The document describes a mock CAT (Common Admission Test) exam with the following details:
- The test has 165 multiple choice questions divided into 3 sections with 55 questions each.
- The total time for the test is 120 minutes.
- Sections cover Quantitative Techniques, Data Interpretation & Reasoning, and English & Reading Comprehension.
- Correct answers receive 1 mark while incorrect answers receive a negative 1/4 mark deduction.
(1) The document provides a sample question paper for a postgraduate technology general ability test consisting of 120 multiple choice questions across 6 sub-tests covering quantitative ability, communication ability, English comprehension, analytical ability, general knowledge, and thematic apperception.
(2) Each question carries 1 mark and answers must be marked on an answer sheet using a ballpoint pen to darken the appropriate circle for the best alternative among the 4 options given.
(3) Sample questions 1-30 provide examples of the types of quantitative, verbal, logical and technical questions that will be asked in the exam.
This document contains 100 numerical aptitude questions and answers from a solved paper for the Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) exam. The questions cover a range of topics including arithmetic, algebra, geometry, time and work, ratios, averages, and data interpretation. The correct answers are provided after each question.
The document provides details about a sample test for a Fashion Management program. [1] It outlines 150 multiple choice questions testing various abilities like quantitative ability, English comprehension, analytical ability, and general awareness. [2] The questions are across various subject areas and students must mark their answers on a separate answer sheet using a ballpoint pen to darken the appropriate circle for the best answer choice. [3] The test is aimed at assessing students' suitability for the Fashion Management program.
The document provides information about a general ability test for undergraduate design programs at the Academy of Fashion & Design. It consists of 100 multiple choice questions across 5 sub-tests, including quantitative ability, communication ability, English comprehension, analytical ability, and business domain test. The test will take 2 hours to complete and each question carries 1 mark. Students must mark their answers on the provided OMR answer sheet using a ballpoint pen.
Previous Years Solved Question Papers for Staff Selection Commission (SSC)…SmartPrep Education
Here is the Previous Years Solved Staff Selection Commission (SSC) LDC DEO Exam Paper. Visit SmartPrep for information on Test Prep courses for Undergraduates
This document contains a mock CAT exam with multiple choice questions and explanations. It consists of two pages. The first page lists 60 multiple choice questions with answer options A-D. The second page provides explanations for the questions and solutions to problems. It discusses topics like probability, ratios, geometry, time/speed/distance word problems, and data interpretation from graphs.
The document provides instructions and information for a 2-hour written examination in mathematics. It includes:
1. Instructions for students to follow such as opening the question paper when instructed and writing their name and registration number.
2. A list of common mathematical formulae that may be helpful in answering questions such as relations, shapes and space, Pythagoras theorem.
3. Ten mathematics questions testing topics like operations, algebra, geometry, trigonometry and statistics. Each question is broken down into parts with multiple steps.
4. Spaces provided for students to show their working and write their answers.
5. Information at the end about who prepared, verified and approved the question paper.
(1) The document provides a sample question paper for a postgraduate technology general ability test consisting of 120 multiple choice questions across 6 sub-tests covering quantitative ability, communication ability, English comprehension, analytical ability, general knowledge, and thematic apperception.
(2) Each question carries 1 mark and answers must be marked on an answer sheet using a ballpoint pen to darken the appropriate circle for the best alternative among the 4 options given.
(3) Sample questions 1-30 provide examples of the types of quantitative, verbal, logical and technical questions that will be asked in the exam.
This document contains 100 numerical aptitude questions and answers from a solved paper for the Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) exam. The questions cover a range of topics including arithmetic, algebra, geometry, time and work, ratios, averages, and data interpretation. The correct answers are provided after each question.
The document provides details about a sample test for a Fashion Management program. [1] It outlines 150 multiple choice questions testing various abilities like quantitative ability, English comprehension, analytical ability, and general awareness. [2] The questions are across various subject areas and students must mark their answers on a separate answer sheet using a ballpoint pen to darken the appropriate circle for the best answer choice. [3] The test is aimed at assessing students' suitability for the Fashion Management program.
The document provides information about a general ability test for undergraduate design programs at the Academy of Fashion & Design. It consists of 100 multiple choice questions across 5 sub-tests, including quantitative ability, communication ability, English comprehension, analytical ability, and business domain test. The test will take 2 hours to complete and each question carries 1 mark. Students must mark their answers on the provided OMR answer sheet using a ballpoint pen.
Previous Years Solved Question Papers for Staff Selection Commission (SSC)…SmartPrep Education
Here is the Previous Years Solved Staff Selection Commission (SSC) LDC DEO Exam Paper. Visit SmartPrep for information on Test Prep courses for Undergraduates
This document contains a mock CAT exam with multiple choice questions and explanations. It consists of two pages. The first page lists 60 multiple choice questions with answer options A-D. The second page provides explanations for the questions and solutions to problems. It discusses topics like probability, ratios, geometry, time/speed/distance word problems, and data interpretation from graphs.
The document provides instructions and information for a 2-hour written examination in mathematics. It includes:
1. Instructions for students to follow such as opening the question paper when instructed and writing their name and registration number.
2. A list of common mathematical formulae that may be helpful in answering questions such as relations, shapes and space, Pythagoras theorem.
3. Ten mathematics questions testing topics like operations, algebra, geometry, trigonometry and statistics. Each question is broken down into parts with multiple steps.
4. Spaces provided for students to show their working and write their answers.
5. Information at the end about who prepared, verified and approved the question paper.
This document contains a mock CAT exam with 26 multiple choice questions covering topics in mathematics, data interpretation, and logical reasoning. The questions are from sections including numbers, algebra, geometry, data sufficiency, and data interpretation from tables and graphs. The level of difficulty of the questions ranges from easy to moderate.
This document contains a 30 question math test for grades 5-6. The test covers various math topics including addition, geometry, time, probability, and number properties. Each question is multiple choice with 3 to 5 possible answer choices. The test has 3 parts with varying point values assigned to each question based on difficulty.
This document contains a set of 47 sample questions that cover various mathematical concepts such as number theory, probability, algebra, and geometry. The questions are intended to help a test taker prepare for an assessment by learning relevant concepts rather than focusing on specific questions. Each question is multiple choice with 4 possible answer options.
A sample of the general ability test of the ug course in design at nift. Solutions to this nift question paper can be sent to AFD by email for corrections & feedback by AFD tutors. All AFD tutors are NID, NIFT & M.Des graduates from IITs
This document provides instructions for a 40 question math exam divided into 3 sections. It details how many marks are awarded for correct and incorrect answers in each section. The first section has 20 questions worth 3 marks each. The second and third sections have 10 questions worth 4 and 5 marks respectively, with 1 mark deducted for incorrect answers. The document provides the exam code, date of birth and other details to be filled on the answer sheet. It advises exam takers on the order to attempt sections and not spending too much time on any single question. The document ends with providing space for rough work.
This document provides a sample question paper for an undergraduate program in fashion technology's general ability test. The test contains 100 multiple choice questions across 6 sub-tests: quantitative ability, communication ability, English comprehension, analytical ability, general science/physics/chemistry, and thematic apperception. Each question carries 1 mark. Students must mark their answers on an answer sheet using a ball pen. Sample questions ranging from math to English are provided to demonstrate the format and difficulty.
The document contains 50 multiple choice questions related to quantitative aptitude. The questions cover topics such as averages, ratios, percentages, profit and loss, time and work, mixtures, time and distance, and algebraic expressions. The questions range from easy to moderate difficulty. An answer key is provided at the end with brief explanations for some of the questions.
This document provides 85 essential revision questions for GCSE Mathematics at grades C to D. It covers topics such as:
- Expanding algebraic expressions
- Factorizing algebraic expressions
- Finding the nth term of patterns
- Calculating mean, median and mode from data
- Standard form and significant figures
- Prime factor decomposition
- 3D shapes from different views
- Solving equations
- Ratio and proportion word problems
The questions are arranged in order of difficulty from grades C to D. Answers are provided for self-checking. The purpose is to help students effectively revise key mathematical content for their GCSE exams.
This document contains a series of math problems and exercises related to place value, ordering numbers, rounding, reading scales, operations with decimals and fractions, percentages, and more. The problems are arranged into 13 clips or sections covering different math topics. Some of the key areas covered include:
- Writing numbers in figures and words
- Ordering and comparing decimals, fractions, percentages
- Rounding numbers to various places
- Reading information from scales and diagrams
- Performing calculations with positive and negative numbers
- Converting between fractions, decimals, and percentages
- Working with square and cube numbers
- Solving word problems involving money, time, and rates
The document provides a comprehensive set of math skills
This document contains a solved sample paper for the SSC JE 2015 exam in electrical engineering. It consists of 50 multiple choice questions testing general intelligence and reasoning abilities, as well as electrical engineering concepts. The questions cover topics like patterns and series, coding and decoding, data interpretation, and electrical/plant science facts. The document also provides the answers to all questions.
