TEST BANK For Paramedic Care - Principles and Practice, 6th Edition, Volume 1 - 5.pdf
TEST BANK For Paramedic Care - Principles and Practice, 6th Edition, Volume 1 - 5.pdf
TEST BANK For Paramedic Care - Principles and Practice, 6th Edition, Volume 1 - 5.pdf
TEST BANK For Understanding the Essentials of Critical Care Nursing, 3rd Edit...Donc Test
TEST BANK For Understanding the Essentials of Critical Care Nursing, 3rd Edition by Perrin
TEST BANK For Understanding the Essentials of Critical Care Nursing, 3rd Edition by Perrin
TEST BANK For Understanding the Essentials of Critical Care Nursing, 3rd Edition by Perrin
TEST BANK For Understanding the Essentials of Critical Care Nursing, 3rd Edition by Perrin
Question 1 (1 point)What factor is medical necessity based on.docxmakdul
Question 1 (1 point)
What factor is medical necessity based on?
Question 1 options:
A)
The beneficial effects of a service for the patient’s physical needs and quality of life
B)
The cost of a service compared with the beneficial effects on the patient’s health
C)
The availability of a service at the facility
D)
The reimbursement available for a given service
Save
Question 2 (1 point)
The first prospective payment system (PPS) for inpatient care was developed in 1983. The newest PPS is used to manage the costs for
Question 2 options:
A)
medical homes.
B)
assisted living facilities.
C)
home health care
D)
inpatient psychiatric facilities
Save
Question 3 (1 point)
The category “Commercial payers” includes private health information and
Question 3 options:
A)
employer-based group health insurers.
B)
Medicare/Medicaid.
C)
TriCare
D)
Blue Cross and Blue Shield
Save
Question 4 (1 point)
LCDs and NCDs are review policies that describe the circumstances of coverage for various types of medical treatment. They advise physicians which services Medicare considers reasonable and necessary and may indicate the need for an advance beneficiary notice. They are developed by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) and Medicare Administrative Contractors. LCD and NCD are acronyms that stand for
Question 4 options:
A)
local contractor's decisions and national contractor's decisions.
B)
list of covered decisions and noncovered decisions.
C)
local covered determinations and noncovered determinations.
D)
local coverage determinations and national coverage determinations.
Save
Question 5 (1 point)
A Medicare patient was seen by Dr. Zachary, who is a nonparticipating physician. The charge for the office visit was $125. The Medicare beneficiary had already met his deductible. The Medicare Fee Schedule amount is $100. Dr. Zachary does not accept assignment. The office manager will apply a practice termed as "balance billing," which means that the patient is
Question 5 options:
A)
financially liable for charges in excess of the Medicare Fee Schedule, up to a limit.
B)
financially liable for the Medicare Fee Schedule amount.
C)
financially liable for only the deductible.
D)
not financially liable for any amount.
Save
Question 6 (1 point)
CMS adjusts the Medicare Severity DRGs and the reimbursement rates every
Question 6 options:
A)
quarter
B)
calendar year beginning January 1
C)
month
D)
fiscal year beginning October 1
Save
Question 7 (1 point)
The prospective payment system used to reimburse hospitals for Medicare hospital outpatients is called
Question 7 options:
A)
MS-DRGs
B)
APGs
C)
RBRVS
D)
APCs.
Save
Question 8 (1 point)
An Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) is a document signed by the
Question 8 options:
A)
physician advisor indicating that the patient's stay is denied.
.
B)
...
Essay 3 We know that leaders have the power affect the emotion.docxSALU18
Essay 3
We know that leaders have the power affect the emotional states of people around them. A resonant leader can have a positive effect, pulling him team onto the same upbeat wavelength, he or she can create dissonance when their adversity bumps up across the emotions of others (Boomer, 2013). Resonant leaders have also the emotional intelligence and they use their emotional intelligence to manage the feelings to afford a group its aims. For instance, resonant leader enjoy the media and work with press the community behind the team. In other words, resonant leaders are effective because they create resonance when they would like use their emotional intelligence.
When I think Captain Abrashoff I can say that he tells his crew, this is your ship and you are responsible for it. Goleman, Boyatzis and Mckee (2002), define it shows it has a commander leadership style. Because commander leaders have threatening, tight control and drive away talent characteristic. On the other hand, he is also expressing to each crew member how important they are, he is training each crew member to master their job, he is communicating purpose and meaning as well. That is why we can say that Abrashoff has coaching and affiliative leader characteristics, too.
To being a great resonant leader is that he must listen to people. If anyone approaches you, give him your full. Furthermore, when you repeat positive words and phrases, this will encourage the people around you like Abrashoff. According to these points, I say that he is resonant leader.
References
Abrashoff, D. M. (2012). It's your ship: Management techniques from the best damn ship in the Navy. New York: Hachette.
Boomer, L. (2013). Are you a resonant leader? Landscape Management, 52 (8),24-27.
Goleman, D., Boyatzis, R. E., & McKee, A. (2002). The new leaders: Transforming the art of
leadership into the science of results (p. 14). London: Little, Brown.
Question 1 (1 point)
Culver County Hospital has the lowest cost of any hospital in its region. However, it has continually reported very large operating losses and has depended upon tax support from the county. Assuming that positive operating margins are an objective of Culver County Hospital, the hospital could be described as:
Question 1 options:
A)
Efficient and effective
B)
Effective but not efficient
C)
Efficient but not effective
D)
None of the above
Save
Question 2 (1 point)
Which of the following is the primary goal of a not-for-profit healthcare organization? Choose the best answer.
Question 2 options:
A)
To serve the community through the provision of health care services
B)
To balance revenues with expenses
C)
To provide jobs for those in the community
D)
To deliver very high-quality health care services
Save
Question 3 (1 point)
The controller in a hospital is usually responsible for which of the following activities (choose all that apply):
Question 3 options:
A)
Collection of ...
Question 1 (2 points)What is the federal act that empowers the.docxIRESH3
Question 1 (2 points)
What is the federal act that empowers the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services to create shared accountability for Medicare shared savings across groups of physicians, hospitals, and other healthcare providers?
Question 1 options:
A)
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act
B)
Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
C)
Federal Employees Health Benefits Program
D)
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
E)
Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement and Modernization Act
Save
Question 2 (2 points)
All of the following are considered a transition of care where a summary of care must be provided except which?
Question 2 options:
A)
Discharge of the patient to home without expectation of follow-up to another provider
B)
Discharge of the patient to home with a follow-up to the patient’s regular physician
C)
A referral of the patient to another care provider within the same setting of care
D)
A patient is sent to the emergency room from the primary-care office
E)
A and C
F)
C and D
Save
Question 3 (2 points)
Which of the following is not an electronic tool by which clinicians can engage consumers?
Question 3 options:
A)
Personal health record
B)
Secure messaging
C)
Practice management system
D)
Physician web site and blog
E)
All of the above represent electronic tools by which clinicians can engage consumers
Save
Question 4 (2 points)
Which of the following is a significant driver for the use of EHRs?
Question 4 options:
A)
Rising healthcare costs
B)
Concerns about quality
C)
Concerns about coverage (access to health insurance)
D)
Concerns about inaccurate billing
E)
All of the above
F)
A and B
Save
Question 5 (2 points)
Which of the following is considered by the Institute of Medicine to be functionality in an electronic record?
