unusable fuel is included in:
a) Weight of the fuel b) Weight of the empty a/c
c) Not included in the EW of a/c d) None
38 Fuelling zone extends to:

a) 15 m from the fuelling point
b) 6 m from the fuel tank vent
c) 6 m radially from fuel equip, fuelling point and a/c fuel tank vent
d) B and C
39. Danger of static electricitydischarge during refueling is prevented by:
a) Providing fire extinguishers
b) Avoiding refueling during electrical storm
c) Providing proper bonding and earthing of a/c and refueling equipment
d) All are correct
40. Fueling operations shall be stopped whenever jet efflux of turbo propeller engine is
with in
a) 30 m from the refueling point / refueling equip / vent point
b) As in (a) with in 15 m
c) As in (a) with in 43 m
d) None
41. In case of refueling fuel mixture?
a) Reduced ratio should be applied
b) Anti-static additives should be added
c) Both A and B
d) As in (A) if (B) not complied with
42. During refueling only the following can be switched on:
a) Strobe lights
b) Strobe lights of not giving spark
c) Light required for refueling and also minimum required which do not cause
danger of spark
d) A and B
43. Following a/c may be refueled with passenger on board if decided by the operator
a) With passenger> 20 b) With Passenger < 20
c) Fixed wing and H/C with seating capacity < 20
d) Fixed wing a/c with seating capacity > 20
44. To prevent water remaining in the tanks, all the filters should be purged once in:
a) 2 Weeks b) Every Week c) Every month
d) Every day
45. Float suction mechanism should be checked:
a) At least weekly b) At least two weekly
c) At least monthly d) None
46. Barrelled fuel if remains for ___________ periodshould be lab tested before use:
a) Six months b) 3 months c) 1 year d) 2 years
47. Separate approval in category “F” is not required for organization approved in any of
the categories
a) A,C.D &E b) A,B,D &E c) A,B,C, & E d) A,B & C
48. Manager who has authority for ensuring that all the tasks of the approved organization
can be financed and carried out to the standard required by DGCA
a) QC Manager b) Accountable Manager
c) Finance Manager d) RAWO
49. A document issued to an organization approved by DGCA and defining the scope of
approval granted:
a) Scope of approval b) Terms of approval
c) Certificate of approval d) None
50. Document accompanying the sale of aircraft component certifying that they were
obtained from approval source
a) Certificate of approval b) Release Note

c) Rejection Note d) Certificate of Manufacture
51. The scope of approval for routine maintenance shall not be less than
a) Daily inspection
b) 600 Hrs inspection outside India
c) Daily inspection for Indian organization
d) 100 Hrs inspection with in India
52. NODAL OFFICER is the requirement of the following operator / owner:
a) Who maintain their fleet of aero planes under approved programme
b) Who have contracted maintenance of their aircraft to an a AMO
c) It is applicable to state government a/c only
d) It is applicable to private aircraft only
53. Certifying staff issuing certificate of maintenance shall have
a) Six months of actual a/c maintenance experience
b) Six months of actual a/c maintenance experience in the preceding 12 months
c) Six months of actual a/c maintenance experience in the preceding 15 months
d) Six months of actual a/c maintenance experience in preceding 24 months
54. Quality control manual of Indian Airlines will be approved by:
a) RAWO b) DGCA HQ c) QCM
d) RAWO/Sub RAWO
55. Maintenance systems manual of Cat “C” organization shall be approved by:
a) DGCA b) DGCA in case of Indian Air lines
c) RAWO in consultation with DGCA HQ
d) None
56. Vertical black line along the left hand margin of the text of the manuals is to identify:
a) Identifying revisions and amendments
b) Identifying important points
c) Identifying items of inspection as per MPD
d) None
57. Special inspection checks like hard landing etc. shall be included in
a) QC manual b) Maintenance scheduler
c) Special inspection schedule
d) None
58. Inspection schedule of scheduled operator will be approved by:
a) QCM b) RAWO c) DGCA
d) QCM in case of operator with 3 years experience, others by RAWO
59. Investigation of defects shall be completed;
a) Within 4 months b) Within 3 months
c) Within 6 Months d) Within 15 days
60. Mark the in-correct statement:
a) Refuelling can be carried out inside the building constructed for direct loading
and unloading
b) Refuelling is always done in open place
c) No refueling within 30 m in radar operations
d) Refuelling shall be carried out on a level surface as far as possible
1. Recent experience means experience acquired in the proceeding
a) 24 months b) 12 months c) 6 months d) 3 months
2. AME Licence in category “A” is equivalent to:
a) ICAO type –I licence b) ICAO type II Licence
c) ICAO type-III licence d) ICAO type IV Licence
3. According to appendix “A” of CAR Series “L” Part-IV group V contains
a) Pressurized twin turbine engine aero plane not exceeding 5700 Kg AUW
b) Pressurized twin piston engine aero plane not exceeding 5700 Kg AUW
c) Piston engine helicopter not exceeding 5700 Kg AUW

d) Both A & B are correct
4. An AME can exercise his privileges only
a) When within the preceding 24 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of
AME for not less than 12 months
b) When within the preceding 24 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of
c) When within the proceedings 12 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of
d) When within the proceeding 24 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of
5. A person holding open rating endorsement on his AME licence can exercise his privileges
a) Straight way on a new aircraft
b) After familiarizing himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of Six months
c) After familiarizing himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of three
months
d) After familiarizing himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of one month.
6. The licence of Indian AME’s working aboard will be renewed
a) By the airworthiness authority of the country where they are working
b) By the airworthiness authority of the country where they are working in consultation
with the DGCA head quarters
c) By any authority acceptable to ICAO
d) By the DGCA Head Quarters
7. BAMEC is issued in
a) Four categories b) Eight categories c) Six categories
d) Seven categories
8. Holder of C of C shall undergo refresher course
a) Every after 24 months
b) If not exercised the privileges from more than 60 days
c) Both A&B
9. No AME licence will be renewed unless:
a) The requirement of refresher course is met with
b) As in (a) except those who are exempted from refresher course as per AAC 8/2000
c) (a) and (b) not applicable for AMEs employed in foreign countries
d) None
10. An aircraft registered in category “B” is owned by
a) A person residing / resident in or carrying on business in India without citizenship
b) A person resident/residing in or carrying on business in India with citizenship
c) Citizen of India
d) A foreign National
11. Temporary certificate of registration is valid
a) for one month b) for one week
c) Until the first landing at a custom aerodrome in India
d) Until the validity of the C of A
12. An aero engine manufactured outside the Indian can be type certificated by the DGCA if it
confirms to
a) FAR 33 b) JAR 33 c) FAR 31
d) Both A&C are correct
13. Flight release in respect of Radio Equipment installed on small operator aircraft shall be
a) Carried out separately b) Shall be aligned with FRC for engine &
Airframe
c) Carried out along with major servicing d) None
14. Short-term C of A issued for
a) Un-airworthy aircraft
b) Aircraft imported from outside the country under India registration marking
c) Aircraft imported from outside the country under foreign registration marking
d) Aircraft having service life of less than one year
15. Limit load factors for structures of aircraft classified in normal category are between

a) +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g b) +4.5g & +6g & -1.76g & -3g
b) +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g d) +2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & 3g
16. A special flight authorization is a permission accorded
a) By DGCA b) to ferry-fly an aircraft
c) To carry special persons (VIPs) d) Both A & B are correct
17. FRC for aircraft of AUW of 15000 Kg and above is signed by
a) Persons authorized in two category
b) Persons authorized in three category
c) Persons authorized in four category
d) Persons authorized in five category
18. FRC is preserved for
a) One month from the date of issue
b) Six months from the date of issue
c) One year from the date of issue
d) Not required to be preserved
19. Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is at the base is carried out by
a) Persons approved for the purpose in an approved organization
b) A flight Engineer
c) A flight Engineer whose license is endorsed for the type of aircraft
d) Both A & C are correct
20. Certificate of safety of gliders is valid for
a) Six months b) Three months c) One month d) One day (24 Hrs)
21. An India registered aircraft having C of A as per IAR can fly
a) Passenger aircraft can fly as freight aircraft
b) Freight aircraft can fly as passenger aircraft provided seats are installed
c) Aerial work aircraft can be operated as public transport aircraft
d) None is correct
22. Load & trim sheet of an operator is approved by
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) QCM d) DAW
23. ACAS capable of generating Resolution advisory is
a) ACAS I b) ACAS II c) Both d) None
24. As on data ACAS should be installed on all aero planes of:
a) AUW more than 5700 Kgs b) Pax. capacity more than 30 (Excluding Pilot)
c) Load carrying capacity more than 3 Ton
d) B and C are correct
25. Person authorized to certify for the maintenance of ACAS installed on a/c is:
a) Cat R/V AME b) Cat I/R AME c) P Cat I & R AME
d) None
26. Equipment, which reduces the CFIT, is:
a) GPWS b) ACAS c) FDR d) None
27. Which one of the following is mandatory on Turbine Engine a/c?
a) CVR b) FDR c) DFDR d) None
28. The following licence covers the scope of certifying maintenance of GPWS:
a) Cat R b) Cat I c) Cat V d) Cat R & I
29. FDR installed on H/C should hold the recorded information for:
a) 25h b) 15h c) 10 h d) None
30. PMP cassettes in respect of accident a/c or flight shall be preserved for:
a) 30 h b) 3 months c) 50 h d) None
31. Environment for human comfort in a clean room is such that:
a) Temp. 20+2 deg. C b) RH 35 to 50%
c) Temp 5 to 25 deg C & 50% RH d) Both A & C
32. During C of A renewal, engine parameters are evaluated:
a) EPR, N1 N2 & EGT b) EPR, EFT & Fuel flow
c) EPR, EGT & RPM d) None
33. Calibration of any sensing system connected with FDR but not covered under COSL shall be
calibrated:
a) One a year b) Once 2 years c) Once in 3 years