1. Squares and square roots are discussed, including perfect squares, square roots using various methods like prime factorization and long division, Pythagorean triplets, and properties of squares.
2. Cubes and cube roots are covered, including perfect cubes, cube roots using prime factorization, properties of cubes, and volume of cubes.
3. Exponents and radicals are introduced, including laws of exponents, simplifying expressions with exponents and radicals, and operations with exponents and radicals.
4. Direct and inverse variation are explained through examples involving speed, time, workers, etc. Constant of proportionality and its use are demonstrated.
5. Profit, loss and discount are defined. Calculating profit percentage, loss
This document contains a 10 question mathematics exam with multiple parts to each question. The exam covers topics such as number lines, percentages, geometry, algebra, graphs, and trigonometry. It provides diagrams, tables and questions for students to solve problems and show their work. The exam is designed to test students' understanding of essential mathematics concepts.
This document contains 30 multiple choice mathematics questions covering topics such as statistics, probability, algebra and number theory. The questions test objectives related to calculating the standard deviation, mean, median, mode and range of data sets. Other concepts assessed include factorizing algebraic expressions, simplifying fractions, solving equations, working with number bases, and interpreting tables, charts and graphs to solve probability problems.
This document contains 25 multiple choice questions related to mathematics, probability, and logic. The questions cover a range of topics including arithmetic, algebra, geometry, time/work problems, and word problems. Sample questions include finding the minimum number of mice required to identify a poisoned barrel of beer, calculating average speed given a change in distance and time, and determining the number of handshakes that would occur if 20 men shook hands without repetition. The document also provides links to additional resources for frequently asked placement questions.
This document contains a review sheet for a math final exam. It includes multiple choice and short answer questions covering topics like geometry, algebra, ratios, and word problems. It also provides the answers to the multiple choice section. The short answer questions require showing work and include problems finding areas, writing equations, comparing ratios, and solving word problems involving money.
The document contains 50 quantitative aptitude questions with multiple choice answers. The questions cover a range of topics including ratios and proportions, averages, percentages, time/work problems, mixtures, profit and loss, and other mathematical concepts. The questions are in a multiple choice format with 4 possible answer choices for each question. The solutions and explanations provided after the questions show the step-by-step working to arrive at the correct answer for each problem.
The document discusses equations and their properties. It begins by defining an equation as a statement that shows the relationship between two or more quantities. Equations can contain known or unknown quantities. Letters like x, y, z are usually used to denote unknown quantities or variables. The four basic arithmetic operations can be applied to variables as well. Simultaneous equations can be solved using elimination or substitution methods. The nature of solutions to simultaneous equations can be unique, infinite, or none. The document provides examples and explanations of simple equations, solving single-variable equations, and solving simultaneous equations.
This document contains a final model test examination for mathematics. It includes questions in four groups - Algebra, Geometry, Trigonometry and Mensuration, and Statistics. The Algebra section contains three multi-part questions on topics like factoring polynomials, solving systems of linear equations, and finding terms in a geometric series. The Geometry section contains two multi-part questions involving constructions related to dividing a line segment into parts and constructing triangles. The Trigonometry and Mensuration section contains one multi-part question on trigonometric ratios and properties or on mensuration formulas. The Statistics section contains one multi-part question involving concepts like frequency distribution, mean, median and mode. The document also includes 40 multiple choice questions testing
Placement Papers are published here to help freshers to get themselves prepared for the tests and successfully procure jobs in top companies of India including Infosys, Wipro, TCS, HCL, HP, Accenture, CTS etc. This is the section where you can find previous and latest questions, practice them with the solutions in hand.
1. The document contains instructions for a test with four sections: Section A contains 50 math questions worth 3 marks each, Section B contains 25 general knowledge questions worth 2 marks each, Section C contains 25 language questions worth 2 marks each, and Section D contains 25 intelligence questions to be answered after 2 hours.
2. Candidates must not write their name or roll number on any page of the answer booklet except where indicated. Rough work should only be done on additional sheets, not on the answer sheet.
3. The test has a total of 17 pages and covers topics including numbers, operations, geometry, time, speed, ratios, averages, and general knowledge questions about science, the human body and India's
This pdf is free to download. This document is prepared by tutor Kundan sir from Vista's Learning.Keep learning CBSE Class 1 0 maths by signing up in Vista's Learning portal here
https://v-learning.in/live-course/1114/ncert-solutions-for-maths-chapter-2-polynomials-part-8-vistas-learning
This document contains a mock CAT exam with 26 multiple choice questions covering topics in mathematics, data interpretation, and logical reasoning. The questions are from sections including numbers, algebra, geometry, data sufficiency, and data interpretation from tables and graphs. The level of difficulty of the questions ranges from easy to moderate.
This document contains a 30 question math test for grades 5-6. The test covers various math topics including addition, geometry, time, probability, and number properties. Each question is multiple choice with 3 to 5 possible answer choices. The test has 3 parts with varying point values assigned to each question based on difficulty.
This document contains a set of 47 sample questions that cover various mathematical concepts such as number theory, probability, algebra, and geometry. The questions are intended to help a test taker prepare for an assessment by learning relevant concepts rather than focusing on specific questions. Each question is multiple choice with 4 possible answer options.
A sample of the general ability test of the ug course in design at nift. Solutions to this nift question paper can be sent to AFD by email for corrections & feedback by AFD tutors. All AFD tutors are NID, NIFT & M.Des graduates from IITs
This document provides instructions for a 40 question math exam divided into 3 sections. It details how many marks are awarded for correct and incorrect answers in each section. The first section has 20 questions worth 3 marks each. The second and third sections have 10 questions worth 4 and 5 marks respectively, with 1 mark deducted for incorrect answers. The document provides the exam code, date of birth and other details to be filled on the answer sheet. It advises exam takers on the order to attempt sections and not spending too much time on any single question. The document ends with providing space for rough work.
This document provides a sample question paper for an undergraduate program in fashion technology's general ability test. The test contains 100 multiple choice questions across 6 sub-tests: quantitative ability, communication ability, English comprehension, analytical ability, general science/physics/chemistry, and thematic apperception. Each question carries 1 mark. Students must mark their answers on an answer sheet using a ball pen. Sample questions ranging from math to English are provided to demonstrate the format and difficulty.
The document contains 50 multiple choice questions related to quantitative aptitude. The questions cover topics such as averages, ratios, percentages, profit and loss, time and work, mixtures, time and distance, and algebraic expressions. The questions range from easy to moderate difficulty. An answer key is provided at the end with brief explanations for some of the questions.
This document provides 85 essential revision questions for GCSE Mathematics at grades C to D. It covers topics such as:
- Expanding algebraic expressions
- Factorizing algebraic expressions
- Finding the nth term of patterns
- Calculating mean, median and mode from data
- Standard form and significant figures
- Prime factor decomposition
- 3D shapes from different views
- Solving equations
- Ratio and proportion word problems
The questions are arranged in order of difficulty from grades C to D. Answers are provided for self-checking. The purpose is to help students effectively revise key mathematical content for their GCSE exams.
This document contains a series of math problems and exercises related to place value, ordering numbers, rounding, reading scales, operations with decimals and fractions, percentages, and more. The problems are arranged into 13 clips or sections covering different math topics. Some of the key areas covered include:
- Writing numbers in figures and words
- Ordering and comparing decimals, fractions, percentages
- Rounding numbers to various places
- Reading information from scales and diagrams
- Performing calculations with positive and negative numbers
- Converting between fractions, decimals, and percentages
- Working with square and cube numbers
- Solving word problems involving money, time, and rates
The document provides a comprehensive set of math skills
This document contains a solved sample paper for the SSC JE 2015 exam in electrical engineering. It consists of 50 multiple choice questions testing general intelligence and reasoning abilities, as well as electrical engineering concepts. The questions cover topics like patterns and series, coding and decoding, data interpretation, and electrical/plant science facts. The document also provides the answers to all questions.
1. Squares and square roots are discussed, including perfect squares, square roots using various methods like prime factorization and long division, Pythagorean triplets, and properties of squares.
2. Cubes and cube roots are covered, including perfect cubes, cube roots using prime factorization, properties of cubes, and volume of cubes.
3. Exponents and radicals are introduced, including laws of exponents, simplifying expressions with exponents and radicals, and operations with exponents and radicals.
4. Direct and inverse variation are explained through examples involving speed, time, workers, etc. Constant of proportionality and its use are demonstrated.
5. Profit, loss and discount are defined. Calculating profit percentage, loss
This document contains a 10 question mathematics exam with multiple parts to each question. The exam covers topics such as number lines, percentages, geometry, algebra, graphs, and trigonometry. It provides diagrams, tables and questions for students to solve problems and show their work. The exam is designed to test students' understanding of essential mathematics concepts.
