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This document contains a series of questions related to English grammar, vocabulary, literature and language. There are 55 multiple choice questions testing knowledge in areas such as parts of speech, figures of speech, sounds, meanings of words, comprehension and inference of poems/literary excerpts. The questions cover topics in phonology, morphology, syntax and literature.

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ENGLISH Direction: Choose the best answer from the choices given. 1. It surely takes a lifetime for Edgar Allan Poe to forget his lost love, but he ________________ hard to move on amidst tremendous loneliness and despair. A. has been trying B. has tried C. had tried D. had been trying 2. What can be the most appropriate follow-up sentence to the given statement below? “I have been teaching for 34 years.” A. So it is now time to quit B. And I can’t imagine doing anything else C. And I want this to end right now D. And my children are now teachers, too 3. Emily Bronte ___________ her last novel when she died. A. has written C. had written B. had been writing D. has been writing 4. Which among the sentences below followed the correct order of adjectives? A. She drives an expensive black Japanese sports car. B. She drives a black Japanese expensive sports car. C. She drives a black expensive Japanese sports car. D. She drives an expensive Japanese black sports car. 5. Only 85% of the total number of applicants ___________ able to pass the entrance test last year. A. are C. is B. was D. were 6. Neither Emily Bronte nor her sister ____________ their real names in their writing career. A. use C. using B. uses D. has used 7. The man looks ____________. A. strange C. stranger B. strangely D. has strange 8. A number of whale species __________ now extinct because of illegal hunting and alarming change in sea water temperature. A. are C. were B. is D. was 9. The problem that I encountered were ____________ for me to handle. A. so much C. very much B. too much D. too more 10. In Benjamin Franklin’s “Poor Richard’s Almanac” it was said that: early to bed, _____________ makes man healthy. A. early rising C. early to rise B. rising early D. waking up early 11. Which among these words has the voiceless /th/ sound? A. These C. Think B. Mother D. There
12. Which word must have the primary stress in the sentence below if we want to emphasize possession? “That’s my bag.” A. that C. my B. is D. bag 13. What pitch level must be used in starting a sentence? A. 1 C. 3 B. 2 D. 4 14. Which among the words below has the /sh/ sound? A. Vision C. Sure B. Leisure D. Salient 15. Your father isn’t working anymore, ____________? A. is he C. has he B. isn’t he D. hasn’t he 16. Their pertains to the pauses or rests in speech. A. Pitch B. Juncture C. Stress D. Intonation 17. I would not leave you come hell or high water. Based on the given sentence, we can surmise that: A. the speaker won’t leave the person no matter what B. the speaker warns the person of a forthcoming disaster C. the speaker wants the person to give up D. the speaker wants the person continue fighting 18. Her nervousness keeps her on her toes. The underlined phrase means: A. she is always alert and cautious B. she is always ready to fight C. she is always confident D. she is always on the go 19. Emily Dickinson was ostracized by her peers primarily because of her eccentric principles. The underlined word means: A. Criticized C. Excluded B. Condemned D. Praised 20. The death of Ninoy Aquino prompted the conglomeration of people from different walks of life. The words below are synonyms of the underlined word except: A. Gathering C. Accumulation B. Assembly D. Diffusion 21. For a non-believer, the noise heard during the street procession would seem cacophonous. The underlined word means: A. Loud and unpleasant B. Loud and yet pleasant C. Soft and yet unpleasant D. Soft and pleasant 22. Which among the sound below is a voiceless sound? A. /dz/ C. /z/ B. /g/ D. /sh/ 23. Which among the words below does not belong? A. Conceal C. Reveal B. Screen D. Obscure 24. A paragraph is believed to have coherence if: A. the sentences are all about the topic sentence B. the sentences are smoothly connected with each other through transitional devices C. the sentences are correctly written in terms of grammar rules D. the sentences are independent
25. Aside from being renowned writer, Carl Sanburg is also believed to have the gift of gab. The underlined word means: A. The ability to speak clearly B. The ability to speak persuasively C. The ability to speak honestly D. The ability to speak accurately 26. Which among the sounds below does not belong? A. /p/ B. /f/ C. /s/ D. /v/ 27. As a historian, Herodotus never missed any salient point in his creation “The Histories”. The words below are synonyms of the underlined word except. A. Leading B. Relevant C. Significant D. Minor 28. Which among the sounds below does not belong? A. /m/ B. /w/ C. /b/ D. /n/ SONNET 18 Shall I compare thee to a summer’s day Thou art more lovely and more temperate Rough winds do shake the darling buds of May And summer’s least hath all too short a date 29. The sonnet above is an example of a: A. Shakespearean sonnet C. Jacobean sonnet B. Petrarchan sonnet D. Italian sonnet 30. What is the rhyme