This document provides instructions for a test containing 200 questions across four parts - General Intelligence & Reasoning, General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude, and English Comprehension. It details rules for candidates such as duration of the test, marking scheme, and procedures for filling out answer sheets. The document also explains how to arrive at answers and handle the test booklet and answer sheet. Finally, it notes that mobile phones are banned in the examination hall.
Cat Paper 2008 by MBA Institutes in Mumbaiseomiamia
Mia Mia is a real time local search engine that enables people to search for a search provider anywhere with ease and convenience. Mia Mia is one of the best listing website for MBA Classes in Mumbai. We are also known for our systematic listing of various IPCC, Science coaching for CBSE, Engineering and other courses in Mumbai. QLI is a class where each student is our priority. Top MBA Institutes in Mumbai for CAT, XAT, NMAT and IIFT are listed on MiaMia.For details - visit: http://miamia.co.in/
1) The document provides various physics constants and formulas.
2) Example calculations are shown such as calculating the work done by a force and solving kinematics equations.
3) Physics concepts involving forces, kinematics, energy, and circuits are demonstrated.
This document provides tips and strategies for solving different types of problems involving numbers, letters, and their arrangements. It discusses approaches for dancing digits and alphabets, number series, ratio and proportion, odd term out, matrices, and alphabet series. Key advice includes looking for patterns of repetition, rotation, differences, and relationships between terms. Mental calculations and trial and error are recommended over complex logic.
The document contains a sample test with 25 questions on reasoning for the AFCAT (Air Force Common Admission Test). The test includes questions on topics like sequences, math word problems, coding/decoding, time, and logical reasoning. Sample questions are multiple choice with one correct answer out of 4 options. The questions range from easy to moderate difficulty.
El documento describe las economías de escala y el modelo de Lange para determinar la capacidad productiva óptima de una planta. Según el modelo de Lange, existe una relación decreciente entre la inversión inicial y los costos de operación, por lo que al aumentar la inversión inicial los costos de operación disminuyen. El costo total es mínimo cuando el incremento en la inversión inicial es igual a la suma descontada de los costos de operación que esa mayor inversión permite ahorrar.
El documento discute conceptos económicos clave como las economías de escala y su papel en determinar el patrón de comercio y como causa de barreras de entrada. Define las economías de escala como cuando los costos por unidad de producción disminuyen al aumentar la escala de producción. Explica las causas de economías de escala internas y externas y cómo tienden a configuraciones de mercado más o menos competitivas.
Este documento describe las economías y deseconomías de escala. Explica que las economías de escala ocurren cuando el costo unitario de producción disminuye a medida que aumenta la producción, mientras que las deseconomías de escala ocurren cuando el costo unitario aumenta. También distingue entre economías de escala internas, que ocurren dentro de una empresa, y externas, que ocurren a nivel de la industria. Finalmente, presenta formas de medir cuantitativamente las economías de escala.
This page is very helpful those students they prepare junior engineer exam like.. SSC JEn, PWD, PHED, RSEB, BSNL JTO, TTA, WRD, DMRC, JMRC, RIICO etc .
Cat Paper 2008 by MBA Institutes in Mumbaiseomiamia
Mia Mia is a real time local search engine that enables people to search for a search provider anywhere with ease and convenience. Mia Mia is one of the best listing website for MBA Classes in Mumbai. We are also known for our systematic listing of various IPCC, Science coaching for CBSE, Engineering and other courses in Mumbai. QLI is a class where each student is our priority. Top MBA Institutes in Mumbai for CAT, XAT, NMAT and IIFT are listed on MiaMia.For details - visit: http://miamia.co.in/
1) The document provides various physics constants and formulas.
2) Example calculations are shown such as calculating the work done by a force and solving kinematics equations.
3) Physics concepts involving forces, kinematics, energy, and circuits are demonstrated.
This document provides tips and strategies for solving different types of problems involving numbers, letters, and their arrangements. It discusses approaches for dancing digits and alphabets, number series, ratio and proportion, odd term out, matrices, and alphabet series. Key advice includes looking for patterns of repetition, rotation, differences, and relationships between terms. Mental calculations and trial and error are recommended over complex logic.
The document contains a sample test with 25 questions on reasoning for the AFCAT (Air Force Common Admission Test). The test includes questions on topics like sequences, math word problems, coding/decoding, time, and logical reasoning. Sample questions are multiple choice with one correct answer out of 4 options. The questions range from easy to moderate difficulty.
El documento describe las economías de escala y el modelo de Lange para determinar la capacidad productiva óptima de una planta. Según el modelo de Lange, existe una relación decreciente entre la inversión inicial y los costos de operación, por lo que al aumentar la inversión inicial los costos de operación disminuyen. El costo total es mínimo cuando el incremento en la inversión inicial es igual a la suma descontada de los costos de operación que esa mayor inversión permite ahorrar.
El documento discute conceptos económicos clave como las economías de escala y su papel en determinar el patrón de comercio y como causa de barreras de entrada. Define las economías de escala como cuando los costos por unidad de producción disminuyen al aumentar la escala de producción. Explica las causas de economías de escala internas y externas y cómo tienden a configuraciones de mercado más o menos competitivas.
Este documento describe las economías y deseconomías de escala. Explica que las economías de escala ocurren cuando el costo unitario de producción disminuye a medida que aumenta la producción, mientras que las deseconomías de escala ocurren cuando el costo unitario aumenta. También distingue entre economías de escala internas, que ocurren dentro de una empresa, y externas, que ocurren a nivel de la industria. Finalmente, presenta formas de medir cuantitativamente las economías de escala.
This page is very helpful those students they prepare junior engineer exam like.. SSC JEn, PWD, PHED, RSEB, BSNL JTO, TTA, WRD, DMRC, JMRC, RIICO etc .
This page is very helpful those students they prepare junior engineer exam like.. SSC JEn, PWD, PHED, RSEB, BSNL JTO, TTA, WRD, DMRC, JMRC, RIICO etc .
1. The document provides instructions for a test booklet for an elementary mathematics exam.
2. It details rules like not opening the booklet until instructed, entering identification details correctly, and that there are 100 multiple choice questions to be answered in the allotted time.
3. It also specifies that there will be penalties for incorrect answers and that only the answer sheet should be submitted after completing the exam.
Proton Training Solution (PTS) is a trusted Training Institute in Pune for MBA Entrance Exams (CAT | IIFT | XAT | SNAP | NMAT | CMAT | TISS | MH CET | MAT | ATMA and many others), BBA Entrance Exams (IPM-AT | DUJAT | SET | NPAT | BMCC | MIT and many others). Proton is also associated with many institutes as knowledge partner & provides Aptitude Training for Placement Preparation.
https://protons.in/
The document provides instructions for a test. It describes how to fill out identifying information on the answer sheet, how the test is structured with different sections and time limits, how to arrive at answers and mark them on the answer sheet, and what to do after completing the test. It warns that candidates who seek or receive assistance will forfeit admission rights. The test booklet serial number and form number should be filled out on the answer sheet. Rough work should be done in the test booklet, not on the answer sheet.
The document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It includes details like writing the hall ticket number on the answer sheet, checking the question paper for defects, not using electronic devices during the exam, marking answers on the answer sheet, not leaving the exam hall early, and signing documents before and after the exam. Candidates are instructed to return the answer sheet before leaving and keep the question paper afterwards.
This document provides instructions for a test consisting of 120 multiple choice questions divided into parts A, B, and C. It specifies the number of questions to answer in each part and details about scoring and marking. The instructions inform test takers to fill in personal details on the answer sheet and identify the test booklet and subject codes. They are also told not to write anywhere except the answer sheet and rough work pages.
(1) The document provides information about a test being administered by Allen Career Institute in Kota, Rajasthan, India on August 25, 2018 for their Pre-Medical Nurture Course Phase-III.
(2) The test covers topics in Physics, Chemistry, and Biology and is aimed to help students secure good ranks in AIIMS 2020.
(3) The test contains 180 multiple choice questions to be completed in 3 hours, with 1 mark given for each correct answer and 1/3 mark deducted for each incorrect answer.
The document provides instructions for a test booklet for an electrical engineering exam. It instructs test takers not to open the booklet until instructed to do so and to fill in identifying information on the answer sheet and test booklet. It states there are 120 multiple choice questions in the test booklet and test takers should mark their answers on the separate answer sheet. It also describes rules around penalties for incorrect answers.
IIT JEE 2012 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam paper. It details:
1) General instructions for the exam including not using additional materials and filling out answer sheets.
2) The exam format which includes 3 sections - multiple choice, multiple answer multiple choice, and single digit answer questions.
3) The marking scheme which awards points differently based on the question type and correctness of answers.
The document contains instructions for a test with questions in two parts - general studies and mathematics. It provides details about the structure and timing of the test, how to fill the answer sheet, marking instructions, and consequences for incorrect answers. Candidates are advised to carefully read and follow the instructions for their responses to be properly evaluated. The test contains 120 total questions with equal marks across parts 1 and 2.
This document provides information about an academic session and test for a pre-medical nurture course at Career Institute in Kota, Rajasthan, India. The test covers topics in physics, chemistry, and biology and is aimed to help students secure a good rank in AIIMS (All India Institute of Medical Sciences) in 2020. It provides the test date, format, topics covered, instructions, and contact information for two of the institute's centers in Kota and Rajkot, Gujarat.
IIt Jee advanced-2014 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
1. The document provides instructions for a test being administered by FIITJEE Ltd. It details logistical information like the testing location, timing, and materials allowed or prohibited during the exam.
2. Test-takers are instructed to fill in answers on an optical response sheet, bubbling in the appropriate circles corresponding to their responses. They must write their personal details like name and roll number on the response sheet as well.
3. The question paper contains three parts (physics, chemistry, and math) with each part split into two sections. Section 1 contains multiple choice questions where one or more options can be correct, while Section 2 contains single-digit answer questions from 0-9.
This document appears to be an exam booklet for a test being administered by the Tara Institute. It provides instructions for test-takers, including how to fill out identifying information on the answer sheet, how long they have to complete the test, that it contains 200 multiple choice questions, and the scoring procedures. It notes there will be a penalty for wrong answers and advises test-takers not to open the booklet until instructed to do so.
This document provides study material for Class 10 Mathematics, including the syllabus, chapters, sample papers, and marking schemes. It covers topics like number systems, algebra, coordinate geometry, trigonometry, mensuration, and statistics & probability. The document includes chapter-wise content for 15 topics, 5 sample papers each for standard and basic mathematics, and their respective marking schemes. It aims to help students prepare for their Class 10 mathematics exam.
