The document contains instructions for a test with questions in two parts - general studies and mathematics. It provides details about the structure and timing of the test, how to fill the answer sheet, marking instructions, and consequences for incorrect answers. Candidates are advised to carefully read and follow the instructions for their responses to be properly evaluated. The test contains 120 total questions with equal marks across parts 1 and 2.
This document introduces Habibur Rahman and their student ID number. It then discusses surface active substances, including their definition and how they lower the surface tension of water. It classifies surface active agents into four categories: cationic, anionic, zwitterionic, and non-ionic. Soap is introduced as a sodium or potassium salt of higher fatty acids. Soaps are classified as hard, soft, or insoluble. Hard soap is moderately soluble in water, soft soap dissolves in water, and insoluble soap is used as a lubricant. The cleaning action of soap is explained by how the hydrophobic tail dissolves in grease/oil/dirt while the hydrophilic head dissolves
A fluidized bed dryer uses hot air to fluidize and dry granular materials. Hot air is passed through the granules in a perforated container, lifting the granules and suspending them in the air stream. This allows for uniform drying as the hot air surrounds each granule. Fluidized bed dryers can be vertical or horizontal and are made of stainless steel or plastic. They are used to efficiently dry materials for tablet production in 20-40 minutes, much faster than tray drying.
NARCOTIC DRUG AND PSYCHOTROPIC SUBSTANCE ACT 1985 AND RULESDeepikshaSahu1
The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act of 1985 was introduced to consolidate and amend existing drug laws, introduce more stringent regulations and control of narcotics, and enhance penalties for drug trafficking offenses. The Act defines terms like cannabis, cocaine derivatives, manufacture, narcotic drugs, opium, opium poppy, and psychotropic substances. It aims to control and regulate narcotics and psychotropic substances strictly, as well as implement international drug control treaties that India has signed. The Act has five chapters that cover preliminary matters, authorities and officers, prohibitions, regulations and control, offenses and penalties, and procedures for investigation and prosecution of drug crimes.
Pharmaceutical Engineering Unit -3.pptxNikita Gupta
This document provides an overview of various drying techniques used in pharmaceutical engineering. It discusses the objectives, mechanisms, and principles of operation for common dryers like tray dryers, drum dryers, spray dryers, fluidized bed dryers, vacuum dryers, and freeze dryers. The document also covers topics like drying applications, measurements of equilibrium moisture content, and rate of drying curves. Overall, it serves as a comprehensive introduction to drying as a crucial process in pharmaceutical manufacturing.
This document provides an introduction to Indian pharmaceutical legislations. It discusses key topics like pharmaceutical jurisprudence, importance of legislation, scope of various acts, history of legislation development in India. Specifically, it summarizes the recommendations of the 1931 Drugs Enquiry Committee that led to the enactment of major laws like the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940 to regulate the drug industry and profession. It also lists some of the major acts introduced over time to control drugs, narcotics and the practice of pharmacy in India.
This document provides information on complexation and protein binding. It defines complexation as the association between two or more molecules to form a non-bonded entity through interactions like coordination bonds, van der Waals forces, hydrogen bonds, etc. It classifies complexes into metal complexes, organic molecular complexes, and inclusion complexes. It also discusses ligand types, methods of analyzing complexes, and applications of complexation. The document then defines protein binding and discusses factors that affect binding like drug and protein properties, drug interactions, and patient factors. It explains kinetics of protein binding and methods to determine binding constants and sites like direct plots, Scatchard plots, and others.
Microbiology is the study of microorganisms that are too small to be seen with the naked eye, such as bacteria, fungi, protozoa, algae, and viruses. Microbes play both beneficial and pathogenic roles. The history of microbiology began in the 17th century with the first observations of microbes using microscopes. Important figures who contributed to the field include Anton van Leeuwenhoek, Louis Pasteur, Robert Koch, Edward Jenner, Alexander Fleming. Their work established germ theory, microbial fermentation and disease causation, vaccination, and the discovery of the first antibiotic - penicillin.
This document introduces Habibur Rahman and their student ID number. It then discusses surface active substances, including their definition and how they lower the surface tension of water. It classifies surface active agents into four categories: cationic, anionic, zwitterionic, and non-ionic. Soap is introduced as a sodium or potassium salt of higher fatty acids. Soaps are classified as hard, soft, or insoluble. Hard soap is moderately soluble in water, soft soap dissolves in water, and insoluble soap is used as a lubricant. The cleaning action of soap is explained by how the hydrophobic tail dissolves in grease/oil/dirt while the hydrophilic head dissolves
A fluidized bed dryer uses hot air to fluidize and dry granular materials. Hot air is passed through the granules in a perforated container, lifting the granules and suspending them in the air stream. This allows for uniform drying as the hot air surrounds each granule. Fluidized bed dryers can be vertical or horizontal and are made of stainless steel or plastic. They are used to efficiently dry materials for tablet production in 20-40 minutes, much faster than tray drying.
NARCOTIC DRUG AND PSYCHOTROPIC SUBSTANCE ACT 1985 AND RULESDeepikshaSahu1
The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act of 1985 was introduced to consolidate and amend existing drug laws, introduce more stringent regulations and control of narcotics, and enhance penalties for drug trafficking offenses. The Act defines terms like cannabis, cocaine derivatives, manufacture, narcotic drugs, opium, opium poppy, and psychotropic substances. It aims to control and regulate narcotics and psychotropic substances strictly, as well as implement international drug control treaties that India has signed. The Act has five chapters that cover preliminary matters, authorities and officers, prohibitions, regulations and control, offenses and penalties, and procedures for investigation and prosecution of drug crimes.
Pharmaceutical Engineering Unit -3.pptxNikita Gupta
This document provides an overview of various drying techniques used in pharmaceutical engineering. It discusses the objectives, mechanisms, and principles of operation for common dryers like tray dryers, drum dryers, spray dryers, fluidized bed dryers, vacuum dryers, and freeze dryers. The document also covers topics like drying applications, measurements of equilibrium moisture content, and rate of drying curves. Overall, it serves as a comprehensive introduction to drying as a crucial process in pharmaceutical manufacturing.
This document provides an introduction to Indian pharmaceutical legislations. It discusses key topics like pharmaceutical jurisprudence, importance of legislation, scope of various acts, history of legislation development in India. Specifically, it summarizes the recommendations of the 1931 Drugs Enquiry Committee that led to the enactment of major laws like the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940 to regulate the drug industry and profession. It also lists some of the major acts introduced over time to control drugs, narcotics and the practice of pharmacy in India.
This document provides information on complexation and protein binding. It defines complexation as the association between two or more molecules to form a non-bonded entity through interactions like coordination bonds, van der Waals forces, hydrogen bonds, etc. It classifies complexes into metal complexes, organic molecular complexes, and inclusion complexes. It also discusses ligand types, methods of analyzing complexes, and applications of complexation. The document then defines protein binding and discusses factors that affect binding like drug and protein properties, drug interactions, and patient factors. It explains kinetics of protein binding and methods to determine binding constants and sites like direct plots, Scatchard plots, and others.
Microbiology is the study of microorganisms that are too small to be seen with the naked eye, such as bacteria, fungi, protozoa, algae, and viruses. Microbes play both beneficial and pathogenic roles. The history of microbiology began in the 17th century with the first observations of microbes using microscopes. Important figures who contributed to the field include Anton van Leeuwenhoek, Louis Pasteur, Robert Koch, Edward Jenner, Alexander Fleming. Their work established germ theory, microbial fermentation and disease causation, vaccination, and the discovery of the first antibiotic - penicillin.
Impurities in Pharmaceutical substancesUrmilaBudhe
This document provides an overview of inorganic chemistry and pharmaceutical inorganic chemistry. It discusses the importance of inorganic pharmaceuticals and their uses. It also covers topics like the history and development of pharmacopoeias including the Indian Pharmacopoeia, British Pharmacopoeia, European Pharmacopoeia, and United States Pharmacopoeia. Finally, it discusses impurities in pharmaceutical substances, sources of impurities, effects of impurities, and tests for purity like limit tests that are prescribed in pharmacopoeias.
This document discusses elixirs, including their definition as clear sweetened hydroalcoholic oral preparations containing 10-12% alcohol that are usually flavored. It outlines the differences between elixirs and syrups, the types of elixirs and their uses. Methods of preparation and common ingredients are provided, along with advantages like taste masking and examples like phenobarbital elixir. Potential adverse effects and proper storage are also mentioned.
This presentation provide you the basic knowledge about the Pharmacopoeia and later about the Indian Pharmacopoeia. Details about the Indian Pharmacopoeia i.e Who publish it? When first edition was published? Published Addendum? Latest edition and its Addendum?
Description of Construction, Working and Application of Pharmaceutical Machin...Makrani Shaharukh
Description of Construction, Working and Application of Pharmaceutical Machinery Such as Rotary Tablet Machine, Fluidized Bed Coater, Fluid Energy Mill and Humidifier.