This document contains 30 multiple choice mathematics questions covering topics such as statistics, probability, algebra and number theory. The questions test objectives related to calculating the standard deviation, mean, median, mode and range of data sets. Other concepts assessed include factorizing algebraic expressions, simplifying fractions, solving equations, working with number bases, and interpreting tables, charts and graphs to solve probability problems.
This document contains 25 multiple choice questions related to mathematics, probability, and logic. The questions cover a range of topics including arithmetic, algebra, geometry, time/work problems, and word problems. Sample questions include finding the minimum number of mice required to identify a poisoned barrel of beer, calculating average speed given a change in distance and time, and determining the number of handshakes that would occur if 20 men shook hands without repetition. The document also provides links to additional resources for frequently asked placement questions.
This document contains a review sheet for a math final exam. It includes multiple choice and short answer questions covering topics like geometry, algebra, ratios, and word problems. It also provides the answers to the multiple choice section. The short answer questions require showing work and include problems finding areas, writing equations, comparing ratios, and solving word problems involving money.
The document contains 50 quantitative aptitude questions with multiple choice answers. The questions cover a range of topics including ratios and proportions, averages, percentages, time/work problems, mixtures, profit and loss, and other mathematical concepts. The questions are in a multiple choice format with 4 possible answer choices for each question. The solutions and explanations provided after the questions show the step-by-step working to arrive at the correct answer for each problem.
The document discusses equations and their properties. It begins by defining an equation as a statement that shows the relationship between two or more quantities. Equations can contain known or unknown quantities. Letters like x, y, z are usually used to denote unknown quantities or variables. The four basic arithmetic operations can be applied to variables as well. Simultaneous equations can be solved using elimination or substitution methods. The nature of solutions to simultaneous equations can be unique, infinite, or none. The document provides examples and explanations of simple equations, solving single-variable equations, and solving simultaneous equations.
This document contains a final model test examination for mathematics. It includes questions in four groups - Algebra, Geometry, Trigonometry and Mensuration, and Statistics. The Algebra section contains three multi-part questions on topics like factoring polynomials, solving systems of linear equations, and finding terms in a geometric series. The Geometry section contains two multi-part questions involving constructions related to dividing a line segment into parts and constructing triangles. The Trigonometry and Mensuration section contains one multi-part question on trigonometric ratios and properties or on mensuration formulas. The Statistics section contains one multi-part question involving concepts like frequency distribution, mean, median and mode. The document also includes 40 multiple choice questions testing
Placement Papers are published here to help freshers to get themselves prepared for the tests and successfully procure jobs in top companies of India including Infosys, Wipro, TCS, HCL, HP, Accenture, CTS etc. This is the section where you can find previous and latest questions, practice them with the solutions in hand.
1. The document contains instructions for a test with four sections: Section A contains 50 math questions worth 3 marks each, Section B contains 25 general knowledge questions worth 2 marks each, Section C contains 25 language questions worth 2 marks each, and Section D contains 25 intelligence questions to be answered after 2 hours.
2. Candidates must not write their name or roll number on any page of the answer booklet except where indicated. Rough work should only be done on additional sheets, not on the answer sheet.
3. The test has a total of 17 pages and covers topics including numbers, operations, geometry, time, speed, ratios, averages, and general knowledge questions about science, the human body and India's
This pdf is free to download. This document is prepared by tutor Kundan sir from Vista's Learning.Keep learning CBSE Class 1 0 maths by signing up in Vista's Learning portal here
https://v-learning.in/live-course/1114/ncert-solutions-for-maths-chapter-2-polynomials-part-8-vistas-learning
This document contains a question asking for the number of factors of N3 given information about the number of factors of N. It also contains two statements, A and B, that could potentially be used to answer the question. The correct answer is c), as the question can be answered by using both statements together, but neither statement alone provides enough information to determine the number of factors of N3.
This document contains a sample exam for a Railway Recruitment Board in Mumbai for the position of Ticket Collector (TC). The exam contains multiple choice questions testing grammar, antonyms, synonyms, fill in the blanks, math, and general knowledge. Topics include grammar, vocabulary, arithmetic, data interpretation, and Indian history, sports, politics and geography.
The document contains a 40-item practice test for general education mathematics. The questions cover a range of math topics including factors, expressions, equations, ratios, rates, proportions, sequences, trigonometry, lines, and geometry. The final question asks for the slope of the perpendicular bisector of a line segment with given endpoints.
(Www.entrance exam.net)-hcl placement sample paper 3ronnny_jain
The document contains 37 questions regarding aptitude, logical reasoning and coding concepts. Key details include:
1) Questions cover topics like percentages, time/work problems, coding concepts like pointers and type casting.
2) Multiple choice answers are provided for each question.
3) Coding questions involve preprocessor macros, pointer declarations, type casting and memory allocation.
This document provides a full question paper with answer keys for a General Maths exam held on December 18, 2005. It includes 35 multiple choice questions on topics like ratios, percentages, time, probability, number patterns, word problems, and rate/time/distance problems. For each question, 4 possible answer choices are provided, along with the correct answer key.
The document contains 49 multiple choice questions related to number systems in mathematics for Class IX. The questions cover topics like rational and irrational numbers, operations on fractions and decimals, and properties of integers. A YouTube channel for online math lectures is provided. The questions are divided into two levels, with Level II containing more complex questions.
Mia Mia is a real time local search engine that enables people to search for a search provider anywhere with ease and convenience. Mia Mia is one of the best listing website for MBA Classes in Mumbai. We are also known for our systematic listing of various IPCC, Science coaching for CBSE, Engineering and other courses in Mumbai. QLI is a class where each student is our priority. Top MBA Institutes in Mumbai for CAT, XAT, NMAT and IIFT are listed on MiaMia.For details - visit: http://miamia.co.in/
The document provides details about a Railway Recruitment Board exam held on 5-11-2006 for the position of Ticket Collector (TC). It includes 5 questions to identify grammatical errors in sentences, 10 questions to find antonyms, 15 questions to find synonyms, and 20 fill-in-the-blank questions testing various grammatical concepts. It also provides additional details on visiting ExamandResults.com and downloading their mobile app for more previous year exam questions.
RRB Conducts NTPC exam to recruit Commercial apprentice, Goods guard, Traffic Apprentice, Traffic Assistant, Assistant Station Master for all over India.
Exam and results provide the previous year question papers and regarding RRB NTCP exam and gives the detail upadates on it.
This document appears to be a practice test or sample questions for a quantitative aptitude or numerical ability exam. It contains 22 multiple choice questions covering topics like probability, combinations, ratios, percentages, and algebra. The questions are numbered 1 through 22 and include calculations, word problems, series, and other quantitative reasoning questions.
This document contains a quantitative aptitude practice test with 53 multiple choice questions. The questions cover topics such as geometry, algebra, arithmetic, number theory, and word problems. For each question there are 4 possible answer choices labeled a, b, c, or d. The test is 90 minutes long with 3 marks awarded for each correct answer and 1 mark deducted for each incorrect answer.
This document contains a mathematics exam with multiple choice and free response questions covering topics such as arithmetic, algebra, geometry, probability, and word problems. There are 20 multiple choice questions worth 3-4 marks each and 5 free response questions worth 6 marks each. The exam tests a range of mathematical concepts and problem solving abilities.
In his public lecture, Christian Timmerer provides insights into the fascinating history of video streaming, starting from its humble beginnings before YouTube to the groundbreaking technologies that now dominate platforms like Netflix and ORF ON. Timmerer also presents provocative contributions of his own that have significantly influenced the industry. He concludes by looking at future challenges and invites the audience to join in a discussion.
For the full video of this presentation, please visit: https://www.edge-ai-vision.com/2024/06/building-and-scaling-ai-applications-with-the-nx-ai-manager-a-presentation-from-network-optix/
Robin van Emden, Senior Director of Data Science at Network Optix, presents the “Building and Scaling AI Applications with the Nx AI Manager,” tutorial at the May 2024 Embedded Vision Summit.
In this presentation, van Emden covers the basics of scaling edge AI solutions using the Nx tool kit. He emphasizes the process of developing AI models and deploying them globally. He also showcases the conversion of AI models and the creation of effective edge AI pipelines, with a focus on pre-processing, model conversion, selecting the appropriate inference engine for the target hardware and post-processing.
van Emden shows how Nx can simplify the developer’s life and facilitate a rapid transition from concept to production-ready applications.He provides valuable insights into developing scalable and efficient edge AI solutions, with a strong focus on practical implementation.
Observability Concepts EVERY Developer Should Know -- DeveloperWeek Europe.pdfPaige Cruz
Monitoring and observability aren’t traditionally found in software curriculums and many of us cobble this knowledge together from whatever vendor or ecosystem we were first introduced to and whatever is a part of your current company’s observability stack.
While the dev and ops silo continues to crumble….many organizations still relegate monitoring & observability as the purview of ops, infra and SRE teams. This is a mistake - achieving a highly observable system requires collaboration up and down the stack.
