Need as soon as possible1)Which of the following represent .docx

Need as soon as possible:
1)
Which of the following represent types of interests?
a)
Advocacy groups
b)
Special interest
c)
Activist groups
d)
All of the above
2)
Which of the following is not an organized interest group that
directly impacts the automobile industry?
a) United Auto Workers
b) Trial lawyers
c) American Association of Automobile Manufacturers

d) Mothers Against Drunk Driving
3)
Which of the following is not a primary public institution in the
nonmarket environment?
a)
Legislatures
b)
The executive branch
c)
The World Court
d)
Administrative agencies
4)
Which of the following is a powerful force for providing
information to officeholders regarding the likely consequences
of policy alternative for their constituents and the public more
broadly?
a)

United Auto Workers
b)
Newspapers from advocates of some position
c)
Lobbying
d)
None is correct
5)
Which one of the following makes up the Administrative and
regulatory agencies arena in which nonmarket issues for the
automobile industry are addressed?
a)
Congress
b)
Environmental Protection Agency
c)
European Union
d)

All of the above
6)
Which auto company was targeted by the environmental groups
seeking to mobilize the public to support greater fuel economy?
a)
General Motors
b)
Hummer
c)
Toyota
d)
Saturn
7)
Which of the following is NOT a source of nonmarket issues?
a)
Moral concerns
b)

Institutional change
c)
Interest group activity
d)
Crash of the stock market
8)
What is the following new theory called: ‘under which firms
could be held liable if their stock prices fell significantly when
the firms’ projections of future earnings had been favorable?
a)
Fraud on the market
b)
Fraud on the nonmarket
c)
The common factor
d)
Collective deception

9)
In terms of strategy and nonmarket issue life cycle, Nike found
itself reacting to what
rather than shaping the development of the issue?
a)
The government only
b)
Their own culture
c)
Others’ actions
d)
None are correct
10) Nonmarket issue life cycle and strategy ranges from what to
what on the continuum of time?
a)
Issue identification; enforcement
b)
Interest group formation; enforcement

c)
Legislation; administration
d)
Issue identification; administration
11) The most effective means of integrating nonmarket
strategies and market strategies is
to what?
a)
Consider both strategies
b)
Consider only nonmarket strategies
c)
Consider only market strategies
d)
Consider neither but come up with new strategies
12) ______ is a foundation for market or competitive strategy
because it is a source of competitive advantage.

a)
Timing
b)
Lobbying
c)
Positioning
d)
Marketing
13) Nonmarket positioning is influenced by a firm’s
a)
finances.
b)
market strategy.
c)
customers.
d)
competition.

14) What was the primary concern for eBay in its positioning
for a certain type of space?
a)
Market
b)
Consumer
c)
Legal
d)
Moral
15) The collection of diverse interests, viewpoints, and
preferences of the individuals in society is known as what?
a)
Public individualiality
b)
Common sense
c)

Public sentiment
d)
Public wants and demands
16) BP managed its environment in many ways. One way that it
solidified its positioning
relative to the natural environment was to what?
a)
Move away from oil production and distribution of gasoline
b)
Change its symbol and slogan
c)
Join the Green Party
d)
Appoint only environmentalists to its Board of Directors
17) Law-making and rule-making take place in what type of
space?
a)

Social
b)
Legal
c)
Political
d)
Commercial
18) What space has Microsoft largely ignored, relying instead
on its aggressive approach
to markets?
a)
Legal
b)
Public sentiment
c)
Political
d)

Nonmarket
19) Positioning can also have its perils. Which of the following
companies has been lobbied heavily to increase its commitment
to its own causes?
a)
Xerox
b)
GM
c)
Microsoft
d)
Starbucks
20) Firms deploy nonmarket capabilities to do what?
a)
Add value
b)
Beat the competition

c)
Create new markets
d)
Try new strategies
21) Which of the following are parts of the framework for the
analysis of nonmarket is-
sues?
a)
Screening
b)
Analysis
c)
Choice
d)
All of the above
22) The societal significance perspective of news media
coverage assumes the following roles, except:

a)
maintaining democracy
b)
the First Amendment protects the news media in assuming its
role in the society
c)
informing citizens of unjust behavior
d)
protecting the government, the president and the Congress from
themselves
23) Using the Audience Interest/Societal Significance
continuum, which of the following rates highest on both?
a)
Poverty
b)
Environmental protection
c)
International trade

d)
The economy
24) Which of the following makes an issue more newsworthy?
a)
The degree of urgency
b)
A celebrity being involved with an issue
c)
If the issue contains controversy or conflict
d)
All are correct answers
25) According to well-known journalist Edwin Newman, “What
is news on television often depends on _____________?”
a)
what the editor wants covered
b)
where your reporters and cameramen are

c)
what the month is
d)
what you covered last
26)
In terms of an activists’ generic strategy, what is a low-cost
method of getting information out to the public that they want
to be distributed?
a)
Use the news media
b)
Use television spots
c)
Use nationwide lobbying of legislatures
d)
Go with a lawsuit
27)