Question 5 options:
A)
Results management
B)
Population health management
C)
Administrative support
D)
Communication tools
E)
All of the above
F)
A and C
G)
A and D
Save
Question 6 (2 points)
The electronic entry of orders by the ordering clinician is referred to as which of the following?
Question 6 options:
A)
Online entry system (OES)
B)
Computerized practitioner order entry (CPOE)
C)
Computerized ordering (CO)
D)
Medication ordering system (MOS)
Save
Question 7 (2 points)
Which of the following is generally not considered demographic information?
Question 7 options:
A)
Age
B)
Allergies
C)
Address
D)
Insurance carrier
Save
Question 8 (2 points)
Which of the following national identifiers was not mandated by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996?
Question 8 options:
A)
National Employer Identifier
B)
National Provider Identifier
C)
National Clearinghouse Identifier
D)
National Health Plan Identifier
Save
Question 9 (2 points)
Which organization created and maintains the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code set?
Questi ...
TEST BANK for The Nursing Assistant Acute, Subacute, and Long-Term Care, 6th ...Donc Test
TEST BANK for The Nursing Assistant Acute, Subacute, and Long-Term Care, 6th Edition
TEST BANK for The Nursing Assistant Acute, Subacute, and Long-Term Care, 6th Edition
TEST BANK for The Nursing Assistant Acute, Subacute, and Long-Term Care, 6th Edition
Test bank clinical nursing skills a concept based approach 4e pearson educati...Donc Test
Test bank clinical nursing skills a concept based approach 4e pearson education
Test bank clinical nursing skills a concept based approach 4e pearson education
Test bank clinical nursing skills a concept based approach 4e pearson education
TEST BANK For Understanding the Essentials of Critical Care Nursing, 3rd Edit...Donc Test
TEST BANK For Understanding the Essentials of Critical Care Nursing, 3rd Edition by Perrin
TEST BANK For Understanding the Essentials of Critical Care Nursing, 3rd Edition by Perrin
TEST BANK For Understanding the Essentials of Critical Care Nursing, 3rd Edition by Perrin
TEST BANK For Understanding the Essentials of Critical Care Nursing, 3rd Edition by Perrin
Question 1 (1 point)What factor is medical necessity based on.docxmakdul
Question 1 (1 point)
What factor is medical necessity based on?
Question 1 options:
A)
The beneficial effects of a service for the patient’s physical needs and quality of life
B)
The cost of a service compared with the beneficial effects on the patient’s health
C)
The availability of a service at the facility
D)
The reimbursement available for a given service
Save
Question 2 (1 point)
The first prospective payment system (PPS) for inpatient care was developed in 1983. The newest PPS is used to manage the costs for
Question 2 options:
A)
medical homes.
B)
assisted living facilities.
C)
home health care
D)
inpatient psychiatric facilities
Save
Question 3 (1 point)
The category “Commercial payers” includes private health information and
Question 3 options:
A)
employer-based group health insurers.
B)
Medicare/Medicaid.
C)
TriCare
D)
Blue Cross and Blue Shield
Save
Question 4 (1 point)
LCDs and NCDs are review policies that describe the circumstances of coverage for various types of medical treatment. They advise physicians which services Medicare considers reasonable and necessary and may indicate the need for an advance beneficiary notice. They are developed by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) and Medicare Administrative Contractors. LCD and NCD are acronyms that stand for
Question 4 options:
A)
local contractor's decisions and national contractor's decisions.
B)
list of covered decisions and noncovered decisions.
C)
local covered determinations and noncovered determinations.
D)
local coverage determinations and national coverage determinations.
Save
Question 5 (1 point)
A Medicare patient was seen by Dr. Zachary, who is a nonparticipating physician. The charge for the office visit was $125. The Medicare beneficiary had already met his deductible. The Medicare Fee Schedule amount is $100. Dr. Zachary does not accept assignment. The office manager will apply a practice termed as "balance billing," which means that the patient is
Question 5 options:
A)
financially liable for charges in excess of the Medicare Fee Schedule, up to a limit.
B)
financially liable for the Medicare Fee Schedule amount.
C)
financially liable for only the deductible.
D)
not financially liable for any amount.
Save
Question 6 (1 point)
CMS adjusts the Medicare Severity DRGs and the reimbursement rates every
Question 6 options:
A)
quarter
B)
calendar year beginning January 1
C)
month
D)
fiscal year beginning October 1
Save
Question 7 (1 point)
The prospective payment system used to reimburse hospitals for Medicare hospital outpatients is called
Question 7 options:
A)
MS-DRGs
B)
APGs
C)
RBRVS
D)
APCs.
Save
Question 8 (1 point)
An Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) is a document signed by the
Question 8 options:
A)
physician advisor indicating that the patient's stay is denied.
.
B)
...
Essay 3 We know that leaders have the power affect the emotion.docxSALU18
Essay 3
We know that leaders have the power affect the emotional states of people around them. A resonant leader can have a positive effect, pulling him team onto the same upbeat wavelength, he or she can create dissonance when their adversity bumps up across the emotions of others (Boomer, 2013). Resonant leaders have also the emotional intelligence and they use their emotional intelligence to manage the feelings to afford a group its aims. For instance, resonant leader enjoy the media and work with press the community behind the team. In other words, resonant leaders are effective because they create resonance when they would like use their emotional intelligence.
When I think Captain Abrashoff I can say that he tells his crew, this is your ship and you are responsible for it. Goleman, Boyatzis and Mckee (2002), define it shows it has a commander leadership style. Because commander leaders have threatening, tight control and drive away talent characteristic. On the other hand, he is also expressing to each crew member how important they are, he is training each crew member to master their job, he is communicating purpose and meaning as well. That is why we can say that Abrashoff has coaching and affiliative leader characteristics, too.
To being a great resonant leader is that he must listen to people. If anyone approaches you, give him your full. Furthermore, when you repeat positive words and phrases, this will encourage the people around you like Abrashoff. According to these points, I say that he is resonant leader.
References
Abrashoff, D. M. (2012). It's your ship: Management techniques from the best damn ship in the Navy. New York: Hachette.
Boomer, L. (2013). Are you a resonant leader? Landscape Management, 52 (8),24-27.
Goleman, D., Boyatzis, R. E., & McKee, A. (2002). The new leaders: Transforming the art of
leadership into the science of results (p. 14). London: Little, Brown.
Question 1 (1 point)
Culver County Hospital has the lowest cost of any hospital in its region. However, it has continually reported very large operating losses and has depended upon tax support from the county. Assuming that positive operating margins are an objective of Culver County Hospital, the hospital could be described as:
Question 1 options:
A)
Efficient and effective
B)
Effective but not efficient
C)
Efficient but not effective
D)
None of the above
Save
Question 2 (1 point)
Which of the following is the primary goal of a not-for-profit healthcare organization? Choose the best answer.
Question 2 options:
A)
To serve the community through the provision of health care services
B)
To balance revenues with expenses
C)
To provide jobs for those in the community
D)
To deliver very high-quality health care services
Save
Question 3 (1 point)
The controller in a hospital is usually responsible for which of the following activities (choose all that apply):
Question 3 options:
A)
Collection of ...
Question 1 (2 points)What is the federal act that empowers the.docxIRESH3
Question 1 (2 points)
What is the federal act that empowers the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services to create shared accountability for Medicare shared savings across groups of physicians, hospitals, and other healthcare providers?
