The document is a sample question paper for an undergraduate general ability test. It consists of 100 multiple choice questions across 6 sub-tests assessing quantitative ability, communication ability, English comprehension, analytical ability, business domain knowledge, and thematic apperception. The questions provide 4 answer options with only one correct answer to select for each question. Sample questions are provided on topics ranging from mathematics to passages for comprehension.
The document discusses key concepts related to customer satisfaction and service. It defines customers as those who use, purchase, or influence a product or service. There are internal and external customers. Customer satisfaction is achieved when a company's offer matches customer needs. Key drivers of customer satisfaction are performance, features, service, warranty, price, and reputation. Poor service is the primary reason customers leave, followed by better prices and product dissatisfaction.
Amy's Ice Cream has a strong company culture focused on employee empowerment and expression. They aim to create a laid back and cheerful atmosphere for both employees and customers. Amy's values individualism and allows employees to interact with customers in a way that suits their own personalities. They seek outgoing, creative employees who can project their personalities to customers in an entertaining way. Amy's selection process identifies bright, innovative, and energetic employees who are good performers and can freely express themselves while being sensitive to customer needs.
The document discusses the role of IT in customer relationship management (CRM). It states that IT should be a trusted partner to the business, helping to align IT strategies with business objectives and define requirements for IT-enabled projects. The traditional view of CRM involving people, processes, data, and technology is transformed by focusing on the business view and IT service management view. Key aspects of CRM discussed include the purpose of nurturing long-term customer relationships, common CRM technologies and their features, and considerations for selecting a CRM solution like business goals and information needs.
The document is a study on customer satisfaction with Kohinoor Mechanical Electrical and Engineering Works. It includes the company profile, objectives of the study, scope, limitations, research methodology used which was a descriptive research design with a sample size of 60 respondents. The data collection method involved a structured questionnaire and face-to-face interviews. Key findings were that 65% of customers agreed products were reasonably priced, 63% said quality was high, and 70% were very satisfied with products. Suggestions included focusing on price and quality, improving packaging information, and introducing new products. The conclusion was that customers rely on quality and price, and Kohinoor has achieved customer satisfaction.
Talent Acquisition Challenges: Recruitment Trends and Issues Facing Today’s L...Cielo
As the world faces unprecedented demographic, economic and competitive challenges, recruitment and retention remains a top concern. Recognizing the critical role talent acquisition plays, leading organizations are maintaining focus on attracting and retaining talented people. Finding, hiring, and retaining the right people remains a challenge through all economic climates and are presenting new and even paradoxical challenges.
GE invests heavily in leadership development to support its global operations and growth. It maintains the Crotonville leadership center to train managers and drive the company culture. Crotonville provides leadership training, strategic discussions, and cultural initiatives to develop managers and ensure they uphold GE's values of integrity, excellence, and customer focus. GE's leadership development evolution spans decades and aims to align training with its growth strategy while maintaining high ethical standards.
This presentation discusses employee branding and its integration with HR marketing. Employee branding refers to employees internalizing the desired brand image and projecting it to customers. The objectives of employee branding are to empower employees, improve loyalty and reputation, and increase motivation. This can be achieved through selective hiring, targeted training, clear communication of goals, and compensation systems that reflect the brand. Growing employer brands is important to attract and retain employees, leading to business gains. Successful employer branding requires core brand definition, senior management involvement, alignment with strategy, and ongoing measurement. The presentation provides examples of industry practices in employee branding.
The document discusses key concepts related to customer satisfaction and service. It defines customers as those who use, purchase, or influence a product or service. There are internal and external customers. Customer satisfaction is achieved when a company's offer matches customer needs. Key drivers of customer satisfaction are performance, features, service, warranty, price, and reputation. Poor service is the primary reason customers leave, followed by better prices and product dissatisfaction.
Amy's Ice Cream has a strong company culture focused on employee empowerment and expression. They aim to create a laid back and cheerful atmosphere for both employees and customers. Amy's values individualism and allows employees to interact with customers in a way that suits their own personalities. They seek outgoing, creative employees who can project their personalities to customers in an entertaining way. Amy's selection process identifies bright, innovative, and energetic employees who are good performers and can freely express themselves while being sensitive to customer needs.
The document discusses the role of IT in customer relationship management (CRM). It states that IT should be a trusted partner to the business, helping to align IT strategies with business objectives and define requirements for IT-enabled projects. The traditional view of CRM involving people, processes, data, and technology is transformed by focusing on the business view and IT service management view. Key aspects of CRM discussed include the purpose of nurturing long-term customer relationships, common CRM technologies and their features, and considerations for selecting a CRM solution like business goals and information needs.
The document is a study on customer satisfaction with Kohinoor Mechanical Electrical and Engineering Works. It includes the company profile, objectives of the study, scope, limitations, research methodology used which was a descriptive research design with a sample size of 60 respondents. The data collection method involved a structured questionnaire and face-to-face interviews. Key findings were that 65% of customers agreed products were reasonably priced, 63% said quality was high, and 70% were very satisfied with products. Suggestions included focusing on price and quality, improving packaging information, and introducing new products. The conclusion was that customers rely on quality and price, and Kohinoor has achieved customer satisfaction.
Talent Acquisition Challenges: Recruitment Trends and Issues Facing Today’s L...Cielo
As the world faces unprecedented demographic, economic and competitive challenges, recruitment and retention remains a top concern. Recognizing the critical role talent acquisition plays, leading organizations are maintaining focus on attracting and retaining talented people. Finding, hiring, and retaining the right people remains a challenge through all economic climates and are presenting new and even paradoxical challenges.
GE invests heavily in leadership development to support its global operations and growth. It maintains the Crotonville leadership center to train managers and drive the company culture. Crotonville provides leadership training, strategic discussions, and cultural initiatives to develop managers and ensure they uphold GE's values of integrity, excellence, and customer focus. GE's leadership development evolution spans decades and aims to align training with its growth strategy while maintaining high ethical standards.
This presentation discusses employee branding and its integration with HR marketing. Employee branding refers to employees internalizing the desired brand image and projecting it to customers. The objectives of employee branding are to empower employees, improve loyalty and reputation, and increase motivation. This can be achieved through selective hiring, targeted training, clear communication of goals, and compensation systems that reflect the brand. Growing employer brands is important to attract and retain employees, leading to business gains. Successful employer branding requires core brand definition, senior management involvement, alignment with strategy, and ongoing measurement. The presentation provides examples of industry practices in employee branding.
Delivering an exceptional customer experience (CX) through personalized omni-channel communications has never been more important to drive revenue, build customer loyalty, and sustain a competitive advantage ,deliver critical business communications that are highly personalized and interactive —and drive profitable customer engagement. Super brands like Amazon, Google and Apple have skyrocketed customer expectations. Customers of today prefer relevant and personalized communications in real-time, through the channel of their choosing.