The document provides instructions and information for a 2-hour written examination in mathematics. It includes:
1. Instructions for students to follow such as opening the question paper when instructed and writing their name and registration number.
2. A list of common mathematical formulae that may be helpful in answering questions such as relations, shapes and space, Pythagoras theorem.
3. Ten mathematics questions testing topics like operations, algebra, geometry, trigonometry and statistics. Each question is broken down into parts with multiple steps.
4. Spaces provided for students to show their working and write their answers.
5. Information at the end about who prepared, verified and approved the question paper.
The document provides instructions for correctly filling out an OMR answer sheet for a postgraduate entrance exam. It details that test-takers should:
1) Shade in their registration number and the question booklet details (serial number and version code) in the appropriate circles on the answer sheet.
2) Choose one answer for each multiple choice question and fully darken the corresponding circle on the answer sheet in blue or black ink within the allotted time.
3) Not damage or mark up the timing, marks or other printed areas on the answer sheet.
(Www.entrance exam.net)-snap sample paper 5Ashish Panwar
The document provides instructions for a test being administered. It details the sections, number of questions, total marks, and time allotted for the test. It instructs test takers on how to fill out the answer sheet correctly, including bubbling only one answer per question and using a blue or black pen. It warns that wrong answers will be penalized and any cheating will invalidate the test. It also notes logistical details like returning materials and not leaving the testing area without permission.
Ssc test 02 as per new pattern of ssc cgl 2016Koncept Academy
1) The document appears to be a sample test paper containing questions from various subjects like general intelligence, mathematics, general awareness, and quantitative aptitude.
2) It includes 60 multiple choice questions testing various skills and knowledge areas.
3) The questions cover topics like logical and verbal reasoning, data interpretation, mathematics, science, and Indian and world affairs.
MATHEMATICAL MODELING OF COMPLEX REDUNDANT SYSTEM UNDER HEAD-OF-LINE REPAIREditor IJMTER
Suppose a composite system consisting of two subsystems designated as ‘P’ and
‘Q’ connected in series. Subsystem ‘P’ consists of N non-identical units in series, while the
subsystem ‘Q’ consists of three identical components in parallel redundancy.
This page is very helpful those students they prepare junior engineer exam like.. SSC JEn, PWD, PHED, RSEB, BSNL JTO, TTA, WRD, DMRC, JMRC, RIICO etc .
1. The document provides instructions for a test booklet for an elementary mathematics exam.
2. It details rules like not opening the booklet until instructed, entering identification details correctly, and that there are 100 multiple choice questions to be answered in the allotted time.
3. It also specifies that there will be penalties for incorrect answers and that only the answer sheet should be submitted after completing the exam.
Proton Training Solution (PTS) is a trusted Training Institute in Pune for MBA Entrance Exams (CAT | IIFT | XAT | SNAP | NMAT | CMAT | TISS | MH CET | MAT | ATMA and many others), BBA Entrance Exams (IPM-AT | DUJAT | SET | NPAT | BMCC | MIT and many others). Proton is also associated with many institutes as knowledge partner & provides Aptitude Training for Placement Preparation.
https://protons.in/
The document provides instructions for a test. It describes how to fill out identifying information on the answer sheet, how the test is structured with different sections and time limits, how to arrive at answers and mark them on the answer sheet, and what to do after completing the test. It warns that candidates who seek or receive assistance will forfeit admission rights. The test booklet serial number and form number should be filled out on the answer sheet. Rough work should be done in the test booklet, not on the answer sheet.
The document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It includes details like writing the hall ticket number on the answer sheet, checking the question paper for defects, not using electronic devices during the exam, marking answers on the answer sheet, not leaving the exam hall early, and signing documents before and after the exam. Candidates are instructed to return the answer sheet before leaving and keep the question paper afterwards.
This document provides instructions for a test consisting of 120 multiple choice questions divided into parts A, B, and C. It specifies the number of questions to answer in each part and details about scoring and marking. The instructions inform test takers to fill in personal details on the answer sheet and identify the test booklet and subject codes. They are also told not to write anywhere except the answer sheet and rough work pages.
(1) The document provides information about a test being administered by Allen Career Institute in Kota, Rajasthan, India on August 25, 2018 for their Pre-Medical Nurture Course Phase-III.
(2) The test covers topics in Physics, Chemistry, and Biology and is aimed to help students secure good ranks in AIIMS 2020.
(3) The test contains 180 multiple choice questions to be completed in 3 hours, with 1 mark given for each correct answer and 1/3 mark deducted for each incorrect answer.
The document provides instructions for a test booklet for an electrical engineering exam. It instructs test takers not to open the booklet until instructed to do so and to fill in identifying information on the answer sheet and test booklet. It states there are 120 multiple choice questions in the test booklet and test takers should mark their answers on the separate answer sheet. It also describes rules around penalties for incorrect answers.
IIT JEE 2012 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam paper. It details:
1) General instructions for the exam including not using additional materials and filling out answer sheets.
2) The exam format which includes 3 sections - multiple choice, multiple answer multiple choice, and single digit answer questions.
3) The marking scheme which awards points differently based on the question type and correctness of answers.
The document contains instructions for a test with questions in two parts - general studies and mathematics. It provides details about the structure and timing of the test, how to fill the answer sheet, marking instructions, and consequences for incorrect answers. Candidates are advised to carefully read and follow the instructions for their responses to be properly evaluated. The test contains 120 total questions with equal marks across parts 1 and 2.
This document provides information about an academic session and test for a pre-medical nurture course at Career Institute in Kota, Rajasthan, India. The test covers topics in physics, chemistry, and biology and is aimed to help students secure a good rank in AIIMS (All India Institute of Medical Sciences) in 2020. It provides the test date, format, topics covered, instructions, and contact information for two of the institute's centers in Kota and Rajkot, Gujarat.
IIt Jee advanced-2014 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
1. The document provides instructions for a test being administered by FIITJEE Ltd. It details logistical information like the testing location, timing, and materials allowed or prohibited during the exam.
2. Test-takers are instructed to fill in answers on an optical response sheet, bubbling in the appropriate circles corresponding to their responses. They must write their personal details like name and roll number on the response sheet as well.
3. The question paper contains three parts (physics, chemistry, and math) with each part split into two sections. Section 1 contains multiple choice questions where one or more options can be correct, while Section 2 contains single-digit answer questions from 0-9.
This document appears to be an exam booklet for a test being administered by the Tara Institute. It provides instructions for test-takers, including how to fill out identifying information on the answer sheet, how long they have to complete the test, that it contains 200 multiple choice questions, and the scoring procedures. It notes there will be a penalty for wrong answers and advises test-takers not to open the booklet until instructed to do so.
This document provides study material for Class 10 Mathematics, including the syllabus, chapters, sample papers, and marking schemes. It covers topics like number systems, algebra, coordinate geometry, trigonometry, mensuration, and statistics & probability. The document includes chapter-wise content for 15 topics, 5 sample papers each for standard and basic mathematics, and their respective marking schemes. It aims to help students prepare for their Class 10 mathematics exam.
The document provides instructions and information for a 2-hour written examination in mathematics. It includes:
1. Instructions for students to follow such as opening the question paper when instructed and writing their name and registration number.
2. A list of common mathematical formulae that may be helpful in answering questions such as relations, shapes and space, Pythagoras theorem.
3. Ten mathematics questions testing topics like operations, algebra, geometry, trigonometry and statistics. Each question is broken down into parts with multiple steps.
4. Spaces provided for students to show their working and write their answers.
5. Information at the end about who prepared, verified and approved the question paper.
The document provides instructions for correctly filling out an OMR answer sheet for a postgraduate entrance exam. It details that test-takers should:
1) Shade in their registration number and the question booklet details (serial number and version code) in the appropriate circles on the answer sheet.
2) Choose one answer for each multiple choice question and fully darken the corresponding circle on the answer sheet in blue or black ink within the allotted time.
3) Not damage or mark up the timing, marks or other printed areas on the answer sheet.
(Www.entrance exam.net)-snap sample paper 5Ashish Panwar
The document provides instructions for a test being administered. It details the sections, number of questions, total marks, and time allotted for the test. It instructs test takers on how to fill out the answer sheet correctly, including bubbling only one answer per question and using a blue or black pen. It warns that wrong answers will be penalized and any cheating will invalidate the test. It also notes logistical details like returning materials and not leaving the testing area without permission.
Ssc test 02 as per new pattern of ssc cgl 2016Koncept Academy
1) The document appears to be a sample test paper containing questions from various subjects like general intelligence, mathematics, general awareness, and quantitative aptitude.
2) It includes 60 multiple choice questions testing various skills and knowledge areas.
3) The questions cover topics like logical and verbal reasoning, data interpretation, mathematics, science, and Indian and world affairs.
MATHEMATICAL MODELING OF COMPLEX REDUNDANT SYSTEM UNDER HEAD-OF-LINE REPAIREditor IJMTER
Suppose a composite system consisting of two subsystems designated as ‘P’ and
‘Q’ connected in series. Subsystem ‘P’ consists of N non-identical units in series, while the
subsystem ‘Q’ consists of three identical components in parallel redundancy.
it describes the bony anatomy including the femoral head , acetabulum, labrum . also discusses the capsule , ligaments . muscle that act on the hip joint and the range of motion are outlined. factors affecting hip joint stability and weight transmission through the joint are summarized.
Strategies for Effective Upskilling is a presentation by Chinwendu Peace in a Your Skill Boost Masterclass organisation by the Excellence Foundation for South Sudan on 08th and 09th June 2024 from 1 PM to 3 PM on each day.
This presentation was provided by Steph Pollock of The American Psychological Association’s Journals Program, and Damita Snow, of The American Society of Civil Engineers (ASCE), for the initial session of NISO's 2024 Training Series "DEIA in the Scholarly Landscape." Session One: 'Setting Expectations: a DEIA Primer,' was held June 6, 2024.
How to Build a Module in Odoo 17 Using the Scaffold MethodCeline George
Odoo provides an option for creating a module by using a single line command. By using this command the user can make a whole structure of a module. It is very easy for a beginner to make a module. There is no need to make each file manually. This slide will show how to create a module using the scaffold method.