scheme of the first quatrain of the given sonnet? A. ABAB C. AABA B. ABBA D. AABB 31. This is a collection of stories told by the pilgrims while on their way to the chapel of Canterbury. A. The Canterbury Tales B. The Canterbury Collection C. The Canterbury Flies D. The Canterbury Saga 32. “One thousand hands made the pyramids of Egypt.” What figure of speech was used in the given statement? A. Synecdoche C. Onomatopoeia B. Metonymy D. Metaphor And I shall be telling this with a sigh Somewhere ages and ages hence Two roads in the woods and I I took the one less travelled by And that has made all the difference 33. The lines above are taken from what particular poem? A. The Road not Taken B. Stopping by the Woods on a Snowey Evening C. Fire and Ice D. The Raven 34. Who is the author behind the lines given above? A. Oscar Wide C. Robert Frost B. Rudyard Kipling D. Walt Whitman
35. This is the first accepted masterpiece in Philippine Literature in English. A. Dead Stars C. My Father Goes to Court B. Small Key D. Desire 36. If Salvador Lopez advocates Proletariat literature, who adheres to the concept of “art for art’s sake” A. Jose Garcia Villa B. F. Sionil Jose C. Nick Joaquin D. Amador Daguio 37. Which does not characterize our country’s primitive literature? A. Mainly in oral tradition B. Some were written in not so sturdy materials such as leaves and woods. C. Recognizes the existence of a supreme being D. Has continued to flourish in the colonial times 38. Which does not describe the illustrados? A. Filipinos who were able to study abroad B. Filipino painters in Spain C. Filipino who ask for change in the society D. Filipinos who left the country for good 39. This period is considered as the Golden Age of Filipino Language. A. Japanese Regime C. Spanish Regime B. American Regime D. Marcos Regime 40. This is Nick Joaquin’s masterpiece that talks about the pagan “tadtarin”/ “tatarin” ritual. A. May Day Eve C. Summer Solstice B. Woman with Two Navels D. Ermita 41. They are considered as the first teachers in the Philippines who taught English in a formal classroom setting. A. American Regime C. The Thomasians B. The Thomasites D. The Sophists 42. Who wrote the short story “The Weeding Dance” which is about the ill-fated love of Awiyao and Lumnay? A. Amador Daguio C. Estrella Alfon B. Manuel Arguilla D. Paz Latorena 43. If a student has familiarity with the sounds of the language, he/she is said to have: A. Garphophonemic skills B. Phonemic awareness C. Vocabulary D. Fluence 44. If the student can relate the words in a sentence with each other to create a significant idea, he/she is to have: A. Phonemic awareness B. Vocabulary C. Fluency D. Comprehension 45. “The wind kisses my cheeks.” What figure of speech is used in the given statement? A. Personification B. Metaphor C. Simile D. Onomatopoeia For poetry never says; It unsays. To say Is to confine, contain, To unsay is to explore the Vaguely all hovering Presence of the unseen, Deliberately left-out
46. What can be inferred from the lines of the given poem? A. that a poem must not reveal itself to its readers easily B. that a poem must have no words C. that a poem must be detailed D. that a poem must have deep words 47. Which statement is not a correct inference from the lines of the given poem? A. that the beauty of the poem relies on the transformation of the familiar to the unfamiliar. B. that a poem must not give everything to the readers. C. that a poem must be transparent-the meaning of it must clearly drawn out. D. that a poem must be read-intelligently- one must look into metaphors and symbolism used 48. The editor found the new story not so entertaining. He found it full of: A. adjectives C. pronouns B. verbs D. adverbs 49. “On the street of this position of God’s world I feel neighbor to a rat, so brother of a worm; Forever chasing rainbows at muddy margins.” This line on Quemeda’s poem is saying that: A. Life is fruitful B. Life is not worth living C. Life is empty and meaningless D. Life is full of challenges 50. “The whale has no famous author and whaling no famous chronicles, “Based on this line from the novel, Moby Dick is treated as: A. Whaling is not truly structure. B. Whales are ordinary creatures. C. Whale is a wild mammal that haunts mariners. D. Whaling is an old hobby. 51. Venus is an exemplification of feminine. Pulchritude means: A. Plain C. Ugliness B. Beauty D. Homeliness 52. After 7 depressing years, Mitch finally quit the job. She ______ along with her superior for a long time before she finally decided to look for a new position. A. didn’t get C. hasn’t been getting B. isn’t getting D. hadn’t been getting 53. Five years of intensive language study are required for second language learners. Chun-Li ________ English for three years, but she will need more training to be more proficient. A. has studied B. will have been studying C. has been studying D. will be studying 54. The laborers are so happy that _____ now reaping the fruit of _____ efforts. A. they’re-their C. there-their B. they’re-there D. their-their 55. This seatwork is difficult for Paul and _____. A. Myself C. Me B. I D. Himself 56. The candy cane smells ______. A. Sweet C. Sweeter B. Sweetly D. More sweet 57. A comma indicates: A. Pause C. longer pause B. Slight pause D. no pause 58. Which word has the C pronounced as /k/?