d) Once in 5 years
34. An Integrated Flight director includes the flowing instruments
a) Attitude Indicator b) Altitude indicator c) Direction indicator
d) Bank, attitude, turn and heading indicator
35. Automatic deployment type oxygen equipment is the requirement of all flights above the
altitude of:
a) 25000 ft b) 13000 ft c) 1000 ft d) None
36. Battery of ELT should be replaced after:
a) After one hour of continuous operation b) After 50% life expired
c) After 48 h of operation d) None
37. Instruments installed on a/c, which has not been operated for a period not exceeding six
months, must be
a) Completely overhauled b) Bench checked c) Nothing is required
d) None above
38. A/c used for cloud seeding operations shall be fitted with:
a) Safety harness for each crew and G meter b) G meter only
c) As in (a) & (b) and also painted with day glow paint
d) None are correct
39. The following a/c shall be fitted with cosmic radiation measuring instrument:
a) For flights above 29000 ft b) For flights above 25000 ft
c) For flights above 13000 ft d) For flight above 49000 ft.
40. Type of ELT designated as ELT (AF) is:
a) Fixed or portable with can be deployed automatically
b) Fixed or automatic which will come into operation due to impact
c) Fixed which can be used for sea flying
d) Fixed which will operate automatically due to impact / contact with water
41. Records / worksheet pertaining to lived components of balloons shall be preserved for
a) One b) Two c) Five d) Ten
42. Amateur-built aircraft are limited to operation within an assigned test area for at least
a) 10 Hrs b) 25 Hrs c) 50 Hrs d) No such limiation
43. Normal design economic life of a jet aircraft is
a) 20 years / 60,000 landings b) 20 years / 60 000 pressurization cycles
c) Both A and B are correct d) None of the above
44. Standards and guidelines for clean rooms are given in
a) BS 5295 b) BS 9255 c) IS 5295 d) All are correct
45. AME licence in category B is given to helicopter with AUW below
a) 2000 Kg b) 3000 Kg c) 5700 Kg d) 15000 Kg
46. Omnibus endorsement in respect of AME licence in category A and B is given to cover
aircraft with
a) Single engine and AUW below 5700 Kg
b) Twin engine and AUW below 57000 Kg
c) Twin engine and AUW below 3000 Kg
d) Single engine and AUW below 3000 Kg
47. Mandatory modifications / inspections are to be complied with
a) Immediately on receipt b) Within three months
c) Within the stipulated period d) B or C whichever is earlier
48. Before carrying out flight tests of a newly installed navigational equipment, it is necessary to
obtain
a) Permission from DGCA
b) Short time Aero-mobile licence from Ministry of Communication
c) Both A and B are correct
49. Final Test Data (FTD) check of conventional valve equipment shall be carried out
a) Once a year b) Twice a year c) Once in two years
50. Aircraft address in SSR mode “S” consists of
a) 24 bits b) 14-20 bits c) 18 bits d) 16 bits

51. The shelf-life of valve seats used in pneumatic system from the cure-data is _______ years
a) Four b) Six c) Eight d) Ten
52. The rate of climb is related to
a) Altitude b) Temperature c) Aircraft weight d) All correct
53. On an unmanned free balloon, registration marking shall be on
a) Two opposite sides b) Under-surface c) Identification Plate
54. Weight schedule of an aircraft shall be retained for
a) Two years b) Five Years c) Ten years d) Till replaced
55. Physician’s kit is a must for all aircraft with a seating capacity of more than
a) 20 b) 40 c) 100 d) 100
56. Furnishing material used on normal category aircraft for carrying passengers and having
AUW of 15000 Kg or above shall be
a) Flame resistant b) Inflammable c) Self-extinguishing type
d) Both A and B are correct
57. All log books except that of aircraft, engine, propeller are preserved for
a) Two years b) Two years after the aircraft is withdrawn from use
c) Two years from the date of last entry
d) Five years from the date of last entry
58. ACAS installed on Indian Registered a/c should be
a) As per TSO C-119 b) ICAO Annex 10
c) Any equivalent document acceptable to DGCA
d) Any one of the above
59. CVR container shall be:
a) Painted bright yellow b) with under water locating device
c) Both d) None
60. Maintenance schedules of test equipment are approved by:
a) RAWO b) Manufacturer c) DGCA HQ d) None
1. MEL shall be prepared by the operator
a) Scheduled, Non scheduled operator
b) Scheduled, Non-Scheduled and General Aviation aircraft
c) For all aircraft where manufacturer has issued MMEL
d) none
2. Safe operation of modern aircraft is possible to day even with existence of certain defects
because
a) Inherent safeguards introduced in the form of duplicated components system
b) Redundancy of aircraft system / components
c) By having approved MEL and preamble on board
d) (a) & (b)
3. Practice of permitting aircraft to continue their flights from transit station to base station with
existence of defects results in
a) Reduces safety, increases engineering cost and avoids passenger discomfort
b) Reduces safety, increases crew work load avoids passenger discomfort
c) Reduces safety, crew work load, engineering cost and avoid passenger discomfort
d) All are correct
4. Rectification of in-operative system/components covered under MEL shall be carried out:
a) As per MSM b) At Main station c) At parent base
d) At first place where time and spares permit
5. Operator shall obtain MMEL and frame MEL so as:
a) MEL is to be less restrictive, than MMEL
b) MEL can not be less restrictive, than MMEL
c) MEL does not differ in its format with MMEL
d) MEL shall be same that of MMEL
6. The following cannot be included in MEL?
a) Stand-by Radio Navigation equipment
b) One of the two engines of the aircraft
c) Rudder operating system

d) B and C
7. The following literature of the operator will describe as to when or where an in-operative item
covered under MEL shall be replaced:
a) MSM b) Preamble c) QC Manual d) A & B
8. The following shall exercise necessary control so that no aircraft is dispatched with multiple
items inoperative
a) RAWO b) Part –C c) QCM d) DGCA
9. AME shall take maintenance actions while releasing aircraft for flight after invoking MEL as
per:
a) Preamble b) Dispatch Deviation guide c) Procedural Manual
d) All the above
10. MEL is applicable to:
a) Transit station b) Terminal base c) Main base
d) All the above except parent base
11. The following shall be reported to RAWO
a) Release of aircraft at parent base with defect occurred one hour before the first flight
of the day
b) All the defects carried forward
c) All deferred maintenance
d) All deferred maintenance at transit base
12. MMEL is approved by:
a) Manufacturer b) RAWO c) DGCA d) None
13. MEL is approved by:
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Manufactures d) QCM
14. Scheduled operator is required to determine strengthening of servicing facilities at transit base
after analyzing:
a) Reliability data submitted to RAWO
b) Internal safety audit report
c) Dispatch reliability
d) Monthly record of carried forward defects
15. Aircraft rule which requires carriage of CCL & ECL onboard:
a) 7/1937 b) 7/1934 c) 7B/1937 d) None
16. CCL & ECL for each type of aircraft is prepared by:
a) Operator b) Manufacturer c) QCM d) None
17. CCL & ECL is generally provided by:
a) Regulating authority of country of manufacture
b) By the manufacturer
c) As in (A), operator shall use it under intimation to RAWO
d) As in (B), operator shall use it under intimation to RAWO
18. Deviation/ amendment to CCL/ECL provided by the manufacturer shall be approved by:
a) RAWO b) DGCA HQ c) QCM d) Flt crew
19. Defect may be defined as:
a) Condition which preclude the item from its intended function
b) Condition arising due to any cause which would preclude it from its intended function
c) Condition arising due to any cause other than damage which would result in
precluding it from intended function and also reduce the service life
20. Task / Work carried out to ensure continued airworthiness of aircraft?
a) Servicing b) Inspection c) Overhaul d) Maintenance
21. Restoration of a component to its Airworthiness condition to ensure compliance of design
specification is:
a) Rectification b) Repair c) Major repair
d) A & B are correct
22. A person, organization or enterprise engaged in or offering to engage in aircraft operation:
a) Approved Organization b) Operator c) Scheduled operator d) None of the above
23. Organization approved by DGCA to carry out maintenance of aircraft and aircraft
components is:

a) AMO b) A-O c) Agency d) (a) & (b) are correct
24. Aircraft Fleet
a) Two or more aircraft of a particular type
b) Three or more aircraft of a particular type
c) No. of aircraft of a particular type / model
d) All the above
25. Defect reporting and investigation procedure as described in CAR Sec-2 Series “C” is
applicable to
a) All AOS b) All AMO's c) All operators and AMO’s
d) All operators
26. The following are required to investigated
a) All defects b) All major defects
c) All defects resulted in delay of service more 15 min.
d) All defects resulting in engineering incidents
27. Initial information shall be provided in case of
a) All defects on scheduled flight
b) All major defects, defects requiring major repair or are of serious nature
c) As in B shall be intimated telephonically to RAWO
d) As in B shall be intimated with 24 hours
28. A written information shall follow “Initial information” with in:
a) 7 days b) 24 hours c) Three working days
d) B and C are correct for scheduled/ Non-Scheduled operator
29. Each repetitions of defect shall be considered as defect for the purpose of:
a) Computing reliability index b) As in (A) for scheduled operator
c) As in B provided rectification was attempted
d) All are true statements for all operators
30. All defects reported on aircraft shall be reviewed every after
a) Daily reviewed by scheduled operator
b) Quarterly reviewed by scheduled operator
c) Six monthly by others operators
31. Review of the defects reported on fleet of training aircraft to be carried out at:
a) Period approved by DGCA
b) Period fixed by operator in consolation of RAWO
c) Daily review shall be carried out
d) Not specified
32. Mark correct statement
a) All defects on scheduled operators aircraft shall be reported to RAWO
b) All major defects and all defects resulting in delay to scheduled service shall be
reported to RAWO
c) As in B by scheduled operator d) As in B by all operators
33. Supervision of investigation of defects on scheduled transport aircraft shall be by:
a) Senior tech. Officer approved by RAWO
b) Technical Officer approved by QCM
c) Senior Tech. Officer approved by QCM
d) Senior Tech. Person approved by DGCA
34. Investigation of every major defect shall be completed with in
a) Four months b) 30 days c) Three months d) Six months
35. Final investigation report shall be submitted to:
a) RAWO/Duplicate b) DGCA / Duplicate c) RAWO / Triplicate
d) DGCA
36. Disciplinary action against erring person subsequent to investigation of defect shall be taken
in consultation with
a) QCM b) RAWO c) DGCA d) None
37. Corrective actions on final investigation report shall be intimated to:
a) RAWO b) DGCA c) RAWO and DGCA HQ (DAW)
d) Manufacturer