How to Fix the Import Error in the Odoo 17Celine George
An import error occurs when a program fails to import a module or library, disrupting its execution. In languages like Python, this issue arises when the specified module cannot be found or accessed, hindering the program's functionality. Resolving import errors is crucial for maintaining smooth software operation and uninterrupted development processes.
Walmart Business+ and Spark Good for Nonprofits.pdfTechSoup
"Learn about all the ways Walmart supports nonprofit organizations.
You will hear from Liz Willett, the Head of Nonprofits, and hear about what Walmart is doing to help nonprofits, including Walmart Business and Spark Good. Walmart Business+ is a new offer for nonprofits that offers discounts and also streamlines nonprofits order and expense tracking, saving time and money.
The webinar may also give some examples on how nonprofits can best leverage Walmart Business+.
The event will cover the following::
Walmart Business + (https://business.walmart.com/plus) is a new shopping experience for nonprofits, schools, and local business customers that connects an exclusive online shopping experience to stores. Benefits include free delivery and shipping, a 'Spend Analytics” feature, special discounts, deals and tax-exempt shopping.
Special TechSoup offer for a free 180 days membership, and up to $150 in discounts on eligible orders.
Spark Good (walmart.com/sparkgood) is a charitable platform that enables nonprofits to receive donations directly from customers and associates.
Answers about how you can do more with Walmart!"
A workshop hosted by the South African Journal of Science aimed at postgraduate students and early career researchers with little or no experience in writing and publishing journal articles.
LAND USE LAND COVER AND NDVI OF MIRZAPUR DISTRICT, UPRAHUL
This Dissertation explores the particular circumstances of Mirzapur, a region located in the
core of India. Mirzapur, with its varied terrains and abundant biodiversity, offers an optimal
environment for investigating the changes in vegetation cover dynamics. Our study utilizes
advanced technologies such as GIS (Geographic Information Systems) and Remote sensing to
analyze the transformations that have taken place over the course of a decade.
The complex relationship between human activities and the environment has been the focus
of extensive research and worry. As the global community grapples with swift urbanization,
population expansion, and economic progress, the effects on natural ecosystems are becoming
more evident. A crucial element of this impact is the alteration of vegetation cover, which plays a
significant role in maintaining the ecological equilibrium of our planet.Land serves as the foundation for all human activities and provides the necessary materials for
these activities. As the most crucial natural resource, its utilization by humans results in different
'Land uses,' which are determined by both human activities and the physical characteristics of the
land.
The utilization of land is impacted by human needs and environmental factors. In countries
like India, rapid population growth and the emphasis on extensive resource exploitation can lead
to significant land degradation, adversely affecting the region's land cover.
Therefore, human intervention has significantly influenced land use patterns over many
centuries, evolving its structure over time and space. In the present era, these changes have
accelerated due to factors such as agriculture and urbanization. Information regarding land use and
cover is essential for various planning and management tasks related to the Earth's surface,
providing crucial environmental data for scientific, resource management, policy purposes, and
diverse human activities.
Accurate understanding of land use and cover is imperative for the development planning
of any area. Consequently, a wide range of professionals, including earth system scientists, land
and water managers, and urban planners, are interested in obtaining data on land use and cover
changes, conversion trends, and other related patterns. The spatial dimensions of land use and
cover support policymakers and scientists in making well-informed decisions, as alterations in
these patterns indicate shifts in economic and social conditions. Monitoring such changes with the
help of Advanced technologies like Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems is
crucial for coordinated efforts across different administrative levels. Advanced technologies like
Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems
9
Changes in vegetation cover refer to variations in the distribution, composition, and overall
structure of plant communities across different temporal and spatial scales. These changes can
occur natural.
How to Make a Field Mandatory in Odoo 17Celine George
In Odoo, making a field required can be done through both Python code and XML views. When you set the required attribute to True in Python code, it makes the field required across all views where it's used. Conversely, when you set the required attribute in XML views, it makes the field required only in the context of that particular view.
1. DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THE BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SQ_
RWf GK •1 1 Q
TimeAllouted :2 Hours (For V.H. Candidates :2 hrs. 40 ruin.)
:2
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the
3T<J^?Tf Wt
Maximum Marks :200
Sjfy^m 373T ; 200
questions. This Booklet contains questions in English as wall as in Hindi.
I FR qfikieM 3 WT sffftft <TOT f^ft ^M if
INSTRUCTIONSTO CANDIDATES
1. Ibis liooklet contains200 questions in aU comprising the following
four parts:
Part - A : General Intelligence &• Reasoning (50Questions)
Part - B: General Awareness (50Questions)
I'.-irt-C: Quantitative Aptitude (50Questions)
Part - D : English Comprehension (50 Questions)
2. In questions set bilingually in English and Hindi, incase of discrepancy,
the English version will prevail.
3. All questions are compulsory and carrv equalmarks.
4. Tin' ptiptr carries negatwe marking. 0.25 nuirki u':!l be deducted far ci'dt
it'rnng ansuvr.
5. Before you start to answer the questions you must check up this
Booklet and ensure that it contains all the pages (1-32)and see that no
page is missing or repeated. If you find any defect in this Booklet,
you mustget it replaced immediately.
6. You will be supplied the Answer-Sheet separatelyby the Invigilator.
You mustcomplete and code the details of Name, Roll Number, Ticket
Number andTest Form Number on Side-Iof the Answer-Sheet carefully.
You mustalso put your signature and Lefi-1 land thumb impression on
the Answer-Sheet at the prescribed place before you actually start
answering the questions. These instructions must be fully complied
with, falling which, your Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and you
will Iv awarded 'ZERO' mark. (V.H. candidates will have to ensure
that these details arefilled in by the scribe. However,allV.H. candidates
must put their left-hand thumb impression at the space provided in
the Answer-Sheet. Those V.H. candidates who can sign should also
put their signatures in addition to thumb impression.)
'. Answersmust beshown bycompletely blackeningthecorresponding
ovals_0a-5de-IJ of the Answer-Sheet against the relevant question
number by Black/Blue Ball-Point Pen Only. Answers which arenot
shown by Black/ Blue Ball-Point Pen will not be awarded any mark.
!. A machine will read the coded information in the OMR
Answer-Sheet. In case the information is incomplete or different from
the information given in the application form, suchcandidatewill be
awarded 'ZERO' mark.
9. The Answer-Sheet must be handed over to the Invigilator bet'ore you
leave the Examination Hall.
10. Failure to comply with any of the above Instructions will render a
candidate liablelo such action/ penalty as may be deemed fit.
11. The manner in which the different questions are to be answered has
been explained at the back of this Booklet (Page No. 32), which you
should read carefully before actually answeringthe questions.
12. Answerthe questions as quickly and as carefully as you can. Some
questions may be difficult and others easy Do not spend too much
time on any question.
13. In lieu of Question Nos. 39 to 50 and 144 to 150, relating to figural
portions, alternate questions have been provided to be attempted by
V.H. Candidatesonly.
14. No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet. Space for rough
work hasbeen provided belcw the questions.
15. "Mobile phones and wireless communication devices are
completely banned in the examination halls/rooms.
Candidates are advised not to keep mobile phones/ any other
wireless communication Amices with than even switching it
off, in their own interest. Failing to comply with this
provision will be considered as using unfair means in the
examination and action will be taken against them including
cancellation of their candidature."
1. T3 Hf*d*i if •s^ 200'TO t, ^ "9TT WI Tili'Mtf f :
(50 TO)
(50 TO)
(50 TO
(50 TO)^TT-^ : 3fM ^TfeR
4. gy? q? if i^!'i<^i4i 3rer? gfrg/ s
(1-32) t WXTT ^i T?3 ~$X ItT
f, rft rw/.'
arnrar
7. ^ R - 1 T 1 ) ^^t •3TTC Side-Il
H 73H 'CI
8. il.im.3TR. arR-
iTft' ^' ^ ?fn"? I, ??( armTOT'^:
iSri Tar ftra^ft
1 1 fartt
^n 393 50w 144 3 150 %
CY-2013/Pagel 222 MI
2. «~< -
PART - A
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING
Directions:Inquestion nos.1to6, select therelatedwords/
letters/numbers from the givenalternatives.
1. KMNP: ACDF :: PRSU : ? .
(A) TVWY (B) VXYZ
(Q LNPR (D) STVW
2. Reference material:Dictionary::Periodical: ? .
(A) Atlas (B) Biography
(Q Newspaper (D) Book
3. CDGF:H1LK :: NORQ: _?__.
(A) PQTS (B) STWX
(Q IGNL (D) UVWY
4. BED : GJI:: LON: __? .
(A) PTb (B) QST (Q KNH (D) QTS
5.
6.
Tea:Cup •.: Soup : ?_
(A) Spoon
(Q Mug
82 :06 •: 76 :__? .
(A) 01 (B) 12
(B) Bowl
(D) Glass
(Q 24 (D) 15
Directions:In question nos. 7to 12, find the odd numbers/
letters/figure/ number pair from the given alternatives.
7. (A) PRSQ (B) ABCD
(Q EFGH (D) WXYZ
8. (A) N (B) W (Q (D) I
9. (A) Sorrow
(Q Disgust
(B) Fantasy
(D) Distress
10. (A) 124 (B) 568 (Q 345 (D) 679
11. (A) 11-36
(Q 7-18
(B) 13-42
(D) 9-26
12. (A) ConvergentProduction
(B) Divergent Production
(Q Cognition
(D) Forgetting
13. Arrange the following words as per order in the
dictionary.
(1) Acarpous (2) Across
(3) Accede (4) Academic
(5) Accentuate
(A) (2),(3),(1),(4),(5) (B) (3),(4),(1),(2),(5)
(Q (1).(2),(4),(3),(5) (D) (4),(1),(3),(5),(2)
14. Which one of the given responses would be a
meaningful order of the following ?
(1) substance (2) atom
(3) molecule (4) proton
(A) (1),(2),(3),(4) (B) (2),(3),(4),(1)
(Q (4),(3),(2),(1) (D) (4),(2),(3),(1)
Direction : Inquestion nos. 15to18,aseries isgiven, with
one term missing.Choose the correct alternative from the
given ones that will complete the series.
15. LMN; MNOP,NOPQR, _?_ .
(A) RSTUVW
(Q PQRSTU
16. 121, 222, 424, ? .
(A) 828 (B) 626
17. M E N1 PO _J_ . _
(B) QRSTUV
(D) OPQRST
(Q 524 (D) 646
(A) PA (B) QU (Q QO (D) QI
18. 2,20,56,110, ? .