Question 1 options:
A)
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act
B)
Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
C)
Federal Employees Health Benefits Program
D)
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
E)
Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement and Modernization Act
Save
Question 2 (2 points)
All of the following are considered a transition of care where a summary of care must be provided except which?
Question 2 options:
A)
Discharge of the patient to home without expectation of follow-up to another provider
B)
Discharge of the patient to home with a follow-up to the patient’s regular physician
C)
A referral of the patient to another care provider within the same setting of care
D)
A patient is sent to the emergency room from the primary-care office
E)
A and C
F)
C and D
Save
Question 3 (2 points)
Which of the following is not an electronic tool by which clinicians can engage consumers?
Question 3 options:
A)
Personal health record
B)
Secure messaging
C)
Practice management system
D)
Physician web site and blog
E)
All of the above represent electronic tools by which clinicians can engage consumers
Save
Question 4 (2 points)
Which of the following is a significant driver for the use of EHRs?
Question 4 options:
A)
Rising healthcare costs
B)
Concerns about quality
C)
Concerns about coverage (access to health insurance)
D)
Concerns about inaccurate billing
E)
All of the above
F)
A and B
Save
Question 5 (2 points)
Which of the following is considered by the Institute of Medicine to be functionality in an electronic record?
Question 5 options:
A)
Results management
B)
Population health management
C)
Administrative support
D)
Communication tools
E)
All of the above
F)
A and C
G)
A and D
Save
Question 6 (2 points)
The electronic entry of orders by the ordering clinician is referred to as which of the following?
Question 6 options:
A)
Online entry system (OES)
B)
Computerized practitioner order entry (CPOE)
C)
Computerized ordering (CO)
D)
Medication ordering system (MOS)
Save
Question 7 (2 points)
Which of the following is generally not considered demographic information?
Question 7 options:
A)
Age
B)
Allergies
C)
Address
D)
Insurance carrier
Save
Question 8 (2 points)
Which of the following national identifiers was not mandated by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996?
Question 8 options:
A)
National Employer Identifier
B)
National Provider Identifier
C)
National Clearinghouse Identifier
D)
National Health Plan Identifier
Save
Question 9 (2 points)
Which organization created and maintains the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code set?
Questi ...
TEST BANK for The Nursing Assistant Acute, Subacute, and Long-Term Care, 6th ...Donc Test
TEST BANK for The Nursing Assistant Acute, Subacute, and Long-Term Care, 6th Edition
TEST BANK for The Nursing Assistant Acute, Subacute, and Long-Term Care, 6th Edition
TEST BANK for The Nursing Assistant Acute, Subacute, and Long-Term Care, 6th Edition
Test bank clinical nursing skills a concept based approach 4e pearson educati...Donc Test
Test bank clinical nursing skills a concept based approach 4e pearson education
Test bank clinical nursing skills a concept based approach 4e pearson education
Test bank clinical nursing skills a concept based approach 4e pearson education
TEST BANK For Emergency Care, 13th Edition by Daniel Limmer, Michael F. O'Kee...robinsonayot
TEST BANK For Emergency Care, 13th Edition by Daniel Limmer, Michael F. O'Keefe, Verified Chapters 1 - 41, Complete Newest Version.pdf
TEST BANK For Emergency Care, 13th Edition by Daniel Limmer, Michael F. O'Keefe, Verified Chapters 1 - 41, Complete Newest Version.pdf
TEST BANK For Emergency Care, 13th Edition by Daniel Limmer, Michael F. O'Kee...rightmanforbloodline
TEST BANK For Emergency Care, 13th Edition by Daniel Limmer, Michael F. O'Keefe, Verified Chapters 1 - 41, Complete Newest Version
TEST BANK For Emergency Care, 13th Edition by Daniel Limmer, Michael F. O'Keefe, Verified Chapters 1 - 41, Complete Newest Version
TEST BANK for The Nursing Assistant Acute, Subacute, and Long-Term Care, 6th ...kevinkariuki227
TEST BANK for The Nursing Assistant Acute, Subacute, and Long-Term Care, 6th Edition (Pulliam), Verified Chapters 1 - 24, Complete Newest Version.pdf
TEST BANK for The Nursing Assistant Acute, Subacute, and Long-Term Care, 6th Edition (Pulliam), Verified Chapters 1 - 24, Complete Newest Version.pdf
Question 1 Which type of offsite backup service provides backups.docxIRESH3
Question 1
Which type of offsite backup service provides backups for transactional data only, typically in real time?
A.
Electronic vaulting
B.
Traditional data backups
C.
Remote journaling
D.
Database shadowing
Question 2
Which of the following is NOT a major benefit of SETA programs?
A.
They can improve employee behavior
B.
They can improve configuration rule security
C.
They can inform members of the organization about where to report policy violations
D.
They enable the organization to hold employees accountable
Question 3
Which of the following is not a component of a typical strategic plan?
A.
Strategic issues and core values
B.
Historical profile
C.
Organizational profile
D.
Executive summary
Question 4
The _________ is the responsibility of the CISO, and is designed to reduce incidence of accidental security breaches by organization members.
Question 5
The ___________ contains the contact information of individuals that need to be notified in the event of an actual incident.
Question 6
At what point during an incident should law enforcement be notified?
A.
When an incident is determined to violate civil or criminal law
B.
When an organization no longer has the ability to handle an incident with its current resources
C.
Immediately after the detection of an event
D.
After the incident is escalated to a disaster
Question 7
True or False: Slow-onset disasters occur over time and gradually degrade an organization’s ability to withstand their effects.
True
False
Question 8
Which of the following is NOT an InfoSec policy recommended in NIST’s Special Publication 800-14 document?
A.
System-specific security policies (SysSP)
B.
Task-specific security policies (TSSP)
C.
Enterprise information security policy (EISP)
D.
Issue-specific security policies (ISSP)
Question 9
Which is not one of the core principles in traditional management theory?
A.
Controlling
B.
Directing
C.
Leading
D.
Staffing
Question 10
True or False: A CISO never reports to the CIO, and must always go through management hierarchies.
True
False
Question 11
What is the name of the process that is used to establish whether or not a user’s identity is legitimate?
A.
Authorization
B.
Availability
C.
Authentication
D.
Accountability
Question 12
True or False: Detecting a modification of system logs is an indicator that an actual incident has taken place.
True
False
Question 13
A ___________ is a site with a fully configured computer facility, including all services, communications links, and physical plant operations
Question 14
Which of the following is NOT a specific characteristic of ISSP?
A.
It contains an issue statement
B.
It requires frequent updates
C.
It addresses specific technology-based resources
D.
It addresses hardware implementation issues
Question 15
A(n) _____________regulates the who, what, when, where, and how aspects of access to a system or resource.
Question 16
True or False: A system administrator m ...
Liberty university busi 311 quiz 8 complete solutions correct answers slideshareSong Love
Liberty University BUSI 311 quiz 8 complete solutions correct answers slideshare
Six different versions
https://www.coursemerit.com/solution-details/20143/Liberty-University-BUSI-311-quiz-8-complete-solutions-correct-answers-A-work
Law Enforcement Role in Response to Sudden Cardiac ArrestDavid Hiltz
The relevance of time to CPR and defibrillation to survival is well established. Furthermore the effectiveness of law enforcement agency (LEA) defibrillation strategies is well demonstrated. Despite this, few LEA have committed to the necessary policy change, training and purchase of equipment. This presentation will review LEA defibrillation best practices as well as results from a survey of LEA in Massachusetts. In reviewing this information the participants will gain insight into LEA attitudes towards resuscitation and aid in the advancement of efforts to utilize LEA in the delivery of lifesaving interventions.