For More Details: http://www.edc.ae/services/customer-communication-management/
This document discusses customer handling and its importance for businesses. Customer handling involves understanding customer needs, fulfilling their requirements through regular interaction and excellent service. It aims to establish long-term, one-to-one relationships with customers rather than just expanding the customer base. This helps with customer retention, loyalty, repeated business and better price negotiations. The key to good customer handling is delivering excellent basic service while also building strong relationships and creating competitive differentiation to provide excellent customer experiences and achieve business goals.
Mkt - achieving service recovery and obtaining customer feedbackTahsin Noor
1) Service recovery occurs when an organization addresses a customer problem following a service failure to regain trust.
2) Common causes of service failures include human, organizational, and customer factors.
3) Effective service recovery through complaint resolution can increase customer loyalty and advocacy. Gathering customer feedback is important for continuous service improvement.
This is a good presentation on Customer Delight.. Customer delight is next & advanced step to customer satisfaction & produces WOW reaction. This presentation would help you to find about elements, procedure and other factors affecting customer delight. Mail me your suggestions at a380onkar@yahoo.co.in
This document discusses ING Direct Canada, a bank that launched in 1997 as part of the ING Group. It offered savings accounts with high interest rates and low fees. While successful in attracting customers, ING Direct faced challenges from increasing mail volumes and variability in processing. Alternatives like outsourcing or increasing staff were evaluated but found lacking. The document recommends automating the scanning and encoding of cheques using optical character recognition software to improve efficiency long-term without increasing costs. It estimates the software would pay for itself within 5 years compared to continuing manual processing.
TQM, or Total Quality Management, is a management approach that seeks to improve quality and performance through continuous improvement. It focuses on incorporating quality principles throughout all business processes. The objectives of TQM are to work smart by doing things right the first time and changing how work is done permanently. A TQM training course covers defining and understanding TQM principles, techniques like process improvement and benchmarking, and implementing a TQM strategy to achieve benefits like improved quality, employee satisfaction, and organizational performance.
The document discusses talent acquisition strategies and best practices. It defines talent acquisition as finding and acquiring skilled human labor to meet organizational needs. The talent acquisition team is responsible for finding, assessing, and hiring candidates to fill roles. Key aspects of an effective talent acquisition model include quality of hires, turnaround time, and maximizing the number of hires. Quality can be ensured through validating qualifications, conducting reference and social media checks. Turnaround time involves defining timelines for each step from job posting to offer. Maximizing numbers involves setting targets for submissions, hires per recruiter and prioritizing requirements.
Ramco Cement Limited is the 5th largest cement producer in India with a total production capacity of 16.5 MPTA across 9 plants.
Ramco implemented a business intelligence system to collect operational and transactional data across plants and from customers/dealers. This helped identify inefficiencies, improve forecasting and dealer performance, and increase profits.
Critical success factors for Ramco's BI system included identifying issues across business areas, providing dynamic solutions, visualizing goals/KPIs, standardizing processes, and increasing accessibility of real-time data.
To further enhance marketing analytics, Ramco can integrate sales and advertising data by region, target high-potential areas, measure billboard effectiveness, and
Visual Management is a lean communication tool to help keep focus on priority initiatives in the workplace as well as keeping your thumb on the pulse of daily operations. I will take you through the evolution of one areas visibility management system and how this has now spread through all divisions of our Pathology and Laboratory Medicine Department to become standard work. You will take away ideas and inspiration to incorporate this communication system in your workplace. Success comes from ensuring the loop of communication goes full circle from leadership to front line and back to leadership for full understanding.
The 70:20:10 framework is a learning and development model that explains the relationship between experiential, social, and formal types of learning. According to research by the Center for Creative Leadership, 70% of learning comes from job experiences, 20% comes from relationships, and 10% comes from formal training. The model emphasizes that effective professional development comes from learning, not just training. It encourages organizations to provide experiences like new responsibilities, involvement in projects and decisions, and mentorship relationships to facilitate on-the-job learning.
New Approach to Customer Experience Management CX Pilots
There are ways to lower risk, cost and speed of effectiveness in raising the Customer Experience bar in your organization. This is a focus on developing quick wins to get better #custexp outcomes in shorter time frames.
This document discusses employee retention in organizations. It notes that 81% of organizations see turnover as negatively impacting effectiveness. Employee retention refers to policies that encourage employees to stay longer. Reasons for low retention include low job satisfaction from issues like poor performance reviews, lack of recognition, and unrealistic expectations. Reducing turnover requires efforts from HR, team leaders, and the organization to promote job fit, work-life balance, appreciation, and compensation. High retention brings benefits like experience and trade secret protection, while low retention risks losing skills and a domino effect on morale.
Repeat customers are vital in any business.Customer retention is extremely crucial.This presentation shares with us the positive impact of service recovery
This presentation entitled towards delivering information regarding the various sources & impact of attrition in BPO sector also provided with suggestions
Alignment of Learning and Development activities to become value addding deeds that influence the corporate bottomline and act as enablers for achieving organisational goals thereby operating as strategic business partner.
Motorola Solutions is a global company with a strong history of quality and innovation. It has primary R&D centers in 6 countries, manufacturing facilities in 3 countries, and employees, sales, and partners located in over 65, 100, and 20,000 countries respectively. The company has a longstanding commitment to quality management through initiatives like Six Sigma which has saved the company $17 billion since 1986. Motorola was an early adopter of quality management systems and continues its dedication to quality through processes that ensure commitments are met and continual improvement.
Case Study of a Pizza Restaurant using House of Quality or Quality Function D...Deepanshu Saini
This case study describes how a pizza restaurant used Quality Function Deployment (QFD) and the DMAIC (Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control) methodology to address issues it was facing. In the Define step, customer requirements were identified through surveys and discussions. In Measure, customers rated importance and restaurant performance on requirements. Analysis in the House of Quality prioritized solutions. Improve implemented solutions in priority order, like changing suppliers or upgrading facilities. Control involved periodic feedback and analysis to monitor impacts and hold gains.
The document contains a quality management test with 12 multiple choice questions. The test covers topics such as the number of records required by ISO9001, who first thought of zero defects, root cause analysis, ISO9001 requirements, the first stage of quality improvement initiatives, who coined the phrase "important few and trivial many", key results measures in quality management models, preventive action techniques, process capability calculations, chart interpretations, attributes of total quality management, and the purpose of process diagnosis.
The document discusses competency-based management and its components. It defines competency as any knowledge, skill, personality characteristic or behavior that distinguishes superior performers. Competency-based management identifies an organization's distinctive competencies through analysis of top performers. It then designs training to teach these competencies. The document provides examples of competency training programs and discusses how competency-based management can benefit employees and organizations.