(A) 144 (B) 182 (Q 115 (D) 132
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
CY-2013/Page2 222 MI 3
4. 19. From the given alternativewords, select the word
which cannot be formed using the letters of the
im'enword:
26.
PRESUMPTION
(A) Pompous
(Q Ruin
(B) Pump
(D) Tier
20. Insert the arithmetic operations in the following
23.
24.
25.
numerical figures:
13*3*4*3 =4
(A) - x +
(Q + + x
(B) + x-f
(D) - x +
21. A train runs for 2 hrs at the speed of 40 km/h. It
runs for 4— hrs at the speed of 60 km/h and then
runs for 3—hrs, at the speed of 70 km/h. Find the
average speed of the train.
(A) 80 km/h (B) 56.87km/h
(Q 57.1 km/h (D) 59.5km/h
79 x - --' - -Z.Z.
9 25
(A) 3 (B) 4 (Q (D)2
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
RECOVERED, which have as many letters between
them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) Four (B) Six
(Q Five (D) Three
In a code language ' TEMPORARY' is written as
'EPRSAYOYM' and 'EXCUSE' as 'PGNVXP'.How
is 'ASSURE' written in that code ?
(A) OXXVYP
(Q OXXYVP
(B) OPPVXP
(D) OPPVYP
IfBEAT = 25-22-26-7andRUST = 9-6-8-7,then
how will you code 'BURST' ?
(A) 25-9-6-8-7 (B) 25-9-8-7-6
(Q 25-6-9-8-7 (D) 25-22-9-8-7
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
A is B's wife's husband's brother. C and D are sistep
of B.How is A related to C ?
(A) Sister-in-law
(Q Sister
(B) Wife
(D) Brother
From the given alternativesselect the word which
can be formed using the lettersgiven in the word.]
RATIONALISATION
(A) ALTERATION (B) TRANSITION
(Q INTERNAL (D) SENSATION
If PRQST is coded as 13245 and OTUWVis coded)
as 05687, then how is TXOQP coded ?
(A) 69021
(Q 95210
(B) 21096
(D) 59021
The age of Ram is double as that of Shyam and half!
as that of Suresh. If the sum of their ages is 70,what!
is the age of Ram ?
(A) 30 (B) 40 (Q 10 (D) 20
After giving a discount of 15% an article is sold atj
? 2550/-, what is its marked price ?
(A) 3000 (B) 2900
(C) 3700 (D) 3200
If + means +, -- means x, x means + and
+ means -, then which of the alternative is
correct ?
(A) 55-2 + 10+ 1x5 =16
(B) 38+ 10-5 + 7x8 =25
(Q 10-12 + 2+ 30x1 =10
(D) 5x8-5 + 5+ 1=12
Directions : In question nos. 32 to 34, select themissing
number from the given responses.
123
32. 3
8
5
(A) 6
13
56
?
(B) 8 (Q 2 P) 4
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
CY-2013/Page4 222 MI 3
6. 33.
34.
35.
36.
3 5
6 7
9 10
? 65
(A) 51
4
30
(B) 52 (Q 49 (D) 50
25 17 41
32 40 11
26 ? 31
(A) 34 (B) 38 (Q 26 (D) 25
One morning after sunrise,Gangadhar was walking
facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to
his right, which direction was he facing >
(A) West (B) North
(Q East (D) South
Ram and Ravi start together from a pointin opposite
direction on scooters. Ram's speed is 21 km/h and
Ravi's speed isl5 km/h. What will he thedistance
between'them after 20 minutes?
(A) 16 km
(Q 45km
(B) 12km
(D) 25km
Directions: Inquestion nos. 37and 38, one statement(s) is
followed by two conclusions/Assumptions, I and II. You
have to consider the slatement(s) to be true, even if they
seem(s) tobe at variance from commonly known facts. You
have to decide which of the given conclusions/assumption,
if any,follow(s) from the given statements(s).
37. Statement: Read this notice before entering into
the stadium.
Assumption: I.
II.
People are literate.
No blind person comes to
thestadium.
(A) Neither I nor II isimplicit
(B) Both I and II are implicit
(Q Only assumption I isimplicit
(D) Only assumption II is implicit
38.
39.
40.
Statement: A car had driven off the road and hita•.
tree. The driver was efficient pnough,; 33.
The road was not good. The drivei
drove the car for last fifteen years. J^
Conclusion: I. The accident occurred due tobad
condition of road.
II. There was a mechanical fault in
the car.
(A) Both the conclusions can be true 34.
(B) None of the conclusionscan be true
(Q Only conclusion I istrue
(D) Only conclusion II is true
Form the correct pattern with the segments given. 35.
Question figure:
Answer figures: 36.
The following diagram represents people who >
speak different languages. f^
(ij Kannada (ii) English sr
(iii) Hindi (iv) Marathi ^
What does theshadedarea respresents1 T
3
(A) People who speak Kannada, English and
Hindi -
(B) People who speak Kannada, English and
Marathi.
(C) People who speak Kannada and English.
(D) Peoplewho speakEnglish and Hindi.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
CY-2013/Page6 222 MI 3
7. dandhil
ifenoug
'he drivi
years.
iue toba
al fault i
•3.
j
3 5 2
6 7 8 ->.
9 10 4
? 65 30
(B) 52
f
25 17 41
32 40 11 ~ ^
26 ? 31 •)
(A) 34 (B) 38
(Q 49 (D) 50
-=>
26 (D) 25
»given. 35.
(A)
(Q
w 3IR§ ^R% ^TeT
fi)
36.
1 1 im 21t^.irt./^ f aftr
-fovRtyrcT |i 20frrz%
(A) 1
(Q 4 (D)
le who 37 3 T 38 T3j=F
t^FT% 37Ft ^t Pinitf/oifHH I afft !I
t/
"RcftcT tf I
and
and
t,
., r ...
37.) ^J8H : HTWT H
iJclf-JMH : I : eTFffcrfiflfl1 1
II :'^ "Ht 3T'm ^Tf^T ^fe^I ^f 3MF I
(A) ^ 3M I 3fR ^ ?t II ^-dPI^d 1 1
$Y~~1c|'ltiH 1 3fk II ^ff ^-rlPif^d 1 1
(Q %^I ^f J.HH I ^-dP^d 1 1
(D) %^cT '-iflilHH II 3H^r4fed 1 1
38.
II. ^TR
n I
i'^
% TITR fft
TiTRT ?TF I
(A)
(B) tl * <)
II Wt 1 1
39. ^f "^ Wf
"7 o
r
(A)
40.
(B)
^NUIM ^ o^r«W*ii'
(D)
; «j)<nd 1 1
(i)
(iii)
(ii)
(iv)
t?
(A)
^
(Q q
,3T^ft 3fR f^t sf
3fR ST^f
3fR ft
Mi 3 CY-2013/Page7 112 MI 3
8. 41. Which one of the following diagrams represents the
correct relationship with theClass teacher, Girlsand
Boys of Std. VIII?
OO
o
CD
(A) (B) (Q (D)
42. There are three intersecting circles representing
English knowingpersons, sportsman and persons
who are workingas policeman. Different regions so
obtained in the figure are marked 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
and 7.
English knowing
person
Sportsman
Policeman
If you select persons, who do not know English and
are not policeman, which of the region is to be
selected ?
(A) 6 (B) 3 (Q 2 (D) 7
43. How many trianglesare there in this figure ?
Question figure:
(A) 14
(Q 10
(B) 16 or more
(D) 12
Directions: In questionnos.44and 45,which answer figure
will complete the pattern in the question figure ?
44. Question figure:
Answer figures:
Z_J
45.
(A) (B)
Question figure:
(Q
Answer figures:
JL
(A) (B) (C)
Direction : In question nos. 46 and 47, from the given
answer figures, select the one in which the question figure
is hidden/embedded.
46. Question figure:
Answer figures:
)
(B) (Q
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
CY-2013/PageS 222 MI 3
9. (a) b)' ^) (v)
A U
- TT P~
(a) (a) (v)
b) (a) (v)
U>PJI|>I^ >p.p
'a
%
(a)
01 b)
(v)
(a) e (a) 9 (v)
MH
Ikk i£ h 9 'S 'f '£ 'Z
(a) b) (a)
O
GD
O 'D
a
£]
11. 40.
41.
42.
FORVISUALLYHANDICAPPEDCANDIDATESQNLY
In the colour scheme, if red stands for blue, blue
stands for green, green stands for white,then what
is the coiou r of the skv ?
(A) Blue
(C) Red
(P) White
(D) Green
Anand ranks13th in a class of 33 (thirty three). There
are five students below Vimala rank wise. How
many students are there between Anand and
Vimala ?
(A) 14 (B) 12 (C) 16 (D) 15
If SUNDAY is coded as TVOYDA, how will you
code ACTIVE?
SUNDAY: TVOYDA then ACTIVE : ?
(A) BDUVEI (B) BDU1VE
(Q BDUEIV (D) BDUVIE
Six persons R X L M A T standing in a circle facing
the centre of the circle. L is between X and M, A is
between M and T. X is between R and L. A is
standing to the left of M and right of T. Who is
standing next to R ?
(A) X (B) L (Q A (D) M
43. If Y= 2,GO = 32, SHE = 49, then SOME = ?
(A) 62 (B) 64 (Q 56 (D) 58
44. Unscramble the following letters to frame a
meaningful word. Then find out the correct
numerical position of the letters.
N R E I N T 1 M D T E A O
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
(A) 21495310861112713
(B) 911 63287512104131
(C) 341 56289711 121013
(D) 1 4257369811101213
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
Ram remembers that his brother Laxman's birthday
falls after 20th of August but before 28th of August;
while Devi lemembers Laxman's birthday falls
before 22nd of August but after 12th of August. On
what date Laxman's birthday falls ?
(A) 22th August
(Q 20th August
(D) 29th August
(D) 21st August
Clock isrelatedto time in the same way as barometer
is related to:
(A) atmosphere
(Q hour
(B) temperature
(D) air pressure
Find the odd number from the following series:
33, 21, 44, 77
(A) 44 (B) 77 (Q 33 (D) 21
Train to Delhi leaves every 6 hours. At the
information counter I iearnt that the train has left
the station 35 minutes before. If the time now is
11.45 am, what is the time for the next train ?
(A) 5.10pm
(Q 4.45pm
(B) 5.45pm
(D) 4.10pm
What will be the anglebetween two hands of aclock
at 8.30 am?