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Question 1 Which type of offsite backup service provides backups.docxIRESH3
Question 1
Which type of offsite backup service provides backups for transactional data only, typically in real time?
A.
Electronic vaulting
B.
Traditional data backups
C.
Remote journaling
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Database shadowing
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Which of the following is NOT a major benefit of SETA programs?
A.
They can improve employee behavior
B.
They can improve configuration rule security
C.
They can inform members of the organization about where to report policy violations
D.
They enable the organization to hold employees accountable
Question 3
Which of the following is not a component of a typical strategic plan?
A.
Strategic issues and core values
B.
Historical profile
C.
Organizational profile
D.
Executive summary
Question 4
The _________ is the responsibility of the CISO, and is designed to reduce incidence of accidental security breaches by organization members.
Question 5
The ___________ contains the contact information of individuals that need to be notified in the event of an actual incident.
Question 6
At what point during an incident should law enforcement be notified?
A.
When an incident is determined to violate civil or criminal law
B.
When an organization no longer has the ability to handle an incident with its current resources
C.
Immediately after the detection of an event
D.
After the incident is escalated to a disaster
Question 7
True or False: Slow-onset disasters occur over time and gradually degrade an organization’s ability to withstand their effects.
True
False
Question 8
Which of the following is NOT an InfoSec policy recommended in NIST’s Special Publication 800-14 document?
A.
System-specific security policies (SysSP)
B.
Task-specific security policies (TSSP)
C.
Enterprise information security policy (EISP)
D.
Issue-specific security policies (ISSP)
Question 9
Which is not one of the core principles in traditional management theory?
A.
Controlling
B.
Directing
C.
Leading
D.
Staffing
Question 10
True or False: A CISO never reports to the CIO, and must always go through management hierarchies.
True
False
Question 11
What is the name of the process that is used to establish whether or not a user’s identity is legitimate?
A.
Authorization
B.
Availability
C.
Authentication
D.
Accountability
Question 12
True or False: Detecting a modification of system logs is an indicator that an actual incident has taken place.
True
False
Question 13
A ___________ is a site with a fully configured computer facility, including all services, communications links, and physical plant operations
Question 14
Which of the following is NOT a specific characteristic of ISSP?
A.
It contains an issue statement
B.
It requires frequent updates
C.
It addresses specific technology-based resources
D.
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Question 15
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Question 16
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The relevance of time to CPR and defibrillation to survival is well established. Furthermore the effectiveness of law enforcement agency (LEA) defibrillation strategies is well demonstrated. Despite this, few LEA have committed to the necessary policy change, training and purchase of equipment. This presentation will review LEA defibrillation best practices as well as results from a survey of LEA in Massachusetts. In reviewing this information the participants will gain insight into LEA attitudes towards resuscitation and aid in the advancement of efforts to utilize LEA in the delivery of lifesaving interventions.
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Title: Sense of Taste
Presenter: Dr. Faiza, Assistant Professor of Physiology
Qualifications:
MBBS (Best Graduate, AIMC Lahore)
FCPS Physiology
ICMT, CHPE, DHPE (STMU)
MPH (GC University, Faisalabad)
MBA (Virtual University of Pakistan)
Learning Objectives:
Describe the structure and function of taste buds.
Describe the relationship between the taste threshold and taste index of common substances.
Explain the chemical basis and signal transduction of taste perception for each type of primary taste sensation.
Recognize different abnormalities of taste perception and their causes.
Key Topics:
Significance of Taste Sensation:
Differentiation between pleasant and harmful food
Influence on behavior
Selection of food based on metabolic needs
Receptors of Taste:
Taste buds on the tongue
Influence of sense of smell, texture of food, and pain stimulation (e.g., by pepper)
Primary and Secondary Taste Sensations:
Primary taste sensations: Sweet, Sour, Salty, Bitter, Umami
Chemical basis and signal transduction mechanisms for each taste
Taste Threshold and Index:
Taste threshold values for Sweet (sucrose), Salty (NaCl), Sour (HCl), and Bitter (Quinine)
Taste index relationship: Inversely proportional to taste threshold
Taste Blindness:
Inability to taste certain substances, particularly thiourea compounds
Example: Phenylthiocarbamide
Structure and Function of Taste Buds:
Composition: Epithelial cells, Sustentacular/Supporting cells, Taste cells, Basal cells
Features: Taste pores, Taste hairs/microvilli, and Taste nerve fibers
Location of Taste Buds:
Found in papillae of the tongue (Fungiform, Circumvallate, Foliate)
Also present on the palate, tonsillar pillars, epiglottis, and proximal esophagus
Mechanism of Taste Stimulation:
Interaction of taste substances with receptors on microvilli
Signal transduction pathways for Umami, Sweet, Bitter, Sour, and Salty tastes
Taste Sensitivity and Adaptation:
Decrease in sensitivity with age
Rapid adaptation of taste sensation
Role of Saliva in Taste:
Dissolution of tastants to reach receptors
Washing away the stimulus
Taste Preferences and Aversions:
Mechanisms behind taste preference and aversion
Influence of receptors and neural pathways
Impact of Sensory Nerve Damage:
Degeneration of taste buds if the sensory nerve fiber is cut
Abnormalities of Taste Detection:
Conditions: Ageusia, Hypogeusia, Dysgeusia (parageusia)
Causes: Nerve damage, neurological disorders, infections, poor oral hygiene, adverse drug effects, deficiencies, aging, tobacco use, altered neurotransmitter levels
Neurotransmitters and Taste Threshold:
Effects of serotonin (5-HT) and norepinephrine (NE) on taste sensitivity
Supertasters:
25% of the population with heightened sensitivity to taste, especially bitterness
Increased number of fungiform papillae
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Tom Selleck, an enduring figure in Hollywood. has captivated audiences for decades with his rugged charm, iconic moustache. and memorable roles in television and film. From his breakout role as Thomas Magnum in Magnum P.I. to his current portrayal of Frank Reagan in Blue Bloods. Selleck's career has spanned over 50 years. But beyond his professional achievements. fans have often been curious about Tom Selleck Health. especially as he has aged in the public eye.
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Introduction
Many have been interested in Tom Selleck health. not only because of his enduring presence on screen but also because of the challenges. and lifestyle choices he has faced and made over the years. This article delves into the various aspects of Tom Selleck health. exploring his fitness regimen, diet, mental health. and the challenges he has encountered as he ages. We'll look at how he maintains his well-being. the health issues he has faced, and his approach to ageing .
Early Life and Career
Childhood and Athletic Beginnings
Tom Selleck was born on January 29, 1945, in Detroit, Michigan, and grew up in Sherman Oaks, California. From an early age, he was involved in sports, particularly basketball. which played a significant role in his physical development. His athletic pursuits continued into college. where he attended the University of Southern California (USC) on a basketball scholarship. This early involvement in sports laid a strong foundation for his physical health and disciplined lifestyle.