A. Century C. City B. Cold D. Censure 59. Which word is accented on the first syllable? A. Fifteen B. Outspeak C. Understand D. Heaven 60. Which word has the C pronounced as /s/? A. Censure B. Connote C. Comma D. Collaborate 61. She is riding _____ a plane. A. In C. at B. On D. into 62. What makes the sentence below erroneous? “I have written a letter yesterday.” A. Yesterday B. Have C. A D. Letter 63. What is NOT true about the present perfect tense? A. The action started somewhere in the past and continued up until present. B. It must bear with it the auxiliary verb has/have, plus the past participle form of the verb. C. The action still happening at present or just recently ended. D. The action is happening at present and may still happen in future 64. Read the poem below: “That the wind seraphs of heaven Coveted her and me That is the reason, not so long ago In a kingdom by the sea A wind blew out of a cloud Chillin and killin my Annabel Lee” What can be the cause of death of Annabel Lee? A. Consumption C. HIV B. Dengue D. Hepatitis 65. What is TRUE about the Past Perfect Tense? A. There must be two past actions B. The auxiliary verb must be “has” C. The main verb must be in the present pariticipial phrase D. The auxiliary verb “had” must not be used 66. This tense connotes actions that are happening at present time, meaning right now. A. Present Tense B. Past Tense C. Progressive Tense D. Present Tense 67. Filipino as language blossomed during the time of the _________. A. Japanese C. Spanish B. American D. Commonwealth 68. Who is considered the goddess of Philippine society? A. Ophelia Alcantara Dimalanta B. Teresa Subido C. Aida Rivera Ford D. Angela Manalang Gloria
69. The underlined word in the sentence below is an _________? “She took the early train.” A. Adjective C. Apostrophe B. Adverb D. Appositive 70. Jose Rizal’s novel Noli Me Tangere is inspired by the novel written by Harriet Beecher Stowe titled _________. A. Uncle Tom’s Cabin C. Tom Sawyer B. Les Miserables D. War and Peace 71. The family that ______ together, _______ together. A. prays-stays C. prayed-stayed B. pray-stay D. praying-staying 72. One thirds of the population ______ poor. A. is C. was B. are D. were 73. Neither Jordan nor his brothers _______ leaving the company. A. is C. was B. are D. were 74. Which sound is a voiced bilabial stop? A. /b/ C. /k/ B. /p/ D. /t/ 75. The teacher was asked to speak for her students when they won the speech choir competition, and so she says “_________ of my students, I want to thank you.” A. On behalf C. Because B. in behalf D. For 76. Which of the following inspired Rizal’s El Filibusterismo? A. The execution of GOMBURZA B. The death of Andres Bonifacio C. The death of his father D. The imprisonment of his mother 77. What is the First American School in the Philippines that aims in teaching the Filipinos how to use the English Language. A. Philippine Normal University B. Far Eastern University C. University of Santo Tomas D. University of the Philippines 78. In Development Reading, this pertains to the familiarity of the students toward the sounds of the language. A. Phonemic awareness C. Syntax B. Phonology D. Semantics 79. In Developmental Reading, this pertains to the ability of the learner to relate the written symbol to its corresponding sound. A. Phonemic awareness C. Syntax B. Phonics D. Semantics 80. English Sonnet: Shakespeare, Italian Sonnet: A. Alighieri C. Boccaccio B. Petrarch D. Dante 81. In Reading, IRI means:
A. Informal Reading Intervention B. Informal Reading Inventory C. Informal Reading Innovation D. Informal reading Integration 82. In the cueing system, this pertains to the structure of grammar. A. phonology C. morphology B. semantics D. syntax 83. In the cueing system, this is about vocabulary and coming up with meanings in a context. A. phonology C. morphology B. semantics D. syntax 84. I n the cueing system, this pertains to the information of sounds of the language. A. phonology C. morphology B. semantics D. syntax 85. The poem “The Road Not taken” which road did the traveler take? A. Clear road B. Road less travelled C. high way D. Streets 86. Who wrote the novel “A Christmas Carol” which is about a man who hates Christmas? A. Charles Dickens B. Oscar Wilde C. H.G Wells D. D.H. Lawrence 87. “She is a star in the heavens above.” What figure of speech is used? A. Simile B. Metaphor C. Personification D. Hyperbole 88. What figure of speech is used in the sentence below? “I can eat a whole cow!” A. Simile B. Metaphor C. Personification D. Hyperbole 89. Mark Twain’s novels Tom Sawyer and Huckleberry Finn are set in the ________ river. A. Nile C. Amazon B. Mississippi D. Rio Grande 90. The words “inadequate, disembark, uneducated, and illegitimate” have prefixes that are: A. Positive C. Negative B. Common D. Neutral 91. Which does not belong? A. Assumption C. Synthesis B. Summary D. Generalization 92. Which sounds like “shine”? A. cry C. fry B. brine D. why 93. The speaker approached the stage with his spiel. His hands were shaking and he was sweating tremendously. He experienced: A. Heart attack C. Stage fight B. Nausea D. Epilepsy 94. “He was like a snake in the night”, what figure of speech in present? A. Personification B. Simile C. Metaphor D. Apostrophe
95. “To be or not to be, that is the question” this line is taken from what particular Shakespearean play? A. Hamlet C. Macbeth B. Romeo and Juliet D. The Ghost 96. “The train arrived early.” The underlined word is an _______. A. Adjective C. Adverb B. Verb D. Noun 97. What figure of speech is used in the sentence below? “Oh Zeus look down on your people” A. Simile B. Metaphor C. Personification D. Apostrophe 98. “The voice resounds across the universe.” What figure of speech is used? A. Hyperbole C. Personification B. Simile D. Metaphor 99. To make a fantastic group work, each member must put his/her finger in the pie. The underlined phrase means: A. Bake a pie C. join a group B. Taste a pie D. participate in a group 100. The suspect was spared because all he said were all white lies. The underlined word phrase means: A. Lies that bare harmless B. Lies recited are illogical C. lies are type written D. the lies are made in public.