(A) 45° (B) 35° (C) 75° (D) 60°
How many 3's are thei'e in the following sequence
which are neither preceded by 6 norimmediately
followed by 9?
9 3 6 6 3 9 5 9 3 7 8 9 1 6 3 9 6 3 9
(A) Three (B) Four (C) One (D) Two
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
CY-2013/Pagel2 222 Ml 3
12. 39.
t ?
(A)
(Q
(B)
(D)
40.
t ?
(A) 14 (B) 12 (Q
41. SUNDAY < l TVOYDA
ACTIVE"^ %^ ^fe $ fcR
SUNDAY :TVOYDA ^ ACTIVE : ?
(A) BDUVEI (B) BDU1VE
(Q BDUEIV (D) BDUVTE
(D) 15
t fcRiT W[ t eft
42.
(A) X (B) L (Q A (D) M
43. ^Y = 2,GO=32, SHE =49,eftSOME = ?
(A) 62 (B) 64 (Q 56 (D) 58
44.
TC-^TfeT ?TeT ^1^1^,I
N R E I N T . I M D T E A O
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 1213
(A) 21495310861112713
(B) 91163287512104131
(Q 34156289711 121013
(D) 1 4 2 5 7 3 6 9 8 1 1 101213
45.
28
^1
12 % ^^ 3J]cn f I
(A)
(Q
46.
(A) cll^c
(q *fei
47.
48.
33, 21, 44, 77
(A) 44 (B) 77
% fepr lel'lkfl
(A)
(Q
49.
20
22
50.
(B)
(D)
^ t "Wt Tf
(B) flIHMH
(D)
(Q 33
T^HT
35
11.45 »I
(B)
(D)
9 3 6 6 3 9 5 9 3 7 8 9 1 6 3 9 6 3 9
(A) cfH (B) ^TR (Q t3
(D) 21
1 1
(A) 45° (B) 35° (Q 75° (D) 60°
3 t ^1 H ^ A%
I 3 CY-2013/Pagel3 222 Ml 3
13. .
PART - B
GENERAL AWARENESS
51. The Chairman of L1C is:
(A) K. Mehrotra (B) Laxrmn Das
(Q Meira kumar (D) Vinod Rai
52. 'Sun is a constant source of energy'. Whichnuclei
get fused in Sun's atmosphere?
(A) Uranium (B) Plutonium
(Q Hydrogen (D) Helium
53. Statement 1:Quinine is used in the treatment of
Malaria.
Statement 2: It isobtained from the root of Cinchona.
(A) BothStatements 1and 2are correct
(B) Both Statements 1and 2 are incorrect
(Q Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is
incorrect
(D) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is
correct
54. Species is a group of individuals which can :
(A) remain reproductively viable
(B) not inter-breed
(Q successfully live together in a niche
(D) survive even under odd conditions
55. Linnalus is considered as the 'Father ofTaxonomy'
because he:
(A) proposed binomial nomenclature
(B) authored many books on Taxonomy
(Q was the First Person to classify plants
(D) coined the term 'Taxonomy'
56. (i- particles emitted from a radioactivenucleiare:
(A) fast moving neutrons
(B) fast moving electrons
(Q hydrogen nuclei
(D) heliumnuclei
57. Which of the following movement was not led by
Mahatma Gandhi ?
(A) Non-cooperation Movement
(B) Civil Disobedience Movement
(Q Champaran Satyagraha
(D) BardoliSatyagraha
58. IRDP was introduced during the:
(A) Fourth Five Year Plan
(B) Third. Five Year Plan
(Q Sixth Five Year Plan
(D) Fifth Five Year Plan
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
Taj Mahal was designed by :
(A) UstadRahim (B)
(C) Ustadlsa (D)
Ustad Shamsher
Ustad Mansur
The Boston TeaParty was :
(A) a protest against the tea tax
(B) an annual social affair
(Q a celebration of the harvest of tea leaves
(D) a protest against the tea drinkersof Boston
Why were the Congress leaders disappointed with
the Cripps Mission (1942) ?
(A) They wanted full independence rather than
Dominion Status.
(B) The Mission's proposals had not paid attention
to the demands of the Muslim League.
(Q They did not want to share in the responsibility
for the defence of India.
(D) None of the above
Enumerate theVedangas :
(A) Five (B) Eleven
(Q Six (D) Four
The layer present in between xylem and phloem in
DicotStemis:
(A) cambium (B) starch sheath
(Q pith (D) stele
Collective farming is done in the grasslands ofthe:
(A) pampas (B) steppes
(Q velds (D) prairies
If the earth stops rotating, the apparent valueofg on
its surface will:
(A) remain the same everywhere
(B) increase at some places and reinain the same at
other places
(Q increase everywhere
(D) decrease everywhere
Which matters come under the Original Jurisdiction
of the High Court?
(A) Criminal disputes(B) Constitutional disputes
(C) Civil disputes (D) Election disputes
5(
57
58.
CY-2013/Pagel4 222 MI 3 CY
14. at
tes
51. 'HKcfh
52.
(Q
(A)
(LIQ^t
(B)
(D)
tffotr
^ncft t?
(B)
P)
t ?
ffs^ ^'
53. 1:
2 :
f 1 1
3JRI
is
(B) ^«TH 1 sftT
(q ^«rnwt
(D) 3FW 1"H^! t,
54. Fft^I (^ift) "^
(A)
(B)
fI
(D)
55.
(A)
(B)
56.
(A) ^cT 'ifd'MH
(Q ^1441^1 / N ^
57.
58.
1 1
t ^:
n 1 1
1
1
' (f^RTF)
'd (i - ^T t :
'ifdMH
(D)
59.
(A) (B)
60.
%
(B)
(Q
(D) %
61. (1942)
(A)
(B)
(Q
e 7 !
TSiT
62. ^F =FT
(A) "qfe (B)
63. fssfl^l cP! ^f ^? 3fR
(A) T^TI (^pwiii'M)
(Q
64. •Hl'j
(A)
(C)
65. 3RR
"Qcff
(B)
(D)
H "^^Teff ^f
(B)
(D)
(B)
(D)
^
t :
f-
66.
(B)
(D)
CY-2013/Pagel5 222 MI 3
15. 67. Krishi Karman Award for highest growth ir.
foodgrains (wheat, rice and Bengal gram) production
was conferred on 10th February 2014 to the
government of:
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Rajasthan
(Q West Bengal (D) Madhya Pradesh
68. Whencentral bank buys securities, bank reserves:
(A) remains the same
(B) has no impact on the reserves
(Q expands
(D) contracts
69. In ferns the xylem is:
(A) Mesarch (B) Polyarch
(Q Exarch (D) Endarch
70. TheWords of "Secular" and "Socialist" were added
to the Preamble of Indian Constitution by the
amendment.
(A) 46th (B) 24th (Q 42nd (D) 44th
71. Krivoy-Rog has rich resources of:
(A) Copper (B) Manganese
(L] Coal (D) Iron-ore
72. Whichof the following is not an attribute of <font>
element ?
(A) Size (B) Archive
(Q Color (D) Face
73. "Jai Hind" was the slogan given by:
(A) Sublias Chandra Bose
(B) Gopalkrishna Gokha'e
(Q Chandra Shekhar Azad
(D) Lokmanya Tilak
74. In nature, trophic levels are found in :
(A) Ecosystem (B) Tissue system
(Q Rootsystem (D) Shoot system
75. Asolid cannot change its shape easily compared to
liquid because of:
(A) larger intermodular seperation in solid
(B) bigger molecular size of solid
(Q higher density of solid
(D) stronger intermolecular force in solid
76. The UPSC members remainin office:
(A) for a period of six vean, or till they attain 65
yearsof age which ever isearlier
(B) for a period of six vears or till they attain 63
years of age which ever is earlier
;C) for a period of five years or until they attain bO
years which ever is earlier
(D) for a period of four years or attain 65 years of
age which ever is earlier
77. Dr. B. R Ambedkar was conferred "Bharat Ratna"
during the regime of:
(A) BJP (B) JD
(Q UFA (D) NDA
78. The production, marketing, storage and
consumption ofnicotine -based products is banned
in :
(A) Assam (B) Mizoram
(C) Delhi (D) Rajasthan
79. 'War and Peace' was written by:
(A) R.N. Tagore (B) Sarojini Naidu
(Q LeoTolstoy (D) Lenin
80. Acetic acid on decarboxylation gives:
(A) Propane (B) Butane
(Q Methane (D) Ethane
81. Greenland is a :
(A) low plateau
(B) continent totally covered with snow
(Q big ice sheet
(D) high plateau covered with ice
82. Who wrote 'As You Like it' ?
(A) LeoTolstoy
(B) MulkRajAnand
(C) Bernard Shaw
(D) William Shakespeare
83. The Nobel Prize for Arthur Kornberg was given for
his work on:
(A) Cracking triplet code
(B) Isolation of nucleic acids
(Q Mutation theory
(D) One gene one polypeptide hypothesis
84. How many chromosomes p.-iirs are in a human
body ?
(A) 2^ (B) 24 (C) 19 (D) 22
7!
CY-2013/Pagel6 222 Ml 3 C
16. r~
id
ed
67. 10WRT 2014
l) % "
il ("iff,
%
(A) <ffi
(Q
(B) I
68.
(B)
(Q
69.
(A)
(Q
t -.
(B)
Sffi: -
70.
(A) 4 6 " (B) 24
71. shl^N-TFt
(A) ^rra
(C)
Tt
(D)
72.
73.
(A) (Q ^^R (D)
(Q
n for
74.
75.
TtfcFTl
(A)
(Q
(B)
(B)
(A) BR1
(B) ^ra
(q
t i
rar 1 1
?i?n
6.
<VB)
(C)
(D)
"T^RTR T^ f?
^W 7fl 65 ^
'gtl
f ifwn 63 «H[
^tl
^ c^; ^T 60 c^
65 "^ ^t 3TFI, ^
77. %
TT?F1
78.
(A)
(C)
(A)
(Q fcwft
(B)
^ t?
B
(D)
79.
80.
81,
82.
83.
.^. c!7TR (B)
(Q t^PTt dT^HiT<J (D)
T t :
(A) R (B) T (Q
T«fet (IJFfcfe) t :
H^^foR (B)
(Q sf^
(A.)
(Q
(D)
Tit
«n ?
(A)
(B)
(Q
84, "CTR^ ?RF Tt feR "pl^-J Y1!?^ f ?