I, a former op, would like to extend an invitation to all application developers to join the observability party will share these foundational concepts to build on:
UiPath Test Automation using UiPath Test Suite series, part 5DianaGray10
Welcome to UiPath Test Automation using UiPath Test Suite series part 5. In this session, we will cover CI/CD with devops.
Topics covered:
CI/CD with in UiPath
End-to-end overview of CI/CD pipeline with Azure devops
Speaker:
Lyndsey Byblow, Test Suite Sales Engineer @ UiPath, Inc.
Why You Should Replace Windows 11 with Nitrux Linux 3.5.0 for enhanced perfor...SOFTTECHHUB
The choice of an operating system plays a pivotal role in shaping our computing experience. For decades, Microsoft's Windows has dominated the market, offering a familiar and widely adopted platform for personal and professional use. However, as technological advancements continue to push the boundaries of innovation, alternative operating systems have emerged, challenging the status quo and offering users a fresh perspective on computing.
One such alternative that has garnered significant attention and acclaim is Nitrux Linux 3.5.0, a sleek, powerful, and user-friendly Linux distribution that promises to redefine the way we interact with our devices. With its focus on performance, security, and customization, Nitrux Linux presents a compelling case for those seeking to break free from the constraints of proprietary software and embrace the freedom and flexibility of open-source computing.
Best 20 SEO Techniques To Improve Website Visibility In SERPPixlogix Infotech
Boost your website's visibility with proven SEO techniques! Our latest blog dives into essential strategies to enhance your online presence, increase traffic, and rank higher on search engines. From keyword optimization to quality content creation, learn how to make your site stand out in the crowded digital landscape. Discover actionable tips and expert insights to elevate your SEO game.
Programming Foundation Models with DSPy - Meetup SlidesZilliz
Prompting language models is hard, while programming language models is easy. In this talk, I will discuss the state-of-the-art framework DSPy for programming foundation models with its powerful optimizers and runtime constraint system.
“An Outlook of the Ongoing and Future Relationship between Blockchain Technologies and Process-aware Information Systems.” Invited talk at the joint workshop on Blockchain for Information Systems (BC4IS) and Blockchain for Trusted Data Sharing (B4TDS), co-located with with the 36th International Conference on Advanced Information Systems Engineering (CAiSE), 3 June 2024, Limassol, Cyprus.
Maruthi Prithivirajan, Head of ASEAN & IN Solution Architecture, Neo4j
Get an inside look at the latest Neo4j innovations that enable relationship-driven intelligence at scale. Learn more about the newest cloud integrations and product enhancements that make Neo4j an essential choice for developers building apps with interconnected data and generative AI.
GraphSummit Singapore | The Future of Agility: Supercharging Digital Transfor...Neo4j
Leonard Jayamohan, Partner & Generative AI Lead, Deloitte
This keynote will reveal how Deloitte leverages Neo4j’s graph power for groundbreaking digital twin solutions, achieving a staggering 100x performance boost. Discover the essential role knowledge graphs play in successful generative AI implementations. Plus, get an exclusive look at an innovative Neo4j + Generative AI solution Deloitte is developing in-house.
Driving Business Innovation: Latest Generative AI Advancements & Success StorySafe Software
Are you ready to revolutionize how you handle data? Join us for a webinar where we’ll bring you up to speed with the latest advancements in Generative AI technology and discover how leveraging FME with tools from giants like Google Gemini, Amazon, and Microsoft OpenAI can supercharge your workflow efficiency.
During the hour, we’ll take you through:
Guest Speaker Segment with Hannah Barrington: Dive into the world of dynamic real estate marketing with Hannah, the Marketing Manager at Workspace Group. Hear firsthand how their team generates engaging descriptions for thousands of office units by integrating diverse data sources—from PDF floorplans to web pages—using FME transformers, like OpenAIVisionConnector and AnthropicVisionConnector. This use case will show you how GenAI can streamline content creation for marketing across the board.
Ollama Use Case: Learn how Scenario Specialist Dmitri Bagh has utilized Ollama within FME to input data, create custom models, and enhance security protocols. This segment will include demos to illustrate the full capabilities of FME in AI-driven processes.
Custom AI Models: Discover how to leverage FME to build personalized AI models using your data. Whether it’s populating a model with local data for added security or integrating public AI tools, find out how FME facilitates a versatile and secure approach to AI.
We’ll wrap up with a live Q&A session where you can engage with our experts on your specific use cases, and learn more about optimizing your data workflows with AI.
This webinar is ideal for professionals seeking to harness the power of AI within their data management systems while ensuring high levels of customization and security. Whether you're a novice or an expert, gain actionable insights and strategies to elevate your data processes. Join us to see how FME and AI can revolutionize how you work with data!
UiPath Test Automation using UiPath Test Suite series, part 6DianaGray10
Welcome to UiPath Test Automation using UiPath Test Suite series part 6. In this session, we will cover Test Automation with generative AI and Open AI.
UiPath Test Automation with generative AI and Open AI webinar offers an in-depth exploration of leveraging cutting-edge technologies for test automation within the UiPath platform. Attendees will delve into the integration of generative AI, a test automation solution, with Open AI advanced natural language processing capabilities.
Throughout the session, participants will discover how this synergy empowers testers to automate repetitive tasks, enhance testing accuracy, and expedite the software testing life cycle. Topics covered include the seamless integration process, practical use cases, and the benefits of harnessing AI-driven automation for UiPath testing initiatives. By attending this webinar, testers, and automation professionals can gain valuable insights into harnessing the power of AI to optimize their test automation workflows within the UiPath ecosystem, ultimately driving efficiency and quality in software development processes.
What will you get from this session?
1. Insights into integrating generative AI.
2. Understanding how this integration enhances test automation within the UiPath platform
3. Practical demonstrations
4. Exploration of real-world use cases illustrating the benefits of AI-driven test automation for UiPath
Topics covered:
What is generative AI
Test Automation with generative AI and Open AI.
UiPath integration with generative AI
Speaker:
Deepak Rai, Automation Practice Lead, Boundaryless Group and UiPath MVP
TrustArc Webinar - 2024 Global Privacy SurveyTrustArc
How does your privacy program stack up against your peers? What challenges are privacy teams tackling and prioritizing in 2024?
In the fifth annual Global Privacy Benchmarks Survey, we asked over 1,800 global privacy professionals and business executives to share their perspectives on the current state of privacy inside and outside of their organizations. This year’s report focused on emerging areas of importance for privacy and compliance professionals, including considerations and implications of Artificial Intelligence (AI) technologies, building brand trust, and different approaches for achieving higher privacy competence scores.
See how organizational priorities and strategic approaches to data security and privacy are evolving around the globe.
This webinar will review:
- The top 10 privacy insights from the fifth annual Global Privacy Benchmarks Survey
- The top challenges for privacy leaders, practitioners, and organizations in 2024
- Key themes to consider in developing and maintaining your privacy program
Climate Impact of Software Testing at Nordic Testing DaysKari Kakkonen
My slides at Nordic Testing Days 6.6.2024
Climate impact / sustainability of software testing discussed on the talk. ICT and testing must carry their part of global responsibility to help with the climat warming. We can minimize the carbon footprint but we can also have a carbon handprint, a positive impact on the climate. Quality characteristics can be added with sustainability, and then measured continuously. Test environments can be used less, and in smaller scale and on demand. Test techniques can be used in optimizing or minimizing number of tests. Test automation can be used to speed up testing.
Full-RAG: A modern architecture for hyper-personalizationZilliz
Mike Del Balso, CEO & Co-Founder at Tecton, presents "Full RAG," a novel approach to AI recommendation systems, aiming to push beyond the limitations of traditional models through a deep integration of contextual insights and real-time data, leveraging the Retrieval-Augmented Generation architecture. This talk will outline Full RAG's potential to significantly enhance personalization, address engineering challenges such as data management and model training, and introduce data enrichment with reranking as a key solution. Attendees will gain crucial insights into the importance of hyperpersonalization in AI, the capabilities of Full RAG for advanced personalization, and strategies for managing complex data integrations for deploying cutting-edge AI solutions.
Full-RAG: A modern architecture for hyper-personalization
Cat Qp
1. Mock CAT – I
The test has 165 questions.
The total time for the test is 120 minutes.
The paper is divided into three sections
Section 1 : 55 questions – Quantitative Techniques
Section 2 : 55 questions – Data Interprétation & Reasoning
Section 3: 55 questions – English & Reading Comprehensive
∋ Don’t use calculator
∋ Correct answer carries 1 mark
∋ Wrong answer carries ¼ negative marks
SECTION - 1
1. In a party I asked to a young woman “How old are you”?
She answered “ my age four years hence multiplied by two and from that subtracted three times my age ten years
ago will give you my exact it age :
How old do you think she was?