The document discusses talent acquisition and recruitment. It defines talent acquisition as a strategic process of attracting and developing the right people with the right skills. Talent acquisition focuses on long-term strategies and developing a talent pipeline, while recruitment focuses on filling open positions. An effective talent acquisition strategy involves conducting workforce planning, building an employer brand, sourcing and recruiting candidates both internally and externally, using recruiting technology, developing onboarding programs, and utilizing data analytics.
This document provides a sample question paper for an undergraduate program in fashion technology's general ability test. The test contains 100 multiple choice questions across 6 sub-tests: quantitative ability, communication ability, English comprehension, analytical ability, general science/physics/chemistry, and thematic apperception. Each question carries 1 mark. Students must mark their answers on an answer sheet using a ball pen. Sample questions ranging from math to English are provided to demonstrate the format and difficulty.
The document appears to be a sample test for admission to the Academy of Fashion & Design. It consists of 100 multiple choice questions across several subjects testing quantitative ability, communication ability, English comprehension, analytical ability, and business domain knowledge. The test is 2 hours long and each question carries 1 mark. Students are instructed to mark their answers on a separate answer sheet using a ballpoint pen by darkening the appropriate circle for the best alternative answer choice. The document then provides 15 sample questions from the quantitative ability section of the test covering topics like ages, mixtures, discounts, ratios, speed, interest rates, profits/losses, and word problems.
Delivering an exceptional customer experience (CX) through personalized omni-channel communications has never been more important to drive revenue, build customer loyalty, and sustain a competitive advantage ,deliver critical business communications that are highly personalized and interactive —and drive profitable customer engagement. Super brands like Amazon, Google and Apple have skyrocketed customer expectations. Customers of today prefer relevant and personalized communications in real-time, through the channel of their choosing.
For More Details: http://www.edc.ae/services/customer-communication-management/
This document discusses customer handling and its importance for businesses. Customer handling involves understanding customer needs, fulfilling their requirements through regular interaction and excellent service. It aims to establish long-term, one-to-one relationships with customers rather than just expanding the customer base. This helps with customer retention, loyalty, repeated business and better price negotiations. The key to good customer handling is delivering excellent basic service while also building strong relationships and creating competitive differentiation to provide excellent customer experiences and achieve business goals.
Mkt - achieving service recovery and obtaining customer feedbackTahsin Noor
1) Service recovery occurs when an organization addresses a customer problem following a service failure to regain trust.
2) Common causes of service failures include human, organizational, and customer factors.
3) Effective service recovery through complaint resolution can increase customer loyalty and advocacy. Gathering customer feedback is important for continuous service improvement.
This is a good presentation on Customer Delight.. Customer delight is next & advanced step to customer satisfaction & produces WOW reaction. This presentation would help you to find about elements, procedure and other factors affecting customer delight. Mail me your suggestions at a380onkar@yahoo.co.in
This document discusses ING Direct Canada, a bank that launched in 1997 as part of the ING Group. It offered savings accounts with high interest rates and low fees. While successful in attracting customers, ING Direct faced challenges from increasing mail volumes and variability in processing. Alternatives like outsourcing or increasing staff were evaluated but found lacking. The document recommends automating the scanning and encoding of cheques using optical character recognition software to improve efficiency long-term without increasing costs. It estimates the software would pay for itself within 5 years compared to continuing manual processing.
TQM, or Total Quality Management, is a management approach that seeks to improve quality and performance through continuous improvement. It focuses on incorporating quality principles throughout all business processes. The objectives of TQM are to work smart by doing things right the first time and changing how work is done permanently. A TQM training course covers defining and understanding TQM principles, techniques like process improvement and benchmarking, and implementing a TQM strategy to achieve benefits like improved quality, employee satisfaction, and organizational performance.
The document discusses talent acquisition strategies and best practices. It defines talent acquisition as finding and acquiring skilled human labor to meet organizational needs. The talent acquisition team is responsible for finding, assessing, and hiring candidates to fill roles. Key aspects of an effective talent acquisition model include quality of hires, turnaround time, and maximizing the number of hires. Quality can be ensured through validating qualifications, conducting reference and social media checks. Turnaround time involves defining timelines for each step from job posting to offer. Maximizing numbers involves setting targets for submissions, hires per recruiter and prioritizing requirements.
Ramco Cement Limited is the 5th largest cement producer in India with a total production capacity of 16.5 MPTA across 9 plants.
Ramco implemented a business intelligence system to collect operational and transactional data across plants and from customers/dealers. This helped identify inefficiencies, improve forecasting and dealer performance, and increase profits.
Critical success factors for Ramco's BI system included identifying issues across business areas, providing dynamic solutions, visualizing goals/KPIs, standardizing processes, and increasing accessibility of real-time data.
To further enhance marketing analytics, Ramco can integrate sales and advertising data by region, target high-potential areas, measure billboard effectiveness, and
Visual Management is a lean communication tool to help keep focus on priority initiatives in the workplace as well as keeping your thumb on the pulse of daily operations. I will take you through the evolution of one areas visibility management system and how this has now spread through all divisions of our Pathology and Laboratory Medicine Department to become standard work. You will take away ideas and inspiration to incorporate this communication system in your workplace. Success comes from ensuring the loop of communication goes full circle from leadership to front line and back to leadership for full understanding.
The 70:20:10 framework is a learning and development model that explains the relationship between experiential, social, and formal types of learning. According to research by the Center for Creative Leadership, 70% of learning comes from job experiences, 20% comes from relationships, and 10% comes from formal training. The model emphasizes that effective professional development comes from learning, not just training. It encourages organizations to provide experiences like new responsibilities, involvement in projects and decisions, and mentorship relationships to facilitate on-the-job learning.
New Approach to Customer Experience Management CX Pilots
There are ways to lower risk, cost and speed of effectiveness in raising the Customer Experience bar in your organization. This is a focus on developing quick wins to get better #custexp outcomes in shorter time frames.
This document discusses employee retention in organizations. It notes that 81% of organizations see turnover as negatively impacting effectiveness. Employee retention refers to policies that encourage employees to stay longer. Reasons for low retention include low job satisfaction from issues like poor performance reviews, lack of recognition, and unrealistic expectations. Reducing turnover requires efforts from HR, team leaders, and the organization to promote job fit, work-life balance, appreciation, and compensation. High retention brings benefits like experience and trade secret protection, while low retention risks losing skills and a domino effect on morale.
Repeat customers are vital in any business.Customer retention is extremely crucial.This presentation shares with us the positive impact of service recovery
This presentation entitled towards delivering information regarding the various sources & impact of attrition in BPO sector also provided with suggestions
Alignment of Learning and Development activities to become value addding deeds that influence the corporate bottomline and act as enablers for achieving organisational goals thereby operating as strategic business partner.