Transition to Acting
Selleck's transition from an athlete to an actor came with its physical demands. His first significant role in "Magnum P.I." required him to perform various stunts and maintain a fit appearance. This role, which he played from 1980 to 1988. necessitated a rigorous fitness routine to meet the show's demands. setting the stage for his long-term commitment to health and wellness.
Fitness Regimen
Workout Routine
Tom Selleck health and fitness regimen has evolved. adapting to his changing roles and age. During his "Magnum, P.I." days. Selleck's workouts were intense and focused on building and maintaining muscle mass. His routine included weightlifting, cardiovascular exercises. and specific training for the stunts he performed on the show.
Selleck adjusted his fitness routine as he aged to suit his body's needs. Today, his workouts focus on maintaining flexibility, strength, and cardiovascular health. He incorporates low-impact exercises such as swimming, walking, and light weightlifting. This balanced approach helps him stay fit without putting undue strain on his joints and muscles.
Importance of Flexibility and Mobility
In recent years, Selleck has emphasized the importance of flexibility and mobility in his fitness regimen. Understanding the natural decline in muscle mass and joint flexibility with age. he includes stretching and yoga in his routine. These practices help prevent injuries, improve posture, and maintain mobilit
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Overall life span (LS) was 1671.7±1721.6 days and cumulative 5YS reached 62.4%, 10 years – 50.4%, 20 years – 44.6%. 94 LCP lived more than 5 years without cancer (LS=2958.6±1723.6 days), 22 – more than 10 years (LS=5571±1841.8 days). 67 LCP died because of LC (LS=471.9±344 days). AT significantly improved 5YS (68% vs. 53.7%) (P=0.028 by log-rank test). Cox modeling displayed that 5YS of LCP significantly depended on: N0-N12, T3-4, blood cell circuit, cell ratio factors (ratio between cancer cells-CC and blood cells subpopulations), LC cell dynamics, recalcification time, heparin tolerance, prothrombin index, protein, AT, procedure type (P=0.000-0.031). Neural networks, genetic algorithm selection and bootstrap simulation revealed relationships between 5YS and N0-12 (rank=1), thrombocytes/CC (rank=2), segmented neutrophils/CC (3), eosinophils/CC (4), erythrocytes/CC (5), healthy cells/CC (6), lymphocytes/CC (7), stick neutrophils/CC (8), leucocytes/CC (9), monocytes/CC (10). Correct prediction of 5YS was 100% by neural networks computing (error=0.000; area under ROC curve=1.0).
Title: Sense of Smell
Presenter: Dr. Faiza, Assistant Professor of Physiology
Qualifications:
MBBS (Best Graduate, AIMC Lahore)
FCPS Physiology
ICMT, CHPE, DHPE (STMU)
MPH (GC University, Faisalabad)
MBA (Virtual University of Pakistan)
Learning Objectives:
Describe the primary categories of smells and the concept of odor blindness.
Explain the structure and location of the olfactory membrane and mucosa, including the types and roles of cells involved in olfaction.
Describe the pathway and mechanisms of olfactory signal transmission from the olfactory receptors to the brain.
Illustrate the biochemical cascade triggered by odorant binding to olfactory receptors, including the role of G-proteins and second messengers in generating an action potential.
Identify different types of olfactory disorders such as anosmia, hyposmia, hyperosmia, and dysosmia, including their potential causes.
Key Topics:
Olfactory Genes:
3% of the human genome accounts for olfactory genes.
400 genes for odorant receptors.
Olfactory Membrane:
Located in the superior part of the nasal cavity.
Medially: Folds downward along the superior septum.
Laterally: Folds over the superior turbinate and upper surface of the middle turbinate.
Total surface area: 5-10 square centimeters.
Olfactory Mucosa:
Olfactory Cells: Bipolar nerve cells derived from the CNS (100 million), with 4-25 olfactory cilia per cell.
Sustentacular Cells: Produce mucus and maintain ionic and molecular environment.
Basal Cells: Replace worn-out olfactory cells with an average lifespan of 1-2 months.
Bowman’s Gland: Secretes mucus.
Stimulation of Olfactory Cells:
Odorant dissolves in mucus and attaches to receptors on olfactory cilia.
Involves a cascade effect through G-proteins and second messengers, leading to depolarization and action potential generation in the olfactory nerve.
Quality of a Good Odorant:
Small (3-20 Carbon atoms), volatile, water-soluble, and lipid-soluble.
Facilitated by odorant-binding proteins in mucus.
Membrane Potential and Action Potential:
Resting membrane potential: -55mV.
Action potential frequency in the olfactory nerve increases with odorant strength.
Adaptation Towards the Sense of Smell:
Rapid adaptation within the first second, with further slow adaptation.
Psychological adaptation greater than receptor adaptation, involving feedback inhibition from the central nervous system.
Primary Sensations of Smell:
Camphoraceous, Musky, Floral, Pepperminty, Ethereal, Pungent, Putrid.
Odor Detection Threshold:
Examples: Hydrogen sulfide (0.0005 ppm), Methyl-mercaptan (0.002 ppm).
Some toxic substances are odorless at lethal concentrations.
Characteristics of Smell:
Odor blindness for single substances due to lack of appropriate receptor protein.
Behavioral and emotional influences of smell.
Transmission of Olfactory Signals:
From olfactory cells to glomeruli in the olfactory bulb, involving lateral inhibition.
Primitive, less old, and new olfactory systems with different path
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Chapter 1 Introduction to Paramedicine
1) What is one of the emerging roles and responsibilities of a paramedic in the 21st century?
A) Third-party biller
B) Managed health care
C) Health promotion
D) Internet education
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
4
2) Safety inspections, accident prevention, and medical screening of employees are some of the
responsibilities for paramedics working in:
A) industrial medicine.
B) community clinics.
C) correctional institutions.
D) sports medicine.
ANSWER: A
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
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3) Which of the following best describes the initial education program of the paramedic?
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D) Lectures prepare students, but all learning occurs on the job during the internship phase.
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 3
4) Which of the following best describes the paramedic's professional obligation?
A) Acceptance and adherence to a code of professional ethics and etiquette
B) Placing the system's well-being above that of the patient
C) Absolute adherence to medical protocols
D) Following long-standing traditions in practice
ANSWER: A
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 3
4. 5) A major advance in the education of out-of-hospital was the:
A) formation of the National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians.
B) 2009 publication National EMS Services Education Standards.
C) passage of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).
D) establishment of the National Registry computer-based certification exam.
ANSWER: B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 4
6) Which of the following statements about a paramedic's skill competency is TRUE?
A) High-frequency, low-criticality skills should be reviewed often.
B) Low-frequency, high-criticality skills should be rarely reviewed.
C) All skills should be reviewed equally, regardless of criticality.
D) Frequent review of infrequently used skills is critical to ensure competency.
ANSWER: D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 3
7) The paramedic's right to care for patients, administer medications, and perform other related
tasks falls on the license of:
A) the EMS system medical director.
B) the state secretary of health.
C) the receiving hospital personnel.
D) the state medical director.
ANSWER: A
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 4
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B) physical therapists.
C) athletic trainers.
D) rehabilitation programs.
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 5
6. 9) Paramedics should always provide care:
A) with the intent of transporting all patients.
B) only when there is a legitimate patient complaint.
C) without regard to a patient's ability to pay.
D) with the goal of minimizing on-scene time.
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 4
10) The paramedic's role has expanded to include because of the need to move
ill/injured patients from one health care facility to another for specialized care.