38. Investigation results of all defects shall be analyzed once in:
a) Six months b) 15 days c) Four months d) Three months
39. Corrective action against weakness detected after analyzing investigation results shall be
initiated under intimation to:
a) DGCA b) Manufacturer c) QCM d) RAWO
40. All defects or occurrences causing service difficulties or resulting in adverse effect on
airworthiness shall be reported to:
a) RAWO/Within 7 days b) DGCA / Three months
c) Manufactures / 15 days d) Manufactures / 7 days
41. The following AAC deal with fleet performance and Engineering statistics
a) AAC 8/2001 b) AAC 5/2003 c) AAC 5/2000 d) None
42. Aerial work operator shall prepare fleet performance and engineering statistics once in:
a) Every Month b) Three Months c) Two Months
d) None
43. Components associated with major defect shall be preserved for
a) Two weeks from the intimation of defects
b) One year from intimation of defect
c) Three months from intimation of defect
44. In-flight instrument reading of public transport aircraft is recorded in
a) JLB b) Flight Report c) Aircraft Log Book d) Flight Book
45. In-flight instrument reading shall be recorded once in:
a) Each Sector b) Each sector under cruise condition
c) In all emergency conditions and also during un-usual parameters observation
d) As in B and C
46. Defects observed by the Flight crew in a public transport aircraft is recorded in:
a) Defect Register b) Flight Report c) JLB d) None
47. PDR of public transport aircraft shall be examined before releasing aircraft for flight after
each Sector by:
a) QCM b) Chief of inspection
c) AMEs Certifying for release of aircraft for flight
d) As in A and C
48. Defects observed on aircraft other than public transport aircraft shall be recorded in:
a) JLB b) Flight Report c) PDR of approved Flight report
d) Defect Register
49. Defects observed on a/c other than public transport aircraft while flying away from the base
may be recorded in
a) Col X of JLB b) Col XI of JLB
c) As in B for ultimate transfer of defects to register
d) In flight report
50. Analytical study of in-flight instrument reading of turbo-jet aircraft used for public transport
operation will give
a) In-Service deterioration of engine
b) IN-service deterioration of engine and aircraft system
c) As in (B) so that timely corrective action can be taken
d) As in (C) to ensure continued airworthiness of aircraft
51. Recorded in flight parameters of turbo-jet engine shall be evaluated?
a) Every month b) Every Quarter
c) Every Quarter against alert values
d) Every month against alert values
52. The relationship between fuel flow and TAS will determine
a) Performance of Air Frame
b) Performance of Power Plant
c) Deterioration of Engine
d) All the above
53. Maintenance control reliability programme is applicable to:
a) All operator b) all transport aircraft operator

c) All scheduled airline d) None
54. Colleting information from various sources to determine reliability trends of
system/components/ structure of scheduled airlines is the responsibilities of
a) RAWO b) AW Directorate c) RMU
d) Operator
55. Which one is the primary source of information for reliability control?
a) Un-scheduled removal
b) Pilot reports
c) Confirmed failure
d) All the above
60. Reliability displays are prepared for:
a) Every Month
b) Every month covering the operating experience for last 3 months
c) Every Quarterly d) Every previous month
61. The frequency, scope and contents of periodical inspections may be altered
a) In a manner as approved by Manufacturer
b) Shall not be altered
c) As in (b) except in a manner as approved by DGCA
d) With the approval of RAWO
62. The following is responsible to report all defects encountered during the flight
a) QCM b) Manufacturer c) RAWO
d) Owner / Operator
63. Promulgation and implementation of CAR is:
a) To meet the obligation of contracting state
b) To Harmonize requirements with other regulating authorities like FAA, JAA &
CAA
c) To specify the detailed requirements for compliance and effective monitoring
d) All the above
64. Date of issue along the date of affectivity of CAR part is available in
a) First page of CAR Part b) The revision notice
c) All pages of CAR Part d) All the above
65. Insitu / Bench test of aircraft / aircraft component with out having to dismantle them
completely is:
a) Hard time maintenance
b) Condition monitoring
c) On condition Maintenance
d) All the above
66 Adequacy and observance of standards by various operators/ organizations are reflected in:
a) Defects and incidents resulting in emergency loading
b) Accidents encountered during operation of aircraft
c) Both the above d) None of the above
67. The following information will give the parameters called dispatch reliability
a) No. of hours flown during the period under review
b) No. of service cancelled/delayed - more than 15 min. because of engg. defects
c) No. of services planned and no. of services cancelled / delayed for more than
15 min. because of engg. Defects.
d) a and b above
68. The parameters called dispatch reliability is furnished to RAWO
a) Every Month b) Every 3 Months c) Every Six Months
d) Every Six Months by schedule operator
69. The following are the recommendations to check negative trends of an operator:
a) Investigation of defects
b) Additional preventive maintenance
c) Varying the frequency of maintenance and / or varying the process of
maintenance
d) As in (B) & (C) and also modifications and review of qualifications,
experience of certifying personnel

70. Mark the in-correct statement
a) All maintenance work on aircraft engaged in public transport operation shall be
performed by approved organization
b) All work performed by approved organization shall be regulated by QC
organization
c) The CAR is issued under the provision of Aircraft act 133 A of 1934
d) The Airworthiness oversight and safety regulation are applicable to schedule
operator
71. No person shall operate any air transport service in India without
a) Adequate maintenance support
b) Obtaining necessary permit
c) Satisfying DGCA that his maintenance support organization are to a
satisfactory standard
d) All the above
72. Eligibility for issue of Indian C of A
a) Shall confirm to type design
b) Shall be in a condition for safe operation
c) Both (A) and (B) are correct
d) None
73. Operator can base his maintenance programme on:
a) Manufacturer MPD b) DGCA’s M.P.D
c) Manufacturers M.P.D or any DGCA approved programme
d) Any maintenance programme suitable for maintenance and safe operation
74. Investigation of delay, defect and engineering incident is the function of
a) DGCA’s Airworthiness directorate
b) QC organization
c) DGCA Head Quarters
d) Manufacturer
75. Who is responsible for compliance of SB’s and modifications?
a) Operator b) RAWO c) Manufacturer
d) Regulating authority of Manufacturer
76. Which of the following is not part of airworthiness performance monitoring system?
a) Day to day monitoring b) Emergency responding
c) Reliability analysis d) Long terms monitoring
77. AME Licenses are issued in various categories as per
a) Rule 61/1937 b) Rule 140 of 1937 c) Rule 133B of 1937
d) Rule 49 of 1937
78. Security clearance for foreign AME Shall be obtained by:
a) DGA b) Operator c) Operator through DGA
d) Through individual AME
79. Foreign AME will not be authorized to certify the aircraft unless:
a) Pass oral check by QCM
b) Pass oral check conducted in terms of AIC 17 of 1994
c) Security clearance is obtained through DGCA
d) B and C are correct
80. Airworthiness advisory circulars are issued by
a) Manufacturers b) RAWO c) QCM d) DGCA
1. Certificate issued to signify that the design of a type of aircraft complies with applicable
design standard?
a) Export C of A b) Type Certificate c) Certificate of compliance d) None
2. The approval of the “approval personnel” in Cat ‘A’ organization will be granted by:
a) RAWO b) DGCA c) QCM if delegated by RAWO d) a & c correct
3. Completed items in any category “A” organization shall be identified by:
a) Affixing part serial number
b) As in (a) or any other markings as per approved specification drawing
c) As in (b) and inspection stamps of final inspection shall also be affixed
d) As in (c) where these are not practicable, a tag or label shall be fixed.

4. Mark correct statements
a) Certification records of completed work during manufacture shall be retained for five
years
b) Manufacturer shall have obtained approval under Cat `F’ and comply with all
requirements
c) Cat-“A” organization shall keep all manuals (QC Manual, MSM & EOM) up-date
d) All the statements are correct
5. Corrective actions, improvement in the product subsequent to receiving defects / in service
problems from operators / AMO shall be notified to:
a) All users of the products b) DGCA
c) As in (a) & (b) and the procedure shall be included in QC Manual
d) As in C and the same may be included in MSM
6. After an aircraft component / item of equipment has been manufactured
a) QCM will issue certificate of manufacture
b) QCM or an authorized person will issue certificate of manufacture
c) QCM or an approved person will issue certificate of manufacture
d) (b) & (c) are in-correct
7. Heat treatment applied to airframe or engine parts or accessories is the scope of:
a) Category “F” organization b) Category “C” organization
c) Category “B” organization d) Category “D” organization
. Mark correct statement
a) All changes / modifications in Category “B” organization will have DGCA
concurrence
b) All changes / modifications effecting airworthiness / safety of aircraft shall be
implemented after concurrence by RAWO
c) All changes / modifications in an approved organization shall be promptly notified to
RAWO
d) All are in-correct statements
9. Category “B” organization shall have
a) All three manual
b) QC & maintenance system manual
c) EOM & QC manual
d) EOM & MSM
10. Test specimen submitted by the firm for approval of cat B organization should have been
a) Processed in any DGCA approved organization
b) Processed in applicants workshop
c) As in (b) under the supervision of DGCA representative
d) As in (b) under the supervision of RAWO representative
11 Test specimen required to be submitted for approval of cadmium plating
a) Twelve specimen 8”X2”X16 Swg b) Twelve specimen 3”X3/4”X16 Swg
c) Three specimen 8”X2”X16 Swg d) None
12. The firm approved under Category “B” will issue the
a) Certificate of Maintenance b) Certificate of compliance
c) Certificate of inspection d) Test report & Release Note
13. The inspectors of Cat-“C” organization shall be approved by:
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Local Airworthiness Office
d) QCM
14. Aircraft /Aircraft components released by Cat-“C” organization after the item has been
serviced /inspected or modified shall be accompanied by:
a) Certificate of maintenance b) Release Note c) Both A&B
d) As in C along with Test report
15. Certificate of maintenance by a Category “C” organization shall be signed by:
a) QCM b) Approved signatory c) AME
d) AME/Approved/Authorized person
16. Firm asking for approval of Category “D” shall prepare and submit the following manuals
a) EOM b) EOM&QCM c) QCM & MSM
d) QCM & MSM