Motorola Solutions is a global company with a strong history of quality and innovation. It has primary R&D centers in 6 countries, manufacturing facilities in 3 countries, and employees, sales, and partners located in over 65, 100, and 20,000 countries respectively. The company has a longstanding commitment to quality management through initiatives like Six Sigma which has saved the company $17 billion since 1986. Motorola was an early adopter of quality management systems and continues its dedication to quality through processes that ensure commitments are met and continual improvement.
Case Study of a Pizza Restaurant using House of Quality or Quality Function D...Deepanshu Saini
This case study describes how a pizza restaurant used Quality Function Deployment (QFD) and the DMAIC (Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control) methodology to address issues it was facing. In the Define step, customer requirements were identified through surveys and discussions. In Measure, customers rated importance and restaurant performance on requirements. Analysis in the House of Quality prioritized solutions. Improve implemented solutions in priority order, like changing suppliers or upgrading facilities. Control involved periodic feedback and analysis to monitor impacts and hold gains.
The document contains a quality management test with 12 multiple choice questions. The test covers topics such as the number of records required by ISO9001, who first thought of zero defects, root cause analysis, ISO9001 requirements, the first stage of quality improvement initiatives, who coined the phrase "important few and trivial many", key results measures in quality management models, preventive action techniques, process capability calculations, chart interpretations, attributes of total quality management, and the purpose of process diagnosis.
The document discusses competency-based management and its components. It defines competency as any knowledge, skill, personality characteristic or behavior that distinguishes superior performers. Competency-based management identifies an organization's distinctive competencies through analysis of top performers. It then designs training to teach these competencies. The document provides examples of competency training programs and discusses how competency-based management can benefit employees and organizations.
The document discusses talent acquisition and recruitment. It defines talent acquisition as a strategic process of attracting and developing the right people with the right skills. Talent acquisition focuses on long-term strategies and developing a talent pipeline, while recruitment focuses on filling open positions. An effective talent acquisition strategy involves conducting workforce planning, building an employer brand, sourcing and recruiting candidates both internally and externally, using recruiting technology, developing onboarding programs, and utilizing data analytics.
This document provides a sample question paper for an undergraduate program in fashion technology's general ability test. The test contains 100 multiple choice questions across 6 sub-tests: quantitative ability, communication ability, English comprehension, analytical ability, general science/physics/chemistry, and thematic apperception. Each question carries 1 mark. Students must mark their answers on an answer sheet using a ball pen. Sample questions ranging from math to English are provided to demonstrate the format and difficulty.
The document appears to be a sample test for admission to the Academy of Fashion & Design. It consists of 100 multiple choice questions across several subjects testing quantitative ability, communication ability, English comprehension, analytical ability, and business domain knowledge. The test is 2 hours long and each question carries 1 mark. Students are instructed to mark their answers on a separate answer sheet using a ballpoint pen by darkening the appropriate circle for the best alternative answer choice. The document then provides 15 sample questions from the quantitative ability section of the test covering topics like ages, mixtures, discounts, ratios, speed, interest rates, profits/losses, and word problems.
The document provides information about a general ability test for undergraduate design programs at the Academy of Fashion & Design. It consists of 100 multiple choice questions across 5 sub-tests, including quantitative ability, communication ability, English comprehension, analytical ability, and business domain test. The test will take 2 hours to complete and each question carries 1 mark. Students must mark their answers on the provided OMR answer sheet using a ballpoint pen.
A sample of the general ability test of the ug course in design at nift. Solutions to this nift question paper can be sent to AFD by email for corrections & feedback by AFD tutors. All AFD tutors are NID, NIFT & M.Des graduates from IITs
The document provides information about the Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) syllabus and sample questions. It outlines the following:
1. The exam will have 100 questions worth 3 marks each. One mark will be deducted for incorrect answers. The exam duration is 2 hours.
2. Questions will assess General Awareness, English Verbal Ability, Numerical Ability, and Reasoning and Military Aptitude.
3. Sample questions include passages to be comprehended, error detection, word meanings, analogies, and spatial reasoning puzzles. The document provides examples of different question types that may appear on the AFCAT.
RRB Conducts NTPC exam to recruit Commercial apprentice, Goods guard, Traffic Apprentice, Traffic Assistant, Assistant Station Master for all over India.
Exam and results provide the previous year question papers and regarding RRB NTCP exam and gives the detail upadates on it.
The document provides information about the Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT), including the scheme of syllabus and examples of questions. It states that the AFCAT paper will contain 100 questions across topics like general awareness, English comprehension and vocabulary, numerical ability, and reasoning and military aptitude. Five sample questions are provided for each topic, testing comprehension, problem-solving, and spatial reasoning abilities. The syllabus and question examples provide insight into the scope and format of the AFCAT exam.
The document provides information about the Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT), including the scheme of syllabus and examples of questions. It states that the AFCAT paper will contain 100 questions across topics like general awareness, English comprehension and vocabulary, numerical ability, and reasoning and military aptitude. Five sample questions are provided for each topic, testing comprehension, problem solving, and spatial reasoning abilities. The syllabus and sample questions are intended to inform candidates about the format and content assessed on the AFCAT.
The document provides information about the Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT), including the scheme of syllabus and examples of questions. It states that the AFCAT paper will contain 100 questions across topics like general awareness, English comprehension and vocabulary, numerical ability, and reasoning and military aptitude. Five sample questions are provided for each topic, testing comprehension, problem-solving, and logical reasoning skills. The syllabus and question examples provide insight into the breadth of topics and cognitive skills assessed on the AFCAT.
This document contains a sample exam for a Railway Recruitment Board in Mumbai for the position of Ticket Collector (TC). The exam contains multiple choice questions testing grammar, antonyms, synonyms, fill in the blanks, math, and general knowledge. Topics include grammar, vocabulary, arithmetic, data interpretation, and Indian history, sports, politics and geography.
The document provides details about a Railway Recruitment Board exam held on 5-11-2006 for the position of Ticket Collector (TC). It includes 5 questions to identify grammatical errors in sentences, 10 questions to find antonyms, 15 questions to find synonyms, and 20 fill-in-the-blank questions testing various grammatical concepts. It also provides additional details on visiting ExamandResults.com and downloading their mobile app for more previous year exam questions.
Mia Mia is a real time local search engine that enables people to search for a search provider anywhere with ease and convenience. Mia Mia is one of the best listing website for MBA Classes in Mumbai. We are also known for our systematic listing of various IPCC, Science coaching for CBSE, Engineering and other courses in Mumbai. QLI is a class where each student is our priority. Top MBA Institutes in Mumbai for CAT, XAT, NMAT and IIFT are listed on MiaMia.For details - visit: http://miamia.co.in/
This document provides instructions for a 2-hour exam with 100 questions worth 3 marks each. One mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The exam paper must be returned before leaving. It then provides a passage to read and 5 multiple choice questions about the passage. The rest of the exam contains questions testing vocabulary, reading comprehension, quantitative reasoning, and general knowledge.