(a) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (d) 20
2. Test on three subjects physics, Chemistry & Biology are to be conducted simultaneously, the number of candidates
for the tests are 68,36 & 72 respectively. Candidates are to be seated in different rooms such that each room will
have candidates of the same subject and the load on each invigilator be the same i.e. the number of candidates in
each room should be the same what is the minimum number of rooms you need for the purposes.
(a) 22 (b) 30 (c ) 44 (d) none of these
3. There are 30 persons waiting to be recruited for playing cricket at the national level. Two teams are to be picked
up: the first team recruited shall play the Australia, and the second shall play against the srilanka. In how many
ways can be cricket board select these teams?
(a) 2x30P11 (b) 30C11X19C11 (c ) 30P11X19P11 (d) 30C11X19C11/2!
4. If a: b: c = 8:7:3 find the ratio of (a+2b+c) : (2a+3b-c)
(a) 25:34 (b) 18:12 (c ) 12:18 (d) 34:25
5. Find the value of 0.0758 * 0.0758 * 0.0758 + 0.9242 * 0.9242 * 0.9242
0.0758 * 0.9242 + 0.0758 * 0.9242 + 0.0758 * 0.9242
(a) 0.8484 (b) 1.0758 (c) 2 (d) 1
2. 6. Three oranges, six bananas & eight apples cost Rs 30. Seven oranges four bananas and two apples cost 20. I
bought Five oranges, five bananas and five apples. How much did I pay ?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c ) 35 (d) Cannot be determined
7. The product of all integers from 1 to 100 will have the following numbers of zeros at the end:
(a) 20 (b) 21 (c ) 24 (d) 25
8. A five digit number is formed using digits 1,3,5,7 & 9 without repeating any are of these. What is the sum of all
such possible numbers?
(a) 6666600 (b) 6666660 (c ) 6666666 (d) none of those
9. From each of two given numbers, 1/3 the smaller number is subtracted of the resulting number, the larger one is 4
times as larger as the smaller. What is the ratio of the two numbers?
(a) 2:1 (b) 3:1 (c ) 3:2 (d) none
10. From a group of 30 persons, 2 are to be selected. The first one to be a picked shall be sent to Mumbai and the
other are to Kolkota. What is the probability of Gautam going to Kolkota.
(a) 2/30 C2 (b) 1/30C2 (c ) 1/30P2 (d) can not be determined
11. Let an+1 = 2an+1 (where n=0,1,2 …. & a0 = 0) then a10 is
(a) 1023 (b) 2047 (c ) 4095 (d) 8192
12. Let a,b and c be positive integers satisfying c<a<b and c+a+b=k. what is the smallest value of K that does not
determine a,b,c uniquely?
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c ) 9 (d) 8
13. Given odd positive integers m,n & p. Which of the following is not necessarily true?
(a) 3(m2+n2+P2) is even(b) m2n2p2 (c ) P4 (m4+n4)/2 is even
4
(d) 5m+n+p is add.
14. A and B can do a piece of work in 5 days, A and C in 6 days and B and C in 20 days. A can do the in how many
days.
(a) 6 ½ days (b) 7 ½ days (c ) 8 ½ days (d) 9 ½ days
15. If 3.689x1.138=4.19802, what is the exact value of 2.6891x1.1383=?
(a) 4.19930253 (b) 4.1993253 (c ) 4.199363 (d) 4.19065
(Q16 to 19 are based on the following)
Tanmay, Sukanta and Prasant are related to each other. Here are some due to find out the relationship between them.
a. Tanmay’s legal spouse and sukanta’s sibling are of the same sex
b. Among the three are Tanmay’s legal spouse, Sukanta’s sibling and Prasanta’s sister in law.
16. Who is the married man?
(a)Tanmay (b) Sukanta (c) Prasanta (d) Cannot be determined
17. Who is the married women ?
(a)Tanmay (b) Sukanta (c) Prasanta (d) Cannot be determined
3. 18. The number of males is ?
I. 1 II. 2
(a)(I) (b) (II) (c) (I) or (II) (d) neither (I) nor (II)
19. Who is the sibling ?
(a)Tanmay (b) Sukanta (c) Prasanta (d) Cannot be determined
20. Three man run a race of 100 m. The race is won by 9 1/11 m in distance and by 1second in time. Find the speed of
the Winner (m/s).
10/11 10/11
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c)10 (d) 9
n! n!
21. Find the solution of the equation = 20
(n − 5)! (n − 3)!
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 3 (d) 2
22. The time is 2.15 p.m. What is the angle between the hour and minute hands ?
(a) 22½ (b) 37 ½ (c) 43½ (d) 15½
23. The distance between Bangalore to mysore is about 85 miles two train leave at 11 in the morning.
One train leaves Bangalore at 80 mph and the other from mysore at 50 mph. When they meet?
(a) 11.45 (b) 11.15 (c) 11.30 (d) 11.00
24. In a party the total number of handshakes none exchanged is 6 can you tell me how may friends were
present.
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
(Q25 to 28 are based on the following :)
d 1 C
3 6 B
e A 2
In this square, if you add all the number by rows, columns or diagonals you will get the same
Number answers the followings.
25. Find the value of a+f ?
(a) 13 (b) 16 (c) 19 (d) 14
26. Find the value of d-e?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 9
27. Find the value of c?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 3
4. 28. Find the value of a+b+c-d-e ?
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 08
29. What is the value of 30 + 30 + 30 + 30 + 30
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
30. Find x such that 43x776 is divisible by 11
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) none of these
31. Bishu is 26 now. She is twice as old as Hema was when Bishu was as old as Hema is now What would Hema’s
age be now?
(a) More than 30 years (b) either (a) or (c)
(c ) Less than 20 years (d) Neither (a) nor (c)
32. A survey of 800 television watches produced the following information : 286 watch KKSBKBT, 298 KGGK & 215
KZK. 35 watch KK&BKBT and KGGK, 40 KGGK & KZK, 20 KZK & KKSBKBT & 40 none of the three games. How
many watch all three games.
(a) 46 (b) 26 (c) 36 (d) 56
33. I have 650 g of a 14% solution of alcohol in wine. I decide to add alcohol to get the mixture to 26% . But after
three days we find that the solution is already of 26% consistency. How much wine value have evaporated
(a) 350 (b) 300 (c) 325 (d) can not be determined
34. The average age of 400 students is 20.62. By enrolment of 60 new students, the average age is lowered to 20.12
years find the average age of the new students.
(a) 16.78 (b) 16.79 (c) 16.7 (d) 16
35. I bought tow varieties of rice costing 250 & 400 per bag respectively, mixed them and sold them at 360 per bag at
a profit of 20% what was the ratio of the mixture?
(a) 6:5 (b) 2:1 (c) 3:2 (d) 6:7
36. A little ball is dropped from a height of 8 ft. and it bounces back each time to a height which is one half of the
height of the last bounce
How far approximately will the ball have traveled when it comes to rest ?
(a) 36 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 48
37 to 39 are based on the followings?
a (b+4) c
(a+4) b (c+1)
d 0 (c+4) 9
37. Find the value of a-b?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
38. Find the value of C+4?
(a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 5
5. 39. Find the value of d ?
(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 2
40. 600 persons working 8 hours per day complete 1/3 rd of the work in 12 days. The number of additional persons,
working 6 hours per day required to complete the remaining work in 15 days, is ?
(a) 1280 (b) 680 (c) 600 (d) 80
41. Which is greatest in 221/2 %, 2/25, and .08?
(a) 22 ½ % (b) 2/25 (c) .08 (d) All are equal
42. Subtracting 25% of x from 5 equivalent to multiplying by how much
(a) 75 (b) .75 (c) .075 (d) 7.5
43. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a purchaser to obtain 2.5 kg more for Rs.160. Find the reduced
price per kg
(a) 16 (b) 12.80 (c) 3.20 (d) 19.20
44. An amount of Rs. 2145 is divided among A B and C such that if their shares be reduced by Rs.IO, Rs.15 & Rs.20
respectively the remainder shall be in the ratio 2:3:4. The money received by c was
(a) 700 (b) 670 (c) 715 (d) 685
45. A B C subscribe Rs 50000 for a business. A subscribe Rs 6000 more than B & B Rs 1000 more than C. Out of a
total profit of Rs 45000 A receives :
(a) 20600 (b) 22600 (c) 23600 (d) 21600
46. A is thrice as good a work man as B and together they finish a piece of work in 24 days. In how many days will B
alone finish the work.
(a) 96 days (b) 32 days (c) 64 days (d) 16days
47. A train overtakes two persons who are walking in the same direction in which the train is going, at the rate of
2kmph &4kmph passes them completely is 9 and 10 seconds respectively. The length of the train is :
(a)45m (b)50m (c)72m (d)54m
48. If 7 and 9 are the remainders when 98 and 165 respectively are divided by a positive integer a than a =
(a)7 (b)12 (c)11 (d)13
49. A cylindrical water tank with a diameter of 10M & height of 7m is being filled at the rate of 11 cubic meters per
hour. If the tank is halt full, how long will it take for the whole tank to be filled ?