Sodium bicarbonate is produced through the reaction of sodium carbonate, carbon dioxide, and water. The process involves saturating a solution of soda ash in a carbonating tower where compressed carbon dioxide is admitted counter-currently from the bottom. The temperature is maintained at 40°C to form a bicarbonate suspension, which is then filtered, washed, centrifuged, and dried to produce high purity sodium bicarbonate.
This document provides an introduction to pharmacopoeias, including what they are, their purpose and importance. It specifically discusses the Indian Pharmacopoeia, noting that the first edition was published in 1955 and it is currently in its seventh edition from 2014. The document outlines the contents and history of revisions of the Indian Pharmacopoeia over time, including added monographs and changes between editions. It also briefly mentions some other prominent national and international pharmacopoeias.
To prepare and submit compouns ferrous phosphate syrup WPS Office.pptxSudipta Roy
The document describes the procedure for preparing compound syrup of ferrous phosphate BPC 1968. It involves reacting iron and phosphoric acid to form ferrous acid phosphate. Calcium carbonate, potassium bicarbonate, and sodium phosphate are also added to form corresponding phosphates. Cochineal is used as a coloring agent, sucrose as a sweetener, and orange flower water as a flavoring agent. The final syrup contains iron, phosphoric acid, calcium, potassium, sodium, and other ingredients in specified quantities and is indicated for iron and electrolyte supplementation in anemic patients.
Introduction
Objectives
Methods of size reduction
Advantages of size reduction
Disadvantages of size reduction
Mechanism of size reduction
Laws governing to the size reduction
Principle of Size Reduction, Construction, working and uses of following-
Hammer mill
Ball mill
Fluid Energy Mill
Edge Runner Mill
End Runner Mill
PHARMACEUTICAL MICROBIOLOGY (BP303T) Unit-III Part-1 Study of morphology, cla...Ms. Pooja Bhandare
PHARMACEUTICAL MICROBIOLOGY (BP303T)Unit-IIIPart-1Study of morphology, classification, reproduction/replication and cultivation of fungi, Introduction fungi. Morphological Characteristics of fungi, CLASSIFICATION: Depending on cell morphology, fungi can be divided into 4 classes:
Moulds Yeasts ,Yeast like fungi and
Dimorphic fungi
Depending on their sexual spores formation fungi are divided into 4 classes:
Zygomycetes Ascomycetes
Basidiomycetes Dueteromycetes
Reproduction and sporulation;Vegetative, Asexual
and Sexual
Vegetative reproduction: Fragmentation ,Fission, budding, Sclerotia Rhizomorphs
Asexual reproduction: Zoospores
Sporangiospore, Conidia
Oidia Uredospores ,Basidiospores
Sexual reproduction:Planogametic copulation: Isogamy Heterogamy
Gametangial contact
Gametangial copulation Spermatization Somatogamy CULTIVATION OF FUNGI: Brain Heart Infusion (BHT) agar
Czapek’s agar
Mycobiotic agar Inhibitory mold agar (IMA)
Potato dextrose agar
Sabouraud’s dextrose agar (SDA):
Sabouraud’s heart infusion (SABHI) agar
Potato Flake agar
Potato dextrose-yeast extract agar (PDYA)
. Cornmeal agar
Malt extract agar (MEA)
Pharmaceutical additives for liquid dosage formchetan jain
Pharmaceutical additives are substances added to drug formulations to help production, maintain stability, improve acceptability and functioning of the dosage form. Common additives used in liquid oral dosage forms include vehicles, surfactants, hydrocolloids, antioxidants, preservatives, coloring agents, flavoring agents, sweetening agents, buffers and tonicity adjusters. Vehicles act as the medium to dissolve, suspend or disperse ingredients and include water, oils and mixtures. Other additives help solubilize, emulsify, increase viscosity, prevent microbial growth and oxidation, and improve taste and appearance.
In the changing scenario of pharmacy practice in India, for successful practice of
Hospital Pharmacy, the students are required to learn various skills like drug distribution,
drug dispensing, manufacturing of parenteral preparations, drug information, patient
counselling, and therapeutic drug monitoring for improved patient care
Introduction
Measures of central tendency
Correlation:
Regression
Probability
Parametric test
Non Parametric test
Graphs:
Designing of Methodology
Regression Modeling
Introduction to Practical components of Industrial and Clinical Trials Problems:
Design and Analysis of experiments
The presentation provides a concise information regarding various methods or techniques for enhancing solubility of different drugs and will prove useful to students & researchers.
This document discusses various methods for size separation of powders, including sieving, cyclone separation, air separation, and elutriation. It provides details on the standards for different powder sizes according to the Indian Pharmacopoeia and describes the construction and working of common separation devices like sieves, cyclones, and air separators. The key methods covered are sieving, where powders are separated based on particle size by passing through a set of sieves, and elutriation, where separation occurs as particles of different densities settle at different rates in a moving fluid.
State of matter, Properties of various state of matter, Volume, Diffusion, Compressibility, Rigidity or Fluidity, Density, Shape, Kinetic energy of particles at a given temperature, Intermolecular space, Intermolecular Force of attraction, Arrangement of molecules, Changes in the state of matter, Enthalpy, Entropy, Triple point, Freezing, Melting, Deposition, Sublimation, Vaporization and Condensation
This document discusses various methods for size separation of powders, as outlined in the Indian Pharmacopoeia. It describes 5 grades of powder sizes defined by the IP based on their ability to pass through various mesh sieves. Common separation techniques include sieving, cyclone separation, air separation, and elutriation. Sieving involves using a set of sieves arranged from largest to smallest mesh size to separate powder fractions. Cyclone and air separators use centrifugal forces to separate solids from gases. Elutriation separates powders based on particle density differences in a moving fluid.
Climbing film evaporator || Pharmaceutical Engineering || Anurag GuptaAnurag Gupta
The climbing film evaporator uses externally heated tubes to concentrate liquids. Preheated liquid enters from the bottom and flows up through the tubes, where bubbles form as the liquid near the walls vaporizes. Larger bubbles rise with the concentrate to the top, where a deflector throws the concentrate back down to the bottom for further concentration, while vapor exits out the top. Heat sensitive materials like insulin and vitamins can be concentrated using this evaporator due to its efficient heat transfer and handling of foaming liquids.
This document provides information about emulsions, including their definition, types, identification, reasons for use, preparation methods, and examples. Emulsions are dispersions of one liquid in another immiscible liquid and are stabilized by an emulsifying agent. The main types are oil-in-water (O/W) and water-in-oil (W/O) emulsions. Preparation involves making a primary emulsion of the internal and external phases with an emulsifying agent, then diluting. Methods include continental/dry gum, English/wet gum, bottle, and in-situ soap. Emulsions are used to enhance palatability, increase solubility and absorption of drugs.
IIT JEE 2012 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam paper. It details:
1) General instructions for the exam including not using additional materials and filling out answer sheets.
2) The exam format which includes 3 sections - multiple choice, multiple answer multiple choice, and single digit answer questions.
3) The marking scheme which awards points differently based on the question type and correctness of answers.
The document provides tips and techniques for data interpretation and approximation including reading questions carefully, analyzing data, paying attention to units, and learning to approximate and skim data. Examples demonstrate approximating values, identifying missing values in equations, and calculating averages, ratios, and using graphs including bar graphs, stacked graphs, tables, line graphs, and pie charts to organize and present data. Key concepts are defined for average, ratio, and different types of graphs. Sample questions are provided for practice interpreting various types of graphs.
Impurities in Pharmaceutical substancesUrmilaBudhe
This document provides an overview of inorganic chemistry and pharmaceutical inorganic chemistry. It discusses the importance of inorganic pharmaceuticals and their uses. It also covers topics like the history and development of pharmacopoeias including the Indian Pharmacopoeia, British Pharmacopoeia, European Pharmacopoeia, and United States Pharmacopoeia. Finally, it discusses impurities in pharmaceutical substances, sources of impurities, effects of impurities, and tests for purity like limit tests that are prescribed in pharmacopoeias.
This document discusses elixirs, including their definition as clear sweetened hydroalcoholic oral preparations containing 10-12% alcohol that are usually flavored. It outlines the differences between elixirs and syrups, the types of elixirs and their uses. Methods of preparation and common ingredients are provided, along with advantages like taste masking and examples like phenobarbital elixir. Potential adverse effects and proper storage are also mentioned.
This presentation provide you the basic knowledge about the Pharmacopoeia and later about the Indian Pharmacopoeia. Details about the Indian Pharmacopoeia i.e Who publish it? When first edition was published? Published Addendum? Latest edition and its Addendum?
Description of Construction, Working and Application of Pharmaceutical Machin...Makrani Shaharukh
Description of Construction, Working and Application of Pharmaceutical Machinery Such as Rotary Tablet Machine, Fluidized Bed Coater, Fluid Energy Mill and Humidifier.