Which of the following is not one of Greenpeace’s campaigns?
a)
Ancient rain forests
b)
Climate
c)
Toxins
d)
River dumping in the Amazon
28)
In terms of addressing the activist environment, which of the
following is the guideline for engaging in a fight?
a)
Fight all out
b)
Win at any cost
c)

Fight when you are right and can win—but be careful
d)
Fighting never gains an advantage
29)
When confronted with a private nonmarket action, a natural
reaction is to be _______, but a better response is to
_______the claims and demands the activists make.
a)
Defensive; deny
b)
Defensive; evaluate
c)
Welcoming; accept
d)
Offensive; reject
30)
What was Environmental Defense’s (ED) concern about

McDonald’s?
a)
Sourcing supplies from old growth forests
b)
Practice of harvesting old timber
c)
Practice of solid waste disposal
d)
All of the above
31)
All of the following were the threats against OnBank except?
a)
Direct action against the bank
b)
Required regulatory approval
c)
The reporting of lending data by census track

d)
Bringing in a union
32)
Why was Royal Dutch/Shell such a formidable company for
Greenpeace to take on?
a)
It is well-regarded in the British Isles and it has a history of
fighting all comers
b)
It is the largest corporation in Europe and the third largest in
the world
c)
It is the third largest corporation in Europe and the sixth in
world
d)
It is regarded as the best oil company in the world and
consumers back it in all issues
33)
What was one of Greenpeace’s principal strategies used against

Royal Dutch/Shell?
a)
Attracting public attention through high profile, confrontational
actions that were covered by Greenpeace photographers and
film crews
b)
A lawsuit filed in Wales
c)
Using passive techniques to encourage a boycott of the company
d)
A sit-down strike of all of its gas stations
34)
______ media coverage can be expected when the issue at the
core of the crisis is viewed as important to society and when the
potential audience is large.
a)
Lesser
b)
Greater

c)
Biased
d)
Unbiased
35) __________ involves actions by the company or government
to deal with the crisis.
a)
Reconciliation
b)
Settlement
c)
Intervention
d)
Postponement
36) Resolution involves turning the crisis into a manageable
________ issue.
a)

operating
b)
tactical
c)
strategic
d)
nonmarket
37) Which of the following is NOT a component of crisis
management?
a)
Response
b)
Avoidance
c)
Root cause analysis
d)
All are components

38) Which is the most important component of a crisis
management program?
a)
Preparedness
b)
Resolution
c)
Avoidance
d)
Reconciliation
39) The second most important component of a crisis
management program is
a)
auditing
b)
preparedness
c)
root cause analysis

d)
budgeting
40) One aspect of an avoidance strategy is
a)
budgeting
b)
auditing
c)
strategizing
d)
confronting
41) Which step of a crisis management program deals with
identifying the cause of the
crisis?
a)
Root cause analysis

b)
Pareto analysis
c)
Avoidance analysis
d)
Confrontation analysis
42) On some issues, the benefits from nonmarket action can be
obtained through other means, referred to as:
a)
complements
b)
substitutes
c)
benefits
d)
legalistic

43) In the case of the unitary tax and the location of foreign
firms, which of the following represents the concept presented?
a)
Substitutes
b)
The unfairness of taxing foreign companies located in the
United States
c)
The benefits of taxation to foreign businesses
d)
The no-way-out policy
44) When the benefits from supporting a political alternative are
concentrated and the benefits from opposing it are widely
distributed, the supporters would have:
a)
stronger incentive to take political action than the opponents
b)
weaker incentive to take political action than the opponents

c)
it is better for them not to take any action
d)
none of the above actions is advisable
45) When the benefits from supporting a political alternative are
widely distributed but the benefits for opposing it are
concentrated, the opponents would have:
a)
no incentive to undertake political action against it while its
supporters have little incentive to work for its adoption
b)
strong incentive to undertake political action against it
c)
a weaker incentive to undertake political action against it
d)
any one of the above actions is reasonable to win
46) Proposition 13, the public referendum in California, is an
example of what at work?

a)
Political entrepreneurship
b)
Congressional redistricting
c)
Federal mandates
d)
Failed public policy
47) Nonmarket assets include which of the following?
a)
Reputation of firm
b)
Reputation of top management
c)
Personal relationships with institutional officeholders
d)
All are assets

48) The value chain includes all but which one of the
following?
a)
Inbound logistics
b)
Marketing & sales
c)
Suppliers
d)
Operations
49) Nonmarket analysis involves the following activities,
EXCEPT which of the following?
a)
Identifying the interests affected by an issue
b)
Analyzing the demand for and the supply of political action
c)