This document appears to be an exam booklet for a test being administered by the Tara Institute. It provides instructions for test-takers, including how to fill out identifying information on the answer sheet, how long they have to complete the test, that it contains 200 multiple choice questions, and the scoring procedures. It notes there will be a penalty for wrong answers and advises test-takers not to open the booklet until instructed to do so.
The document provides instructions for a 2-hour exam with 100 questions worth 3 marks each. It includes a passage discussing the precarious state of humanity poised on the "razor's edge of destiny" in the atomic age. It then lists 59 multiple choice questions testing comprehension of the passage and assessing various subjects like history, science, and math. The questions follow a format of selecting the best answer from options A through D.
Indian army model test paper for soldier examEdudad632
The document is a model test paper for the Indian Army Common Entrance Exam consisting of 4 parts - General Knowledge, General Science, Mathematics, and Reasoning & General Intelligence. It provides instructions for candidates taking the exam such as the duration, number of questions, and information about disqualification. The questions cover topics testing knowledge of countries, rivers, science concepts, mathematical operations and word problems.
The document describes a mock CAT (Common Admission Test) exam with the following details:
- The test has 165 multiple choice questions divided into 3 sections with 55 questions each.
- The total time for the test is 120 minutes.
- Sections cover Quantitative Techniques, Data Interpretation & Reasoning, and English & Reading Comprehension.
- Correct answers receive 1 mark while incorrect answers receive a negative 1/4 mark deduction.
(1) The document provides a sample question paper for a postgraduate technology general ability test consisting of 120 multiple choice questions across 6 sub-tests covering quantitative ability, communication ability, English comprehension, analytical ability, general knowledge, and thematic apperception.
(2) Each question carries 1 mark and answers must be marked on an answer sheet using a ballpoint pen to darken the appropriate circle for the best alternative among the 4 options given.
(3) Sample questions 1-30 provide examples of the types of quantitative, verbal, logical and technical questions that will be asked in the exam.
Similar to Nift sample question paper ug general ability test (20)
The document provides information about AFD India, a company that assists with admission to design schools. It lists their phone number and website for contacting an expert to receive help with the admission process. It also states that AFD India serves as a gateway to global design schools.
This document provides instructions for a 100 question exam divided into 3 sections (A, B, C). Section A contains 20 numerical answer questions with negative marking for incorrect answers. Section B contains 30 multiple selection questions where all correct answers must be selected to receive credit, with no partial credit. Section C contains 50 multiple choice questions with negative marking for incorrect answers. Calculators and electronics are prohibited, and scratch paper is provided.
This document provides information about the Undergraduate Common Entrance Examination for Design (UCEED) 2015 organized by IIT Bombay. It details the eligibility criteria for appearing in UCEED 2015, schedule of the exam, cities where it will be held, reservation policies, admission procedure to the B.Des program at IIT Bombay and important dates. The document also contains annexures with formats for various certificates required for registration and admission.
A newspaper advertisement promotes calling an expert at the number +91 89712 96752 for advice on admissions to design schools. The ad directs visitors to the website www.afdindia.com for more information from the company afdindia, which serves as a gateway to global design schools.
SOFT Pune Managerial Ability Test 3 helps you to manage the exam in a better way and give you an idea about the expected features and elements of the test.
This document contains a 25 question GAT (Graduate Aptitude Test) with questions in the areas of logical reasoning, math, English, and general knowledge. The test includes questions that require identifying relationships between words and concepts, finding odd ones out, completing word patterns and series, solving math word problems, and determining analogies.
The SOFT Pune General Ability Test 2 paper will give you an idea about the question patterns. It will help you to become more confident to face the actual exam. The more you revise; it will be easier for you to crack your exam.
The SOFT Pune General Ability Test 1 paper will let you know which topic to give more importance. It will help you to understand the format of the question paper which will be very similar to actual question paper.
The SOFT Pune Creative Ability Test 3 Previous year question paper helps you to manage the exam in a better way and give them you an idea about the expected features and elements of the test.
This document contains a creative ability test for admission to a design school. It consists of multiple choice and short answer questions testing knowledge of fashion design, as well as prompts for drawing various objects, garments, and views. It addresses topics like appropriate uses for different prints, combining superhero powers, drawing cars and shoes, traditional vs contemporary Indian wear, designers and their work, motifs, logos, and developing original designs using Indian influences. The test is intended to evaluate applicants' creative and problem-solving abilities through visual art challenges.
The document advertises for a design school admission expert that can be called at +91 89712 96752. It directs the reader to visit the website www.afdindia.com for more information. The website, afdindia, is described as a gateway to global design schools.
The Pearl Academy UG design aptitude test will help you to get the information about the questions and the latest pattern that how questions are being framed.
The Pearl Academy sample design aptitude test will give you an idea about the question patterns. It will help you to become more confident to face the actual exam. The more you revise; it will be easier for you to crack your exam
This document provides information on Pearl Academy, including its schools and campuses. Pearl Academy has four schools - Fashion, Styling & Textiles; Design; Communication, Media & Film; and Creative Business. It has four campuses located in Delhi, Noida, Jaipur and Mumbai that provide infrastructure and facilities to support the courses. The document outlines the various undergraduate, postgraduate and professional diploma courses offered across the different schools and campuses. Life at Pearl Academy involves industry workshops, competitions, exhibitions and other activities to provide students with practical experience and exposure to the industries.
Nift sample question paper ug general ability test
1. Page 1
UGDG
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
UNDERGRADUATE(DESIGN)
GENERALABILITYTEST—PAPER-I
Time Allowed : 2 Hours Max. Marks : 100
Total Questions : 100
This test comprises the following sub-tests.
(1) Quantitative Ability
(2) Communication Ability
(3) English Comprehension
(4) Analytical Ability
(5) Business Domain Test
(6) Thematic Apperception Test
(i) Each question carries one mark.
(ii) Answers are required to be marked only on the OMR/ICR Answer-Sheet, which shall be provided separately.
(iii) For each question, four alternative answers have been provided out of which only one is correct. Darken the
appropriate circle in the Answer-Sheet by using Ball Pen only on the best alternative amongst (a), (b), (c) or (d).
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
1. On dividing a number by 3, 4 and 7 the remainders are 2, 1 and 4 respectively. If the same number is divided by 84
the remainder is
(a) 53 (b) 60 (c) 76 (d) 80
2. The area of a square inscribed in a semicircle is to the area of the square inscribed in the entire circle as
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 3 : 4 (d) 2 : 5
3. For
x2
+ 2x + 5 to be a factor of x4
+ px2
+ q
the values of p and q must be, respectively
(a) 5, 25 (b) 6, 25 (c) --2, 5 (d) 14, 25
4. The least value of
ax2
+ bx + c, (a > 0) is
(a) b2
-- 4a (b) -- (c) (4ac -- b2
)/4a (d) --
5. Gold is 19 times as heavy as water and copper is 9 times as heavy as water. In what ratio should they be mixed to
get an alloy 15 times as heavy as water.