Sodium bicarbonate is produced through the reaction of sodium carbonate, carbon dioxide, and water. The process involves saturating a solution of soda ash in a carbonating tower where compressed carbon dioxide is admitted counter-currently from the bottom. The temperature is maintained at 40°C to form a bicarbonate suspension, which is then filtered, washed, centrifuged, and dried to produce high purity sodium bicarbonate.
This document provides an introduction to pharmacopoeias, including what they are, their purpose and importance. It specifically discusses the Indian Pharmacopoeia, noting that the first edition was published in 1955 and it is currently in its seventh edition from 2014. The document outlines the contents and history of revisions of the Indian Pharmacopoeia over time, including added monographs and changes between editions. It also briefly mentions some other prominent national and international pharmacopoeias.
To prepare and submit compouns ferrous phosphate syrup WPS Office.pptxSudipta Roy
The document describes the procedure for preparing compound syrup of ferrous phosphate BPC 1968. It involves reacting iron and phosphoric acid to form ferrous acid phosphate. Calcium carbonate, potassium bicarbonate, and sodium phosphate are also added to form corresponding phosphates. Cochineal is used as a coloring agent, sucrose as a sweetener, and orange flower water as a flavoring agent. The final syrup contains iron, phosphoric acid, calcium, potassium, sodium, and other ingredients in specified quantities and is indicated for iron and electrolyte supplementation in anemic patients.
Introduction
Objectives
Methods of size reduction
Advantages of size reduction
Disadvantages of size reduction
Mechanism of size reduction
Laws governing to the size reduction
Principle of Size Reduction, Construction, working and uses of following-
Hammer mill
Ball mill
Fluid Energy Mill
Edge Runner Mill
End Runner Mill
PHARMACEUTICAL MICROBIOLOGY (BP303T) Unit-III Part-1 Study of morphology, cla...Ms. Pooja Bhandare
PHARMACEUTICAL MICROBIOLOGY (BP303T)Unit-IIIPart-1Study of morphology, classification, reproduction/replication and cultivation of fungi, Introduction fungi. Morphological Characteristics of fungi, CLASSIFICATION: Depending on cell morphology, fungi can be divided into 4 classes:
Moulds Yeasts ,Yeast like fungi and
Dimorphic fungi
Depending on their sexual spores formation fungi are divided into 4 classes:
Zygomycetes Ascomycetes
Basidiomycetes Dueteromycetes
Reproduction and sporulation;Vegetative, Asexual
and Sexual
Vegetative reproduction: Fragmentation ,Fission, budding, Sclerotia Rhizomorphs
Asexual reproduction: Zoospores
Sporangiospore, Conidia
Oidia Uredospores ,Basidiospores
Sexual reproduction:Planogametic copulation: Isogamy Heterogamy
Gametangial contact
Gametangial copulation Spermatization Somatogamy CULTIVATION OF FUNGI: Brain Heart Infusion (BHT) agar
Czapek’s agar
Mycobiotic agar Inhibitory mold agar (IMA)
Potato dextrose agar
Sabouraud’s dextrose agar (SDA):
Sabouraud’s heart infusion (SABHI) agar
Potato Flake agar
Potato dextrose-yeast extract agar (PDYA)
. Cornmeal agar
Malt extract agar (MEA)
Pharmaceutical additives for liquid dosage formchetan jain
Pharmaceutical additives are substances added to drug formulations to help production, maintain stability, improve acceptability and functioning of the dosage form. Common additives used in liquid oral dosage forms include vehicles, surfactants, hydrocolloids, antioxidants, preservatives, coloring agents, flavoring agents, sweetening agents, buffers and tonicity adjusters. Vehicles act as the medium to dissolve, suspend or disperse ingredients and include water, oils and mixtures. Other additives help solubilize, emulsify, increase viscosity, prevent microbial growth and oxidation, and improve taste and appearance.
In the changing scenario of pharmacy practice in India, for successful practice of
Hospital Pharmacy, the students are required to learn various skills like drug distribution,
drug dispensing, manufacturing of parenteral preparations, drug information, patient
counselling, and therapeutic drug monitoring for improved patient care
Introduction
Measures of central tendency
Correlation:
Regression
Probability
Parametric test
Non Parametric test
Graphs:
Designing of Methodology
Regression Modeling
Introduction to Practical components of Industrial and Clinical Trials Problems:
Design and Analysis of experiments
The presentation provides a concise information regarding various methods or techniques for enhancing solubility of different drugs and will prove useful to students & researchers.
This document discusses various methods for size separation of powders, including sieving, cyclone separation, air separation, and elutriation. It provides details on the standards for different powder sizes according to the Indian Pharmacopoeia and describes the construction and working of common separation devices like sieves, cyclones, and air separators. The key methods covered are sieving, where powders are separated based on particle size by passing through a set of sieves, and elutriation, where separation occurs as particles of different densities settle at different rates in a moving fluid.
State of matter, Properties of various state of matter, Volume, Diffusion, Compressibility, Rigidity or Fluidity, Density, Shape, Kinetic energy of particles at a given temperature, Intermolecular space, Intermolecular Force of attraction, Arrangement of molecules, Changes in the state of matter, Enthalpy, Entropy, Triple point, Freezing, Melting, Deposition, Sublimation, Vaporization and Condensation
This document discusses various methods for size separation of powders, as outlined in the Indian Pharmacopoeia. It describes 5 grades of powder sizes defined by the IP based on their ability to pass through various mesh sieves. Common separation techniques include sieving, cyclone separation, air separation, and elutriation. Sieving involves using a set of sieves arranged from largest to smallest mesh size to separate powder fractions. Cyclone and air separators use centrifugal forces to separate solids from gases. Elutriation separates powders based on particle density differences in a moving fluid.
Climbing film evaporator || Pharmaceutical Engineering || Anurag GuptaAnurag Gupta
The climbing film evaporator uses externally heated tubes to concentrate liquids. Preheated liquid enters from the bottom and flows up through the tubes, where bubbles form as the liquid near the walls vaporizes. Larger bubbles rise with the concentrate to the top, where a deflector throws the concentrate back down to the bottom for further concentration, while vapor exits out the top. Heat sensitive materials like insulin and vitamins can be concentrated using this evaporator due to its efficient heat transfer and handling of foaming liquids.
This document provides information about emulsions, including their definition, types, identification, reasons for use, preparation methods, and examples. Emulsions are dispersions of one liquid in another immiscible liquid and are stabilized by an emulsifying agent. The main types are oil-in-water (O/W) and water-in-oil (W/O) emulsions. Preparation involves making a primary emulsion of the internal and external phases with an emulsifying agent, then diluting. Methods include continental/dry gum, English/wet gum, bottle, and in-situ soap. Emulsions are used to enhance palatability, increase solubility and absorption of drugs.
IIT JEE 2012 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam paper. It details:
1) General instructions for the exam including not using additional materials and filling out answer sheets.
2) The exam format which includes 3 sections - multiple choice, multiple answer multiple choice, and single digit answer questions.
3) The marking scheme which awards points differently based on the question type and correctness of answers.
The document provides tips and techniques for data interpretation and approximation including reading questions carefully, analyzing data, paying attention to units, and learning to approximate and skim data. Examples demonstrate approximating values, identifying missing values in equations, and calculating averages, ratios, and using graphs including bar graphs, stacked graphs, tables, line graphs, and pie charts to organize and present data. Key concepts are defined for average, ratio, and different types of graphs. Sample questions are provided for practice interpreting various types of graphs.
IIt Jee advanced-2014 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
1. The document provides instructions for a test being administered by FIITJEE Ltd. It details logistical information like the testing location, timing, and materials allowed or prohibited during the exam.
2. Test-takers are instructed to fill in answers on an optical response sheet, bubbling in the appropriate circles corresponding to their responses. They must write their personal details like name and roll number on the response sheet as well.
3. The question paper contains three parts (physics, chemistry, and math) with each part split into two sections. Section 1 contains multiple choice questions where one or more options can be correct, while Section 2 contains single-digit answer questions from 0-9.
The GMAT quantitative section consists of 37 multiple-choice questions to be completed in 75 minutes. It tests math concepts and reasoning skills at the high school level. Questions are either problem solving or data sufficiency format. The section is administered via a computer-adaptive test where question difficulty is adjusted based on performance. While scrap paper is allowed, calculators are prohibited.
CAT 2014 Previous Year Question Paper with Answer KeyEneutron
The document provides information about students' feedback and performance on the CAT 2014 exam. Key points include:
1. The verbal section was reported as surprisingly easy, while the logic section was difficult. Target scores are provided to achieve different percentile ranks.
2. The quant section was also reported as surprisingly easy due to the inclusion of more arithmetic and number questions. Again, target scores are given.
3. A breakdown is then provided of performance in specific topics for the verbal, logic and quant sections.
The document provides information about an unsolved CAT paper from 2007, including 10 multiple choice questions from Section 1 and directions for answering questions involving two given statements. It also provides information about costs incurred by a company from 2002-2006 to produce a product, including a table with cost breakdowns. This information is then used to answer 4 questions about projecting costs for the company in 2007 under different production scenarios.