A) hospital emergency departments
B) critical care transport
C) corrections medicine
D) helicopter EMS
ANSWER: B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 4
11) Which of the following best characterizes the professional development of a paramedic?
A) It is a career-long pursuit.
B) It is focused on public education efforts.
C) It is regulated by the system medical director and state agency.
D) It is focused on illness and injury prevention.
ANSWER: A
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 3
12) Which of the following best describes the paramedic's expected level of functioning in the
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dynamic prehospital setting?
A) Acts independently
B) Under direct supervision of the medical director
C) Under telephone or radio supervision by nursing personnel
D) Under direct supervision of fire command
ANSWER: A
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 3
8. 13) Which of the following aspects of the paramedic's work most appropriately falls into the
category of public health?
A) Administering care to a patient who has suffered a heart attack
B) Providing life-saving measures after a traffic accident
C) Educating the public on illness prevention
D) Taking steps to prevent a terrorist attack
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 4
14) To legally function as a paramedic, one must:
A) have successfully completed an accredited EMT education program.
B) have fulfilled the specific requirements of an appropriate credentialing body.
C) strive to maintain quality health care, regardless of cost or impact on one's EMS system.
D) be able to function independently in a nonstructured, constantly changing environment.
ANSWER: B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 3
15) Many traditional EMS treatments and practices have been abandoned or refined because of:
A) research.
B) patient complaints.
C) legislation.
D) lawsuits.
ANSWER:
A
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 4
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16) The highest level of prehospital care provider in the United States is a(n):
A) emergency medical responder.
B) paramedic.
C) advanced EMT.
D) emergency medical technician.
ANSWER: B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 2
10. 17) To practice, paramedics must be approved by a state or provincial agency and the:
A) National Association of EMTs.
B) National Registry of EMTs.
C) EMS system's medical director.
D) state medical director.
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 3
18) Which of the following is a desirable paramedic characteristic?
A) The ability to give medical advice
B) A commanding presence on the scene
C) The ability to establish rapport with a wide variety of patients
D) The ability to exactly follow protocols on each and every call
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 3
19) Which of the following agencies developed and published the 2009 EMS Instructional
Guidelines?
A) The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians
B) The National Association of State EMS Training Coordinators
C) The National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians
D) The United States Department of Transportation
ANSWER: D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 3
20) Where do many of the practices and techniques of tactical EMS come from?
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A) Police
B) Firefighters
C) Military
D) Critical care medics
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 5
12. 21) Which of these terms is a synonym of "mobile integrated health care?"
A) industrial medicine
B) illness prevention
C) corrections medicine
D) community paramedicine
ANSWER: D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
1
Chapter 2 EMS Systems
1) Which of the following certification levels is currently NOT recognized by the National EMS
Scope of Practice model?
A) Paramedic
B) Emergency Medical Responder
C) Emergency Medical Technician
D) Critical Care Paramedic
ANSWER: D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 24
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
2
2) The rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of a particular group or profession
are called:
A) licensure.
B) norms.
C) protocols.
D) ethics.
ANSWER:
D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 35
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Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
1
3) A physician not affiliated with the responding EMS system who takes part in patient care with
system paramedics at an emergency scene is called a(n):
A) surrogate medical director.
B) volunteer physician.
C) intervener physician.
D) interloper physician.
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
1
14. 4) The National EMS Education Instructional Guidelines are divided into three domains of
learning. The affective domain refers to which of the following?
A) Critical thinking and decision making
B) Recall of basic facts and information
C) Physical skills used for patient care
D) Attitudes, values, and emotions
ANSWER: D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 28
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
9
5) Which of the following National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) elements of
EMS systems deals with issues of equal access to acceptable emergency care for all patients?
A) Human resources and training
B) Public information and education
C) Resources management
D) Trauma systems
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
5
6) Which of the following is NOT typically a role of the medical director in an EMS system?
A) Participating in quality improvement
B) Educating and training personnel
C) Dispatching EMS personnel
D) Participating in personnel and equipment selection
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
10
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7) The person who is legally responsible for all clinical and patient care aspects of an EMS
system is the:
A) quality improvement coordinator.
B) medical director.
C) system administrator.
D) battalion chief.
ANSWER: B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 5
16. 8) Medical policies, procedures, and practices that a system medical director has established in
advance of a call are called:
A) automated medical direction.
B) off-line medical oversight.
C) remote medical direction.
D) on-line medical direction.
ANSWER: B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
1
9) In 1980, the revision "KKK-A-1822A" involved:
A) primarily addressing electrical systems, signage, and safety.
B) guidelines to improve occupant protection in the patient compartment.
C) changes based on the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health standards.
D) improving ambulance electrical systems by designing a low-amp lighting system to replace
antiquated light bars and beacons.
ANSWER: D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 32
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
12
10) What is the process by which an agency or association grants recognition to an individual
who has the proper qualifications?
A) Registration
B) Qualification
C) Certification
D) Authorization
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 29
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
1
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11) Paramedics carry out their tasks in the prehospital setting as designated agents of the:
A) EMS system director.
B) EMS system medical director.
C) EMS program director.
D) hospital nursing director.
ANSWER: B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 10
18. 12) The process by which a governmental agency grants permission to engage in a given
occupation to an applicant who has attained the degree of competency required to ensure the
public's protection is called:
A) reciprocity.
B) licensure.
C) registration.
D) certification.
ANSWER: B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 29
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 1
13) Which of the following elements of an EMS system is NOT needed to ensure the best
possible patient care?
A) Resources management
B) Medical direction
C) Ambulance billing
D) Public information
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19-20
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 2
14) Which of the following best describes the practice of evidence-based medicine?
A) Basing all treatments on the patient's signs and symptoms
B) Combining clinical expertise with the best available clinical evidence
C) Using clinical judgment to know when you should deviate from protocols
D) Using published reports of research to change practice
ANSWER: B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 37
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 17
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15) Which of the following situations is NOT typically addressed by EMS system protocols?
A) Triage
B) EMS system financing
C) Transfer to appropriate facilities
D) Mode of patient transportation
ANSWER: B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 26
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 10
20. 16) Few areas of the United States provided adequate prehospital care until:
A) after World War II.
B) after the Gulf War.
C) the late 1960s.
D) the mid-1950s.
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18-19
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
3
17) The process by which an agency in one state grants automatic certification or licensing to a
paramedic who is certified or licensed by an agency in another state is called:
A) professional courtesy.
B) immunity.
C) recertification.
D) reciprocity.
ANSWER: D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 29
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
1
18) Direct access to medical consultation is a feature of:
A) a tiered response system.
B) off-line medical oversight.
C) the incident command system.
D) on-line medical direction.
ANSWER: D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
2
19) In which of the following ways can paramedics play a significant part in EMS research?
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A) Collecting data accurately and completely
B) Changing patient care practices based on unique research outcomes
C) Volunteering their patients for drug trials
D) Experimenting with different ways of managing patients
ANSWER: A
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 37
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 16
22. 20) Components of a paramedic's education include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) refresher courses.
B) continuing education.
C) initial education.
D) disciplinary action.
ANSWER: D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 28-29
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
9
21) Guidelines developed by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) for
quality improvement in EMS systems include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) regulation and policy.
B) financial auditing.
C) communications.
D) human resources training.