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 3 : 4 (d) 1 : 2
6. In the sequence of numbers
5, 8, 13, x, 34, 55, 89, .....
the value of x is
(a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 23 (d) 29
7. A can type a letter in 6 minutes while B in 4 minutes. The average time taken to type a letter is
(a) 4.2 mins (b) 4.6 mins (c) 4.8 mins (d) 5 mins
b
2a
b
a
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UGDG
8. Two cars start from one point and more along two roads, at right angles to each other. Their speed are 36 kmph and
48 kmph respectively. After 15 secs. the distance between them is
(a) 180 m (b) 200 m (c) 250 m (d) 300 m
9. The perimeter of a regular octagon inscribed in a circle of radius 12 is
(a) 96 (b) 192 (√2 -- 1) (c) 96 (√2 + 1) (d) 96 √2 -- √2
10. The probability that a leap year selected at random will contain 53 sundays is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11. The rational number, which is equal to 2.357
with recurring decimal is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
12. Two trains travel in the same direction at 50 and 32 kmph respectively. A man in the slower train observes that
15 seconds elapse before the faster train completely passes him. The length of the faster train is
(a) 75 metres (b) 100 metres
(c) 150 metres (d) 341.66 metres
13. The rate of interest for 3 successive years is 3, 4 and 6% per annum. In 3 years at compound interest Rs. 1000 will
amount to
(a) Rs. 1124.86 (b) Rs. 1135.47 (c) Rs. 1157.62 (d) Rs. 1191.01
14. A circular cylinder can hold 61.6 cc. of water. If the height of the cylinder is 40 cms and the outer diameter is
16 mms the thickness of the material of the cylinder is
(a) 0.2 mm (b) 0.3 mm (c) 1 mm (d) 2 mms
15.
Assuming that the total marks obtained for the examination is 540, the above chart gives the marks scored by a
student. The marks scored in English, Science and Social Science, exceed the marks scored in Hindi and Mathematics
by
(a) 10% (b) 11% (c) 10 % (d) 11 %
Direction (Q. Nos. 16-20) : Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate words:
16. His friends expected that he would get______with a fine.
(a) away (b) out (c) off (d) on
2355
1001
2375
9991
2355
1997
2355
997
2
7
3
7
2
9
1
7
1
9
1
9
650
550700
800
900
SocialScience
Hindi English
Science Mathematics
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3. Page 3
UGDG
17. His son carried______his business in his absence.
(a) in (b) away (c) on (d) out
18. The police will look______the matter.
(a) into (b) for (c) at (d) in
19. The Principal called______an explanation of his conduct.
(a) into (b) for (c) out (d) at
20. How did you come______this lucrative job.
(a) by (b) at (c) into (d) on
Direction (Q. Nos. 21-25) : Each of the following sentences has been divided into four parts — a, b, c and d. One of
them has an error. Choose the one with the error.
21. Since time immemorial / man has been tyring / to solve the riddle of / what happens after death.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
22. His verbal statement / made to the police / that he was present at the site of accident / is not credible.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
23. Hardly had I reached the station / than the guard / blew the whistle / and the train left.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
24. The plan prepared by Ram / is preferable / than the one / prepared by Shyam.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
25. Though / he is a popular leader / but he is not honest / in his actions.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Direction (Q. Nos. 26-30) : Each of the following words in capitals is followed by four choices. Choose the one nearest
to it in meaning.
26. ADVERSE
(a) corrupt (b) unfavourable (c) indecent (d) cruel
27. DYNAMIC
(a) lusty (b) explosive (c) satisfactory (d) energetic
28. INDELIBLE
(a) unreasonable (b) not removable (c) distressful (d) unforgetable
29. SEDENTARY
(a) poor (b) routine (c) sitting (d) touring
30. EXTROVERT
(a) a sociable person (b) a talker (c) a trickster (d) selfish
Direction (Q. Nos. 31-35) : Each of the following words in capitals is followed by four choices. Choose the one
opposite in meaning to it.
31. EARTHLY
(a) sky (b) mundane (c) celestial (d) distant
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UGDG
32. ABHOR
(a) timid (b) approve (c) dislike (d) diffuse
33. CENSURE
(a) critical (b) expand (c) refined (d) commend
34. BARBAROUS
(a) humble (b) mild (c) civilised (d) graceful
35. ACQUIT
(a) leave (b) hate (c) condemn (d) dislike
Direction (Q. Nos. 36-40) : Among each of the following groups of words choose the word which is spelt correctly.
36. (a) emmaciated (b) emaciated (c) emasiated (d) emaceated
37. (a) fastidious (b) fastedious (c) fastideous (d) fastidius
38. (a) incorigible (b) incorrigible (c) incoregible (d) incorregible
39. (a) precosious (b) precocius (c) precosius (d) precocious
40. (a) ambiguas (b) ambiguos (c) ambiguous (d) ambigious
Direction (Q. Nos. 41-45) : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows by choosing the
correct option:
PASSAGE
In October of B.C. 42 Antony defeated Brutus and Cassius at the battle of Phillippi, Cassius being killed and Brutus
Committing suicide. Octavian who was ill took little part in the battle, and all the glory of the victory was given toAntony.
The unpopularity of Octavian was clearly demonstrated after the fight was over, for the prisoners who were led before
the two generals saluted Antony with respect, but cursed Octavian in the foulest language. It was decided that Antony
should now travel through the East to collect money and to assert the authority of the triumvirate, while Octavian should
attempt to restore order in Italy, the African provinces being handed over to the insignificant Lepidus. The fact that
Antony chose for his sphere of influence the eastern provincess in a clear indication that Octavian was still in the
background; for those rich lands constituted the main part of the Roman dominions. With a large army Antony passed on
his triumphal way through Greece, and thence to Asia Minor; and at length, in the late summer of B.C. 41, he made his
temporary headquarters at Tarsus.