1) The document provides 11 multiple choice questions about simplifying algebraic expressions.
2) The questions cover topics like identifying equivalent expressions, combining like terms, and distributing terms.
3) Sample student answers are provided that explain the reasoning for each response.
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For helpful CXC Maths Multiple Choice Videos please click below
These videos are very helpful
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This document contains topics related to algebra, shape, data, numbers, decimals, fractions, proportions, BIDMAS rules, factors and HCF, directed numbers, ratios, percentages, fractions and decimals, limits, multiples, and fractions. It includes examples and multi-step problems involving these mathematical concepts.
This PPT consists of XAT 2019 Quant Section.
Useful for all MBA Aspirants to get the actual feel of difficulty level of XAT exam. Those who are willing to score high in national level MBA entrance exams are recommended to to these questions before they take actual CAT exam. Most of the Mocks which are available in the market are nowhere relevant to actual XAT so every XAT aspirant must take a glimpse of real CAT questions for the real XAT flavour.
This document provides instructions for a test containing 200 questions across four parts - General Intelligence & Reasoning, General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude, and English Comprehension. It details rules for candidates such as duration of the test, marking scheme, and procedures for filling out answer sheets. The document also explains how to arrive at answers and handle the test booklet and answer sheet. Finally, it notes that mobile phones are banned in the examination hall.
The document provides information about the quantitative section of the Graduate Management Admission Test (GMAT). It details that the section contains 37 questions to be completed in 75 minutes, including both problem solving and data sufficiency questions. Problem solving questions require solving the problem and choosing the best answer, while data sufficiency questions involve determining whether one, both, or neither of the given statement(s) are sufficient to answer the question. The document provides examples of several questions and explains the relevant terms and concepts.
Let's analyze each statement:
A) x2 > 0 for all real values of x. This is false as x2 can be 0 if x = 0.
B) |x| > 0 for all real values of x. This is true as the absolute value of any real number is greater than or equal to 0.
C) x2 + 1 > 0 for all real values of x. This is true as x2 is greater than or equal to 0 and 1 is positive.
D) |x + 1| > 0 for all real values of x. This is true as the absolute value of any real number is greater than or equal to 0.
Therefore, the statements that are true for all
The document provides instructions for a test. It describes how to fill out identifying information on the answer sheet, how the test is structured with different sections and time limits, how to arrive at answers and mark them on the answer sheet, and what to do after completing the test. It warns that candidates who seek or receive assistance will forfeit admission rights. The test booklet serial number and form number should be filled out on the answer sheet. Rough work should be done in the test booklet, not on the answer sheet.
Cbse ugc-net-computer-science-paper-2-december-2014Ashish Rai
This document provides instructions for a 50 question multiple choice exam. It instructs students to write their roll number, check that their test booklet is complete and in order, and notify invigilators of any issues within 5 minutes. It describes that each question has 4 answer options labeled A-D and to fill in the corresponding bubble on the OMR sheet. It also provides instructions to only mark answers on the OMR sheet, not to write anywhere identifying, to return materials after the exam, and allows keeping the original booklet.
Frost & Sullivan_Entry Interview Questions (English & Math)Max Lee
Wondering what are the questions asked during the entry interview for Frost & Sullivan (Malaysia)? Take a look at this document.
Sharing with you my dear readers who may find it useful.
Feel free to connect with me at maxermesilliam@gmail.com.
The document provides instructions for a JEE-MAIN exam. It details that the exam is 3 hours, consists of 90 questions worth a total of 360 marks, and covers physics, math, and chemistry. It instructs students to fill in personal details on the answer sheet and test booklet, choose only one answer per question, and do any calculations in the spaces provided. Students may not use phones or other devices during the exam and must turn in their answer sheet after completing the test.
Microbial interaction
Microorganisms interacts with each other and can be physically associated with another organisms in a variety of ways.
One organism can be located on the surface of another organism as an ectobiont or located within another organism as endobiont.
Microbial interaction may be positive such as mutualism, proto-cooperation, commensalism or may be negative such as parasitism, predation or competition
Types of microbial interaction
Positive interaction: mutualism, proto-cooperation, commensalism
Negative interaction: Ammensalism (antagonism), parasitism, predation, competition
I. Mutualism:
It is defined as the relationship in which each organism in interaction gets benefits from association. It is an obligatory relationship in which mutualist and host are metabolically dependent on each other.
Mutualistic relationship is very specific where one member of association cannot be replaced by another species.
Mutualism require close physical contact between interacting organisms.
Relationship of mutualism allows organisms to exist in habitat that could not occupied by either species alone.
Mutualistic relationship between organisms allows them to act as a single organism.
Examples of mutualism:
i. Lichens:
Lichens are excellent example of mutualism.
They are the association of specific fungi and certain genus of algae. In lichen, fungal partner is called mycobiont and algal partner is called
II. Syntrophism:
It is an association in which the growth of one organism either depends on or improved by the substrate provided by another organism.
In syntrophism both organism in association gets benefits.
Compound A
Utilized by population 1
Compound B
Utilized by population 2
Compound C
utilized by both Population 1+2
Products
In this theoretical example of syntrophism, population 1 is able to utilize and metabolize compound A, forming compound B but cannot metabolize beyond compound B without co-operation of population 2. Population 2is unable to utilize compound A but it can metabolize compound B forming compound C. Then both population 1 and 2 are able to carry out metabolic reaction which leads to formation of end product that neither population could produce alone.
Examples of syntrophism:
i. Methanogenic ecosystem in sludge digester
Methane produced by methanogenic bacteria depends upon interspecies hydrogen transfer by other fermentative bacteria.
Anaerobic fermentative bacteria generate CO2 and H2 utilizing carbohydrates which is then utilized by methanogenic bacteria (Methanobacter) to produce methane.
ii. Lactobacillus arobinosus and Enterococcus faecalis:
In the minimal media, Lactobacillus arobinosus and Enterococcus faecalis are able to grow together but not alone.
The synergistic relationship between E. faecalis and L. arobinosus occurs in which E. faecalis require folic acid
SDSS1335+0728: The awakening of a ∼ 106M⊙ black hole⋆Sérgio Sacani
Context. The early-type galaxy SDSS J133519.91+072807.4 (hereafter SDSS1335+0728), which had exhibited no prior optical variations during the preceding two decades, began showing significant nuclear variability in the Zwicky Transient Facility (ZTF) alert stream from December 2019 (as ZTF19acnskyy). This variability behaviour, coupled with the host-galaxy properties, suggests that SDSS1335+0728 hosts a ∼ 106M⊙ black hole (BH) that is currently in the process of ‘turning on’. Aims. We present a multi-wavelength photometric analysis and spectroscopic follow-up performed with the aim of better understanding the origin of the nuclear variations detected in SDSS1335+0728. Methods. We used archival photometry (from WISE, 2MASS, SDSS, GALEX, eROSITA) and spectroscopic data (from SDSS and LAMOST) to study the state of SDSS1335+0728 prior to December 2019, and new observations from Swift, SOAR/Goodman, VLT/X-shooter, and Keck/LRIS taken after its turn-on to characterise its current state. We analysed the variability of SDSS1335+0728 in the X-ray/UV/optical/mid-infrared range, modelled its spectral energy distribution prior to and after December 2019, and studied the evolution of its UV/optical spectra. Results. From our multi-wavelength photometric analysis, we find that: (a) since 2021, the UV flux (from Swift/UVOT observations) is four times brighter than the flux reported by GALEX in 2004; (b) since June 2022, the mid-infrared flux has risen more than two times, and the W1−W2 WISE colour has become redder; and (c) since February 2024, the source has begun showing X-ray emission. From our spectroscopic follow-up, we see that (i) the narrow emission line ratios are now consistent with a more energetic ionising continuum; (ii) broad emission lines are not detected; and (iii) the [OIII] line increased its flux ∼ 3.6 years after the first ZTF alert, which implies a relatively compact narrow-line-emitting region. Conclusions. We conclude that the variations observed in SDSS1335+0728 could be either explained by a ∼ 106M⊙ AGN that is just turning on or by an exotic tidal disruption event (TDE). If the former is true, SDSS1335+0728 is one of the strongest cases of an AGNobserved in the process of activating. If the latter were found to be the case, it would correspond to the longest and faintest TDE ever observed (or another class of still unknown nuclear transient). Future observations of SDSS1335+0728 are crucial to further understand its behaviour. Key words. galaxies: active– accretion, accretion discs– galaxies: individual: SDSS J133519.91+072807.4
Evaluation and Identification of J'BaFofi the Giant Spider of Congo and Moke...MrSproy
ABSTRACT
The J'BaFofi, or "Giant Spider," is a mainly legendary arachnid by reportedly inhabiting the dense rain forests of
the Congo. As despite numerous anecdotal accounts and cultural references, the scientific validation remains more elusive.