(A) 23 (B) 24 (Q 19
Ml 3 CY-2013/Pagel7 222 Ml 3
17. 85.
86.
87.
Liquidity preference means:
(A) Showing preference to hold capital assets
(B) Showing preference to hold bonds and
securities
(Q Refraining fromconsumption
(D) Desireof the publicto hold cash
Which of the following plans had actual growth
rate higher than the targetted growthrate?
(A) Seventh Five YearPlan
(B) EighthFiveYearPlan
(Q FourthFive Year Plan
(D) Fifth Five Year Plan
Which among the following isnot correctly paired ?
(A) Butyric acid-Rancid butter
(B) Formic acid - Vinegar
(Q Lacticacid - Milk
(D) Citric acid -Lemon
88. Who was the grandson of Ashoka ?
(A) Dashanan (B) Dasharath
(Q Dasraj (D) Dashku mar
89. China built the Gwadar Port in:
(A) Myanmar (B) Vietnam
(Q- Pakistan (D) Bangladesh
90. One of the followingis the constitutionalpower of
the IndianParliament:
(A) Settling disputes among various departments
(B) Reviewing the work of educationalinstitutions
(Q Supervising the work ofstate legislatures
(D) Amending Indian Constitution as and when
required
91. Tape recorder records sounds in the form of:
(A) Variable resistance (B) Soundwaves
(Q Electrical energy (D) Magnetic energy
92. Enzymes are:
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Biological Catalysts
(Q Fats
(D) None of the above
93.
94.
Probiotic curd (Yogurt) contains health
benefitting good:
(A) antibiotics (B) bacteria
(Q source ofenergy (D) transgenic genes
Private investment isotherwise called as:
(A) induced investment
(B) autonomous investment
(Q foreign institutional investment
(D) foreign direct investment
95. The information in 'EEPROM' is erased by using
96.
97.
98.
(A) Electrical Signals (B) Digital Signals
(Q Electrons (D) UV-rays
The National Campaign for People's Right to
information (NCPRI) has been lobbying for the
passage of the "Whistle blower's Protection Bill",
which is aimed to help :
(A) Woman Activists (B) Street Vendors
(Q RTI Activists (D) None of the above
Which one ofthe followingare recorded first by the
Seismograph ?
(A) L-waves (B) R-waves
(Q P-waves (D) S-waves
The labour which creates value and gets rewarded
for its services is called :
(A) unproductive labour
(B) both skilled and unskilled labour
(Q average labour
(D) productive labour
99. Where did Mangal Pandey revolt ? •
(A) Jhansi (B) Nasik
(Q Meerut (D) Barrackpur
100. Who is the winner ofthe Indira Gandhi Peace Prize
2012 ?
(A) Lydia Davis
(Q ElaBhaH
(B) Christina Legarde
(D) Ellen JohnsonSirleaf
CY-2013/Pagel8 222 MI 3
18. 85. t :
(A)
(Q
(D) ^
fan PerlRsTd 3' Tt
^Pffil ^ff
=Ft
(A)
(D)
87.
to
I the
lill",
love
lythe
«n?
(A)
(C)
(B)
89.
(A) (B)
|irded 90 RiHPdP^d 3 j
I:
(A) fafasi faWTf %
(B)
(Q
(A)
:ePrize ^
de
irleaf
-_ (A
(Q
(B)
93.
"5tcff %?
(Q
94.
(A)
(Q
(D)
95.
(Q
' (EEPROM)
(D)
96.
(A) H^cril
(B)
(D)
97.
t ?
(B)
(Q P-Wf S-Wf
98. ^l ?TR ftftfa
"5TO ^frnfl t
stf %
t?
(A)
(B)
(Q
99.
(A) ^T?
(Q %
100. l iTf«ft W
(A)
(Q
(B)
2012 •JFIM?n ^?R t ?
^(B)
(D) TT
2 MI 3 CY-2013/Pagel9 222 MI 3
19. r
PART - C
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
101. A sum of ? 76 is divided among A, B, C in such a
way that Agets?7morethan that what B getsand
B gets ?6 more than what C gets. 1 he ratio of their
shares is :
(B) 32:24:20
(D) 19:24:33
(A) 32:25:19
(Q 19:25:33
102. The value of
(A) i
cos 47°
(B) 2
sin 71
(Q -1
-8cos260°;
(D) 0
103. If a = 2 + V3, then the value of Ia"
(A) 14 (B) 16 (Q 10 (D) 12
104. The least number which must be added to 1728 to
make it a perfect square is .
(A) 32 (B) 38 (C) 30 (D) 36
105. Youarriveat your school 5 minutes late ifyou walk
with a speed of 4 km/h, but you arrive 10 minutes
before the scheduled time ifyou walk with a speed
of 5 km/h. The distance of your school from your
house (inkm)is:
(A) 5 (B) 10 (Q 2 (D) 4
106. A train crosses a platform in 30 seconds travelling
with a speed of 60km/h. If the length of the train be
200metres,then the length(in metres) of theplatform
is:
(A) 300 (B) 200 (Q 590 (D) 400
107. On whatsum of money will the difference between
S.l and C.Ifor 2 years at 5% per annum be equal to
(3) 9,500
(D) 10,000
(A) 10,500
(Q 9,000
108. The cost of a house is ^ X lakhs in 2005. After
3years, the owner of the house sold it for 25% more
than she paid it. But she has to pay a tax of 50% of
the gain. The tax amount she has to pay is:
(A) X/8 (B) X/4 (Q X/24 (D) X/2
109. If goods be purchased for ?450and one third sold
at a loss of 10%. At what gain percent should the
remainder be sold so as to gain 20%on the whole
transaction ?
(A) 35%* (B) 28% (Q 30% (D) 32%
110. If out of 10 selected students for an examination,
3 were of20years age, 4of 21and 3 of 22years, the
average age ofthegroup is:
(A) 21 years (B) 21.5years
(O 20 years (D) 22 years
111. °- +-- = 1 anda- b + c* 0
b-c a+if _i_I t T —
a b c
then which one of the following relation is true?
I 1 1
b a c(A) =
a b c
1 1 1
(Q r = ~ +-b a c
(B)
(D)
1 = I + 1
c a b
112. If the side of a square is reduced by 50%, its area
will be reduced by:
(A) 80% (B) 60°^. (Q 50% (D) 75%
113. A tank 40m long, 30m broad and 12m deepis dug
in a field 1000 m long and 30 m wide. Byhow much
will the level of the field rise if the earth dug out of
the tank isevenly spread over the field ?
(A) 1.2 m (B) 0.5m
(Q 5m (D) 2m
114. The angle subtended bv a chord at its centre is 60°,
then the ratio between chord and radius is:
(A) 1 :1 (B) 72 :1
(Q 2:1 (D) 1:2
115. A shopkeeper marks his goods 40%above the cost
price. He allows a discount of 5%for cash payment
to his customers. He receives ?1064 after paying
the discount. His profit is:
(A) ?164 (B) "200
(Q ?800 (D)
[104
105
106.
107.
108.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
CY-2013/Page20 222 MI 3 CY-
20. b C
rlie
lie
101. A, B, C 3
?7 ?6
>n,
the 102.
(Q 19:25:33
sin 43° cos 19°
cos 47°
(A) 1
sin 71°
(B) 2
(B) 32:24:20
(D) 19:24:33
(Q -i -
103.
X * ^ ~( • "ia = 2 + V3 <?t U2 4- —
I a^
(B) 16 (Q 10
% ieHT 1728 •
(D) 12
(A) 32 (B) 38 (Q 30
105.
area
|75%
;dug
JKiuch
tut of
5 frlZ ^ft ^ ^pl^ t;
TTftl ^ ^7^ f eft 3TN f^-lfftfl
1 1
(B) 10 (Q 2
10 f^Hc
(D) 4
106.
b c
t f
is60°
^ 30^^ "^i J^<d11 1 "^ t^PTTft ^t cRT^ 200"cfte(
I^tj^ici^i4 ^t CRT^ Cnkr ^t) ferft t ?
j(Af300 (B) 200 (Q 500 (D) 400
107. 2 ^ %fcnj.5%
Ihe cost
Jiyment
paying
108. 2005 ^' ? X ^T® «ft I 3
3Tf4?TTM <£! 50% ^ ^TT 1 1
(A) 10,500
(Q 9,000
(A) X/8 (B) X/4 (Q X/24 (D) X/2
109.
t?
no.
f?t I fl16! TTWR ^T
20%
35% (B) 28% (Q 30% (D) 32%
3W51 20
%^<ft
(A) 21
"fir* 10
, 4W7T 21^ aflfJT 3^22^
3TT5 ^p
(B) 21.
(D) 2
n
? r
^
_c, b-c a+c a-b ._*
111. "qft- - + - - + - - = l3fRa-b+(
a b c
1 1 1
(A) rb+ c
^ ^4%
i i-1b a c
1 1 1
(D) -+ -
c a b
112.
(A) 80% (B) 60% (Q 50%
113. 1000 fft. ^ 3fR 30"tft. ^tt ^H ^f T33? 40*ft.
. TT?T1 c^T 11^1^Ml 1 1 ^
t eft ~
(A) 1.2
(Q 5 'ft
(B) 0.
2tft.
••i-
V-i'
114.
115.
(B) ^2:1 (Q 2:1 (D) 1 :2
40%
1064
1 1 "3$
(A) ?164
(Q ?800
3T1 ?
(B) ?200
(D) ?2o4
2 Ml 3 CY-2013/Page21 222 Ml 3
21. 116. [f * - 7 = 1 then the value of
3.x- + 5x - 3
(A)
3
(B) (Q
is:
1
4
'117. The term to be added to 121a2 + 64b2 to make a
perfect square is:
(A) 276 a2b (B) 178ab
(Q 188 b2a (D) 176ab
118. Anand marks up the price of an article by 50%and
then allows a discount of 20% and sells it to Balaji.
Balaji sells it for ? 20 more than what he purchased
for, this S.P is 30%more than the original C.P of the
article. Then Balaji's profit % is :
(A) 6.66% (B) 8.33%
(Q 9% (D) 7.5%
119. IfAFGH is isosceles and FG < 3cm, GH = 8cm, then
of the following, the true relationis:
(A) GF= GH (B) FH>GH
(Q GH<GF (D) GH = FH
120. A can do a piece of work in 6 days, Bin 10days and
C in 15 days. They jointly complete the work and
earn ?300. The sum of their wages for 2 days is :
(A) ?200 (B) ?160
(D) nso
121. For what value (s) of K the expression
p H— V~P + K is a perfect square ?