Identifying the institutional arenas in which the issue will be
addressed
d)
Analyzing the financial statements of the firm
50) Each of the following is seen as an asset to a firm except:
a)
the firm’s reputation
b)
the firm’s access to institutional actors
c)
the experience of the firm
d)
the stakeholders’ views of the firm
51)
Business grassroots strategy is built on corporate stakeholders
as identified by what?
a)

Rent chain
b)
Money
c)
Partisan politics
d)
Median voters
52)
The principal vehicle for creating a majority coalition is from:
a)
Collection of minorities
b)
Large firms
c)
Those without power
d)
Anyone willing to join

53)
Business coalitions are made up of three types except which of
the following?
a)
Peak organizations
b)
Industry organizations
c)
Ad hoc coalitions
d)
stakeholder groups
54)
Which of the following peak associations focuses on the
concerns of small business?
a)
Small Businesses Inc.
b)

Association of Small Business Concerns
c)
Entrepreneurs and Small Business Organization
d)
National Federation of Independent Business.
55)
Trade associations serve a variety of _____ and ______
functions.
a)
market, corporate
b)
market, nonmarket
c)
corporate, nonmarket
d)
corporate, stakeholder

56)
In Buckley v. Valeo (1976), the Supreme Court ruled what
concerning limits on campaign expenditures?
a)
There are definite dollar limits
b)
Any limit threatens the freedoms of speech and association
c)
A limit of $100 million
d)
A partial limit is fine to preserve the First Amendment
57)
Campaign contributions are made for all but which of the
following reasons?
a)
Influence legislative voting
b)
Obtain access to present or future officeholders

c)
Affect outcome of elections
d)
Help a CEO with his/her political future
58)
In which of the following venues do managers testify?
a)
Regulatory agencies
b)
Congressional committees
c)
Courts
d)
All are correct
59)
The Hart-Scott-Rodino Antitrust Improvement Act of 1976
requires premerger notifications to the ___ and the ___ of plans

to merge.
a)
DOJ; FTC
b)
DOJ; FBI
c)
FTC; FCC
d)
There is no such provision in the law
60) In 2000, what was the number of possible mergers reported
under the provisions of the Hart-Scott-Rodino Act?
a)
None because firms do not need to report such information to
the government
b)
1,547
c)
2,389

d)
4,926
61) Private antitrust suits appear to be going in which of the
following directions?
a)
Increasing substantially
b)
Decreasing substantially
c)
Doubling in numbers year to year
d)
Almost disappearing
62) The Clayton Act has a provision for ____ damages and this
provides a _____ incentive to file suits.
a)
quadruple; strong
b)

treble; strong
c)
seven times; strong
d)
only twice; weak
63) If acts are said to be per se illegal, one defense allowed is
the defendant did not commit the act and the second is what?
a)
Defendant is irrational
b)
Defendant is unethical
c)
Prosecution is out to get the defendant
d)
The defendant committed the act, but it was not unreasonable to
do so
64) Which of the following characteristics is not part of the
Structural school of thought regarding the purpose of antitrust

policy?
a)
International and global
b)
Government is to protect society from economic power
c)
Competition is the best protector of consumers and economic
efficiency
d)
Market is fragile and prone to failure
65) Under the structural or traditional approach, it believed that
in concentrated industries collusion is _____________.
a)
unlikely
b)
given
c)
likely

d)
very rare
66) Which of the following statements is a characteristic of the
Chicago school of thought pertaining to antitrust laws?
a)
Social and political as well as economic objectives
b)
Markets are resilient enough that market imperfections can be
addressed through incentives
c)
Government is to protect society from economic power
d)
Market power derives from both horizontal and vertical
arrangements
67) The Congress exerts great influence on the regulatory
agencies through which of the following means?
a)
Using its budgetary and oversight authorities

b)
Appointing the regulatory agencies administrators
c)
Using the Office of Management and Budget (OMB)
d)
Using the independent commissions
68) Which of the following is a cause of market imperfection?
a)
Pure competition
b)
Asymmetric information
c)
Government has no intervention in the economy
d)
Complete free trade
69) In the case of a natural monopoly, economic theory
recommends that government set the price of goods and services

to be:
a)
Equal to total cost of production
b)
Equal to average cost of production
c)
Equal to marginal cost of production
d)
Equal to the competitors’ price
70) Which one of the following activities could be considered a
nonpecuniary externality?
a)
Effect of a firm’s new plant on the demand and price of labor
b)
The increase in the oil price after the oil shock of the 1970’s
c)
Generating pollution by driving a car
d)