My study aims to proper evaluate the existence of the J'BaFofi through the analysis of historical reports,indigenous
testimonies and modern exploration efforts.
JAMES WEBB STUDY THE MASSIVE BLACK HOLE SEEDSSérgio Sacani
The pathway(s) to seeding the massive black holes (MBHs) that exist at the heart of galaxies in the present and distant Universe remains an unsolved problem. Here we categorise, describe and quantitatively discuss the formation pathways of both light and heavy seeds. We emphasise that the most recent computational models suggest that rather than a bimodal-like mass spectrum between light and heavy seeds with light at one end and heavy at the other that instead a continuum exists. Light seeds being more ubiquitous and the heavier seeds becoming less and less abundant due the rarer environmental conditions required for their formation. We therefore examine the different mechanisms that give rise to different seed mass spectrums. We show how and why the mechanisms that produce the heaviest seeds are also among the rarest events in the Universe and are hence extremely unlikely to be the seeds for the vast majority of the MBH population. We quantify, within the limits of the current large uncertainties in the seeding processes, the expected number densities of the seed mass spectrum. We argue that light seeds must be at least 103 to 105 times more numerous than heavy seeds to explain the MBH population as a whole. Based on our current understanding of the seed population this makes heavy seeds (Mseed > 103 M⊙) a significantly more likely pathway given that heavy seeds have an abundance pattern than is close to and likely in excess of 10−4 compared to light seeds. Finally, we examine the current state-of-the-art in numerical calculations and recent observations and plot a path forward for near-future advances in both domains.
Evidence of Jet Activity from the Secondary Black Hole in the OJ 287 Binary S...Sérgio Sacani
Wereport the study of a huge optical intraday flare on 2021 November 12 at 2 a.m. UT in the blazar OJ287. In the binary black hole model, it is associated with an impact of the secondary black hole on the accretion disk of the primary. Our multifrequency observing campaign was set up to search for such a signature of the impact based on a prediction made 8 yr earlier. The first I-band results of the flare have already been reported by Kishore et al. (2024). Here we combine these data with our monitoring in the R-band. There is a big change in the R–I spectral index by 1.0 ±0.1 between the normal background and the flare, suggesting a new component of radiation. The polarization variation during the rise of the flare suggests the same. The limits on the source size place it most reasonably in the jet of the secondary BH. We then ask why we have not seen this phenomenon before. We show that OJ287 was never before observed with sufficient sensitivity on the night when the flare should have happened according to the binary model. We also study the probability that this flare is just an oversized example of intraday variability using the Krakow data set of intense monitoring between 2015 and 2023. We find that the occurrence of a flare of this size and rapidity is unlikely. In machine-readable Tables 1 and 2, we give the full orbit-linked historical light curve of OJ287 as well as the dense monitoring sample of Krakow.
Physics Investigatory Project on transformers. Class 12thpihuart12
Physics investigatory project on transformers with required details for 12thes. with index, theory, types of transformers (with relevant images), procedure, sources of error, aim n apparatus along with bibliography🗃️📜. Please try to add your own imagination rather than just copy paste... Hope you all guys friends n juniors' like it. peace out✌🏻✌🏻
TOPIC OF DISCUSSION: CENTRIFUGATION SLIDESHARE.pptxshubhijain836
Centrifugation is a powerful technique used in laboratories to separate components of a heterogeneous mixture based on their density. This process utilizes centrifugal force to rapidly spin samples, causing denser particles to migrate outward more quickly than lighter ones. As a result, distinct layers form within the sample tube, allowing for easy isolation and purification of target substances.
Embracing Deep Variability For Reproducibility and Replicability
Abstract: Reproducibility (aka determinism in some cases) constitutes a fundamental aspect in various fields of computer science, such as floating-point computations in numerical analysis and simulation, concurrency models in parallelism, reproducible builds for third parties integration and packaging, and containerization for execution environments. These concepts, while pervasive across diverse concerns, often exhibit intricate inter-dependencies, making it challenging to achieve a comprehensive understanding. In this short and vision paper we delve into the application of software engineering techniques, specifically variability management, to systematically identify and explicit points of variability that may give rise to reproducibility issues (eg language, libraries, compiler, virtual machine, OS, environment variables, etc). The primary objectives are: i) gaining insights into the variability layers and their possible interactions, ii) capturing and documenting configurations for the sake of reproducibility, and iii) exploring diverse configurations to replicate, and hence validate and ensure the robustness of results. By adopting these methodologies, we aim to address the complexities associated with reproducibility and replicability in modern software systems and environments, facilitating a more comprehensive and nuanced perspective on these critical aspects.
https://hal.science/hal-04582287
Presentation of our paper, "Towards Quantitative Evaluation of Explainable AI Methods for Deepfake Detection", by K. Tsigos, E. Apostolidis, S. Baxevanakis, S. Papadopoulos, V. Mezaris. Presented at the ACM Int. Workshop on Multimedia AI against Disinformation (MAD’24) of the ACM Int. Conf. on Multimedia Retrieval (ICMR’24), Thailand, June 2024. https://doi.org/10.1145/3643491.3660292 https://arxiv.org/abs/2404.18649
Software available at https://github.com/IDT-ITI/XAI-Deepfakes
Mechanics:- Simple and Compound PendulumPravinHudge1
a compound pendulum is a physical system with a more complex structure than a simple pendulum, incorporating its mass distribution and dimensions into its oscillatory motion around a fixed axis. Understanding its dynamics involves principles of rotational mechanics and the interplay between gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy. Compound pendulums are used in various scientific and engineering applications, such as seismology for measuring earthquakes, in clocks to maintain accurate timekeeping, and in mechanical systems to study oscillatory motion dynamics.
1. 17/MV/M–2023–09 Booklet Series
Candidate’s Roll Number
Question Booklet
GENERAL STUDIES AND MATHEMATICS
Paper—3
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. This Question Booklet is divided into two Parts—Part–I and Part–II. Part–I contains questions of
GENERAL STUDIES. Part–II contains questions of MATHEMATICS.
2. Part–I consists of Question Nos. 1 to 40 and Part–II consists of Question Nos. 41 to 120. All
questions and their responses are printed in English and Hindi versions both.
3. Attempt questions from Part–I and Part–II.
4. All questions carry equal marks.
5. Immediately after commencement of the examination, you should check up your Question
Booklet and ensure that the Question Booklet Series is printed on the top right-hand corner
of the Booklet. Please check that the Booklet contains 48 printed pages including two pages
(Page Nos. 46 and 47) for Rough Work and no page or question is missing or unprinted or
torn or repeated. If you find any defect in this Booklet, get it replaced immediately by a
complete Booklet of the same series.
6. You must write your Roll Number in the space provided on the top of this page. Do not write
anything else on the Question Booklet.
7. An Answer Sheet will be supplied to you separately by the Invigilator to mark the answers. You
must write your Name, Roll No., Question Booklet Series and other particulars in the space
provided on Page–1 of the Answer Sheet provided, failing which your Answer Sheet will not
be evaluated.
8. You should encode your Roll Number and the Question Booklet Series A, B, C or D as it is
printed on the top right-hand corner of the Question Booklet with Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen in
the space provided on Page–2 of your Answer Sheet. If you do not encode or fail to encode the
correct series of your Question Booklet, your Answer Sheet will not be evaluated correctly.
9. Each question comprises of five responses—(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). You are to select ONLY ONE
correct response and mark it in your Answer Sheet. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each question. Your total marks will depend on the number of correct responses marked by you in
the Answer Sheet.
10. In the Answer Sheet, there are five circles— and against each question. To
answer the questions, you are to mark with Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen ONLY ONE circle of your
choice for each question. Select only one response for each question and mark it in your Answer
Sheet. If you mark more than one answer for one question, the answer will be treated as wrong.
Use Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen only to mark the answer in the Answer Sheet. Any erasure
or change is not allowed.
11. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidates, one-fourth of the
marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
12. You should not remove or tear off any sheet from the Question Booklet. You are not allowed to
take this Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet out of the Examination Hall during the
examination. After the examination has concluded, you must hand over your Answer Sheet
to the Invigilator. Thereafter, you are permitted to take away the Question Booklet with you.
13. Failure to comply with any of the above instructions will render you liable to such action or
penalty as the Commission may decide at their discretion.
14. Candidates must assure before leaving the Examination Hall that their Answer Sheets will be kept
in Self Adhesive LDPE Bag and completely packed/sealed in their presence.
‹`mZ X| : AZwXoem| H$m {h›Xr Í$nm›Va Bg nwpÒVH$m Ho$ Ap›V_ n•> na N>nm h°ü&
Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 120
Serial
No.
A
A B C D
, , , E
2. PART—I
( GENERAL STUDIES )
1. 10 years ago the ratio of ages
of Ramesh and Rajeev was 1 : 3.