ANSWER: B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19-20
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
14
22) Key events in the historical development of EMS include all of the following, EXCEPT the:
A) 1973 EMS Systems Act.
B) 1988 Statewide EMS Technical Assistance Program.
C) 1975 Cater-Benson Reform Act.
D) 1981 COBRA Act.
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
3
23) Which of the following is the publication that first focused attention on the deficiencies in
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prehospital emergency care?
A) KKK-A-1822
B) Injury in America: A Continuing Public Health Problem
C) Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society
D) A Leadership Guide to Quality Improvement for Emergency Medical Services Systems
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 4
24. 24) Which of the following pieces of legislation had a significant NEGATIVE impact on EMS
funding?
A) The Emergency Medical Services Systems Act
B) The National Highway Safety Act
C) The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)
D) The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA)
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
3
25) No EMS system should be without which of the following items?
A) An independent communication system
B) One reserve ambulance for every active ambulance in the fleet
C) A large network of volunteers
D) A disaster plan
ANSWER: D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 33
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
10
26) As a rule, which of the following services should be present in trauma systems within an
EMS system?
A) Trauma center
B) Burn center
C) Pediatrics
D) Orthopedics
ANSWER: A
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 20
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
10
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27) When you complete your paramedic course and pass the National Registry examination, you
will:
A) be certified to practice as a paramedic in your state.
B) be certified to practice as a paramedic in any state.
C) be licensed to practice as a paramedic in your state.
D) still need to complete your state's certification or licensure process.
ANSWER: D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 29
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 9
26. 28) The future enhancement of EMS is strongly dependent on:
A) the ability to outline the logistics affecting research.
B) obtaining approval for patient consent procedures.
C) availability of quality research.
D) the collection of raw data.
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 37
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 16
29) Paramedics can improve their knowledge and skills through an evaluation by others of equal
rank and skills, known as:
A) tenure tracking.
B) debriefing.
C) peer review.
D) performance appraisal.
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 35
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 1
30) Which of the following best describes the purpose of the KKK specifications?
A) To standardize EMS dispatching terminology
B) To specify quality improvement procedures
C) To state the physical standards required of paramedics
D) To standardize the design of ambulances
ANSWER: D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 32
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 12
31) Entering a person's name and relevant information in a particular record maintained by an
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organization is best described as:
A) registration.
B) reciprocity.
C) certification.
D) licensure.
ANSWER:
A
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 29
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 1
28. 32) As defined by the National Highway Transportation Safety Agency (NHTSA), which of the
following is NOT a component of an EMS system?
A) System of quality improvement
B) Public information and education
C) Human resources and training
D) A public advisory council
ANSWER: D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 33-34
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 5
33) Which of the following best describes a comprehensive network of personnel, equipment,
and resources established to deliver aid and emergency medical care to the community?
A) Trauma system
B) EMS system
C) Medical direction
D) ALS system
ANSWER: B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 1
34) Although termed certification by many states, the governmental agency's permission to
engage in a profession actually constitutes:
A) registration.
B) licensure.
C) authorization.
D) reciprocity.
ANSWER: B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 29
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 1
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35) The established policies and procedures of an EMS system that provide a standardized
approach to common patient problems and a consistent level of medical care are known as:
A) codes of action and response.
B) clinical protocols.
C) standard operating procedures.
D) standing orders.
ANSWER: B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 1
30. 36) One area of EMS that will rely especially heavily on research is:
A) communications.
B) transportation.
C) human resources.
D) funding.
ANSWER:
D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 37
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
16
37) Which of the following choices best explains the difference between an EMT-Intermediate
and an EMT-Paramedic?
A) Licensure versus certification
B) Scope of knowledge
C) The legal requirement for medical direction
D) Scope of practice
ANSWER: D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 24
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
9
38) Reasons to be involved with a professional membership organization include all of the
following, EXCEPT to:
A) stay abreast of changes within the profession.
B) share ideas with other providers.
C) interact with members from other parts of the country.
D) conform to National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) standards.
ANSWER: D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 30
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
11
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39) With regard to medical authorization, which of the following best describes the role of a
paramedic in providing prehospital care?
A) He relies on the delegated practice of a licensed physician medical director.
B) He relies on the delegated practice of any licensed health care practitioners, such as physician
assistants, nurse practitioners, nurses, and dentists.
C) He relies on the delegated practice of a licensed nurse.
D) He relies on the autonomous medical practitioner.
ANSWER: A
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
8
32. 40) Which of the following are likely subjects of standing orders or protocols?
A) How to handle DNR orders
B) Procedures that can be done only with a direct order
C) When to use air transport versus ground transport
D) All of the above
ANSWER: D
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 26
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 10
41) Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic elements of citizen involvement in
EMS?
A) Recognizing an emergency
B) Providing financial support for EMS agencies
C) Initiating basic life support procedures
D) Accessing the EMS system
ANSWER: B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 26
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 2
42) The first use of a prehospital system of triage and transport took place:
A) in large cities in the 19th-century United States.
B) during the U.S. Civil War.
C) during the Napoleonic Wars.
D) in ancient Mesopotamia.
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 3
43) An example of a quality improvement activity in EMS is:
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A) peer review of patient care.
B) displaying the "Star of Life" symbol.
C) disciplinary action for patient care issues.
D) using a Type II or III ambulance.
ANSWER: A
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25, 35
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 14
34. 44) The Institute of Medicine published Emergency Medical Services for Children in: A) 1993.
B) 1984.
C) 1969.
D) 1977.
ANSWER: A
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 20
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 3
45) Sending multiple levels of emergency care personnel to the same incident is called a:
A) mass casualty incident.
B) helicopter EMS.
C) tiered response.
D) chain of survival.
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 1
46) An occupation in which the practitioners have a competence in a specialized body of
knowledge or skills that has been recognized by some organization or agency is called a:
A) profession.
B) career.
C) vocation.
D) trade.
ANSWER:
A
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 29
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 1
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47) Which of these documents recommended that EMS of the future should have the ability to
identify and modify illness and injury risks, provide acute illness and injury care and follow-up, and
contribute to treatment of chronic conditions and community health monitoring?
A) Injury in America: A Continuing Public Health Problem
B) The EMS Agenda for the Future
C) Emergency Medical Services: At the Crossroads
D) The Ontario Prehospital Advanced Life Support (OPALS) study ANSWER:
B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 20
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 6
36. 48) Which of these is NOT an issue facing EMS providers, according to Emergency Medical
Services: At the Crossroads?
A) Insufficient coordination
B) Disparities in response times
C) Limited evidence base
D) Medical malpractice
ANSWER: D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 21
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
7
49) Categorization of EMS-receiving hospitals was initially developed to identify which of the
following?
A) trauma care capability
B) stroke care capability
C) burn care capability
D) chest pain care capability
ANSWER: A
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 33
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
13
50) Which of the following is a knowledge-based failure of patient safety?
A) A stressed EMS provider applies the wrong rule, resulting in patient injury.
B) A distracted paramedic fails to perform a routine skill correctly.
C) A tired EMS provider fails to follow a relevant rule, resulting in patient injury.
D) A narcissistic paramedic makes a bad decision based on insufficient information.
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 35
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
15
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Chapter 3 Roles and Responsibilities of the Paramedic
1) Which of the following professional characteristics is required for patients to trust paramedics to
be in their homes and have access to their property and personal information?