17. Test report issued by approved organization shall be signed by
a) Approved signatories b) QCM c) Authorized Person
d) Licensed Engineer
19. Bulk storage / Bulk mobile equipment used by Category E organization shall be approved by
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Local Airworthiness Office
d) Chief explosive inspection
20. Test laboratories of Category “E” firm will be approved by
a) RAWO b) QCM c) DGCA d) None of the above
21. Format of release note and sale vouchers of Category “E” organization shall be approved by:
a) QCM b) RAWO c) DGCA d) None of the above
22. Release note and sale vouchers issued by Category “E” organization shall be preserved for
a) 5 years b) 10 years c) 2 years d) 1 year
23. Release note signatory is
a) A person approved by QCM to Sign Release Note
b) A person approved by RAWO to Sign Release Note
c) A person approved by the organization to Sign Release Note
d) A person approved by DGCA to issue Release Note
24. Stores where materials received from approved source with proper evidence are stocked:
a) Bonded stores b) Quarantine c) Approved stores
d) Category “F” organization
25. A certificate issued under approval granted by DGCA certifying that the materials / aircraft
components have been received from approved source and they are airworthy:
a) Release Note b) Certificate of maintenance
c) Type certification documents d) None of the above
26. A/c components drawn from bonded store but having been rejected after inspection are
returned along with
a) Release Note b) Rejection Note c) Log Card/Log Book
d) Inspection Report
27. Distribution of rejection note is such that
a) Third copy is for record b) First copy is to supplier
c) Second copy is to RAWO d) First copy is to RAWO
28. Mark the person responsible to ensure that goods released to customers from cat-F
organization have not deteriorated during storage
a) QCM b) Accountable Manager c) Release note signatory
d) QCM & Release note signatory
29. In-coming as well as outgoing release note in case of cat-F organ. shall be preserved for:
a) Two years b) Five years c) Ten years d) None
30. Any deviations from approved design document of an a/c component supplied by Cat-F
organization will be mentioned in:
a) In-coming Release Note b) Out-going Release Note
c) In-coming release note or any equivalent document and the same will be mentioned in
out going release note
31. Mark the correct statement
a) Candidates who have passed AME Course from DGCA approved institute will be
given one year relaxation in the total aeronautical experience required for grant of
AME License
b) The training period in AME institute will be counted for computing total aeronautical
experience required to appear in AME license examination
c) Aircraft Rule 61 of 1937 gives the requirements for issue of AME License
d) All the above are correct
32. Chief instructor of Category “G” organization is approved by
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Local AW Office
d) Examined for approval by a board chairman of which will be an officer not below the
rank of controller of Airworthiness
33. Instructors to teach various subjects in DGCA approved institute are approved by:
a) RAWO b) DGCA c) QCM d) Chief Instructor

34. Overall Ratio of whole time instructors to students shall be
a) About 1:30 b) Not less than 1:30 c) Not more than 1:30 d) About 1:25
35. Security clearance of foreign students is the responsibilities of
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Min of Civil Aviation d) Chief Instructor
36. No. of students in a batch of AME students shall be
a) Not more than 30 b) Not less than 15 c) Not less than 10
d) Not more than 30 & Not less than 10
37. Total period of training in case of AME institute
a) 2 ½ years b) 3 ½ years c) 3 years d) None
38. Records of examination conducted in DGCA approved institute is required to be preserve for:
a) Six months b) Two years c) One year d) Five years
39. Internal audit for renewal of Cat-“G” organization shall be
a) Carried out and submitted to RAWO by 31st Dec
b) Carried out and submitted to Local Airworthiness Office at least two months before
expire of approval
c) As in (b) but not earlier than 60 days
d) None of the correct
40. Application for approval of Category “G” organization
a) CA-182A b) CA-182C c) CA182 d) CA-182B
1. Due to which of the following factors in most of the aircraft fuel system a certain quantity of
fuel is not available for use
a) Location of tank b) Location of Pump out lets
c)) Location of tank out lets
d) As in (c) and also routing of pipelines, Location of Pumps
2. Quantity-unusable fuel shall be normally determined during
a) Issue/renewal of C of A b) registration of aircraft in India
c) After issue of type certificate d) type certification
3. It is a mandatory requirement that un-usable fuel shall be
a) Mentioned in flight Manual b) Play carded in cockpit
c) No mandatory requirements as such d) as at a) or b)
4. The unusable fuel for each tank must be established by
a) Conducting test flights
b) Jacking up to level flight condition & draining from lowest feed line
c) As in (a) during type certification
d) As in (c) and where such information is not available, procedure mentioned in (b) to
be followed in case of light aircraft only
5. To determine un-usable fuel by leveling and draining on ground, the following quality to be
added to each main tank so as to arrive zero-datum as fuel quantity gauge
a) 10 LTR b) 5 LTR c) 2 LTR d) 20 LTR
6. Calibration of fuel gauge shall be such that
a) Un-usable fuel as zero-datum b) Un-usable fuel will be indicated as red-arc
c) All the gages read full quantity d) As in (a) & (b)
7. Pilot will know the un-usable fuel from
a) Flight Manual b) Play carding in cockpit
c) A red arc from zero in the fuel gauge d) All above correct
8. Weight of un-usable fuel is deemed to be
a) Weight of fuel b) Part of useful load
c) Part of empty weight of aircraft d) All are correct
9. Calibration of fuel gauges is to be followed every time
a) A fuel gauge is installed
b) Inspect for certification of airworthiness
c) During the nearest major check
d) Initially as in (a) and subsequently as per (b) & (c)
10. Carriage of calibrated dip sticks are required to be carried to make sure correct quantity of
fuel is carried in case of
a) All Light Aircraft b) All helicopter
c) Incase of (a) and (b) whose fuel quantity gauges are not reliable

d) As in (a) and (b)
11. Which aircraft rule specifies procedure of fuelling aircraft?
a) 25/1937 b) 25A/1937 c) 25B/1937 d) 25A/1934
12. Fuelling zone
a) Area extending 6 meters from refueling aircraft
b) Area extending 6 ft from refueling aircraft
c) Area extending 10 ft from refueling aircraft
13. The fuelling of aircraft shall be carried out by:
a) A trained technician b) AME
c) Under the supervision of Airworthiness Officer
d) None
14. Precautions and fuelling instructions are provided by
a) Manufacturers b) DGCA c) Fuelling company
d) Aircraft Operator
15. Mark in-correct statement regarding fuelling place:
a) Fuelling of aircraft shall not be done in open place
b) Aircraft shall not be fuelled with in 30 m of radar operation
c) Refueling to be performed on level ground
d) Wheel chock shall be placed properly before refueling started
a) The refueling equipment shall be marshaled while reversing towards aircraft
b) There shall be adequate restraint of the aircraft before refueling
c) Refueling aircraft shall be placed at least 10 m away from the other aircraft
d) All are correct statements
17. APU of a refueling aircraft, which have exhaust effluence discharging into the refueling zone,
shall be started
a) After opening fuel caps
b) Before opening fuel caps or fuel connection made
c) As in (a) or after fuel connection are made
18. Earthing of fueling equipment as well as of aircraft shall be done so as to prevent fire risk due
to static electricity discharge
a) Through drag chain attached to fuelling equipment
b) Through conductive tyres
c) Apron earthing point
d) All are correct
a) Refueling of a/c may be started immediately after landing / taxying
b) Aerodrome fire service shall be called for refueling
c) Refueling operation shall be stopped when turbo-prop aircraft in within 30 m distance
from the refueling place
d) None of the above statement is correct
20. During heavy storm
a) Over wing refueling is only permitted
b) Refueling suspended
c) Pressure refueling is only permitted
d) None of the above statement is true
21. Use of photographic flash equipment during refueling
a) Not permitted to be used with in 6 m
b) Not permitted to be used within 15 m
c) Not permitted to be used within 6 m from refueling equipment / vent/ refueling point
d) Not permitted to be used within 6 ft from the refueling point
22. Refueling precautions in case of fuel mixtures
a) Risk of sparking may be reduced by adding anti-static additives
b) Reduced rate of fueling is required
c) Rate of fueling shall be as per type of fueling equipment

d) All are correct statement
23. Maintenance and servicing of aircraft during fueling is such that
a) Strobe lighting not be operated b) Main engines shall not be operated
c) Plat forms, steps shall be clear of the aircraft d) All are correct
24. Fueling with passengers on board not permitted in case
a) Fixed wing aircraft with seating capacity of more than 20
b) Fixed wing aircraft rotary wing aircraft with seating capacity of 20
c) All helicopter and fixed wing aircraft with less than 20 seating capacity
25. Fueling shall be stopped of spillage of fuel is
a) Five square meter b) Four square meter c) 15 square meter
d) 10 square meter
26. In case of spillage during fueling
a) Fuel must not be washed into drains
b) Vehicles shall not be started with in 15 m of spillage
c) Fuelling shall not be commenced till 30 min after cleaning the spilled fuel
d) Movement of persons and vehicles shall be avoided with 30 m from the spillage
27. In case of storage of fuel in bulk storage tanks
a) Tanks for storing AVGAS shall be internally epicoated
b) Floating suction shall be inspected once a weak
c) Tank bottom sample of AVGA & ATF shall be tested for microbiological growth once
in two years
d) All are correct
1. Aircraft engine reliability is measured in:
a) No. of Pilot reported defects
b) All in flight shut down
c) All flame outs
d) As in (b) including flame outs
2. Damage tolerant means:
a) Item can sustain damage b) As in (A) and it can withstand reasonable load
c) As in (B) with out structural failure
d) As in (C) when the damage is detected
3. Monitoring of operator’s maintenance process is based on:
a) Manufacturers recommendation b) DGCA approved programme
c) Statistical analysis of various performance parameters
d) All the above
4. Factors, which would help to assess the condition of components maintenance behavior
a) Mechanical delays / cancellation of flights
b) Un-scheduled removal
c) Pilots reports
d) All the above
5. Reliability Alert level is based on experience of:
a) Two to three years experience b) As in (A) based on fleets size
c) Three years experience d) None of the above
6. Alert levels should be up-dated periodically to reflect
a) Operating experience b) Product improvement
c) Changes in procedure d) All the above
7. Life record of engine parts having fatigue lives is available in
a) History card b) MSM c) They are part of COSL d) Engine logbook
8. Engine overhaul records shall be preserved for
a) Two years b) Five Years c) 10 years d) Four years
9. Alert Values are
a) Reference values only b) Accepting limits
c) Both A &B are correct d) None of the above
10. Separate approval in Cat-F is not required in case of
a) Category – A, B, D&E b) Category – A,B,C c) Category
A,C,D&E