41. What happened in the battle of Phillippi?
(a) Brutus was defeated (b) Brutus committed suicide
(c) Octavian fell ill (d) Both (a) and (b)
42. Which event showed the unpopularity of Octavian?
(a) he was defeated (b) he fell ill
(c) the prisoners cursed Octavian (d) None of the above
43. How does Mark Antony show his cleverness?
(a) he chose to travel through the Eastern provinces (b) he paraded the soldiers in front of Octavian
(c) he gave an impressive speech (d) None of the above
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5. Page 5
UGDG
44. Why did Mark Antony choose the Eastern provinces?
(a) Octavian was ill and therefore weak (b) Octavian did not like the Eastern provinces
(c) the Eastern provinces were rich (d) None of the above
45. After the victory at Phillippi which other regions were conquered by Mark Antony?
(a) Italy (b) Greece (c) Asia Minor (d) Both (b) and (c)
Direction (Q. Nos. 46-50) : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the
correct option:
PASSAGE
The first thing which a scholar should bear in mind is that a book ought not to be read for mere amusement. Half educated
persons read for amusement, and are not to be blamed for it, they are incapable of appreciating the deeper qualities that
belong to really great literature. But a youngman who has passed through a course of university training should discipline
himself at an early age never to read for amusement. And once the habit of discipline has been formed, he will even find
it impossible to read for mere amusement. He will then impatiently throw down any book from which he cannot obtain a
certain intellectual food, any book that does not make an appeal to the higher emotions and to the intellect. But on the other
hand, the habit of reading for amusement becomes with thousands of people exactly the same kind of habit as wine-
drinking or opium-smoking; it is like a narcotic.
46. What is the first thing a scholar should keep in mind?
(a) should go through the book thoroughly (b) can enjoy the book only if he reads it at leisure
(c) should not seek only entertainment from it (d) none of the above
47. Why can't half educated people be blamed?
(a) they don’t know the real price of a book (b) they can’t appreciate literary qualities of a book
(c) they can’t get amusement from a book (d) none of the above
48. What should a youngman do?
(a) should get training from a university (b) should read many books
(c) should derive pleasure from a book (d) none of the above
49. What kind of a book should he throw away?
(a) a book which has intellectual food (b) a book which appeals to emotions
(c) a book which disciplines him for life (d) none of the above
50. What is narcotic for thousands of reading people?
(a) wine-drinking (b) opium-smoking
(c) habit of reading for amusement (d) none of the above
Direction (Q. Nos. 51-55) : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the
correct option:
PASSAGE
It is almost a definition of a gentleman to say-he is one who never inflicts pain. This description is both refined and, as far
as it goes, accurate. He is mainly occupied in merely removing the obstacles which hinder the free and unembarrassed
action of those about him; and he concurs with their movements rather than take the initiative himself. His benefits may
be considered as parallel to what are called comforts or conveniences in arrangements of a personal nature; like an easy
chair or a good fire, which do their part in dispelling cold and fatigue, though nature provides means of rest and animal heat
without them. The true gentleman in like manner carefully avoids what ever may cause a jar or a jolt in the minds of those
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6. Page 6
UGDG
with whom he is cast; all clashing of opinion, or collision of feeling, all restraint or suspicion or gloom or resentment; his
great concern being to make everyone at their case and at home. He makes light of favours while he does them, and
seems to be receiving when he is actually conferring.
51. What is the preoccupation of a gentleman?
(a) he is refined
(b) he in accurate
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) he removes obstacles from the way of those around him
52. What benefits does a gentleman enjoy in his life?
(a) comforts and conveniences of personal nature (b) does not have to take an initiative
(c) rest and warmth (d) an easy chair and a good fire
53. What does a gentleman try to avoid?
(a) shocking the mind of others (b) all clashes of opinions
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
54. What is his great concern in life?
(a) to remove all restraint and suspicion (b) to put everyone at his ease
(c) to keep an eye on everybody (d) none of the above
55. What is his attitude towards favours made by him?
(a) makes light of what he gives (b) seems to be receiving when he is actually giving
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
Direction (Q. Nos. 56-60) : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the
correct option:
PASSAGE
What is civilisation? All men have certain physical needs; need for warmth, food, sex and shelter; these needs man shares
with the animals. Savages spend most, if not all, of their time in the endeavour to satisfy them. A civilisation, then cannot
be a condition of affairs in which human beings merely satisfy ever more easily and elaborately their fundamental physical
needs and do nothing else; it must be a condition in which they satisfy their needs so easily and feel themselves so secure
from danger that they have the time and energy to attend to other things and, in particular, to the development and
demands of the mind and the spirit. Those who seek to live the life of the mind and the spirit do some things not because
the doing of them will be to their advantage in a biological sense, not that is to say, because it will help them to survive, or
because it will advance them in a material or social sense by making them richer or more powerful or more famous, but
simly for the pleasure or interest that they take in doing them or because they think it is right to do them.
56. What is civilisation?
(a) A bunch of physical needs (b) A need for warmth, food, sex and shelter
(c) A condition in which man has no free time (d) None of the above
57. What does a civilised man do in his free time?
(a) enjoys warmth of good food (b) meets the demands of the mind and the spirit
(c) enjoys a feeling of security (d) none of the above
58. What do the people who seek to live the life of the mind and the spirit get from it?
(a) take advantage of life in a biological sense (b) take steps to survive in life
(c) simply think it right to do them (d) none of the above
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UGDG
59. How is life led in a biological sense?
(a) by taking care of only physical needs (b) by advancing life in a social way
(c) by becoming richer and more powerful (d) none of the above
60. How do savages spend most of their time?
(a) by sharing their lives with human beings
(b) by spending most of their time eating, drinking and sleeping
(c) by roaming around in the wilds
(d) none of the above
Direction : Based on the following information, answer questions 61 to 63
Vijay and Shiva are playing a game. Either of them can start the game by speaking a single digit number, then the other
person will speak a number adding 1-11 to the already spoken number and process continues. e.g. Vijay starts the game
by speaking 8, Shiva can speak anything from 9-19, then Vijay can speak anything from 20-30 and so on. The person who
speaks 100 first is the winner.
61. If Vijay speaks 68, in order to win Shiva should speak
(a) 69 (b) 78
(c) 79 (d) none of the above
62. Shiva speaks 43, in order to win Vijay should speak
(a) 52 (b) 44
(c) 54 (d) none of the above
63. If both the players speak once, that is considered one round. The minimum and maximum number of possible rounds
is
(a) 5 (b) 5 & 50
(c) 7 & 50 (d) none of the above
Direction : Read the problem given below carefully and answer the questions 64-65 by choosing the most appropriate
answer from the choices given.
Champa always made Laddus for her grandchildren every Saturday evening. She made enough so that every child got
three. But today, when she put the Laddus into the serving bowl, she realized that she had two laddus more than she
actually needed. Her son Gainda was delighted. Now he and his wife could have Laddus too for a change and if Champa
also wanted some, every body could have two Laddus each.
64. How many children were there in the family?
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 4
65. How many Laddus did Champa have in the bowl when she got ready to serve?
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) none of these
Direction : Answer questions 66-67 on the basis of the following information:
A group of boys and girls are playing. 15 boys leave. There are now 2 girls for every boy. Then 45 girls leave. Now there
are 5 boys for every girl.