4
J_
I
(A) ± - (B) ± - (Q ± - (D)
122. In a triangle, if orthocentre, circumcentre, incentre
and centroid coincide,then the trianglemust be:
(A) isosceles (B) equilateral
(Q right-angled (D) obtuse angled
123. If the opposite sides of a quadrilateral and also its
diagonals are equal, then each of the angle of the
quadrilateral is:
(A) 120° (B) 100° (C) 60C (D) 90°
124. If ABC is an equilateral triangle and P, Q, R
• respectively denote the middlepoints of AB, BC, CA
then:
(A) PQ+ QR + PR =AB
(B) PQ + QR + PR = 2AB
(Q PQR must be a rightangled triangle
P) PQRmust bean equilateral triangle
125. The numericalvalue of
1
1 +
cot2 63°
2 270 + _A__ -
*. ^oo
sin 6J
(A) 2 (B) (Q 0 P)
3 1
126. If .v = V3 f VI then thevalue ofx ' ~ is:
(A) 14V2~
(Q 8 VI
(B) 22 V2
(D) 10 V2
127. If a, b, c, d, e are five consecutive odd numbers, their
average is:
abcde
(A)
(Q a +4
(B) 5(a + b + c+ d +e)
(D) 5 (a + 4)
cos 9 cos 0
128. If x = — then r -is equal to :
1 - sin 6 1 + sin 0
(B)
1
(Q
x+1
(D) x-1
129. If x +y =15then (x -10)3 + (i/ - 5)3 is:
(A) 125 (B) 625 (Q 0 (D) 25
130. Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
2_ 3_ _8_ 11_
3' 5 ' 11' 17
3
(A) (B) (Q
8
P 77
131. The minimum numbers ofcommon tangents drawn
to two circles when both the circletouches externally
is :
(A) 2 (B) 3 (Q 0 (D) 1
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
CY-2013/Page22 222 MI 3
22. l '
*9
116.
(A)
^ = 1<JL.
.t -•
m ?
5x -3
(Q <
1_
4
'117. "<$ opf «Rp} % %r 121a2 + 64b2 33
(A) 276 a2b (B) 178 ab
(Q 188b2a v_^rf76 ab
118.
20%
(A) 6.66%
(Q 9%
119.
% "^T ^t 50%e!
£ ^IT t 3fU '3$ sllertMl
t eTFm 3?20srm^F 3^RTT 1 1
~3n TTFTeT ^ffael ^ 30% 3rf«W
% ^RT t ?
(B) 8.33%
p) 7.5%
|3fkFG< 3cm,GH = 8cm eft
PHHfdRsid ^]
(A) GF = GH
(Q GH<GF
120. A
C 15
(B) FH>GH
FH
, B 10 t^T "R 3%
300
f I
f I 2 t
= 200
(Q ?120
(B) ?160 f
P) ?180 ^ =
, ^ . V r- 1 , 1
121. K *faTeH"RH * MTj; p + - J p + K"
4 V h
rft?
(A) ± 7 (B) ± I (G) ± i
122.
(A)
(Q (D)
123.
^ft ?I, eft
(A) 120° (B) 100° (Q 60=
124. "qft ABC "Q^ Trrnplnj ^^jsj f sjfR P, Q,
BC, CA% "R^ fsR^Tt' ^it ^T^ t 'eft
(A) PQ +QR + PR=AB
(B) PQ + QR+ P
(Q PQR^n^W
P) PQR^^m^
:AB,
_ I
125.
1
cot- 63°
^T y'isMlcH* "RH
(A) 2 (B)
-cosec227°
sin2 63
-1 P) 1
126. .r = V3
(A) 14 72
(Q 8V2
+ l
(B) 22 42
P) 10 v^
127.
'' ^ abcde
17 (A) —
(Q a +4
128. A- =
(B) 5(a
P) 5 (a+4)
cos 6
+e)
1 - sin6 ' 14-sin
FPTT
(A) -
(Q
(B)
1
P) x-1 C-or ' W - t f -
129. 7-fl^ A- +1/ = 15 eft(x- -10)? + (v- 5)3'
(A) 125 (B) 625 (Q 0 (D) 25
130. f-IHPcrlRsld ^H"'
2 3 8 11 '
!>' 5 ' 11' 17
3 11
(A) - (B) -
R-'tft t ?
o
~
(Q -
131
^^SJtf ~
^Tet if, "HFiFl
'te^l^ P*d-fl eMt?
CY-2013/Page23 222 Ml 3
23. 132. If 15% of x is same as 20% of y then x : y is :
(A) 5:4 (B) 6:5 (Q 3 :4 (D) 4 : 3
133. For a triangle ABC,D and E are two points on AB
and ACsuch that AD = - AB, AE - - AC If
4 4
BC = 12cmthenDEis:
(A) 4cm (B) 3cm (Q 6cm (D) 5cm
134. A man saves ? 25 on the purchase of an article on
which a discount of 20% is allowed. How much
did the man pay ?
(A) ?150 (B) ^100
(Q ?125 (D) ?75
135. If tan 6 + cot 6 = 2then the valueof 6 is:
(A) 60° (B) 90° (Q 30° (D) 45°
136. Area of the floor of a cubical room is 48 sq.m. The
length of the longest rod that can be kept in that
room is:
(A) 12m
(Q 6m '
(B) 18m
(D) 9m
TTX
137. If sin•— =x - 2X + 2,then the value ofx is :
(A) 0
(Q -
(B) 1
(D) none of these
138. What is the product of the roots of the equation
(A) V3'
(Q -V3 (D) +73
139. A and B together can complete ajob in 8 days. Both
B and C, working alone can finish the same job in
12 days. A and Bcommence work on the job, and
works for 4 days, whereupon A leaves. B continues
for 2 more days, and then leaves too. C now starts
working, and finishes the job. How many days did
C require ?
(A) 8 (B) 3 (Q 4 (D) 5
140. Two triangles ABC and PQR are congruent. If the
area of AABC is 60 sq. cm, then area of APQR wi"
be:
(A) 30sq.cm (B) ISsq.cm
(C) 120sq.cm (D) 60sq.cm
141. InAABC, ^ B =90°and AB: BC = 2:1. The value of
sin A+ cot C is:
(Q
(B) 2+Y5
(D) 3 + /5
142. If cos irx = -r2 -- x + -,the value of x will be:
(A) 0
(Q -1
(B) 1
(D) None of the above
143. Acistern normally takes 10hours to be filled by a
tap. But because of aleak, it takes 2hours more. In
how many hours will the leak empty a full cistern?
(A) 48 (B) 30 (Q 60 (D) 45
The graph shows the result of 10th class students of a
school for 4 years. Study the graph and answer
Q.No. 144 to 147.
144. The ratioof students scored second class to thetotal
student appeared in the year 2000 is:
(A) 4 :17 (B) 5 :16 (Q 11 :16 (D) 3:16
145. The number of students appeared for the 10th class
exam in the year 2002 is:
(A) 195 (B) 200 (Q 120 (D) 180
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
CY-2013/Page24 222 MI 3
24. 132.
133.
t cit x :y ^P
(A) 5:4 (B) 6:5 (Q 3:4 (D) 4 : 3
tfo A D = TAB, AE= i ACtl ^BC =
4 4
•^ DE fccffl ^TT ?
(A) 4om (B) 3cm (Q 6cm p) 5cm
20%
^ t, ? 25
^'IcIM ch<'1l "
(A) ?150
(Q ?125
U 1 1
(B) ?100
(D) ?75
135.
136.
(A) 60° (B) 90° (Q 30°
48'
45°
tl 3
(Tfe)
137.
(Q
(A) 0
(Q -
(B)
P)
(B) 1
(D)
7.
liss
Iss
n
•HHl=b<'J| yc - V3 = 0 %"^^T^y^H^RI f^nRl frTT ?
(A) &i (B) _V3i
(Q -V3 (D) +V3
139. A B
C 12
total
13:16
class
180 :
A
f i 3R C
(A) 8 (B) 3 (Q 4 (D) 5
140. ^ ftf^ ABC 3fR PQRUM^M f | ^ AABC
^PF^ 60sq.cmt, ^t APQR^t ^PF
(A) 30sq.cnn (B) ISsq.cm
(Q 120 sq. cm p) 60sq.cm
141. . ^B=90°3^AB:BC=2:l,sinA4cotC
(A)
(Q 3V
142.
(A) 0
(Q -
(B) 2 + vl
5
4
(B) 1
(D)
143. tl.
(A) 48 (B) 30 60 (D) 45
(A) 4:17 (Q 11:16 P) 3:16
145.
(B) 200 (Q 120 P) 180
|CY-20l3/page25
Mil
jr
I 4 222 Ml 3
25. U6. The year inwhich the rr,;; imumnumber of students
appeared for the 10th c'ass exam is:
(A) 2002 (B) 2003 (Q 2000 (D) 2001
147. The percentage increaseoffirst class in the year2003
over the year 2002 is approximately:
(A) 0% (B) 10% (Q 9% (D) 12%
Study the diagram and answer Q. No. 148to 150.
r
inntuu
'••0
on
OU
7(1fj
60
soJU
40
30
20
10
_
;
-
J
) t
r &
a
•1
2.
"
s
•
i E
•Family
'/.4
'•
M Food
H Clothing
H .Education
0 Fuel
B House rent
H Miscellaneous
148. What fraction of the total expenditure is spent on
Education in family A ?
(A) 9/13 (B) 1/5 (Q 13/20 (D) 2/3
149. If the total annual expenditure of family A is
? 30,000 then money spent on food, clothes and
houserent is:
(A) ? 21,000
(Q ? 18,500
(B) ? 15,000
(D) ? 18,000
150. If the total annual expenditure of family B is
? 10,000 then money spent on clothes during the
year is:
(A) ?6000
(Q
(B) ?1500
FOR VISUALLY HANDICAPPED
CANDIDATES ONLY
144. On what sum of money will the simple interest for
3 years at 8% per annum be half of the compound
interest on ?400 for 2years at 10%per annum ?