d) Category – A,B,C & E
11. Certificate issued by AME after carrying out some repair on aircraft is:
a) Structural repair scheme b) Certificate of Maintenance
c) Compliance certificate d) Flight Release Note
12. A document certifying that the item mentioned there under were obtained from an approved
source
a) Maintenance Certificate b) Release Note c) Rejection Note
d) Certificate of Compliance
13. The scope of approval for routine maintenance shall not be less than
a) 100 Hrs. inspection schedule in case of organization in India
b) Daily inspection in case of organization located outside the India
c) 100 Hrs Inspection schedule for Indian organization and daily inspection in case of
foreign organization
d) All are correct
14. CA-182C shall be submitted to:
a) RAWO b) RAWO/Sub-RAWO c) DGCA HQs
d) RAWO/DGCA in case of Indian / Foreign organization
15. Organization shall establish bonded stare to keep:
a) A/c material and equipment
b) Serviceable material and equipment
c) All un-serviceable material/equipment
16. Appointment of NODAL OFFICER is the requirement of
a) All AMO’s b) All operators c) Owners/operator of General Aviation A/C
d) As in C who contracted maintenance to an AMO
17. Which one of the following is responsible to ensure regular receipt of specific aircraft
literature, amendments etc, and making them available to AMO?
a) QCM b) Accountable Manager c) Nodal Officer d) DGCA/RAWO
18. Certifying staff involved in maintenance of aircraft shall undergo refresher course once in
a) 12 months b) 24 months c) 3years d) As desired by DGCA
19. Internal audit by QA team shall be carried out:
a) Once in every year b) Twice in every year
a) 30 days before renewal of organization
b) 60 days before renewal of organization
20. How many copies of manuals are required to be submitted for approval of a firm?
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) One
21. Any condition classified as major defect observed during maintenance or operation shall be
reported to
a) DGCA b) Manufacturer c) DGCA and manufacturer d) None
22. The following shall be reported to DGCA/ RAWO:
a) Major defect b) Any condition classified as major defect
c) Mechanical delay d) All the above
23. Investigation of major defect shall be completed with in:
a) Four months b) Three months c) As early as possible
d) None of the above is correct
80. The form and manner of certificate issued by AO/AMO shall be approved by:
a) DGCA HQs b) RAWO
c) DGCA HQs or RAWO at the time of approval d) QCM/Chief QCM
1. Most common factors, which may cause deterioration of wooden aircraft, are
a) Geological growth when parked in dusty conditions near seabed
b) Mechanical forces mainly due to timber shrinkage
c) Engine oil percolating in to the wooden structure
d) Both (B) and (C) are correct
2. Single seater micro light aircraft means
a) Should have wing span more than 10 micrometers
b) Minimum All up weight should be 330 Kg and a wing area not less than 10 sq.meters
c) Maximum all up weight should be 330 Kg and wing area not less than 10 sq.meters

d) All up weight should not exceed 450 Kg.
a) Glue deterioration may take place due to large cyclic changes of temperature
b) In most wooden aircraft of monoplane construction the main spars are I section shape
to avoid glue separation
c) In monoplane construction of wooden aircraft spar are of box formation
d) (a) and (c) answers are correct
4. While checking glue line of wooden aircraft
a) All protective coatings of paint should be carefully subjected to mild chemical etching
b) Thinnest possible feeler gauge should be used
c) Only sharp wooden blade soaked in engine oil should be used
d) Both (a) and (c) are recommended technique
5. Word envelope related to hot air balloon means
a) Place where all records and permit to fly is carried
b) Enclosure in which the lifting medium is contained
c) Is placed below the basket to keep occupants warm at higher altitudes
d) Both A and C are correct
6. Dry rot and wood decay is indicated
a) By small patches of crumbling wood
b) Dark discoloration of the wood surface or grey streaks indicates penetration
c) If rich discoloration can not be removed by tight scrapping, the part should rejected
d) All the above correct
7. Registration marking on micro light aircraft shall be printed
a) Port (Left) wing upper surface and on each side of fuselage
b) Lower surface of the wings and on each side of fuselage
c) Instead of each side of fuselage on the upper half of vertical tail surface
d) Both B and C are correct
8. Mark the correct statement in respect of balloon
a) Should not fly unless during 25 hours preceding lift off certified
b) Pilot is not empowered to certify up to 25 hours inspection schedule
c) Appropriately licensed AME can certify beyond 25 hours inspection schedule
9. For reinforcing glued wooden members
a) Plain annealed aluminum alloy screws are used
b) Steel screws are some times used for hardwood like mahogany or ash
c) Replace the screws with new screws of identical diameter but higher length
d) Replace the screws of identical length with slightly lesser diameter
10. Incase of micro light aircraft
a) Type certificate not necessary
b) C of R is required
c) Firms approved of DGCA is to sought
11. Glued joints of wooden aircraft
a) Generally designed to take fluxing
b) Generally designed to take torsion loads
c) Generally designed to take tensile loads
d) Generally designed to take shear loads
12 Flight release of balloon should be retained
a) One month b) 60 days from the date of flight release
c) 180 days since the balloon is permanently with drawn from service
d) Till the C of R is cancelled by DGCA
a) Gliders like micro light aircraft need not have C of A
b) Gliders should have valid C of A is flown for hire
c) Gliders manufactured in a foreign country flown Indian need not have valid C of A
d) Gliders subjected to minor repairs can be flown with out valid C of A
14. Balloon records are to be preserved as indicated

a) Log book to be preserved for two years after the accident
b) Procedure / work sheet for 5 years after the completion of work
c) Lifed components – one year after is permanently withdrawn
15. Permit to fly the micro light aircraft
a) is in lieu of Type Certificate b) Is in lieu of C of A c) is valid for one
year
16. All wooden gliders can continue in service
a) Up to 15 years unless aging aircraft inspection is carried
b) Up to 25 years TSN subjected to a satisfactory 20 years inspection schedule
c) C of A shall not be issued for glider having an age more than 25 years
17. Certification of Micro light aircraft
a) Pilot can certifyinspections beyond 15 hours schedule
b) Pilot can certifyschedule up to 10 hours
c) Beyond 20 hours inspection schedule only by appropriately licensed AME or
DGCA authorized person
18. Glider having an age more than 20 years
a) C of A validity should be restricted6 months
b) Should be permitted to only inverted flying with pilot having a parachute
c) All aerobatic manoeuver should be prohibited
a) Operation of balloon flights can be under taken during day time under IFR
condition without might flying
b) Operation of flight during might under VRF conditions
c) Burner relighter
d) After burner heater at the rear of basket
20. Glider logbook should be pressured
a) Glider need not have log book except launch log book
b) Should be preserved till such time the glider is permanently withdrawn from
use
c) As in (B) the C of R is cancelled by DGCA
d) Both (b) and (c) are correct.
21. Light aircraft Category “A” experience required (Mark wrong Am)
a) Four years aeronautical experience
b) Four years aeronautical engineering experience
c) 12 months must be on the type of aircraft
d) As “B” and ”C” 3 months must be the recent experience
22. For extension in Category “A”
a) 6 months b) 3 months
c) If the aircraft on which the extension desired of similar construction only three
months of total experience
23. Category “A” heavy aircraft
a) 4 years aeronautical engineering experience
b) As “A” 12 months must be on the type of aircraft and out of 3 months must be
recent experience
c) 12 months only d) 3 months only
24. For helicopters Category “A” and “C”

a) Helicopters all up weight below 3000 Kgs will have total aeronautical
experience 4 years
b) 4 years Engineering experience on Airframe and engines out of 12 months must
be particular type of helicopter
c) As “B” six months recent experience
d) As “C” for extension 3 months must be recent experience
25. Helicopter all up weight 3000 kgs above
a) Can apply separately “A” and “ C” after completing 4 years out of which 12
months must be particular type out of which 6 months recent on airframe or
engines
b) As “A” can have 4 years experience for both Category “A” and “C”
c) 4 years Aeronautical experience currently required
d) 4 years current aeronautical engineering experience
26. For Category “B” light helicopter
a) 4 years aero-engineering experience
b) !8 months for which the applicant is applying
c) As “B” 6 months experience on specific type
d) Only “A” is correct
27. On Category “B” below 3000 Kg all up weight
a) 6 months b) 3 months recent experience c) 12 months experience
d) As “A” 4 years aero-engineering experience in maintenance, repair, overhaul
helicopter / Light aircraft out of with in 18 months to be particular helicopter
type
28. Category “A” gliders
a) Aeronautical engineering experience 2 years
b) 6 months to be on practical type
c) Minimum 12 months experience on type glider
d) A and B are correct
29. Extension of category “A” gliders
a) Six months experience out of which 3 months recent experience
b) Persons having valid AME license below 5000 Kgs may have 3 months recent
experience on type of glider
c) Only “A” is correct
d) “A” only appropriate
30. Glider Category “B”
a) Total aeronautical engineering experience 3 years
b) 12 months on maintenance and overhaul gliders
c) 3 months recent experience
d) All correct
31. Extension in Category “B”
a) 6 months experience on type out of which 3 months recent
b) Persons having valid AME license in category “B” 3 months recent experience
for
Applicant particular type
c) Both A&B d) All wrong
32. For Category “C”
a) 4 years engineering experience 12 months must be on the maintenance out of
which 6 months on the type and minimum 3 months recent experience
b) 6 months experience on the type of similar construction of valid license holder
on 3 months experience for extension required
c) Only “A” correct d) Both “A” and “B” correct
33. Category “C” (Gas turbines)