KEY TO CORRECTION: English 1. A 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. C 11. C 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. D 21. A 22. D 23. C 24. B 25. B 26. A 27. D 28. D 29. A 30. A 31. A 32. A 33. A 34. C 35. A 36. A 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. C 41. B 42. A 43. B 44. D 45. A 46. A 47. C 48. C 49. D 50. B 51. B 52. D 53. C 54. A 55. C 56. A 57. B 58. B 59. D 60. A 61. B 62. B 63. D 64. A 65. A 66. C 67. A 68. A 69. A 70. A 71. A 72. B 73. B 74. A 75. A 76. A 77. A 78. A 79. B 80. B 81. B 82. D 83. B 84. A 85. B 86. A 87. B 88. D 89. B 90. C 91. A 92. B 93. C 94. B 95. A 96. C 97. D 98. A 99. D 100. A
MATHEMATICS 1. The average of 5 students is 85. The average of the first 2 students is 88. What is the average of the other 3 students? A. 81 C. 83 B. 82 D. 84 2. Solve for x. 2 ½ : x = 10:4 A. 2 C. ½ B. 1 D. 3 3. 12.5 % of 30 is what number? A. 3.5 C. 4.75 B. 3.75 D. 4.5 4. 0.12 is what percent of 24? A. 0.5% B. 0.05% C. 0.005% D. 5% 5. Last year, 2000 students enrolled in MET Review classes. This year, enrollment increased by 8%. How many students enrolled this year? A. 2160 B. 2100 C. 2200 D. 2180 6. A TV set that originally cost P15,000 is now sold P12, 000. What is the percentage decrease in the price of the TV set? A. 5% C. 10% B. 15% D. 20% 7. A 180-degree angle is divided into 3 in the ratio 1:3:5. What is the measure of the biggest angle? A. 80º C. 120º B. 60º D. 100º 8. After receiving a 20% discount, Lawrence paid P180 for an item. What is the regular price of the item? A. P250 C. P225 B. P275 D. P200 9. A store allows 25% discount of all items. How much does a buyer pay for an item which is marked P1200? A. P900 B. P1000 C. P950 D. P850 10. The number of hours spent for review in Science, English and Math is in the ratio 2:1:5. How many hours does each other student spend for Math in a 120-hour review package? A. 75 C. 70 B. 50 D. 60 11. Three boys have marbles in the ratio of 19:5:3. If the boy with the least number has 9 marbles, how many does the boy with the greatest number have? A. 48 C. 60 B. 81 D. 57 12. Arnel borrowed P10, 000 from the bank at the rate of 13% per year. How much will he owe the bank after year? A. P12, 000 C. P11, 000 B. P11, 300 D. P11, 400 13. What is the total sales if for a 15% rate of commission, an agent gets P10, 500? A. P70, 500 C. P70, 000
B. P80, 500 D. P80, 000 14. A salesman gets 12% commission for the first P15, 000 and 10% for the amount over P15, 000 of his total sales. How much does he get for a total sales of P30, 600? A. P3400 C. P3340 B. P3360 D. P3460 15. How much should a man deposit in a bank at 8% interest if he wants to gain P 1, 600 in a year? A. P16, 000 C. P18, 000 B. P15, 000 D. P20, 000 16. A car is able to travel 210 km in 3 hours. How far can it travel in 8 hours? A. 600 km C. 500 km B. 560 km D. 660 km 17. Jean buys 3 apples for P50. How much does she pay for a dozen of these apples? A. P150 B. P220 C. P200 D. P180 18. To finish a certain job in 6 days, 8 workers are needed. If it is required to finish the same job 2 days earlier, how many workers have to work? A. 12 C. 6 B. 10 D. 14 19. An amount of P2100 is to be divided among 3 children John, Jay and Joseph. Jay will receive double that of John and Joseph will receive double that of Jay. How much will Joseph receive? A. P6000 B. P8000 C. P1000 D. P1200 20. Manny can finish typing 5 pages in 8 minutes. How long will it take him to finish 12 pages? A. 19.2 minutes B. 19 minutes C. 18.2 minutes D. 18 minutes 21. A rectangular figure is 6 inches wide and 1 foot long. If the width is to be decreased by 2 inches, by how much should the length be increased, if the area remains the same? A. 8 inches B. 2 inches C. 6 inches D. 4 inches 22. Which of these numbers does NOT belong to the group? A. 83 B. 91 C. 71 D. 97 23. Lito spent half of his money in SM and half of the remaining at Rustan Store. If he had 250 left, how much did he have at the start? A. P1000 B. P1200 C. P1500 D. P1600 24. Maria brought 120 handkerchiefs at 10 pesos each. Then she sold them at 3 handkerchiefs for P50. If she sold all the handkerchiefs, how much profit did she make? A. P600 B. P800 C. P850 D. 650 25. The price of one seat in a theatre is P40 and an average of 400 persons enter everyday. If the price was increased to P50, how many persons would yield the same amount to the theatre? A. 300 C. 350 B. 340 D. 320 26. A man is 4 times as old as his son. Five years ago, the sum of their ages is 65. How old is the son? A. 18 C. 10 B. 15 D. 12 27. A square has an area of 400 sq. cm. What is its perimeter?