(A) ?195 (B) ^205
(Q ?165 (D) ^175
145. Find the odd out of the following set of numbers
15,20,27,32,39,40:
(A) 27 (B) 39 (Q 15 (D) 40
146. The average weight of 150 workers is 60 kg. The
average weightof men is80kg and that of the ladies
is 50 kg. The number of ladies is :
(A) 78 (B) 100 (Q 50 (D) 70
147. If .v = 2, i/ = 4, p = 8, q = 10, find the value of
2y
V *yP +
p- y
(A) 32 (B) 24 (Q 30 (D) 26
148. In a right angled triangle, with sides a and b and
hypotenuse c ifthe altitudeon the hypotenuse is x,
then:
(A)
(Q
1
(D) <=
1
149. The selling price of 12 articles is equal to the cost
price of 15 articles. The gain percent is:
(A) 25% (B) 80%
( Q 6 % (D) 20%
150. In 45litreof phenol-water the ratio ofphenoltowater
is 2:23. The amount ofwater that shouldbeadded
to it to make the ratio3 :37:
(A) 5 litre
(Q 4litre
(B) 2 litre
3 litre
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
CY-2013/Page26 222 MI 3
27. PART-D
ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
Directions :In question No. 151 to 155, some partsofthe
sentences haveerrorsand some are correct. Findoutwhich
part of a sentence has an error and blacken the
oval [•]correspondingtotheappropriate letter (A.B,C).
If a ser.tence is free from error, blacken the oval
corresponding to (D) in the Answer Sheet.
151. Part of the research program/
(A)
involved interviewingteenagers/"
in inner-city areas/ No error.
(Q (D)
152. The young man /was surprised /
(A) (B)
perhaps a shade scandalized/ Noerror.
U53) Much harassed / heleft hostel /
(A) (B)
bag and baggage / NoError.
(C) (D)
154. I could not put up at a hotel/
(A)
because the board and lodgingcharges/
(B)
.weretooexpensive / Noerror.
(Q (D)
155. Every boyand every girl/ were given /
(A) ,(B)_
a packetof sweets / Noerror.
(C) (D)
Directions : In question No. 156to 160, sentences given
with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s).
Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose
the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by
blackening the appropriateoval [• ] in theAnswer Sheet.
156. The principal has given his
match,
(B) except
(D) refuse
to the
(Q ascent
157. She heard the. of the hinges.
(Q rustling
158. The sound effects
director.
(B) rattling
(D) crashing
by the recording
(A) provided v_£B)^are provided
(Q being provide (D) been provided
159. The
(A) band
of cotton is very heavy.
(B) bald
(D) bale
160. The hunter killed two for dinner.
(A) fool (B) flour
(Q fowl (D) foul
Directions :In question No. 161 to 163 out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the
meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer
Sheet.
161. Cantankerous:
disrespectful (B) noisy
(Q quarrelsome (D) rash
162. Vocation :
(Q seminar
(B) examination'
,.(D) "occupation
C-2013/Page28 222 MI 3
28. •en'
by
the
163. Honest:
(A) actual
(Q upright
*^S) authentic
P direct
Directions : In question No. 164to 166, choose the word
opposite in meaningto the given word and mark it in the
Answer Sheet.
164. MISERABLE:
(A) laudable
HM happy
165. FRUGALITY:
^__[A)--egptivity
(Q prodigality
166. HUMANE:
(A) man
(Q living being
(B) solitary
(D) active
(B) gaiety
(D) enmity
(D) person
Directions : In question No. 167to 171, fouralternatives
are given for the Idiome underlined in the sentence.
Chnose the alternative which best expresses the meaning
of the ldiomeand mark it in the Answer Sheet.
167. Tocut one short.
__(A)-^fo interrupt one (B) to love one
(Q to insult one (D) to criticise one
, four 168, He is a cut above all the other boys in the group.
,s the
tfwer ^JA^rather superiorto
(B) quitetaller than
(Q more active than
(D) a littlerougher than
169. As soon as the police arrived, the bank robbers
showed the white flag.
(A) were incensed
surrendered
(B) calmly left the scene
(D) ran away
170. If you read between the lines, you will appreciate
what he writes.
(A) can read and write in the language
(B) can read leaving lines in between —
(Q can read a lotquicker
v_^E>)"k'now what the writer thinks —
»
171. To throwdust in one's eyes.
(A) to make blind (B) to harm someone
__4Q-fcf3eceive (D) to show false things
Directions :In question No. 172to181, a sentence/ a part
of the sentenceis underlined. Below are given alternatives
to the underlined part at (A), (B),(C)which may improve
the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case
no improvementisneeded your answer is(D).Markyour
answer in the Answer Sheet.
172. We did not see this movieyet.
(A) never seen «—(B)-~"nave not seen
(Q never have seen (D) No improvement
173. This telephone number is notexisting.
(A) has not existed (B) has not beenexisting
oes not exist (D) Noimprovement
174. Rajesh's ability to use the local language surprised
-gs- me.
(A) knowing of (B) confidence with
•v^iG^larniliarity with (D) No improvement
175. We have to know that we canachieve thingsslowly
and gradually, not overnight.
(A) would know that (B) had to know that
(Q must know that j^DJ^No improvement
176. During his long discourse, he did not touch the
central idea of the topic.
(A) touch v_(B)-^touch on
'
touch upon (D) Noimpiovement
CY-2013/Page29 222 Ml 3
29. 177. Unless they modify the system, our future
generations will suffer.
(A) Unless the system is modified
(B) Unless the system will be modified
(Q If the system will not be modified
v_(I^No improvement
178. The sight of the lizard is hateful to me.
(A) repulsion (B) repulsive
,_(Q^fepuise (D) No improvement
179. I usually did not take sugar in my tea.
_^A)^3o not take (B) do not takes
(C) have not taken (D) No improvement
180. Would it be impertinent to ask why you are
leaving ?
(A) if asking why you are leave
(B) for asking why you are leave
(C) to asking why you are leave
, (D) "No improvement
181. The student's interest was raised by an article he
had read.
(A) quickened (B) multiplied
(D) No improvement
Directions : In question No. 182 to 188, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for
the given words/sentences and indicate it by blackening
the appropriateoval [f& ] in the Answer Sheet.
182. Astrong dislike:
(A) malice (B) reciprocity
(Q entreaty _JP)"animosity
183. Take great pleasure:
,»
overhaul (B) revel
(Q satisfied (D) uphold
184. The Mahabharaia is a long poem based on a noble
theme:
^ *
_j(A)^epic (B) summary
(Q story (D) narration
185. A frog lives both on land as well as in water :
(A) ambidexterous (B) animate
-^'"amphibian (D) aquatic
186. Person who files a suit :
(Q suitor
(B) charger
(D) plaintiff
187. The practise of having many wives:
(A) polyandry (B) bigamy
(Q calligraphy
188. A person who abstains completely from alcoholic
drinks:
(A) incriminatory
(C) derelict (D) subjunctive
Directions : In question No. 189and 190, four words are
given in each question, out of which only one word is
correctly spelt.Find the correctly spelt word and mark your
answer in the Answer Sheet.
189. (A) missionnary (B) misionerry
(D) misionary
(B) propellar
(D) propeller
190. (A) propelre
(Q propeler
CY-2013/Page30 222 MI 3
30. Directions :Inquestion No.191 to 200, you havetwobrief
passages with 5 questions following each passage. Read
the passages carefully and choose llu best answer toeach
question out of the four alternatives and mark it by
blackening the appropriate oval [ • ] in theAnswerSheet.
Passage - 1 [Question No. 191to 195]
The reports published by a Delhi based
non-governmental organization working 'ior the
elimination ofchildjabetir in Indiasuggest that thereis no
endlrTsighTto the sordidsaga of child labour. The studies
conducted reveaHhe nigKtrnarish ordeals that a vast
majority ofchildren undergo tor getting the basic necessities
of life. One of the activists narrated the heart-rending and
shocking storiesof many hapless children.He accused the
society ofinsensitivity towards this vulnerable section.
It issaid thatmorethan five percent ofthe total Indian
population are child workers. Tensof thousands are chiefly
engaged in agriculture in rural areas and in a varietyof
industries inurban areas.Children as young asseven years
of age spend days stitching footballs, boxing and cricket
gloves for export. Many children
oholic
childhood making carpets with their dexterous hands.
Unofficial figures suggest that as many as 40to 100million
children work in hazardous industries like^gTasswa're,
fireworks, quarries etc.Many of them have been forced to
work in unhygienicconditionsoften on a casualbasis.
191. Their childhood is spent in _
(A) urban (B) vast
conditions.
X
192. The word heart-rending means _ .
^-(Afpainful (B) risky
(Q distressing (D) shocking
193. of children work in hazardous
hrds are
i is
cvour
conditions.
(A) Thousands
-Millions
(B) Many
(D) Five percent
194. The society is accused of _
problem ofchild labour.
(A) bias (B) reports
(Q vulnerability
towards the
195. The report was published by
(A) an activist.
-^^-"aDelhibased non-governmental organization.
(Q the Delhi government.
(D) a governmental organization.
ifCY-ZOlS/PageSl
Passage - II [Question No. 196to 200]
The advent c,.r electric power was, in a way,
comparable tothe successful development and application
of nuclear power in the 20th century. In fact, thehistorical
roots of electricity extend far back intoantiquity. Many
men had a hand'both in acquring basicTnowledgeabout
the invisible form of power and in developing the ways
adopted for practicalpurpose. One of the vital keys that
helped to unlocFthe"doors leading to the production of
electricity was the discovery, in 1831, of the principle of
electro-magnetic induction. This discovery was made
simultahebusiy"by MichaelFaradayjn England and J_os_epjL,
Henry in the United States. From it came the generator,
sometimes also called the dynamo but several decades of
development had to follow before the first practical
dynamos or generator came intoexistance in early 1870.
196. Another word for "advent" is .
(A) constitution (B) discovery
(Q arrival _(D)-invention
197. Micheal Faraday and Joseph Henry discovered
:iple of electro-magnetic induction
(B) the application of nuclear power
(Q 'thegenerator
(D) the dynamo
198. The generator was also known as the :
(A) conductor (B) inductor
(D) inventor
199. Give a synonym for "antiquity".
(A) Uniqueness ^j^—
(Q Antipathy (D) Modern
200. According to the author.
advent of electric power is equivalent to
the application of nuclear power in the
20th century.
(B) Micheal Faraday and Joseph Henry
revolutionized elecricity in the USA.
(Q Nuclearpower and electricitywerediscovered
in the 20th century.
(D) The discovery of the principle of electro-
magnetic induction was not an important
discovery.
- o 0 o-
222 Ml