a) 4 years experience b) 24 months general maintenance and Inspection
c) 12months for the type out of which 6 months recent experience
d) All correct
34. Category “E and I R
a) 4 years general avionics experience
b) 12 months experience on the particular typed aircraft
c) 3 months must have current experience
d) All correct for extensions 6 months on type 3 months current experience
35. Category “R”
a) 4 years avionics experience b) 12 months experience on the type
c) 3 months must have recent experience
d) For issuing AME license in Category “R” applicant must possesses RTR (Aero)
license issued by ministry of communication at the time of oral cum practical
test
36. Category “V” license
a) Must have passed ES, IS, RN & RTR (Aero)
b) Must have complied approved training on highly
1. Instruments shall be inspected before installation to ensure that
a) The instruments are approved for the type aircraft
b) The range of the dial markings is adequate to reflect correct operation of the aircraft
power plant or equipment and to directly indicate the appropriate operating limitations
c) The range of any coloured sectors marked on in statements dials corresponds with the
range specified in the aircraft flight manual or aircraft engine manufactures manuals as
applicable
d) All correct
2. On condition maintenance programme for some of the aircraft
a) Aircraft components and instruments
b) Specifying intervals or inspection / testing of the concern units
c) For increasing failure for determining the serviceability
d) As “A” & “B” to determine reduction in failure resistance before the failure occurs of
becomes critical
3. Magnetic compasses shall be inspected at the time of installation
a) There are sings of leakage of the liquid
b) Bubbles excessive sediments and discoluration are not present in the liquid
c) Compass is swung and correction card is in place in the aircraft
d) As “B” and “C” mounting is satisfactory
4. Pitot friction in compass
a) Does not exceed the manufacturer tolerance
b) Such tolerances are unknown the friction is determined by deflecting the compass
needle 20 degrees and allowing to return to magnetic meridian the change in reading
to the original heading shall not exceed 4 degree
c) Deflecting the compass needle 10 degree and allowing it to return magnetic meridian.
The orange in indication from original heading shall not exceed 2 deg.
d) Both A & C correct
5. Calibration and compensation under how many circumstances carried out
a) 10 b) 8 c) 9 d) 11
6. The compass shall be calibrated and compensated and entry to be made
a) 6 months propeller log book
b) 10 months and journey log book
c) 11 months and engine log book
d) 12 months and aircraft long book
7. Overhaul and periodical inspection to be calculated (Mark incorrect statement)
a) From the date of the last overhaul
b) From the date of installation had been stored in accordance to the accepted practice for
the storage of the instrument

c) In case of imported aircraft neither of “A” & “B” is known
d) From the date of issue or last renewal of the aircrafts certificate of airworthiness
8. When manufacturers / venders instructions are not available then the cycle of periods to the
overhaul and inspections
a) Gyro horizon indicators, directional gyro indicators, altimeter, automatic pilot, gyro
units- 2 years / 1000 hrs
b) Auto pilot, ASI, pitot & static system, turn & bank indicators- 3 years / 2000 hrs
c) VSI tachometers, fuel contents gauges, manifold pressure gauge
d) As “a” “b” & “c” thermometers, pressure vacuum gauges, ammeter, volt meter,
position indication bench crack every 2 years
9. Inspection procedure
a) The accuracy of instruments shall be checked against an appropriate test instrument
shall conform to the requirements of the manufacturer / or DGCA
b) Time pieces (clocks, watches) installed on aircraft having all up weight 3000 kgs and
below can be overhauled / repaired by any of the reputed commercial watch makers /
repairing agency
c) Magnetic compasses, instruments overhauled / bench checked as per makers
instructions / DGCA requirement
d) All Correct
10. Storage conditions
a) 5-60 degree C and humidity 80%
b) 5-20 degree C and humidity 70%
c) 5-22 degree C and humidity 70%
d) 5-25 degree C and humidity below 70% must be dust free and dust count not less 3000
PPM
11. Normally the storage / shelf life of instruments
a) Manufacturing / overhauling agencies recommendation
b) In the absence of “A” the shelf life of instruments (other than gyro instruments)
should not exceed 2 years
c) On completion of this period as “B” subjected to overhaul in accordance of approved
schedules
d) As “C” the instruments which require periodic lubrication must be removed from
storage and lubricated by appropriately licensed and approved person and records
maintain
12. The instruments considered unserviceable
a) Storage conditions are not in accordance with accepted practice
b) Instruments history unknown
c) Instruments failure before their stipulated life
d) All the above
13. The shelf life of instruments
a) The shelf life of gyro instruments must not exceed 2 years at the end of first year in
shelf should be exercised as per approved test schedules and bearing lubricated as per
makers recommendation
b) The shelf life to be indicated on the serviceable tag
c) Instruments installed on aircraft which are not operated for a continuous period of six
months shall be subjected to bench check before use
d) All correct
14. Definition of emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
a) Equipment which broad-cost distress signals on designated frequencies
b) Automatically activated by impact / water activated by hydro static sensors
c) Automatic portable ELT which is rigidly attached but readily removable
d) All are correct
15. General Aviation operation
a) Class-I helicopters in case of critical power unit failure able to safely continue the
flight except the failure occurs prior to a defined point after take off or after defined
point before landing a forced landing required

b) Class-II helicopter: In case of critical power failure safely continue the flight except
the failure occurs prior to a defined point after take off or after defined point before
landing required
c) In case of power unit failure at any point in the flight profile a forced landing must be
performed
d) All the above
16. Aero plane to be equipped on all flight
a) First aid kit and physician kit as per the capacity of the aircraft and one portable fire
extinguishers in flight compartment and passengers cabin
b) Seat or berth for each person over an aged of two years seat belt for each seat ad
restraining belts for each berth a safety harness for each flight crew must incorporate
advice which will auto which will automatically restrain the occupants torso in the
event of rapid deceleration. Safety harness incorporate a device to prevent a suddenly
incapacitated pilot from interfering with the flight controls it includes shoulder straps
and seat belt used independently.
c) A crash axe for use in emergency stored in a place not visible to passengers
d) As “A” “B” and C and megaphone for seating capacity more than 60 and less than 100
passenger in the forward location. Two megaphones to be installed with passengers
capacity of more than 99 passengers one forward and the other rear ward
17. Aero planes on flights over water Sea Planes
a) One life jacket flotation device for each person on board
b) Equipment for making sound signals under international regulations for preventing
collision at sea
c) One anchor
18. Mark the correct statement in respect of a civil aircraft
a) Aircraft owned by state government and operated within the vicinity of departing
aerodrome need not possess the valid C of A
b) Need not hold valid C of A provided aircraft is operated without any passenger or pay
load
c) Need not hold valid C of A provided the aircraft is test flown with in the vicinity of
departing aerodrome
d) Both A and B answers are correct
19. In case owner of the aircraft has leased the aircraft to an operator
a) Both owner and the operator are responsible to maintain the aircraft with current and
valid C of A before it is flown
b) It is the responsibility of the operator to maintain the aircraft in current and valid C of
A before it is flown
c) As in (B) unless a general /specific permission to the contrary has been obtained from
DGCA
d) None of the above is correct
20. Aircraft is considered airworthy provided
a) Periodic inspections as approved by the appropriately licensed AME are carried out
b) All periodic inspections including repairs / modifications as approved by Managing
Director of Airlines
c) As in (B) but approved by DGCA
d) Fuselage repairs as approved by structural engineer of airlines are carried out
21. Issue of CAR is as detailed below
a) Issued by DGCA
b) Issued by DGCA with the permission Civil Aviation Ministry
c) Issued by DGCA under provision of Rule 133A of the aircraft Rule 1934
d) Issued by the DGCA but under Rule 133A of aircraft Rule 1937
22. Emergency landing means
a) Over weight a heavy landing by over shooting the runway
b) Aircraft bogging down after under shooting the runway during landing phase
c) Emergency escape slides are deployed during landing phase

d) It is an un-internal landing because of failure o malfunction of an aircraft component
or system
23. Condition monitoring means
a) When the aircraft components are kept in temperature controlled air-conditioned room
b) Monitoring by accomplishing periodic inspections by removing testing the component
in laboratory
c) Concept for locating and resolving problem areas through analytical study of
malfunctions a failure, not affecting safety
d) Inspection of components at fixed periods
24. Dispatch reliability does not include
a) In flight shut down rate (IFSD /1000 Hrs)
b) Engineering delays of 15 minutes duration
c) Aircraft grounding time in a month
d) All above are correct
25. Private operators should submit information related to accidents/emergency landings etc. to
DGCA at periods mentioned below:
a) At every 180 days b) at every 6 months
c) At every one month is acceptable
d) Both A and B are correct
26. “ON CONDITION” maintenance concepts is accomplished by
a) Visual inspections or bench test / in situ etc.
b) Subjecting the component by overhauling at fixed intervals
c) Reversing condition monitoring
d) No such concept exists in aviation industry
27. CAR’s are issued for information guidance and compliance under the provision of
a) Rule 133 A of aircraft Rules
b) Section 5A of aircraft Act, 1934
c) Aimed to implement the standards and recommended practices laid down in the ICAO
annexes 1, 6 and 8
d) All above correct
28. To quality for type certificate of aircraft
a) Should confirm to Rule 49 of aircraft rules 1937
b) Comply with CAR section 2 series F part II and manufactured in India shall be type
certificated by parliament
c) Aircraft imported from Australia should be type certificate by Australia acceptable to
DGCA
a) If AME Joins another operator, he should familiarize with QC manual & differences
in aircraft
b) As in (a) and he should pass specific aircraft written paper conducted by DGCA
c) As in (a) and should pass an oral check by DGCA
d) Operator should obtain security clearance for the Indian AME migrated from previous
operator OR as in A and C
30. When any foreign AME employed
a) AME should be given familiarization course on operator’s hanger
b) AME should be cleared from required security through DGCA
c) AME should pass written test conducted by QC Manager in association local DGCA
d) All above are wrong
1. Under aircraft rule every aircraft shall be fitted equipped with radio apparatus
a) Aircraft rule 58 b) Aircraft rule 48 c) Aircraft rule 57
d) Aircraft rule 133A
2. Scheduled maintenance check is required bonding insulation and VSWR HF, VHF carried
out
a) 180 days b) 6 months c) “A” & “B”are correct
d) “A” and “B” wrong