A. 80 cm C. 100 cm B. 60 cm D. 120 cm 28. The surface area of cube is 50 sq.cm. What is the volume of the cube? A. 64 cu. cm. C. 81 cu. cm. B. 300 cu. cm. D. 125 cu. cm. 29. A rectangular sheet of paper is folded in half. Then it is folded again in half. If the foldings in half is done 5 times, the edges are creased each time, how many small rectangles will you see when you unfold the original sheet of paper? A. 16 C. 32 B. 25 D. 24 30. 1/6, 1/3, ½ , 2/3, 5/6, ____ A. ¾ C. 7/6 B. 1 D. ¼ 31. If the diagonal of a table with square top is 6 ft., what is the area of the table top? A. 18 ft. C. 36 sq. ft. B. 18 sq. ft. D. 36 ft. 32. If m > 0 and n < 0, which of the following is true? A. m/n = 0 C. 1/m > 1/n B. mn > 0 D. 1/n > 1/m 33. Find the value of (8x2) -3 when x = 1. A. 1/216 C. 1/81 B. 216 D. 81 34. Simplify: ( x2/y2) 2 (y2/x)3 A. x/y4 C. xy4 B. x4/y D. x4y 35. A, B and C are consecutive whole numbers. If A>B>C, what is the value of (A-B) (A-C) (B-C)? A. 1 B. -1 C. 2 D. -2 36. If x is an odd integer and y is an even integer, which of the following is an odd iteger? A. 2x-y B. x2 + y-1 C. x2 + 3y D. x-1 37. Simplify: 12 1/8 – 3 5/6 – 7 2/3 A. 1/8 B. 1 5/8 C. 5/8 D. 3/8 38. Simplify: (3x+5) – [3x – (-x + 1) -3] A. –x – 9 B. -9 + x C. 9 + x D. 9 – x 39. A dinner menu offers choices of 5 appetizers, 8 main dishes and 2 desserts. How many ways can you choose one of each course? A. 15 B. 5!8!2! C. 15! D. 80 40. A ball is drawn at random from a box containing 3 red balls, 4 white balls and 5 blue balls. Find the probability that the ball is NOT red. A. ¼ B. ¾ C. 2/9 D. 1/3 41. When a pair of fair dice is thrown, what is the probability of getting a sum of 9? A. 2/3 B. 1/9
C. 2/9 D. 1/3 42. Simplify: 420/240 A. 1 C. 220 B. 4 D. (1/2)20 43. A big garden has a triangular shape. It has a height of 12 meters and a base of 9 meters. What is its area? A. 54 m2 C. 122 m2 B. 42 m2 D. 106 m2 44. How many ounces of pure acid must be added to 20 ounces of a solution that is 5% acid to make a mixture that is 24% acid? A. 5 C. 10 B. 3 D. 2 45. In how many ways can a coach assign the 5 starting positions in basketball to 10 equally qualified men? A. 252 C. 5 B. 30, 420 D. 10 46. In how many ways can 8 guests be seated in a round table with 8 chairs? A. 8! B. 7! C. 5! D. 6! 47. In how many ways may a rural health officer assign one or more of 6 available barangay health workers? A. 6! B. 6 C. 5! D. 63 48. A committee of 5 persons must be selected from a group of 5 men and 8 women. In how many ways may the selection be made with no restrictions? A. 154440 C. 13P5 B. 1287 D. 5!13! 49. The value of k for which the number 128k0 is divisible by 4? A. 1 C. 5 B. 3 D. 8 50. One side of a rectangle is x inches. If the perimeter is P inches, what is the length (in inches) of the other side? A. 2x + p/2 C. p + x/2 B. p-2x/2 D. 2x – p/2 51. 36.6 % in terms of fraction. A. 183/1000 C. 366/100 B. 366/500 D. 183/500 52. 2 1/6 in terms of percent A. 216.6% C. 216 2/3% B. 216 1/3% D. 216% 53. P12, 500 is what percent of P50, 000? A. 10% B. 15% C. 25% D. 20% 54. P15800 decreased by 12.5% is how much? A. P13, 800 B. P13, 525 C. P13, 285 D. P13, 825 55. ¾ of 1/3 of 30 is what % of 60?