66. How many boys were there in the group initially?
(a) 40 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) none of these
67. How many girls were there in group initially?
(a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 5 (d) 60
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UGDG
Direction : Questions 68-69 are based on the following:
Xyyy is a four digit perfect cube.
68. What is y?
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) data insufficient (d) none of these
69. What is x?
(a) 1 (b) 6
(c) data insufficient (d) none of these
Direction (Q. Nos. 70-71) : Choose the most appropriate answer from the choices given.
70. If all the sides of cuboid increase by 20% by what percent does its volumes increase?
(a) 20% (b) 44%
(c) 60% (d) 72.8%
71. A’s income is 60% of B’s income. If A’s expenditure is Rs. 260 less than B’s and their savings are 10% and 20% of
their incomes, find their incomes.
(a) Rs. 600, Rs. 1000 (b) Rs. 540, Rs. 900
(c) Rs. 1200, Rs. 2000 (d) None of these
Direction : Based on the following Information, answer questions 72-73.
Vijay goes to work by a private bus that picks up all the company’s employees. he gets on at the first stop and has a long
way to go. So, he usually naps along the way. Today, Vijay is tired. He falls asleep when the bus still has twice as far to
go as it has already gone. Halfway through the trip he wakes up as the bus bounces over some bad potholes. When he
finally falls asleep gain, the bus has the same distance to go as that it has already travelled. Mr. Vijay wakes up at the end
of the trip.
72. What portion of total trip did Mr. Vijay sleep?
(a) ½ (b) 2
/3
(c) ¼ (d) cannot be determined
73. What is the total distance of the trip?
(a) 75 km (b) 100 km (c) 120 km (d) data insufficient
Direction (Q. Nos. 74-79) : Choose the most appropriate answer from the choices given.
74. Sharma’s favourite colours are blue and green, so it is not surprising that he has six blue socks and six green socks
in his sock drawer. Unfortunately they are hopelessly mixed up and one day in complete darkness, he has to grab
some socks to wear. How many socks does he have to take from the drawer to make sure he gets a matching pair-
either green or blue? (Assume that socks are not distinguishable by the feet on which they could be worn)
(a) 3 (b) 7
(c) 4 (d) none of the these
75. You have the misfortune to own an unreliable clock. This one gains exactly 12 minutes every hour. It is now showing
12 mid night and you know that it was correct at noon the same day, when it was set right. The clock stopped four
hour ago. What is the correct time now?
(a) 12 midnight (b) 10 p.m. (c) 2 a.m. (d) 4 a.m.
76. At the recent passing out parade of the local ST John Ambulance summer recruitment drive, there were exactly 100
successful recruits. They were lined up in a nice square formation of 10 rows by 10 columns. Who was taller-the
tallest of the shortest people in each column OR the shortest of the tallest people in each row?
(a) The tallest of the shortest (b) The shortest of the tallest
(c) Both were of the same height (d) It cannot be uniquely determined
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UGDG
77. There is a cube which is divided into smaller cubes. Each side is cut into a 4 equal parts. Now the bigger cube is cut
into 2 equal halves with a cut from one edge to the diagonally opposite edge. How many of the smaller cubes have
been cut?
(a) 32 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) none of them
78. The product of three positive integers is 300. If one of them is 5, what is the least possible value of the sum of the
other two?
(a) 23 (b) 19 (c) 17 (d) 16
79. In 1999, Riya read 10 English books and 7 Hindi books. In 2000, she read twice as many Hindi books as English
books. If 60% of the books that she read during the two years were Hindi books, how many books did she read in
2000?
(a) 16 (b) 24 (c) 32 (d) 48
Direction : Based on the following Information, answer questions 80-81.
80. Here is a light switch. Please note the order of the positions. If the light is initially at medium and it is switched 5866
times in the clockwise position, what would be the final position of the switch?
(a) High (b) Low
(c) Off (d) Data insufficient
81. If the switch is switched 9001 times what will be the position of the switch?
(a) High (b) Medium
(c) Low (d) Data insufficient
Direction (Q. Nos. 82-85): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
PASSAGE
A nine-member parent-teacher planning Committee Consists of five teachers — A, B, C, D and E — and four parents —
F, G, H and I. Five members of this Committee are to be chosen to meet with the superintendent, concerning some issues
on the budget. The Committee will be chosen in accordance with the following requirements:
Exactly two parents will be chosen.
If B is chosen, both D and G must also be chosen
A can’t be chosen unless F is chosen.
If either C or E is chosen, so must the other.
If I is chosen, neither F nor H may be chosen.
82. Which of the following could be a list of the five people chosen?
(a) D, E, F, G, H (b) A, B, D, F, H
(c) A, C, E, F, I (d) A, B, D, G, F
83. If both F and H are chosen, who among the following must also be chosen?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) G
Off
High
oHow Hh
Low
Medium
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UGDG
84. If E is not chosen, then all of the following must be chosen EXCEPT
(a) A (b) D (c) F (d) H
85. If the Committee decides to chose only four people two teachers and two parents — but adhere to all the other
conditions, in how many different ways can the choice be made?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 9
————
86. NID is located at-
(a) Ahmedabad (b) Mumbai (c) Vadodara (d) Surat
87. Crafts Council of India, Chennai was founded by-
(a) Pupul Jaykar (b) Kamladevi Chattopadhyay
(c) Indira Gandhi (d) Sarojini Naidu
88. How many elements are there in a design-
(a) Eight (b) Ten (c) Five (d) Six
89. Tick the odd one out-
(a) Harmony (b) Tone (c) Rhythm (d) Balance
90. Which of the following does not belong a type of design-
(a) Texture (b) Decorative (c) Industrial (d) Textile
91. Tone is a variation of-
(a) Line (b) Form (c) Colour (d) Shape
92. Which one of the following does not belong to the group-
(a) Hue (b) Tone (c) Form (d) Colour
93. Primary Colours are-
(a) Red, Purple, Blue (b) Red, Blue, Orange
(c) Yellow, Blue, Green (d) Red, Yellow, Blue
94. Which one of the following does not belong to the category of humerous illustration-
(a) Cartoon (b) Caricature (c) Satirical (d) Comic
95. Patola is the name of a :-
(a) fiber (b) cloth (c) style of saree (d) embroidary
96. Tick the odd one out-
(a) Monogram (b) Trademark (c) Symbol (d) Agmark
97. A suitable advertisement has many features, which of the following features is not desired in an advt.
(a) Frequent repetiton of the message
(b) Strong, first impression
(c) Simple and monotonous
(d) Suggestions in accordance with established ideas
98. Design adds value to a product
(a) True (b) False (c) Never (d) Sometimes
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UGDG
99. Which is the odd one out?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
A B C D
100. Whichofthefollowingcubesissimilartotheunfoldedcube?
A B C D
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
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