A) Patient advocacy
B) Integrity
C) Empathy
D) Leadership
ANSWER: B
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 53
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
5
38. 2) When en route to a call, one of the paramedic's chief responsibilities is:
A) assessing the patient's responsiveness.
B) preparing the ambulance to accept the patient.
C) identifying the mechanism of injury or nature of illness.
D) anticipating scene risks and needs based on dispatch information.
ANSWER: D
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 44
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
2
3) Your patient is a 24-year-old man with a severe closed head injury. He is unresponsive, and his
vital signs are unstable. Which of the following is the appropriate receiving facility for this
patient?
A) A Level I trauma center
B) A Level III trauma center
C) A Level IV trauma center
D) A Level II trauma center
ANSWER: A
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 47
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
2
4) Defending patients, protecting them, and, in general, acting in their best interests are all
examples of:
A) leadership.
B) empathy.
C) patient advocacy.
D) integrity.
ANSWER:
C
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 55
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
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Objective: 5
5) During the return to service, one of the paramedic's chief responsibilities is:
A) decontaminating the ambulance.
B) correcting the patient care report.
C) giving a verbal report to the receiving facility personnel.
D) taking care of personal matters before the next call.
ANSWER: A
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 2
40. 6) The EMT Code of Ethics was established by which of the following groups?
A) National Association of EMTs (NAEMT)
B) American College of Emergency Physicians (ACEP)
C) National Registry of EMTs (NREMT)
D) National Association of EMS Educators (NAEMSE)
ANSWER: A
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 51
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
4
7) The paramedic is responsible for determining the mechanism of injury or nature of the illness
when carrying out which of the primary responsibilities?
A) Scene size-up
B) Patient management
C) Patient assessment
D) Response
ANSWER:
A
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 44-45
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
2
8) Which of the following is NOT one of the paramedic's primary responsibilities?
A) Patient follow-up
B) Response
C) Returning to service after a call
D) Medical treatment
ANSWER: A
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 43-44
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
2
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9) Consoling and offering emotional support to a person who has just seen a loved one die is an
example of the professional attribute of:
A) patient advocacy.
B) leadership.
C) empathy.
D) integrity.
ANSWER:
C
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 53
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 5
42. 10) Close attention to detail during patient care reflects which of the following professional
attributes?
A) Self-motivation
B) Patient advocacy
C) Empathy
D) Careful delivery of service
ANSWER: D
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 55
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 5
11) Which of the following is one of the paramedic's primary responsibilities?
A) Accident reconstruction
B) Crowd control
C) Patient disposition
D) Public relations
ANSWER: C
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 43-44
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 2
12) Respecting the opinions offered by peers on a call is an example of which professional
characteristic?
A) Advocacy
B) Diplomacy
C) Communication
D) Leadership
ANSWER: B
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 54
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 4
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13) Which of the following is an example of professional development?
A) Participating in mentoring activities
B) Reading professional publications
C) Attending refresher and continuing education classes
D) All of the above
ANSWER: D
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 50
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 4
44. 14) Knowing is NOT part of the paramedic's responsibility prior to an EMS call.
A) the nature of illness
B) what resources are available
C) medical protocols
D) how to use communication technology
ANSWER: A
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 43-44
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 2
15) Which of the following is NOT part of a paramedic's administrative duties?
A) Recordkeeping
B) Station duties
C) Developing interagency relationships
D) Promoting community health
ANSWER: D
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 3
16) Which of the following professional characteristics is displayed in a paramedic's self-
confidence, inner strength, ability to communicate, and willingness to make a decision?
A) Integrity
B) Respect
C) Empathy
D) Leadership
ANSWER: D
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 52
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 5
17) Which of the following is an example of how paramedics support primary care when
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carrying out their out-of-hospital functions?
A) Transporting all patients to the emergency department
B) Determining the appropriateness of treating on the scene and releasing the patient
C) Refusing to transport patients who do not have potentially life-threatening conditions
D) Transporting to the patient's physician's office, rather than the emergency department
ANSWER: B
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 48
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 2
46. 18) Maintaining paramedic certification through seeking and reporting continuing education is
the responsibility of the:
A) state EMS office.
B) paramedic.
C) EMS system.
D) training officer.
ANSWER: B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 50
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
3
19) Which of the following is NOT an example of the paramedic's responsibility for community
involvement?
A) Teaching the public BLS classes
B) Conducting illness and injury risk surveys
C) Allowing citizens to vote on EMS protocols
D) Helping the public learn how to recognize an emergency
ANSWER: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 49-50
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
3
20) The paramedic who routinely fails to complete duties and paperwork in a timely manner is
most likely lacking which of the following professional attributes?
A) Self-confidence
B) Self-motivation
C) Leadership
D) Integrity
ANSWER:
B
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 53
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
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Objective: 5
21) A way for paramedics to determine appropriate injury prevention programs for their
community is by using:
A) community self-reports.
B) injury risk surveys.
C) National Science Foundation guidelines.
D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines.
ANSWER: B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 49-50
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems)
Objective: 3
48. 22) Which of the following is NOT considered an allied health profession?
A) Nursing
B) Paramedicine
C) Respiratory therapy
D) Physical therapy
ANSWER: A
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 51
Standard: Preparatory (EMS Systems) Objective:
1
Chapter 4 Workforce Safety and Wellness
1) The stage of the stress response in which the pituitary gland releases a flood of
adrenocorticotropic hormones is:
A) exhaustion.
B) resistance.
C) withdrawal.
D) alarm.
ANSWER:
D
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 75
Standard: Preparatory (Workforce Safety and Wellness) Objective:
8
2) Which of the following statements about Kübler-Ross's five stages of grief is most accurate?
A) These stages are only experienced by patients actually undergoing the dying process.
B) Dying patients experience these stages in their own unique ways.
C) Although people have unique experiences along the way, they do experience all five stages.
D) Health care providers typically experience one to three of the stages when grieving the death of
a patient.
ANSWER: B
49. TO GET ALL CHAPTERS EMAIL ME AT>>>>>
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Diff: 2 Page Ref: 72
Standard: Preparatory (Workforce Safety and Wellness)
Objective: 7
3) Which of the following best describes those in an ambulance who should use seat belts?
A) All persons on board (care providers, patients, and family)
B) Only the patient, because the requirements of medical care take priority
C) Only those riding in the back
D) Only those seated in the front
ANSWER: A
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 80
Standard: Preparatory (Workforce Safety and Wellness)
Objective: 11
50. 4) Of the following, which is NOT generally used on scene to minimize hazards?
A) Helmets
B) Body armor
C) Reflective tape
D) Surgical scrubs
ANSWER: D
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 79
Standard: Preparatory (Workforce Safety and Wellness)
Objective: 2
5) One of the principles of proper lifting is to:
A) hold your breath while lifting.
B) position the load close to your body.
C) pull rather than push when possible.
D) bend at the waist to use the strong muscles of the back.
ANSWER: B
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 64-65
Standard: Preparatory (Workforce Safety and Wellness)
Objective: 5
6) Which of the Kübler-Ross stages of grief would be suspected if a cancer patient said to you,
"This frustrates me so much. I never saw it coming, and now my family will have to go on
without me"?
A) Bargaining
B) Hopelessness
C) Anger
D) Denial
ANSWER:
C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 72
Standard: Preparatory (Workforce Safety and Wellness)
Objective: 7