3. What are the equipment final test data check carried out
a) ADF VHF b) HF, VOR ILS c) Both A&B are correct
d) All wrong
4. Conventional valve equipment FTD check
a) Once a year linked with C of A renewal or any major check
b) Once 3 years
c) As A&B every 1800 hrs major check d) None
5. Solid state radio equipment FTD check
a) Once in 4 years b) Once in 3 years c) Once in a year
d) Once in two years
6. Special inspection
a) Whenever the aircraft involved in hard landing
b) Only when the aircraft flies through electrical storm
c) Mandatory when aircraft flight affected by lightening strike
d) All the above
7. Mode A and C transponder responses to
a) It provides communication capabilities (data link) required for ACAS/TCAS
b) Air traffic control radar beacon system (ATC RBS)
c) As A and B transponder function (mode “A” and Mode “C” operation)
d) None
8. Mode “S” transponder
a) Aircraft maximum certified take off mass 5700 Kgs and having seating capacity more
than 30 seats
b) Pay load capacity more than 3 tons
c) As “A” & “B” correct d) As “A” & “B” wrong
9. No aircraft shall operate for general aviation purpose
a) Should promulgated ATS rules b) 1st Jan 2003 aircraft only
c) As “B” helicopter also must have mode A and C transponder
10. Mode “S” Address
a) 24 bits b) 18 bits country code
c) Bits country code and 18 bits made “S” address
d) Only mode “S” address 18 bits only
11. Requirements for applying mode “S” transponder
a) Aircraft type and registration number b) Serial number of aircraft
c) Name & Address of the operator d) All above
12. Maintenance and certification of transponders
a) TSO C 74 C for mode A and C b) TSO-112 for mode “S”
c) TSO-C112 for mode “S” d) Both A and C
13. EMI definition
a) Un desirable voltage b) Undesirable current c) undesirable Power
d) Both A & B
14. Sources of interference
a) Fluorescent lights radio and radar transmitters
b) Power lines window heat controllers induction motor switching
c) Switching and light dimming
d) All above
15. Electromagnetic compatibility (EMC)
a) When the susceptibility thrush hold level is lesser than the conducted radiated emission
level
b) When the noise susceptibility thrush hold level is lower than the conducted radiated
emission level
c) When the susceptibility thrush hold level is greater than the conducted radiated emission
level
16. Characteristics of interference categorized
a) Band width b) amplitude behavior c) Wave form and occurrence

d) All the above
17. Narrow band interference
a) The interference band width is narrow
b) This is caused by AC power lines computers radio transmission and receives these
items generate a specified frequencies with un wanted harmonics of frequencies
c) Both A and B d) None of the above
18. Broad band interference
a) Devices generating random frequencies which serve no purpose
b) Present due to characteristics of electrical system
c) Power supplies light dimmmous Electrical motors
d) All the above
19. Interference can be categorized
a) Periodic b) Periodic or random c) Both A and B
d) Only B is correct
20. Unit of measurement of interference
a) db b) Volts c) Amps d) watts
21. Items affected by interference problem
a) Noise source b) Coupling channel c) Receivers d) All
22. Method of suppressing inference at source
a) Enclose source in metallic housing b) Transient suppression on relay coil
c) Twist and shield noisy wires and filter noisy output leads
d) As “A” B and C pulse raise time as slow and log possible
23. Reduce noise coupling
a) Separate power leads from interconnecting signal leads
b) Twist and shield noisy wires (coaxial cables need high frequency)
c) Ground leads as short as possible and break interference ground loops by
incorporating isolation transformers, difference Amplifier and balance circuits
d) As A, B, C, filter noisy out put leads
24. GPS
a) Communication Aid b) Navigation Aid c) Both COM, NA Aid
d) Landing Aid
25. GPS is stand-alone equipment
a) Insulation does not interfere operation of any other equipment
b) A means to provide to the flight crew GPS Receiver fail or unable to perform position
calculation
c) Provision of warning light in a prominent position
d) All the above
26. GPS operational performance statement
a) Flight Manual b) Aircraft long book c) Radio log book
d) Journey log book
27. GPS provides signal or navigational information
a) Instruments and displays b) Auto pilot
d) Including area navigation system
d) As “a” & “b” excluding area navigation system
28. Multi sensor area navigational system
a) GPS sensor must provide an unambiguous indication when any sensor including GPS
b) The failed one cannot provide the accuracy necessary for that phase of flight
c) Both “A” & “B” correct
d) Both “A” and “B” wrong
29. Storage condition
a) Temperature 50-70 degree F b) Humidity should be 65%
c) Storage parts kept at a distance of not more than 3 feet away from the source of heat
d) All the above
30. Rubber tyres
a) Stored vertically in rocks supporting tubes
b) Each tyre should be supported at two points close enough so that major portion of
tyres above the tubes

c) The tyre should turn a new position every three months
d) All above aircraft hoses and hose should be stored un coiled and supported to release
stresses
31. Storage limiting period of rubbers parts
a) Isolation atmospheric oxygen
b) Parts to be packed in air tight container and wrapping and liberal use of talk and
French chalk
c) Parts packed in air tight tins they should be lined with wax paper or polythene to avoid
direct contact the metal
d) All correct
32. Ozone effect
a) Exposure to air containing ozone even in minute quantities should be avoided
b) High voltage equipment, electrical motors or other plant which may give raise to
electrical spark
c) Still indoor air is normally ozone free because most wall and ceiling covering and
organic materials destroy ozone
d) All correct
33. Rubber parts
a) Must be stored in a relaxed position free from compression or distortion
b) Deformation greatly aggravates the action of ozone and also lead to permanent
changes in shape and dimensions
c) Spring loaded seats should if stored for any length of time have the spring removed
d) All the above
34. Shelf life hoses
a) Life limited to 10 years from the cure date of manufacture
b) During storage, periodic inspection should be carried out once a year for signs of
deterioration, weather crocks signs of corrosion on end fittings, hoses are pressure
tested 1 ½ times the working pressure every 2 years
c) Before installation on aircraft pressure test should be carried out at 1 ½ times the
working pressure
d) All the above
35. Service life
a) Service life is fixed by the manufactures taking into consideration the specific
application
b) In the absence of such information life of the hoses should not exceed 4 years to start
for Group A hoses and 6 years Group B Hoses
c) There after the service life of hoses can be developed to 6 years for group “A” and 8
years group ”B”
d) All correct
36. For life development of hoses the visual examination
a) Rubber coating and protective shields separating from inner tube or from the metal
core
b) Hardening or lack of flexibility
c) Ageing cracks, kinks chaffing blisters and condition of union
d) All the above
37. Absence of specific test or rigorous for determining life escalation
a) 1 ½ times the working of pressure 1 year
a) 2 ½ times the working pressure
b) 2 times the operating pressure and retained at elevated pressure for five minutes
c) .None of the above
38. Shelf life of hydraulic and pneumatic system components
a) Rubber parts for hydraulic and pneumatic to 6 years from the cure date
b) Rubber parts / seals stored more than 4 years, a sample seall from each batch should
be checked for deterioration by stretching 20% of the internal dia
c) Both A and B are correct
39. Service life of the hydraulic and pneumatic system rubber components

a) All the rubber seals shall be renewed at the time of TBO however maximum service life 4
years
b) In case manufacturer have fixed service life involving rubber components less than years
manufactures instructions to be followed
c) Under life development programme mutually agreed by RAWO and operator
d) All the above
40. Reciprocating engines and the accessories mounted on engine
a) Completely stripped, thoroughly inspected, and reassemble and tested at least once in
10 years
b) Any extension of calendar period, beyond ten years will not be normally considered
c) Manufacturer has laid down overhaul periodicity on calendar basis between two
consecutive overhauls the manufacturer requirements prevails
41 Series aircraft means
a) C of A and design of which is similar in every essential respect to the design of
aircraft for which C of A previously issued
b) C of A and design of which is not similar in every essential respect to the design of
aircraft for which C of A previously issued
c) B only correct d) A only correct
42. Flight Test Means
a) Flight performance and characteristics of aircraft in flight
b) Aircraft parts do not differ significantly in adverse sense from those of similar aircraft
c) As “A” aircraft parts do not differ significantly in adverse sense from those of its proto
type
d) As “B” aircraft parts do not differ significantly in adverse sense from those of type
approved
43. Release of aircraft for flight test
a) Chief Engineering Manager b) Quality Control Manager
c) Major maintenance Manager d) Chief of inspector Flight Release signatories
44. Flight test means
a) Flying the aircraft without any passenger or board
b) Aircraft handling characteristics have not deteriorated with time
c) Aircraft performance remains as scheduled and its equipment function properly
d) Only “A” and “B” “C” are correct
45. Aircraft flight-tested under the circumstances
a) At the time of C of A renewal (including six months renewal of C of A) and
maintenance, repair, modifications effect operational flight characteristics
b) For the purpose of fuel consumption engine power and performance of Rad /
Nov/Radar equipments or instruments performance in doubt on ground
c) Twin Engine aircraft more than one engine, in four engine aircraft more than two
engine change
d) As “A” “B” “C”DGCA may require any aircraft or any type of aircraft to under go
flight testing
46. Before flight test
a) Documents covering the repair modification and inspection is completed in all
respects and certified
b) A certificate to this effect as “A” shall be issued in duplicate one copy delivered to the
pilot other copy shall be retained by the operator
c) As “A” and “B” is correct
47. The routine test flight
a) All engines operating climb performance is within the acceptable limit to specified by
the manufacturer / DGCA best climbing speed.
b) Cruise speed at the cursing engine power is within the range specified and stalling
Speed has not increased beyond the figures specified by the manufacturer or DGCA
c) No abnormal vibrations, flight controls operate normally satisfactory