A. 15.625% C. 26.89% B. 25.89% D. 25.79% 56. What is 16 2/3 % of 42? A. 7 B. 6 C. 5 D. 7.5 57. John jogs every morning. Yesterday, he covered 2 km. Today he covers 2 km. What is the percent of increase in the distance he traveled? A. 50% C. 10% B. 25% D. 20% 58. A 180 – degree angle is divided into 3 in the ratio 1:2:3. What is the measure of the biggest angle? A. 45º C. 60º B. 90º D. 30º 59. What is the area of a rectangle of width 10 inches and perimeter of 120 inches? A. 200 sq. in. C. 400 sq. in. B. 300 sq. in. D. 500 sq. in. 60. Jay invested P 4, 500 in a buy and sell. How much will his money be in 3 years if it earns 12.5% simple interest rate in a year? A. P6, 187.50 B. P6, 188 C. P6, 187 D. P6, 189.50 61. A store allows P15 discount on all items. How much does a customer pay for an item which is marked P800? A. P700 B. P790 C. P680 D. P785 62. What is the percentage commission if a salesman gets P 800 from a total sale of P15, 000? A. 5% C. 5 1/3% B. 5.5% D. 5.3% 63. The side of a square of area x2 – 4x + 4 A. x – 4 C. x - 2 B. x + 4 D. x + 2 64. Five liters of gasoline can travel a distance of 70 km. how far can 8 liters reach? A. 80 km. B. 50 km. C. 100 km. D. 112 km. 65. At 75 kph. Jigs can reach home within 50 minutes. At what rate should he drive his car so that he can reach home 10 minutes earlier? A. 80 kph. C. 60 kph. B. 93.75 kph. D. 90 kph. 66. The area of a circle with circumference 4¶ A. 4𝜋 C. 6 𝜋 B. 2𝜋 D. 3 𝜋 67. Find X: 2 1/3 = 1 1/6 X 6 A. 4 C. 6 B. 10 D. 12 68. An angle which measures between 0º and 90º A. Acute C. Right B. Obtuse D. Supplementary 69. Two angles whose sum of degrees is equal to 180º
A. Complimentary B. Supplementary C. Obtuse D. Vertical 70. Two complementary angles are in the ratio 1:4. What is the smaller angle? A. 40º C. 72º B. 18º D. 36º 71. An angle which measures greater than 90º but less than 180. A. Acute B. Supplementary C. Right D. Obtuse 72. In an isosceles right, triangle, the hypotenuse is 12 cm long. What is the length of one of its congruent legs? A. 5√2 cm C. 6√2 cm B. 5 cm D. 6 cm 73. A rectangular farm has dimensions 500 meters by 40 meters. Find its area in hectares. A. 2 B. 3 C. 2.5 D. 3.5 74. What is the area of a triangle of sides 4, 7 and 9 units? A. 6 sq. units C. √6 sq. units B. 5 sq. units D. √5 sq. units 75. The circumference of a circle of area 4 𝜋. A. 4𝜋 C. 2 𝜋 B. 𝜋 D. 3 𝜋 76. The area of a circle of diameter 10 units. A. 25 sq. units B. 25 𝜋 sq. units C. 5 sq. units D. 5 𝜋 sq. units 77. The area of a triangular garden of base 20 ft. and altitude 10 ft. A. 50 sq. ft. B. 10 sq. ft. C. 80 sq. ft. D. 100 sq. ft. 78. One of the legs of a right triangle is 5 cm long and its hypotenuse is 15 cm. How long is the other leg? A. 10 cm C. 8 cm B. 10 √2 cm D. 8 √2 cm 79. In the figure, ADE ~ ABC. If AD = 6, DE = 9 and AB = 10, what is BC? A D E B C A. 8 C. 15 B. 10 D. 12 80. What type of a regular polygon is one whose interior angle measures 108 degrees? A. Heptagon B. Pentagon
C. Octagon D. Hexagon 81. What is the sum of the measure of the angles of a convex octagon? A. 900º B. 1200º C. 1800º D. 1080º 82. What is the average of 1/3, ¼ and 1/6? A. ¼ C. ¾ B. ½ D. 4/3 83. A meter stick was cut into 2 pieces at the 36 cm – mark. What is the ratio of the smaller piece to the larger piece? A. 16:25 C. 9:25 B. 13:50 D. 9:16 84. 2 + 3P, 4 + 2P, 6 + P, _______ A. 4 + P B. 8 C. 4 – P D. 6 85. ½, 2/3, 5/6 ______ A. 2 C. 1 B. 1/6 D. 5/6 86. Find the quotient: (3/4 – 2/3) + (5/6 – 3/5) A. 1/14 C. 3/14 B. 4/14 D. 5/14 87. A, B and C are all working in a certain company, they are all on leave. A will file a leave every 4 days, B every 6 days and C every 8 days. When will they be all on leave? A. After 24 days C. After 20 days B. After 16 days D. After 18 days 88. Juan drives 5 ¾ km. to work and drives home the same day, for five working days a week, how many kilometers does he drive each week? A. 57 km. B. 57.5 km. C. 58 km. D. 57 km. 89. The average of 4 numbers is 28. If 3 of the 4 numbers are 18, 28 and 36, what is the 4th number? A. 30 C. 26 B. 28 D. 24 90. The polynomial x2 + 4x – 32 is the area of a rectangular floor. What is the length of one of its sides? A. x – 2 C. x + 8 B. x + 4 D. x + 2 91. aº = ? a ≠ 0 A. Underlined C. 0 B. Indeterminate D. 1 92. LCM of 4x2y and 30 xy3 A. 30 x2y3 C. 60 x2y3 B. 30 x3y2 D. 60 x3y2 93. Solve for x: 4 (x – 1) -2 (x + 1) = 3x – 2 A. -4 C. 2 B. 4 D. -2 94. Factored form of x5 – x3 + x2 – 1 A. (x+1) (x-1) (x2-x+1) C. (x+1) (x-1)2 (x2-x+1) B. (x+1)2 (x-1) (x2+x+1) D. (x+1)2 (x-1) (x2-x+1)