5 years hence this ratio will
become 2 : 3. What is the ratio
of their ages at present?
(A) 2 : 5
(B) 3 : 5
(C) 1 : 2
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
2. If I walk with a speed of 5 km
per hour from my house to the
station, my train would have left
the station 7 minutes before my
arrival. But, if I walk with a
speed of 6 km per hour, I will
reach the station 5 minutes
before the departure of my
train. Accordingly, what is the
distance between my house and
the station?
(A) 7 km
(B) 6·5 km
(C) 6 km
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
3. The average monthly income of
P and Q is R 5,050. The average
monthly income of Q and R is
R 6,250 and the average
monthly income of P and R is
R 5,200. The monthly income of
P is
(A) R 3,500
(B) R 4,050
(C) R 4,000
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
4. If 30% of P is added to 40%
of Q, it becomes 80% of Q.
Accordingly, what is the
percentage of Q with respect
to P ?
(A) 40%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
5. A sum of money is to be
distributed among A, B, C, D in
the proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3. If
C gets R 1,000 more than D,
what is B’s share?
(A) R 500
(B) R 1,500
(C) R 2,000
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
17/MV/M–2023–01–10 (S)/11-A 2
4. 6. A shopkeeper gives a discount
of 5% on the selling price of a
watch. If he gives a discount of
6%, he will earn a profit which
is R 15 less than the before.
Accordingly, what is the marked
selling price of that watch?
(A) R 1,400
(B) R 1,500
(C) R 1,800
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
7. Three numbers are in the ratio
3 : 4 : 5. The total of the largest
and the smallest numbers is
equal to the other number
plus 52. Accordingly, which is
the smallest number?
(A) 27
(B) 39
(C) 52
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
8. If 2
1
8
2 1
3
n
n
-
-
= , then the value
of n is
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) – 2
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
9. Which of the following photo-
electric devices is the most
suitable for digital applications?
(A) Photo-voltaic cell
(B) Photo-emissive cell
(C) Photo-diode
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
10. The critical mass of a fissionable
material is
(A) one kilogram equivalent
(B) the minimum mass needed
for chain reaction
(C) the rest mass equivalent to
1010
joules
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
11. Which of the following gases is
used to force the ripening of
fruits?
(A) Ethane
(B) Ethylene
(C) Methylene
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
12. Which one of the following has
zero octane number?
(A) Iso-octane
(B) Neo-octane
(C) n-octane
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
17/MV/M–2023–01–10 (S)/11-A 4
6. 13. The edible part of Litchis is
(A) aril
(B) thalamus
(C) seed coat
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
14. The physical process involved in
the release of molecular oxygen
from leaves is
(A) diffusion
(B) transpiration
(C) osmosis
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
15. The process of finding the
relative location of genes on a
chromosome is called
(A) genome walking
(B) chromosome walking
(C) gene mapping
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
16. Spore mother cell in bryophytes
is
(A) haploid
(B) diploid
(C) triploid
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
17. In which year was NGT (National
Green Tribunal) for protection
of environment and forest
established by the Government
of India?
(A) 2010
(B) 2011
(C) 2012
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
18. Which city of India started first
under-water metro?
(A) Kochi
(B) Visakhapatnam
(C) Bengaluru
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
19. Under India’s G20 Presidency,
where was the Tourism Working
Group Meeting held?
(A) Patna (Bihar)
(B) Srinagar (Jammu and
Kashmir)
(C) Ramnagar (Uttarakhand)
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
20. Who among the following got
the Silver Medal in the National
Under-17 Girls Wrestling
Championship?
(A) Liza Tomar
(B) Nirjala
(C) Pushpa Yadav
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
17/MV/M–2023–01–10 (S)/11-A 6
8. 17/MV/M–2023–01–10 (S)/11-A 8
21. Who won the International
Booker Prize, 2022 for the novel,
Tomb of Sand ?
(A) Geetanjali Shree and Daisy
Rockwell
(B) David Diop and Anna
Moschovakis
(C) Marilyn Booth and Jokha
Alharthi
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
22. Who was the Chief Guest on
India’s 74th Republic Day?
(A) Mohammed bin Salman
(B) Abdel Fattah El-Sisi
(C) Sheikh Mohammed bin
Rashid Al Maktoum
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
23. In which district of Bihar, the
first floating solar power plant
has been built?
(A) Darbhanga
(B) West Champaran
(C) Madhubani
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
24. Which of the following has got
GI Tag in Bihar?
(A) Maghai Paan
(B) Basmati Rice
(C) Chanderi Saree
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
25. Match List–I with List–II :
List—I List—II
a. Char 1. Punjab plain
b. Kankar 2. Delta
c. Kayal 3. Bangar
d. Mand 4. Coastal plain
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below.
(A) a b c d
1 4 2 3
(B) a b c d
2 3 4 1
(C) a b c d
3 1 4 2
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
26. Which of the following
tributaries does not join
Brahmaputra river from north?
(A) Subansiri
(B) Belsiri
(C) Manas
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
10. 17/MV/M–2023–01–10 (S)/11-A 10
27. Likhapani glacier is located in
which State of India?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
28. Magadha and Anga plains are
parts of
(A) upper Ganga plain
(B) middle Ganga plain
(C) lower Ganga plain
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
29. Which of the following pairs of
waterfalls and rivers is not
correctly matched?
(A) Jog—Sharavati
(B) Kapildhara—Kaveri
(C) Dhuandhar—Godavari
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
30. Arrange the following seaports of
India from north to south :
1. Kakinada
2. Machilipatnam
3. Nagapattinam
4. Visakhapatnam
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below.
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 4, 1, 2, 3
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
31. The Agreement of Kosi Irrigation
and Hydroelectricity Plan in
1954 was signed between which
two countries?
(A) India and Bangladesh
(B) India and China
(C) India and Nepal
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
32. In which climatic division does
Bihar fall as per R. L. Singh’s
classification scheme?
(A) Humid south-east
(B) Subhumid transitional
(C) Subhumid continental
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
12. 17/MV/M–2023–01–10 (S)/11-A 12
33. In which Session of the Indian
National Congress was the
resolution of ‘Purna Swaraj’
adopted?
(A) Kanpur Session, 1925
(B) Lahore Session, 1929
(C) Karachi Session, 1931
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
34. What was an initial objective of
‘Kuka Movement’ in Punjab?
(A) To purify the Sikh religion
(B) To gain political power in
Punjab
(C) Organization of peasant
movement
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
35. Who described the Revolt of
1857 as the ‘First Indian War of
Independence’?
(A) V. D. Savarkar
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Bipin Chandra Pal
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
36. Where was the first instance of
organized non-cooperation in
the history of Indian peasantry
held?
(A) Bihar and Bengal
(B) Madras Presidency
(C) Punjab Province
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
37. Which portfolio did Dr. Rajendra
Prasad hold during the Interim
Government of 1946?
(A) Defence
(B) Home
(C) Food and Agriculture
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
38. Who among the following
particularly urged Gandhiji to
visit Champaran to witness the
miseries of the Ryots?
(A) Brijkishore Prasad
(B) Rajkumar Shukla
(C) Sukhram Ganesh
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
39. The ‘Day of Deliverance’ was
observed by the Muslim League
on which date?
(A) 22nd December, 1939
(B) 17th October, 1939
(C) 22nd December, 1940
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
40. Who laid the foundation stone
of National College and Bihar
Vidyapeeth?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Maulana Abdul Bari
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
14. PART—II
( MATHEMATICS )
41. During conversion of a solid
from one shape to another, the
volume of the solid will
(A) decrease
(B) remain unaltered
(C) increase
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
42. The Cartesian coordinates of
three points A, B and C are
( , )
1 1
- , ( , )
3 4
- and ( , )
5 7
-
respectively. Then the D ABC is
(A) isosceles
(B) equilateral
(C) right-angled
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
43. A sweet seller has 420 Kaju
Burfis and 150 Badam Burfis.
He wants to stack them in such
a way that each stack has the
same number, and they take up
the least area of the tray. The
number of such stacks formed is
(A) 17
(B) 19
(C) 18
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
44. Let x y
+ + =
2 4 0 and
- + - =
4 2 3 0
x y be the equations
of two straight lines. Then
(A) they are parallel
(B) both are passing through
the origin
(C) one is passing through the
origin
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
45. Pritam and Rana drive around
a circular sports field. Pritam
takes 16 minutes to take one
round while Rana completes the
round in 20 minutes. If both
start from the same point, at the
same time and in the same
direction, after how much time
will they meet at the starting
point?