(a)25hours (b)50hours (c)200hours (d)100hours
6. (Q50 to 52 These questions are based on following information:)
Five racers A B C D E are running in five tracks. The person in track III is first. C is ahead of E but behind A who is behind
B. Trackwise, B is not near D or C have two persons between them in the race. B 5 to the right of B. The person who is
third is in track IV.
50. Who is the last in the race
(a) B (b) C (c) D (d) E
51. Who is the track no V
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
52. Who is second in the race ?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E
Q53 to 55
The diagram shows the games played by the young persons of a colony the triangle represents the persons playing
badminton, the square is for chess Players and the circle for these who play cricket. Each section of the diagram bears.
The no of persons playing the game or games. Examine the diagram & answer the questions.
19
18
22 17
14 31
29
53. Which game is played by the maximum number of person?
(a)Badminton (b) Chess (c) Cricket (d) Can’t say
54. What is the difference in the number of persons. Who play one game and these who play two games.
(a) 19 (b) 25 (c ) 31 (d) 27
55. What is the % of persons who play cricket ?
(a) 57.2 % (b) 53.3 % (c ) 48.9% (d) 39.8%
56 - 65:-
Mark a: If statement (1) is alone sufficient to answer the question
Mark b: If statement (2) is alone sufficient to answer the question
Mark c: If both statements together are sufficient to answer the question.
Mark d: If even both statements taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.
56. How many families in Punjab have both radio and a two in one set?
1. The state has 25000 families
2. 15000 families have two is one sets and 2750 families have radio.
7. 57. A cylindrical tank 20 inches in height is full of water how many cubic inches of water does it contain?
1. A cubic foot of water weighs 160 pounds.
2. The internal diameter of the fish tank is 10 inches.
58. If in is a natural number than in is divisible by how many positive integers ?
1 n is the products of different prime numbers
2. n is divisible by 8.
59. What day of the week today?
1. Today is 10th October
2. 23rd December was a Wednesday?
60. What is the value of (x-y)?
1. X2 - y2 =5
2. X+ y =1
61. 6500 people are eligible to vote in an election. How many of them actually voted ?
1. Those who have actually voted were 49% of the men who are eligible to vote.
2. 38% of woman did not vote.
62. In an isosceles triangle ABC, what is the length of AB?
1. BC is 10 inches.
2. Angle C is equal to 90.
63. What is the HCF of the positive integers C & D.
1. C & D are even
2. The H.C.F of c/2 & d/2 is 5.
64. Is the average of 50 candies greater than 26?
1. 1/3 of them cost 28 per candy
2. ½ of them cost 22 per candy
65. What is the relation between the mothers of the two girls.
1. The girls are first cousins
2. The girls are bad friends.
8. 66-70
The distribution of sales of 6 different types of cloth by uno stores for two different years is given in the pie chart.
Saree
20%
Dhoties Saree
7% 15%
Dhoties
Shirt 10%
Salw ars Shirt
30%
15% 40%
Salw ars
5%
pant
11% Pant Small
Small
10% 20%
Trusers
17%
66. Which of the following type of items shaved the lowest percentage change in market share ?
(a) Small trousers (b) Pant (c ) Saree (d) Shirt
67. How many more lakh rupee of dhoties were sold in the II year than in the I year ?
(a) 42 (b) 58 (c ) 10 (d) 62
68. What was the total value of salwars sold is the year (in lakh)
(a) 100 (b) 240 (c ) 200 (d) 140
69. What is the percentage share of market for shirt for both the years combined together ?
(a) 35.00% (b) 32.10% (c ) 37.75% (d) 36.25%
70. If the price of a saree was Rs 2000 is the first year and Rs 2500 in the second year , what was the change in the
number of these sarees sold over the two years?
(a) No Change (b) 1000 (c ) 100 (d) 1000
(Q71 to 75 )
Given below is the data of the sale of refrigerators of a company in four cities during are years. The record is based on
quarterly sale.
Time of the Year Oct to Dec
Jan to Mar (Winter April to July to
(millennium
concession) July September
Cities concession)
Calcutta 522 736 419 468
Chennai 419 606 403 452
Delhi 715 804 721 735
Mumbai 822 793 701 814
9. 71. What approximately is Mumbai’s contribution in the annual sale ?
(a) 27.8% (b) 33.3% (c ) 30.9% (d) 31.5%
72. The number of refrigerators sold during the quarterly period of winter concession were how many more or less
than those of millennium concession period ?
(a) 12less (b) 3more (c)9more (d) 21less
73. What is the percentage of the refrigerators sold during fully to sept quarterly? (approx)
(a) 19.9% (b) 23.9% (c) 20.3% (d) 22.1%
If the winter concession was 15% and the millennium concession 20% on the actual price which was Rs 8500 per
refrigerator
74. How much turnover did the company receive during the period Oct to dec?(in lakhs)
(a) 167.89 (b) 196.67 (c) 174.79 (d) 179.34
75. The turnover of Jan to March is how much more than the turnover of Oct to Dec.
(a) Rs. 1194320 (b) Rs. 1173910 (c) Rs. 1198340 (d) Rs. 1163910
Carefully answer the question of the following table :
Percentage of Mark obtained by 7 students in 6 subjects (max. Marks for each subject are sham in the brackets)
H I J K L M
Subject (5) (60) (80) (50) (40) (40)
Stude
nt
A 86 82 95 78 66 84
B 92 78 85 89 72 76
C 76 94 89 75 62 69
D 67 74 74 84 85 82
E 74 86 64 80 78 72
F 88 89 76 88 70 64
G 90 96 86 92 65 66
76. Approximately what is the overall percentage of marks obtained by the D in all subjects?
(a) 79 (b) 82 (c) 86 (d) 76
77. What is the overall percentage of marks obtained by J in all the subjects
(a) 82.74 (b) 84.76 (c) 76.84 (d) 74.87
78. What are the average marks obtained by all the student in I.
(a) 51.34 (b) 85.57 (c) 52.36 (d) 76.27
79. What are the total marks obtained by F in H, I & J?
(a) 221.8 (b) 253 (c) 180.2 (d) 184
80. What is the average percentage of marks obtained by all the students in J?
(a) 81.92 (b) 81.29 (c) 65.03 (d) 76.23
10. -45
300
- -40
-35
250
- -30
-25
200
- -20
150 -15
- -10
-5
100
0Y 10 20 30 40 50 0
Y Y Y Y Y
Distance less moved away from equator in multiple of y. The bar graph denoting temperature levels and the line graph
sharing no of average migrance cases in one mare away from the equator are part of a report.
81. Which part shows that even though temperature level is the same these is an improvement an in over number of
migrance cases are found?
(a) 30y (b) 30-40y (c) 40y (d) 40-50y
82. What is the change in temperature level, 50y less from the equator?
(a) 40% (b) 70% (c) 60% (d) 50%
83. What is the average temperature level is the entire stretch 0-50 yr?
(a) 153 (b) 187 (c) 165 (d) 174
84. Which is the point which bracket this relation?
(a) 50y KM (b) 30 y KM (c) 40y KM (d) 20y KM
85. Which part shows a clear correlation between temperature and migrance cases?
(a) 10y-40y Less (b) 20y-40y KM (c) 0-20y less (d) 30y-50y
86. Which part shows the least change in temperature per change in
(a) 10y-20y (b)40y-50y (c) 0-10y (d)30y-40y
87. Which of the following regions has the lowest ratio between the change in migrance cases to the change is
temperature?
(a) 0y-50y (b) 10y-20y (c) 20y-30y (d)0-50y
88. Which part shares the maximum percentage change in the number of migrance cases/
(a)40y-50y (b) 10y-20y (c) 20y-30y (d)Botha&b
11. 89. What is the average number of migrance cases over the entire region.
(a) 22 (b) 33 (c) 44 (d)cannot be determined
90. What is the percentage change in the arrange number of migrance cases between 0 to 50y?
(a) 40% (b) 25% (c) 75% (d) Can not be determined
91 - 100 : Each questions consists. of six statement following by options consisting of three statements put together
in a specific order choose the option which indicates a valid agreements, that is, where the third
statements is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.