95. Simplify 4√8 - 9√8 - 3√50 A. 34 √2 C. 18 √2 B. -34 √2 D. -18 √2 96. The sum of 2 consecutive numbers is 75. If x is the smaller number, what is the value of x. A. 35 C. 38 B. 40 D. 37 97. The graph of linear equation is __________. A. Curve C. Parabola B. Vertical D. Line 98. The GCD of 18, 24 and 30 A. 6 C. 4 B. 8 D. 2 99. The coin is tossed 3 times. What is the probability that not all 3 tosses are the same? A. ¼ C. 5/8 B. 3/8 D. 6/8 100. The tens digit of a certain two – digit number is 4 more than the unit’s digit, the sum of the squares of the two digits is 26. Find the numbers. A. 51 C. 45 B. 15 D. 54
KEY TO CORRECTION Mathematics 1. C 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. D 16. B 17. C 18. A 19. D 20. A 21. C 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. D 26. B 27. A 28. D 29. C 30. B 31. B 32. C 33. A 34. C 35. C 36. C 37. C 38. D 39. D 40. B 41. B 42. A 43. A 44. A 45. B 46. B 47. D 48. B 49. D 50. B 51. D 52. C 53. C 54. D 55. A 56. A 57. B 58. B 59. D 60. A 61. D 62. C 63. C 64. D 65. B 66. A 67. D 68. A 69. B 70. B 71. D 72. C 73. A 74. D 75. A 76. B 77. D 78. B 79. C 80. B 81. D 82. A 83. D 84. B 85. C 86. D 87. A 88. B 89. A 90. C 91. D 92. C 93. A 94. D 95. B 96. D 97. D 98. A 99. D 100. A
FILIPINO I. Piliin ang salitang kasingkahulugan ng salitang may salungguhit sa mga sumusunod na pangungusap. 1. Ang banghay na ginagawa niya ay may kahirapang gawin. A. Buhay C. Plano B. Balangkas D. Pangako 2. Ang panukalang inahing niya ay lubhang malalim at mahirap abutin. A. Proyekto C. Mungkahi B. Layon D. Hiling 3. Matapos ang maghapong gawain siya ay luggami na. A. Lubog C. Nalungkot B. Yumayaman D. Lupaypay 4. Ang mga nangyari sa kanya ay hampas lamang ng panahon. A. Hataw C. Palo B. Hagupit D. Sampal 5. Hindi ko sukat akalain na siya pala ay isang balakyot. A. Marumi B. Makasalanan C. Mapanlinlang D. Mabaho 6. Ang damuho ay may asawa pala. A. Salbahe B. Kabiyak C. Tanga D. Di-mapagkakatiwalaan 7. Ang magkaibigan ay may karatig pook lamang. A. Kasama C. Kasing laki B. Kasabihan D. Kalapit 8. Ang abrigo na ibinigay sa may kaarawan ay makulay. A. Pamaypay C. Balabal B. Tela D. Banig 9. Magalang na ipinakilala ng binate ang kanyang kasintahan sa kanyang ama. A. Mapagmahal C. Mabait B. Mapagmataas D. Mapitagan 10. Mahalaga ang dangal sa pamilya Formaran kaysa sa mga pansariling materyal na kagustuhan. A. Puri B. Bayani C. Pagmamalaki D. Kaugalian II. Piliin ang mga salita na kasalungat ng salitang nakasalungguhit sa pahayag. 11. Naglaho ang mga panagarap ng ina sa kanyang anak ng ito ay mag-asawa. A. Nawala B. Lumitaw C. Lumisan D. Namatay 12. Maraming dukha na Filipino ang humingi ng tulong sa DSWD. A. Nakakaawa C. Nakasimangot B. Nakaririwasa D. Nakasisira 13. Masalimuot ang mga pangyayari sa pagkamatay ni Ramgen. A. Magulo C. Maalalahanin B. Makulay D. Mapayapa 14. Katunggali niya sa paligsahan ang kanyang matalik na kaibigan. A. Kasamahan C. Kakampi
B. Katalik D. Kasulatan 15. Ang kanyang kapatid ay masintahin sa mga bata. A. Masayahin C. Mapagmahal B. Malupit D. Mapagmura 16. Ang dalangin ng mga Filipino sa taong 2012 ay magkakaroon ng kasaganahan sa buhay. A. Kahirapan C. Kaperahan B. Kasipagan D. Kayamanan 17. Ang pamilya Yulo ay may mababang-loob sa mga taong nangangailangan. A. Maawain C. Matabil B. Mapagpala D. Mayabang 18. Karamihan sa mga kabataan sa ngayon ay mga pasaway sa mga patakaran ng paaralan. A. sumasama C. Palaangal B. Palaaway D. Sumusunod 19. Maalyaw na buhay ang ibibigay ko sa aking mga anak. A. Masarap C. Masagana B. Mahirap D. Mahigpit 20. Malabay na punong-kahoy ang makikita sa bakuran ni Mang Baste. A. Mataba C. Payat B. Malusog D. Putol III. Piliin ang tamang sagot sa bawat tanong. 21. Sila ay kabilang ______ sa mga inayayahan. A. daw/din C. rin B. din D. raw/rin 22. Nagbasa ______ maayos ang mag-aaral. A. siya C. ng B. nang D. sila 23. ______ iinumin ka bang gamot? A. Mayroon C. May B. Meron D. Nang 24. Ano ang kahulugan ______ iyong paliwanag. A. nang C. din B. ng D. rin 25. Ang mga regalong natira ay ______ Ayeng, Miguel at Joffrey. A. para sa atin C. para sa iyo B. para sa kanila D. para kina 26. Kilalanin ang salitang nakasalungguhit. Siya ay karapat-dapat sa posisyong nakalaan. A. Pang-uri C. Pangngalan B. Pandiwa D. Pantukoy 27. Nahuli ng pulis ang magnanakaw ng bag. A. Pang-uri C. Pandiwa B. Pantukoy D. Pangngalan 28. Anong bahagi ng paglalahad ito?