All the above have nonpecuniary externalities
71) Which of the following is not a public good?
a)
National defense
b)
Radio broadcasting
c)
Bridges and roads
d)
Buying a TV set from the army’s surplus store
72) What term below refers to behavior induced when people do
not bear full consequences for their actions?
a)
Moral hazard
b)
Transaction costs

c)
Asymmetric information
d)
Free entry and exit into the market
73) What theory predicts that regulation initially will be found
where there are market
imperfections and over time will evolve to serve the interests of
the regulated industry?
a)
Interest group
b)
Capture
c)
Flexible
d)
Jurassic
74) Capture theory predicts that regulation will be found where
there is/are market ______.

a)
perfection
b)
shifts
c)
imperfections
d)
regularities
75) ______ occurs when one group of customers pays more and
another group pays less than the cost of providing their service.
a)
Market imperfection
b)
Free-riding
c)
Moral hazard
d)

Cross-subsidization
76)
The Kyoto Protocol called for country-specific reductions in
carbon dioxide emissions by:
a)
2005
b)
2010
c)
2008
d)
2006
77)
Which of the following countries rejected the Kyoto Protocol?
a)
Russia
b)

India
c)
China
d)
Australia
78)
The EPA was established in which decade?
a)
1950’s
b)
1960’s
c)
1970’s
d)
1980’s
79)

How many employees did the EPA employ in 2008?
a)
Over 4,500
b)
Over 9,800
c)
Over 17,000
d)
Over 25,000
80)
The federal government can seek both criminal and civil
convictions of polluters from:
a)
firms only
b)
firms, investors and customers
c)

firms and individuals
d)
individuals only
81)
What is the name of the account that was established to clean up
toxic waste disposal sites?
a)
Toxic Waste Cleanup Fund
b)
Superfund
c)
SuperiorFund
d)
ToxWasteFund
82)
Two complaints in terms of government’s demands for cleaning
up toxic wastes are:

a)
time and cost
b)
litigation costs and new standards for cleanup
c)
litigation costs and retroactive liability
d)
retroactive liability and time
83)
Most of the costs of environmental protection are borne by:
a)
private parties
b)
government
c)
business
d)

all of the above
84)
What is NIMBY?
a)
Not In My Best Year
b)
Not In My Backyard
c)
Not In Money By Years
d)
Not Involved More By Yards
85) A trademark produces what two values?
a)
economic and political
b)
economic and social

c)
economic and public
d)
social and private
86) Contracts are entered into to induce _______, which refers
to a change in behavior by a party.
a)
assurances
b)
reliance
c)
common law
d)
exchanges
87) Which two of the following are ex ante concepts?
a)
conditions and statutes

b)
reliance and inducements
c)
duress and unconsionability
d)
duress and contracts
88) Which industry highlighted in your text seems to struggle
mightily with contract problems around research findings?
a)
dairy
b)
automobile
c)
record
d)
biotechnology

89) What ex ante approach is based on the principle that more
complete contracts can be more efficient?
a)
liquidated damages
b)
duress damages
c)
consequential damages
d)
expectation damages
90) What are torts?
a)
civil rights
b)
civil wrongs
c)
civil damages

d)
private wrong through public statutes
91) All of the following are the basic elements of a tort except:
a)
an injury
b)
an action that causes harm
c)
the breach of duty owed to the injured party
d)
the breach of utilitarian ethics
92) Which of the following requires the balancing of the costs
of injuries and the costs of care?
a)
political efficiency
b)
social efficiency

c)
economic efficiency
d)
technological efficiency
93) What is the leading online advertising services firm?
a)
DoubleClick
b)
Ads-are-Us
c)
MonsterBoard
d)
WebDesign
94) What is the stance of most business concerning legislating
privacy rules for the Internet?
a)

support strongly
b)
opposed generally
c)
neutral
d)
lobbying for legislative passage
95) What are some of the components of self-regulation?
a)
policies and practices of companies
b)
certification by independent nongovernmental organizations
c)
personal protection by individuals
d)
all are components

96) What describes the European Union’s approach to Internet
privacy?
a)
enacted a directive (law) that strongly protected privacy for
personally identifiable information
b)
decided to follow the lead of the US and not pass legislation
c)
is considering strong legislation
d)
believes that privacy is an individual matter
97) Confidence in the Internet is a public good, but the
provision of that public good is subject to a _________
problem.
a)
network externality
b)
standardization
c)

free-rider
d)
customization
98) Why do online retailers fight tax collection for their items?
a)
it is too much of a bother
b)
they do not want to do the state’s work
c)
it would be prohibitively expensive they contend
d)
it would be too complex
99) According to eBay, what is the key to its success?
a)
hard work
b)

privacy
c)
trust
d)
money
100) eBay’s ______ lives in the shadow of public order.
a)
public ordering
b)
private ordering
c)
flexible ordering
d)
traditional ordering

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