91. (a).No thief is a cheat (d).All tiks are toes
(b).All tiks are not taks (e).Some taks are toes
(c).Some taks are not tiks (f. Some taks are tiks
(a). DBC (b). DBA (c) EAC (d). FDE
92. (a). No Phatte is a eers … (d). Some eers are phattes
(b). Some Beers are Phattes (e). All phattes are not beers
(c). Some eers may be phattes (f). Some eers are beers
(a). FBC (b). FCB (c) BAE (d). FBD
93. (a). Same zips are zams (d). Same zaps are zips
(b). Same zips are not zaps (e). All zaps are zams
(c). All zips are zaps (f). All zaps are not zips
(a). CEF (b). EAB (c) DAB (d). CFE
94. (a). All yo – yo’s are bo –bo’s (d). All bo-bo’s are do-do’s
(b). Some bo-bo’s are not yo-yo’s (e). All yo-yo’s are not bo-bo’s
(c). Some yo-yo’s are do-do’s (f). All do –do’s are yo-yo’s
(a). ADF (b). DFE (c) ADC (d). DFA
95. (a). All poogies are boogies (d). All boogies are poogies
(b). All woogies ae poogies (e). All boogies are woogies
(c). All poogies are woogies (f). All woogies are boogies
(a). EBA (b). DCE (c) BAE (d). FDC
96. (a). Some B are M (d). All M are E
(b). No B is a M (e). All E are M
(c). Some M are F (f). No E is a B
(a). ACF (b). ABF (c) BDF (d). BEF
97. (a). P catch T (d). T catch W
(b). W catch T (e). P catch W
(c). P catch W (f). T catch P
12. (a). ABC (b). ADE (c) BCD (d). DEF
98. (a). D operate (d). All those who operate are S
(b). S diagnose (e). Same D are not S
(c). D are like S (f). Same people who operate are not S
(a). DEF (b). ABD (c) EAF (d). FBD
99. (a). S & G are couples (d). Same couples are twins
(b). S & G are not twins (e). Not all couples are twins
(c). S & G are pairs (f). All pairs are not twins
(a). CDF (b). ABD (c) ABE (d). AEF
100. A. Cheque are negotiable D. Demand draft is a share
B. Some bonds are shares E. Some shares are negotiable
C. Demand draft is a cheque F. Demand draft is a negotiable
(a). BCE (b). ABD (c)ACF (d). ADF
101 – 105 : in the flowing questions, you are given two statements, followed by two possible inference You are to
point which of the following answer choices applies:
Marks
(a). If only inference I follows (b). If only inference II follows
(c). If both inferences follows (d). If neither of the inferences follows.
101. All pets are prets. Some pets are pests So.
I - Some prets are pests
II - Some pests are prets’
102. No p has A. E is P. So
I - E does not have A
II - E has A.
103. All T are playing objects. All playing objects are fun to play with so.
I - All playing objects are T
II - All Ts are fun to play with
104. Some d are t some b are d So
I - Some f are b
II - Some b are d
105. All V are g all g are b. So
I - Some b are V
II - Some V are b
13. Direction for question 106 to 110: A baseball game, five men, ABCDE and five women FGHI & J occupy a row of
ten seats. The men are in the odd numbered seats. Starting from the left, each woman sits to the left of the man
she is dating.
• D is I’s date
• I is not the right end of the row and the man she is dating is not at the left end of the row
• C is one seat from the right end of the row
• The man dating J likes G best among the other women and insists on being seated to the left of G.
• B and net date occupy the middle pair of seats
• I sits next to B
106. Which of the following lists five person sitting adjacent of one another form the left to right?
(a)H,I,D,B,G (b)D,I ,B,G,J (c)B,Y,A,J,C (d)D,I,B,G & either A or E
107. U’s date may be
(a)C or A (b)A or E (c)C or E (d)C , A or E
108. Which of the following cannot be determined in the basis of the information given?
I. who occupies the seat farthest to the left
II. who occupies the seat farthest to the right
(a) I only (b) II only (c) I & II only (d) None of these
109. Which of the following could be determined exactly of the position of either A or E was given?
(a)The identity of A’s date
(b)The identity of E is date
(c)The identity of A’s date or E’s date but not both
(d)Which woman is not seated between to men.
110. In order to determine the position of G it is necessary to use how many f the number statements
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
SECTION - 3
Q111 – 118 Correct the Grammatical error of the under line part of following questions?
111. Gopal play football everyday but to day he play volley
(a) Plays, is playing (b) Is playing, plays
(c) played, is playing (d) Play, has played
112. The drama begin at 8 p.m. . We shall go to see it.
(a) begins (b) will begin (c) shall begin (d) have to begin
113. The teacher arrive when the boys make a noise
(a) arrives, is making (b) is arriving, makes(c)arrived , was making(d)arrived ,were making
14. 114. The patient suffer since last evening.
(a) suffers (b) is suffering
(c) was suffering (d) has been suffering
115 . He thrown away my advice
(a) threw away (b) rejected
(c) both a&b (d).none of these
116. He turn on the T.V
(a) turned on (b) switched on
(c) both a&b (d) none of these
117. He was cut off in the crime of his life.
(a) cut off (b) no development
(c ) can’t be developed (d) cut off (past)
118. One atomic was will wipe out the whole human civilization
(a)wipe out (b)totally destroy
(c)none of these (d) both a& b
119-130: See the following four sentences carefully and choose the a logical sequences for the sentences
A,B,C,D.
119. (a) And hide the hearts of one people from these of another
(b) Be recognized in international affairs
(c) If may be long before the law of love will
(d) The machineries of government stand between.
(a). ABCD (b). DCBA (c)CBDA (d). BCDA
120. (a) To forgive is not to forget
(b) There is no merit in loving an enemy
(c) The merit lies in loving in spite of the vivid knowledge that the one that must be loved is not a friend.
(d) When you forget him for a friend
(a). ABCD (b). ACBD (c)DCBA (d). BCDA
121. (a) My religion is based on
(b) Truth and non violence
(c ) Truth is my god
(d) Non violence is the means of realizing him
(a). DCBA (b). DBCA (c)DCBA (d). ABCD
122. 1. The only virtue I want to claim is truth and non violence
(a) I lay no claim to superhuman powers
(b) My services have many limitations
(c ) I want non I wear the same corruptible flesh that the weakest of my
(d) Follow being wear and on these fore is liable to err as any.
15. 2. but god has up to now blessed them in spite of in perfection
(a). ACDB (b). ABCD (c)ADCB (d). DCBA
123. (a) methods even to serve the noblest of causes
(b) I am an uncompromising opponent of violent.
(c ) Admire worthy motives.
(d) However much I may sympathies with and
(a). ABCD (b). DCBA (c)DBCA (d). BCDA
124. (a) Nonviolence is not quality to be evolved
(b) or expressed to order. It is an
(c) Upon intense individual effort
(d) inward growth depending for sustenance
(a). ABCD (b). ACBD (c)ABDC (d). CDBA
125. (a) disposal of mankind it is mightier
(b) then the mightiest weapon of
(c) non violence is the greatest force at the
(d) destruction devised by the in genuity of man
(a). CABD (b). ABCD (c) CBAD (d). ABCD
126. (a) Love lived on island. One day
(b) Happiness, Sadness, knowledge and
(c) The Island began to sink so all
(d) The felling prepared the boats to leave
(a). BADC (b). ABDC (c) BADC (d). BACD
127. (a) Vanity said “ you are all wet and will damage my beautiful boat”
(b) for help “ I can’t help you”
(c) beautiful vessel she cried out
(d) The love saw vanity in a
(a). DCBA (b). DCAB (c) ABCD (d). ACBD
128. (a) Sadness declined, saying he needed to be alone. This, love saw
(b) happiness love carried out “ Happiness, please take me with you”
(c) Next love pleaded with Sadness “ please let me go with you “ but
(d) But happiness was so overjoyed that he didn’t hear love calling to him
(a). CADB (b). CABD (c) ACBD (d). ACDB
16. 129. (a) Love began to cry. Then, she heard a voice “ Come leave,
(b) I will take you with me “ it was an elder.
(c) When they arrived an land the elder want to his way. Love realized how much she owed the elder
(d) Love felt so blessed and overjoyed that she forgot to ask the elder his name.
(a). ABDC (b). ABCD (c) CDAB (d). DCBA
130. (a) Who helped me
(b) It was time, knowledge an answered.
(c) Love then found knowledge and asked
(d) Only time is capable of understanding how great love is
(a). CDAB (b). CBAD (c) CABD (d). CDBA
131 – 140:
131. (a) Abstract (b) Conceptual (c) Material (d) Ideational
132. (a) Ring (b) Shoulder (c) Finger (d) write
133. (a) Apt (b) Relevant (c) Appropriate (d) Adept
134. (a) Equestrian (b) Neigh (c) Derby (d) Bark
135. (a) Solar (b) Hydro (c) Biogas (d) Nuclear
136. (a) Expiate (b) Absolve (c) Pardon (d) Ac quit
137. (a) WEF (b) BES (c) IMF (d) WTO
138. (a) Sphinx (b) Medusa (c) Adonis (d) Cupid
139. (a) Paternal (b) Maternal (c) Avuncular (d) Truncate
140. (a) Equine (b) Horse (c) Equinox (d) Neigh
17. 141 – 165 :- Read the passages carefully and answer the questions given below :
PASSAGE - I
I found that Mrs. Heep slowly came nearer to me and Uriah got opposite to men, and they gave me all the best food on the
table. They began to talk about their aunts; and I told them about my aunt. They talked about fathers and mothers, and I
told them about my father and mother; and then I stopped because my aunt had advised me to be silent on that subject.