(A) 80 minutes
(B) 32 minutes
(C) 40 minutes
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
17/MV/M–2023–09 MAT (S)/11-A 14
16. 46. The largest number that divides
450, 577 and 704, leaving
remainders 9, 10 and 11
respectively, is
(A) 63
(B) 577
(C) 450
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
47. If a, b, g are the zeros of the
polynomial x x x
3 2
6 30
- - + ,
then the value of ab bg ga
+ + is
(A) 1
(B) -1
(C) 6
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
48. If sinq =
m
n
, then the value of
tan
cot
q
q
+
+
4
4 1
is
(A)
m
n m
2
-
(B)
n
n m
2
-
(C)
m
m n
2 2
-
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
49. If the nth term of an arithmetic
progression is ( )
2 1
n + , then the
sum of its first three terms is
(A) 6 3
n +
(B) 15
(C) 12
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
50. DABC and DDBC are on the
same base BC and on the
opposite sides of BC. If O is the
intersection point of the
diagonals AD and BC, then
Area of
Area of
D
D
ABC
DBC
is equal to
(A)
BO
CO
(B)
AO
DO
(C)
AO
CO
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
17/MV/M–2023–09 MAT (S)/11-A 16
18. 51. Places A and B are 100 km apart
on a highway. One car starts
from A and another from B at
the same time. If the cars travel
in the same direction at different
speeds, they meet in 5 hours. If
they travel towards each other,
they meet in 1 hour. What are
the speeds of the two cars?
(A) 60 km/hr, 40 km/hr
(B) 30 km/hr, 70 km/hr
(C) 20 km/hr, 80 km/hr
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
52. The sum of the squares of two
positive integers is 306. If
the square of the larger integer
is 25 times the smaller integer,
then the difference between the
two integers is
(A) 6
(B) 10
(C) 1
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
53. Consider the following frequency
distribution :
Class Frequency
0–10 3
10–20 9
20–30 15
30–40 30
40–50 18
50–60 5
The modal class is
(A) 20–30
(B) 30–40
(C) 40–50
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
54. If two diagonals AC and DB of
a quadrilateral ABCD intersect
at a point E such that
AE EC
: :: :
1 2 and BE ED
: :: :
3 6
then ABCD is
(A) an arbitrary quadrilateral
(B) a rhombus
(C) a parallelogram
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
17/MV/M–2023–09 MAT (S)/11-A 18
20. 17/MV/M–2023–09 MAT (S)/11-A 20
55. Find the two numbers such that
the sum of thrice the first and
the second is 142, and four
times the first exceeds the
second by 138.
(A) 42, 20
(B) 32, 40
(C) 40, 22
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
56. If the slope of the line joining
the points ( , )
k 4 and ( , )
- -
3 2 is
1
2
,
then the value of k is
(A) 3
(B) -9
(C) 9
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
57. A person on tour has R4,200 for
his expenses. If he extends his
tour for 3 days, he has to cut
down his daily expenses by R70.
The original duration of the tour
will be
(A) 14 days
(B) 12 days
(C) 16 days
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
58. A motorboat, whose speed is
18 km/hr in still water, takes
one hour more to go 24 km
upstream than to return
downstream to the same spot.
The speed of the stream is
(A) -54 km/hr
(B) 6 km/hr
(C) 10 km/hr
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
59. Find the centre of a circle
passing through the points
( , )
6 6
- , ( , )
3 7
- and ( , )
3 3.
(A) ( , )
3 3
(B) ( , )
3 2
-
(C) ( , )
2 3
-
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
22. 17/MV/M–2023–09 MAT (S)/11-A 22
60. Two water taps together can fill
a tank in 9
3
8
hours. The tap of
larger diameter takes 10 hours
less than the smaller one to fill
the tank separately. The time
(in hours) in which each tap can
separately fill the tank is
respectively
(A) 10, 20
(B) 15, 25
(C) 5, 15
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
61. In a class test, the sum of
Kamal’s marks in Mathematics
and English is 40. Had he got
3 marks more in Mathematics
and 4 marks less in English, the
product of the marks would
have been 360. The marks
obtained by Kamal in two
subjects separately are
(A) 21, 19
(B) 12, 28
(C) 21, 12
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
62. A bag contains 2 red, 3 green
and 2 blue balls. Two balls
are drawn at random. The
probability that none of the balls
drawn is blue is
(A)
10
21
(B)
11
21
(C)
2
7
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
63. A man saved R33,000 in
10 months. In each month after
the first, he saved R100 more
than he did in the preceding
month. How much did he save
in the first month?
(A) R2,850
(B) R1,850
(C) R1,900
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
24. 17/MV/M–2023–09 MAT (S)/11-A 24
64. The area of a square field is
24200 square metres. At the
rate of 6·6 km/hr, how much
time will a lady take to cross the
field diagonally?
(A) 3 minutes
(B) 2 minutes
(C) 2·4 minutes
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
65. The sum of all three-digit
natural numbers, multiple of
11, is
(A) 44540
(B) 44550
(C) 54540
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
66. For what value of k, the
equations
3 1 4 24
15 20 8 13
( )
( )
k x y
x y k
- + =
+ = +
have infinitely many solutions?
(A) 2
(B) -2
(C) 3
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
67. The value of p such that the
points A( , )
4 7, B p
( , )
3, C( , )
7 3 are
the vertices of a right-angled
triangle, having right angle at B,
is
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
A (4, 7)
B p
( , 3) C (7, 3)
26. 17/MV/M–2023–09 MAT (S)/11-A 26
68. A 5 cm cube is cut into as many
1 cm cubes as possible. The
ratio of the surface area of the
larger cube to that of the sum of
the surface areas of the smaller
cubes is
(A) 1 : 6
(B) 1 : 5
(C) 1 : 25
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
69. In a DABC, AD is the bisector of
ÐA. If AB = ×
6 4 cm, AC = 8 cm
and BD = ×
5 6 cm, then the value
of DC is
(A) 7 cm
(B) 9 cm
(C) 12 cm
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
70. The sum of LCM and HCF of two
numbers is 1260. If their LCM is
900 more than their HCF, then
the product of the two numbers
is
(A) 203400
(B) 194400
(C) 198400
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
71. If the bisector of an angle of
a triangle bisects the opposite
side, then the triangle is
(A) equilateral
(B) right-angled
(C) isosceles
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
72. The angles of elevation of the top
of a tower from two points at
distances of 4 m and 9 m from
the base of the tower and in the
same straight line with it are
complementary. Then the height
of the tower is
(A) 6 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 9 m
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
C
A
B
D
28. 17/MV/M–2023–09 MAT (S)/11-A 28
73. The area of a rhombus is
480 2
cm and the length of one
of its diagonals is 20 cm. The
length of each side of the
rhombus is
(A) 24 cm
(B) 30 cm
(C) 26 cm
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
74. The factors of 2 128
7
a a
- are
(A) a a a
( ) ( )
+ -
2 2
3 3
(B) 2 2 2 2 4
2
a a a a a
( )( )( )
+ - + -
( )
a a
2
2 4
- -
(C) 2 2 2 2 4
2
a a a a a
( )( )( )
+ - + +
( )
a a
2
2 4
- +
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
75. Which of the following pairs of
lines in a circle cannot be
parallel?
(A) Two chords
(B) A chord and a tangent
(C) Two diameters
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
76. A bag contains 5 red balls
and some blue balls. If the
probability of drawing a blue
ball from the bag is four times
that of a red ball, then the
number of blue balls in the
bag is
(A) 10
(B) 40
(C) 20
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
77. If sin sin
A A
+ =
2
1, then
cos cos ?
2 4
A A
+ =
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) -1
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
78. The probability of an event can
be
(A) - ×
0 04
(B) 1·00009
(C)
18
23
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
30. 17/MV/M–2023–09 MAT (S)/11-A 30
79. The angle of depression of a car,
parked on the road, from the top
of a 150 m high tower is 30°.
The distance of the car from the
tower is
(A) 50 3 m
(B) 150 3 m
(C) 75 m
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
80. A hemispherical bowl of internal
diameter 36 cm is full of liquid.
The liquid is to be filled into
cylindrical shaped bottles each
of radius 3 cm and height 9 cm.
The number of bottles is
(A) 96
(B) 48
(C) 24
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
81. A kite is flying at a height of
30 m from the ground. The
length of the string from the kite
to the ground is 60 m. Assuming
that there is no slack in the
string, the angle of elevation of
the kite at the ground is
(A) 45°
(B) 60°
(C) 30°
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
82. A carton consists of 100 shirts of
which 88 are good, 8 have minor
defects and 4 have major
defects. Jimmy, a trader, will
only accept the shirts which are
good, but Sujata, another
trader, will only reject the shirts
which have major defects.
One shirt is drawn at random
from the carton. The proba-
bilities that it is not acceptable
to Jimmy and acceptable to
Sujata are
(A) 0·12, 0·96
(B) 0·88, 0·96
(C) 0·12, 0·04
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
83. Find the area of the triangle
whose sides are 42 cm, 34 cm
and 20 cm.
(A) 330 cm2
(B) 360 cm2
(C) 336 cm2
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
32. 17/MV/M–2023–09 MAT (S)/11-A 32
84. The denominator of a fraction
is two more than its numerator.