d) As a, b, c the radio radar equipment function correctly as installed in the aircraft and
the operating range satisfactory
48. Flight test report
a) Flight test to be performed by pilot in command or any other crew member of aircraft
authorized by the operator
b) The pilot in command responsible for record all defects experienced and adjustments
made besides recording and instruments reading
c) All flight test report and record of defects and adjustment shall be made in the flight
log book of the aircraft or other equivalent document
49. Flight performance of aircraft
a) Operating crew should be expected to report back on the actual performance of the
aircraft as per the prepared plan
b) Scheduled airlines have performance monitoring cell for regularly analyzing the
flight data ROC, cruising speed fuel consumption range of radio / radar equipments
c) In consultation with the manufacturers / DGCA schedule airlines shall specify in their
QCM manual short fall for the guidance of their maintenance staff
d) A, B, C on learning the short fall DGCA may order such further flight test or other
corrective action
50. Certification of flight test
a) Satisfactory flight test performed
b) Defects rectified and certified endorsement to this effect shall be made in the pilot
defect report / maintenance documents/ aircraft log books / licensed / approved person
responsible for issuing of flight release
c) There after usual flight release may be issued
d) As A,B,C correct
51. To grant open license in Cat A/B (All metal)
a) Must have held AME License in Category A/B for continuous period of five years
b) Have at least three types of all metal aircraft out of which two should be twin engine
composite structure
c) Should have two single engine all metal aircraft not exceeding 3000 Kg AUW as
applicable category
52. Open rating in category “A/B” of composite construction aircraft, AME should
a) Have held AME license in Category “A” / B for 3 years
b) Have at least 3 types of aero planes of composite structure of which at least 2 aircraft
should be with single engine and not exceeding 3000 Kg AUW endorse in Category
“A” / “B”
c) All the three of composite construction with at least two endorsements on two all
metal aircraft
d) One composite constructive having filled with turbine engine
53. Open rating in Category “R” for ADF endorsement
a) AME should have held license on HF for the past 3 years in Category “R”
b) Above endorsement should on an aircraft whose AUW is less than 3000 Kg
c) Out of 3 minimum ADF fitted on three different aircraft, one should be on aircraft
whose AUW is less than 5700 Kg
d) All the above answers are correct
54. AME with open rating endorsement in any category
a) Can immediately exercise his privileges with a recent experience on the type of
aircraft for at least one month
b) Can exercise the privileges provided he has familiarized with the aircraft for minimum
period of three months before using open license
c) He should undergo approved course conducted by DGCA
d) Familiarity with aircraft should be proved to the QC Manger
55. Composite construction of an aircraft means
a) Primary structure, controls are made out of metal is called composite
b) Only fuselage is made of metal but flight controls are covered with metal sheet

c) Fuselage and wings are made out of wood covered with plywood
d) Primary structure and its skin covering is of two more different materials
56. AME to qualify for open rating in cat-“X” (Radio equipment) of communication and ADF
a) Should have held AME in “X” category coving Radio equipment continuously for 5
years
b) Should have at least one aircraft with HF equipment on his license in Category “X”
c) Should have at least three aircraft filled with three different types of ADF equipment
on his license in Category “X” (Radio equipment)
57. Requirement for renewal of AME License
a) Should have continuous 6 months experience within preceeding 24 months from the
date of application
b) Within preceeding 24 months, applicant should have a total 6 months experience
c) Experience should be on aircraft having AUW 3000 Kgs
58. AME license lapsed for more than one year but less than 2 years, renewal can be effected by
a) After an oral check by he RAWO
b) Can be renewed only DGCA (Hqrs)
c) Applicant should pass written test followed by oral check by RAWO
d) Warning letter by RAWO
59. Mark the correct statement with reference to AME license renewal
a) Application should be submitted at least 15 days in advance to RAWO
b) If AME worked abroad for six months and another 6 months in India within the
Preceeding 24 months, only DGCA, Hqs can renew the license
c) If the requisite experience is shown in a foreign country, only DGCA., Hqs. Can
renew the license
d) Both (a) and (c) are correct
60. If the AME remained unemployed and license remained lapsed for less than one year
a) Can be renewed if a certificate is issued by the previous employer that he has not
exercised his privileged
b) Certificate as in (A) from the applicant is acceptable
c) Can be renewed by DGCA Hqs. Only
d) Applicant need not undergo refresher course after July’2003
61. Eligibility for issue of basic license is
a) Should have just competed 18 years of age
b) Must have passed Paper-I,II and III of DGCA AME license examination
c) Produce medical certificate from doctor holding at least a MBBS degree stating no
physical disability or colour blindness
62. Mark the incorrect statement
a) For issue of AME license, the applicant should have completed 21 years of Age
b) Change over from mechanical to avionics stream person should acquire 18 months
c) Open rating in Category “C” can be given to cover normally aspirated air cooled
piston engine not exceeding 350 BHP
d) Open rating can be granted to aircraft whose AUW is less than 3000 Kg
63. BAMEC cannot be issued to
a) Person’s age is less than 20 years
b) Candidate should have passed B.Sc., degree with Math’s, Physics and Chemistry with
50% aggregate and passed all DGCA exams
c) Mechanical diploma holder and passed all DGCA papers
d) Should not suffer from colour blindness
64. Mark the correct statement, regarding issue of authorization
a) If authorization relates aircraft whose AUW is more than 5700 Kg, the applicant
should have satisfactorily undergone approved course
b) Applicant should employed on full time basis
c) Validity beyond six months should be prior concurrence of DGCA

65. Authorization may be issued to the applicant
a) By the approved quality control manager
b) If found blame worthy recorded during the last 6 months
c) AME’s requisite experience may be gained within 6 months from the date of issue
d) Answers (B) and (C) are correct
66. Approved can be granted to applicant provided
a) Age should is less than 19 years
b) Has passed 10+2 standard with MPC subjects or equivalent examination
c) Should hold BAMEC in any of the categories of HA, JE, ES, IS and RN but on
aircraft whose AUW is less than 5700 Kgs
d) Approval once granted is valid even applicant joins an another organization engaged
in same type of work.
67. Approval of flight engineers as check flight Engineer/Flight Engineer examiner
a) Is given to flight engineer whose hold very senior in position and drawn more salary
b) Is given if F.E is impartial and capable of recording fair assessment
c) Is given if the F-E is completely free of notifiable accident attributable to his
proficiency during preceeding 3 years
d) Answers (b) correct
68. To qualify for check flight engineer
a) F.E should have 2000 hours of total experience on the type
b) Minimum 100 horse experience on the type and carried out at least 10 route checks
within last one year
c) 500 hrs. total experience on the type
d) 100 hrs. on the type within last six months
a) Check flight engineer should undergo eight hours simulator training
b) As in (A) and two hours check by FE examiner
c) Validity of check flight engineer license is for one calendar year upto 31st march
unless extended by FE examination
70. To quality for renewal as flight engineer examiner
a) Should have 10 hrs.experience as check flight engineer
b) Should have at least 10 hours of experience as flight engineer with 5 route checks by
check flight engineer
c) Should have clean professional record for the proceeding 24 months proceeding date
of application
d) Should have not less than 100 hrs of flying experience as flight engineer during the
past six months prior to the date of application
71. GET is required to take repeat main course if be
a) If he gets less than 80% aggregate marks in main course
b) If the attendance is less than 90% of main course
c) If he fails in any phase with less than 70% marks in the main course
d) If he fails in any one of the phases getting 69% only of the main course
72. GET can appear for Paper-I and II
a) Should complete two years training like a student from approved AME college
b) After completion of one year training
c) On completion of 2 years practical training in the trade
d) All the above answers are correct
73. GET after refresher course
a) Is eligible for 3 chances of oral – cum-practical examination
b) Is eligible for one chance of oral-cum-practical examination provide be undergoes 3
months practical training
c) Is eligible for one oral-cum-practical examination
d) Refresher course should be conducted after 15 days but within 45 days
74. Fees for issue of duplicate AME/FE/SFE license

a) Fees need not be paid if the license is lost through pressurized passenger cabin sliding
window
b) No fees is to be paid if the license is desired to be issued in bilingual format
c) If license is lost by an act of god, fees to be paid
d) NO fees to be paid if license is less than 10 years
75. In respect of welders certificate of competency
a) Is valid for 6 months maximum
b) C of C of a welder can be renewed for a maximum period of six moths
c) May be renewed if welder has worked for 2 months in past six months
d) All the above answers are correct.
76. Minimum experience required for issue of certificate of competency to cover NDT is
a) Minimum of 1 ½ years aviation experience on Radio trade to cover Radiography
b) Minimum of 2 years aviation experience the field of Radiography out of which 6
months recent experience
c) Minimum of 1 ½ years experience in the filed of radiography
d) As in (c) out of which six months recent experience must be under supervision of C of
C holder of an approved organization for carrying out radio graphic inspection
77. Validity of C of C covering magnetic particle inspection is
a) Should not exceed one year
b) Should be for 6 months out of minimum which at least 2 months recent experience is
required
c) Should have 6 months experience covering the relevant NDT technique
d) C of C for eddy current technique is only for 3 months
78. For issue of an additional rating of C of C covering NDT
a) Should have gained 6 months experience in respective NDT technique
b) Should have minimum 2 months recent experience
c) Should have gained at least 3 months experience under direct supervision of local
DGCA
d) Should have gained at least 3 months experience under the supervision C of C holder
covering the related NDT technique
79. To fly one of the types of aircraft on FE license, the following are to fulfilled to gain recency
a) If the lapsed period is less than 90 days F.E has to do simulator refresher of 4 hours
and route check (minimum 4 landings)
b) If the period is 91 days to 364 days, FE has to do extended technical refresher,
simulator (2X 4 hours)
c) In addition to requirements stated in (b), F.E has to undergo 2 route checks (Minimum
6 landing with at least two different approved examiner)
d) Both answer (b) and (C) are correct
80. Certificate of competency for welder is issued
a) If the age of the applicant is less than 18 years
b) Applicant should have passed at least 10+2 examination with MPC group
c) Should have gained experience at least 2 years in welding of which at least 3 months
must be recent experience
d) Should have least 2 years experience in welding of which at least 6 months must be
recent experience
3. MEL need not include
a) Engine unless aircraft installed with 3 engines
b) Landing gear provided aircraft is fixed tricycle type landing gear
c) Gally equipment which do not affect the airworthiness
d) All above
4. QCM is empowered to dispatch the aircraft under MEL
a) If the pilot or AME refuses to certify the aircraft if he thinks unsafe to do so
b) In case of multiple defects are encountered with regard to pilot objection
c) Can dispatch the aircraft if pilot agrees to accept the aircraft with multiple defects
d) QC manager has no role to play
5. Approval to MEL is given by

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