But I had no chance against Uriah and Mrs. Heep. They did what they liked with me. They got out of me things which I did
not wish to tell.
141. The speaker told Uriah and Mrs heep about has aunt because
(a) They pleaded with him to do so
(b) he liked talking about his aunt
(c ) They first talked about their aunts
(d) They forced him to talk about his aunt.
142. The speaker stopped talking about his parents because
(a) he did not like the subject
(b) he could not remember the details
(c ) His parents had forbidden him to do so
(d) His aunt had told him not to discuss his parents
143. The Heeps did what they liked with the speaker because
(a) He was a fool
(b) He was over whelmed by their wind ness
(c ) He for got his aunts device
(d) He was lager to till them everything
144. When the speaker found that the Heeps were frank with him he
(a) admired their frankness
(b) became suspicious of their motives
(c ) told them all they wanted to know
(d) did not know what to do.
145. Uriah , Heep and his wife gave the speaker good food because
(a) They were fond of him
(b) They were kind by nature
(c ) The speaker asked for special treatment
(d) They wanted to elicit information from him
18. PASSAGE - II
Slowly but surely the great passenger trains of the United States have been fading from the rails. Short run commuter
trains still rattle in and out of the cities. Between major cities you can still find a train, but their running is becoming less
frequent. The twentieth Century Limited. The Broadway Limited, and other luxury trains that sang along the rails at 60 to
80 miles an hour are no longer running. Passengers on other long runs complain of poor service, old equipment, and
costs in time and money. The long distance traveler today accepts the noise of jets, the congestion at airports and the
traffic between airports and the city. A more elegant and graceful way is becoming only a memory.
146. The trains that still run frequently are
(a) Freight trains
(b) Commuter trains
(c) Luxury trains
(d) Fast long distance trains
147. The great passenger trains referred to the passage were
(a) Majestic tourists train
(b) Efficient commuter trains
(c) Long distance passenger trains
(d) The twentieth century united and the broad away limited
148. Passengers on long distance trains are unhappy because:
(a) Long delays are caused at railway actions
(b) elegance and grace are missing
(c ) Trains tickets are not easily available
(d) The service on trains is often par
149. The author feels that raveling by train
(a) Can never be comfortable
(b) Was comfortable is the past
(c ) Is comfortable but vary expansive
(d) Will be comfortable in future
150. What the author associates with air travel is
(a) Elegance and face
(b) Luxury & speed
(c ) Noise & congestion
(d) Expense and style
19. PASSAGE - III
The black-and-white dog made off as I went through the fence. But the red dog whimpered and hesitated, and moved on
hot bricks. He was fat and in good condition. He waited while I went up to him, wagging his tail and whimpering, and
ducking his head and dancing. He daren’t rub his nose with his paws any more; it hurt too much. I patted his head and
looked at his nose, and he whimpered loudly. He must have had thirty quills, or more, sticking out of his nose; the white,
ugly ends of the quills protruding from his already swollen, blood-puffed muzzle.
151. The black & white dog ran way because
(a) He was being chased
(b) He had been hit with stones
(c ) The red dog chased him
(d) He heard his masters whistle
152. The red dog moved gingerly and restlessly because
(a) The sun was not
(b) He was in great pain
(c ) he was frightened
(d) he was fat
153. The dog whimpered loudly by when
(a) The author examined his nose
(b) He ducked his head
(c ) The author touched him
(d) He moved on hot bricks
154. Wagging his tail the dog pleaded with the author to
(a) remove the quills
(b) take him to the vet
(c ) Give him food
(d) Take him back to his market
155. The word .,……….. means
(a) Sharp
(b) Cruel
(c ) Black
(d) Repulsive
20. PASSAGE – IV
A frustrated old man, Badni Thakur was never tired of extolling the exploits of his ancestors. With a little prompting he
would lapse into a reminiscent mood, push back the loosely tied turban from his close-cropped grizzled hair and start a
familiar story, improvising fanciful details which, to the mirth of his audience, always kept changing with every recounting.
156. Badni Thakur often remembered his ancestors because:
(a) They had been rick & powerful
(b) He was an old man
(c) he was not happy with himself
(d) They were dead the dead must be remembered
157. The Thakur told stories about his ancestors whenever he
(a) Felt like doing it
(b) Was in the company of his friend
(c) Was requested by a friend or two to do it
(d) Was in a jovial mood
158. The impact of the stories on his friends was that they
(a) Were filled with amazement
(b) Felt very depressed
(c) Failed to under stand much of what he said
(d) Were greatly amused
159. The most important feature of his stories was that they:
(a) Were based on facts
(b) Were full of philosophical reflections
(c) Always had something new to other
(d) Were full of funny incidents
160. His attitude to his ancestors was are if
(a) Awe
(b) Fear
(c) Reverence
(d) Admiration
21. PASSAGE – V
It is a fundamental characteristic of culture that, despite its essentially conservative nature, it does change over time and
from place to place. Herein it differs strikingly from the social behaviour of animals other than man. Among ants, for
example, colonies of the same species differ little in behaviour from one another and even, so far as we can judge from
specimens embedded in amber, from other ancestors of fifty million years ago. In less than one million years man, by
contrast, has advanced from the rawest savagery to civilization and has proliferated at least three thousand distinctive
cultures.
161. The phases essentially conservative nature implies that culture:
(a) Has an inbuilt resistance to change
(b) Is violently opposed to change
(c) Is essentially static f
(d) Is essentially self contained.
162. According to the author, man cannot live
(a) Without creating a thousand distinctive insects
(b) Like ants and other insets
(c ) Without .asserting his dignity
(d) Without constantly striving for a better mode of life
163. The world proliferated here means
(a) Spread
(b) Propagated
(c ) Popularized
(d) multiplied
164. The author speaks about the ants to bring out …………
(a) Social solidarity
(b) Fixed pattern of social behavior of the ants
(c ) Instinct for survival
(d) Inferior mode of living
165. The author’s chief concern is
(a) The social behavior of animals
(b) Evolution of human society
(c ) Men’s abilities of survival
(d) Adaptive techniques perfected by man.
22. ANSWER SHEET
Q 1 c Q 51 c Q 101 c Q 151 d
Q 2 c Q 52 b Q 102 a Q 152 b
Q 3 b Q 53 b Q 103 b Q 153 a
Q 4 a Q 54 b Q 104 c Q 154 a
Q 5 b Q 55 b Q 105 c Q 155 a
Q 6 a Q 56 d Q 106 d Q 156 d
Q 7 c Q 57 c Q 107 d Q 157 c
Q 8 a Q 58 a Q 108 c Q 158 c
Q 9 b Q 59 d Q 109 c Q 159 c
Q 10 b Q 60 c Q 110 d Q 160 a
Q 11 a Q 61 d Q 111 a Q 161 a
Q 12 b Q 62 c Q 112 b Q 162 b
Q 13 c Q 63 d Q 113 d Q 163 b
Q 14 b Q 64 b Q 114 d Q 164 b
Q 15 a Q 65 d Q 115 c Q 165 b
Q 16 b Q 66 d Q 116 c
Q 17 a Q 67 b Q 117 d
Q 18 b Q 68 d Q 118 d
Q 19 c Q 69 d Q 119 c
Q 20 b Q 70 a Q 120 b
Q 21 b Q 71 c Q 121 d
Q 22 a Q 72 c Q 122 a
Q 23 c Q 73 d Q 123 b
Q 24 c Q 74 a Q 124 c
Q 25 b Q 75 d Q 125 a
Q 26 b Q 76 d Q 126 b
Q 27 b Q 77 d Q 127 a
Q 28 a Q 78 b Q 128 b
Q 29 a Q 79 c Q 129 a
Q 30 b Q 80 b Q 130 c
Q 31 c Q 81 d Q 131 c
Q 32 b Q 82 a Q 132 b
Q 33 b Q 83 b Q 133 d
Q 34 a Q 84 d Q 134 d
Q 35 b Q 85 c Q 135 c
Q 36 c Q 86 b Q 136 a
Q 37 a Q 87 d Q 137 b
Q 38 a Q 88 d Q 138 c
Q 39 b Q 89 d Q 139 d
Q 40 b Q 90 c Q 140 c
Q 41 a Q 91 d Q 141 a
Q 42 b Q 92 a Q 142 d
Q 43 b Q 93 b Q 143 d
Q 44 c Q 94 c Q 144 c
Q 45 b Q 95 b Q 145 d
Q 46 a Q 96 b Q 146 b
Q 47 b Q 97 b Q 147 d
Q 48 b Q 98 c Q 148 b
Q 49 a Q 99 c Q 149 b
Q 50 b Q 100 c Q 150 c