If the sum of the fraction and
its reciprocal is 2
4
15
, then the
fraction is
(A)
5
3
(B)
3
5
(C)
5
7
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
85. The cost of carpeting a room
15 m long with a carpet 75 cm
wide at R70 per metre is
R8,400. The width of the room is
(A) 9 m
(B) 8 m
(C) 6 m
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
86. If seven times the seventh term
of an AP is equal to eleven times
its eleventh term, then its
eighteenth term is equal to
(A) -17
(B) -1
(C) 0
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
87. A wire is looped in the form of
a circle of radius 28 cm. It is
rebent into a square form.
Determine the length of the side
of the square.
(A) 44 cm
(B) 54 cm
(C) 40 cm
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
88. Given
x
x
x
=
-
-
-
æ
è
ç
ö
ø
÷
ì
í
ï
ï
î
ï
ï
ü
ý
ï
ï
þ
ï
ï
¹
1
2
1
2
1
2
2
, ( )
then x is equal to
(A) 1, 1
(B) -1, 1
(C) -1, -1
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
34. 17/MV/M–2023–09 MAT (S)/11-A 34
89. The area of a sector of angle q° of
a circle with radius R is
(A)
2
180
p q
R
(B)
2
360
p q
R
(C) p q
R 2
360
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
90. The ratio of incomes of two
persons is 9 : 7 and the ratio
of their expenditures is 4 : 3. If
each of them manages to save
R2,000 per month, then their
monthly incomes are
(A) R18,000 and R14,000
(B) R27,000 and R21,000
(C) R36,000 and R28,000
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
91. A factory manufactures 120000
pencils daily. The pencils are
cylindrical in shape, each of
length 25 cm, and circum-
ference of base is 1·5 cm. Then
the cost of colouring the curved
surfaces of the pencils
manufactured in one day at
R0·05 per dm2 is
(A) R22,500
(B) R2,25,000
(C) R2,250
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
92. Consider the system of linear
equations x y
- + =
1 0 and
3 2 12 0
x y
+ - = . The coordinates
of the vertices of the triangle
formed by these lines and the
y-axis are
(A) ( , )
2 1
- , ( , )
0 5 and ( , )
0 5
-
(B) ( , )
2 1
- , ( , )
5 0 and ( , )
-5 0
(C) ( , )
2 3, ( , )
0 1 and ( , )
0 6
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
93. A cubical ice-cream bar of
edge 22 cm is to be distributed
among some children by filling
ice-cream cones of radius 2 cm
and height 7 cm up to its brim.
How many children will get the
ice-cream cones?
(A) 163
(B) 263
(C) 363
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
36. 17/MV/M–2023–09 MAT (S)/11-A 36
94. If O is any point inside a
rectangle ABCD, then
(A) OB OD OA OC
2 2 2 2
+ = +
(B) OB OA OD OC
2 2 2 2
+ = +
(C) OA OD OB OC
2 2 2 2
+ = +
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
95. If the point C ( , )
1 1 divides the
line segment joining A( , )
-2 7 and
B in the ratio 3 : 2 internally,
the coordinates of B are
(A) ( , )
-3 3
(B) ( , )
3 3
-
(C) ( , )
3 3
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
96. A manufacturer of TV sets
produced 600 sets in the third
year and 700 sets in the seventh
year. Assuming that the produc-
tion increases uniformly by a
fixed number every year, the
production of TV sets in the
10th year is
(A) 850
(B) 1000
(C) 775
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
97. Rajveer saves R32 during the
first month, R36 during the
second month and R40 during
the third month. If she
continues to save in this
manner, she will be able to save
R2,000 in
(A) 20 months
(B) 30 months
(C) 35 months
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
98. In an examination, one student
secured 30% marks and failed
by 45 marks. Another student
secured 42% marks and got
45 marks more than minimum
passing marks. Find the total
marks.
(A) 270
(B) 750
(C) 850
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
99. The mean of 20 numbers is zero.
Of them, at the most, how many
may be greater than zero?
(A) 19
(B) 1
(C) 10
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
38. 17/MV/M–2023–09 MAT (S)/11-A 38
100. Suhit borrowed R6,300 at the
rate of 14% for 3 years on simple
interest from Vikas. Suhit added
some amount in the principal
amount and gave it to Mohit at
the rate of 16% for the same
period with simple interest.
During this transaction, Suhit
earned R618. The amount
which Suhit gave to Mohit was
(A) R7,000
(B) R6,800
(C) R7,200
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
101. For a symmetrical frequency
distribution, we have
(A) mean < median < mode
(B) mean > mode > median
(C) mean = median = mode
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
102. One wall clock was set at
8:00 a.m. in the morning. This
clock runs 10 minutes fast
during 24 hours. Next day when
this clock shows 1:00 p.m. in
the afternoon, the correct time is
(A) 40 minutes passed 12 noon
(B) 45 minutes passed 12 noon
(C) 48 minutes passed 12 noon
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
103. The mean and mode of a
frequency distribution are 28
and 16 respectively. The median
is
(A) 24
(B) 23·5
(C) 22
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
104. Some money has been borrowed
on compound interest. After
2 years and 3 years, the
principal turns out to be R9,680
and R10,648 respectively. Then
the principal is
(A) R8,000
(B) R9,000
(C) R7,000
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
105. Two different dice are rolled
together. Find the probability of
getting the sum of numbers on
two dice to be 5.
(A)
1
9
(B)
1
4
(C)
1
6
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
40. 17/MV/M–2023–09 MAT (S)/11-A 40
106. When ( )
x 31
31
+ is divided by
( )
x +1, the remainder is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 30
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
107. One ticket is drawn at random
from a bag containing tickets
numbered 1 to 40. The
probability that the selected
ticket has a number, which is a
multiple of 7, is
(A)
1
7
(B)
1
8
(C)
7
40
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
108. A person bought a horse and
a car for R20,000. He sold the
horse with 20% profit and sold
the car with 10% loss. In this
transaction, he earned 2%
profit. Then the purchase cost of
the horse is
(A) R7,200
(B) R7,500
(C) R8,000
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
109. In a lottery, there are 6 prizes
and 24 blanks. What is the
probability of not getting a
prize?
(A)
3
4
(B)
3
5
(C)
4
5
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
110. The quadratic equation
ax bx c
2
0
+ + = ( )
a ¹ 0
has two distinct real roots if
(A) the discriminant > 0
(B) the discriminant = 0
(C) the discriminant < 0
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
111. a and b are two positive integers
such that the least prime factor
of a is 2 and the least prime
factor of b is 5. Then the least
prime factor of a b
+ is
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
42. 17/MV/M–2023–09 MAT (S)/11-A 42
112. The line segment XY is parallel
to the side AC of DABC and it
divides the triangle into two
parts of equal areas. Then the
ratio
AX
AB
is
(A) 2 2
2
+
(B) 2 2
2
-
(C) 3 2
2
+
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
113. Which term of the AP
72, 63, 54, L
is 0?
(A) 8th
(B) 9th
(C) 10th
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
114. Consider a polynomial
x x x x
4 3 2
9 3 8
+ - - +
Given that two of its zeros are
- 3 and 3. Then the remaining
zeros are
(A) -3, -2
(B) 3, -2
(C) 3, 2
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
115. If
cos sin
cos sin
q q
q q
-
+
=
-
+
1 3
1 3
and
0 90
° < < °
q , then the angle q is
(A) 30°
(B) 60°
(C) 45°
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
116. If tan tan
2 2
1 2
q a
= + , then
sin2
q is equal to
(A)
1
2
1 2
( sin )
+ a
(B) 1 2
+ sin a
(C)
1
2
1 2
( cos )
+ a
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
44. 17/MV/M–2023–09 MAT (S)/11-A 44
117. Taxi charges in a city consist of
fixed charges and the remaining
depending upon the distance
travelled in kilometres. If a
person travels 60 km, he pays
R960 and for travelling 80 km,
he pays R1,260. Find the fixed
charges and the rate per
kilometre.
(A) R60 and R15/km
(B) R40 and R25/km
(C) R30 and R15/km
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
118. A vertical tower stands on a
horizontal plane and is
surmounted by a vertical
flagstaff of height h. At a point
on the plane, the angles of
elevation of the bottom and top
of the flagstaff are a and b
respectively. Then the height of
the tower is
(A)
tan
(tan tan )
a
b a
h -
(B)
tan
(tan tan )
a
b a
h +
(C)
h tan
tan tan
a
b a
-
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
119. A girl of height 90 cm is walking
away from the base of a lamp-
post at a speed of 1·2 m/sec.
If the lamp is 3·6 m above the
ground, then the length of
the shadow of the girl after
4 seconds is
(A) 1·6 m
(B) 1·5 m
(C) 1·06 m
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
120. sin cos
sin cos
q q
q q
- +
+ -
1
1
is equal to
(A)
1
sec tan
q q
-
(B)
1
cosecq q
- cot
(C)
1
cot tan
q q
-
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above