“iba na talaga ang yumayaman”, sabi ng kausap” hindi naman, ang tagay ay nakapagpahanda lang para sa pagtanda” sagot ni Ka Erning. A. Isang sipi B. Isang salitaan C. Isang pangungusap na humihikayat D. Isang katanungan 29. Anong uri ng tayutay ito? Dumadagudong ang tunog ng loud speaker sa mahinang dibdib ng matanda. A. Onomatopeya o paghihimig B. Apostrophe o pagtutulad C. Alliteration o pag-uulit D. Antithesis o pagtatambis 30. Hindi ko sinasabi na ayaw ko sa kanya pero suklam na suklam ako sa kanya. A. Litotes o pagtanggi B. Tanong Retorikal C. Metaphor o pagwawangis D. Sinekdoke o pagpapalit-saklaw 31. Ang mukha niya’y animo’y maamong tupa na sunudsunuran. A. Metaphor o pagwawangis C. Metonomi o pagpapalit tawag B. Simile o pagtutulad D. Epigram o pagsalungat 32. Ang paalala ay gamot sa taong nakakalimot. A. Simile o pagtutulad C. Hyperbole o pagmamalabis B. Personification o pagtatao D. Metaphor o pagwawangis 33. Sumisipol ang hanging amihan. A. Sinekdoke o pagmamalabis B. Irony o pag-uyam C. Metonomy o pagpapapalit-tawag D. Personification o pagtatao 34. Alin ang kasingkahulugan ng pariralang nagbibilang ng poste? A. mahusay magbilang B. mahusay magtrabaho C. walang poste D. walang trabaho 35. Alin ang kasingkahulugan ng pariralang buwaya sa katihan? A. mapang-api B. mapang-imbot C. mapanukso D. mapagmalabis 36. Ano ang pokus ng pandiwa sa pangungusap na ito? IPANGSULAT MO ANG LAPIS NA MAY TASA A. tagaganap C. sanhi B. tagatanggap D. gamit 37. Ang mga mata ng may matataas na tungkulin ay maagap sa pagbibigay ng ulat. A. gamit sa paningin C. espiya B. maganda D. matitikas 38. Anong teorya sa wika ang tinutukoy? Ang tao’y nakalilikha ng tunog kapag siya’y nageeksert ng pwersa. A. teoryang pooh-pooh B. teoryang bow-wow C. teoryang ta-ta D. teoryang yo-he-ho 39. Ang isang taong napapabulalas sa sakit ay maaaring napapa-aray! O napapa-ouch! A. teoryang ding-dong B. teoryang bow-wow C. teoryang pooh-pooh D. teoryang ta-ra-ra-boom – de-ay 40. Ang alpabeto ng ating mga ninuno noong panahong pre-kolonyal ay tinatawag na A. alibata C. talibaba
B. Alibaba D. abakada 41. Ayon sa Bagong Saligang Batas (1987), ang Wikang Pambansa ng Pilipinas ay tatawaging A. Pilifino C. Pilipino B. Filipino D. Filifino 42. Kapag tayo ay nabigo, bumangon tayo agad. Sakaling dumating ang daluyong, sandali siyang iiwas. A. Payak B. Tambalan C. Hugnayan D. Langkapan 43. Ang mga mag-aaral ng Nolasco High School ay nagsasayawan at nag-aawitan. A. Payak B. Tambalan C. Hugnayan D. Langkapan 44. Nagtapos nang may karangalan si Ryan dahil nagsikap siya sa kanyang pag-aaral. A. Payak B. Tambalan C. Hugnayan D. Langkapan 45. Alin sa mga pangungusap ang higit na epektibong pagpapahayag? A. Nang nailikas ang mga tao ay bumaha sa aming bayan. B. Nang bumaha sa aming bayan ay nailikas na ang mga tao. C. Nang lumikas ang mga tao ay bumaha sa aming bayan. D. Pagkalikas sa mga tao ay bumaha sa aming bayan. 46. Nakalulungkot isipin na pagkatapos ng ating pagsusumikap ay patuloy pa ring nawawasak ang ating kapaligiran. Sa pangungusap na ito anong salita ang naghuhudyat ng pagkakasunod-sunod? A. pagkatapos B. nakakalungkot C. pagsusumikap D. patuloy 47. Ano ang nagaganap na pagbabagong morpoponemiko sa salitang may salungguhit? Nasa mesa ang mga kagamitan sa panlinis. A. pagkakaltas B. asimilasyon C. metatisis D. reduplikasyon 48. Marumi ang kamay niya nang kumain. A. pagpapalit ponema B. paglilipat diin C. asimilsayon D. metatesis 49. Asnan mo ang binili kong isda. A. pagkakaltas ng ponema B. paglilipat diin C. asimilasyon D. metatesis 50. Aptan mo ang nasirang bubong. A. Metatesis B. pagkakaltas ng ponema C. paglilipat diin D. pagpapalit ponema 51. Kapag sinasabing “Itaga mo sa bato ang aking pangako” siya ay A. Natutuwa sa kanyang pangako B. Nakataga ng pangako sa bato C. Nagsasabi ng totoo D. Nanganggako ng pagtupad sa pangako 52. Ano ang ibig sabihin nito “wika ang kaluluwa ng isang lahi” A. Ang wika ay kaluluwa ng isang lahi dahil naitatala nito ng kasaysayan B. Ang wika ay may damdamin C. Ang wika ay nakapagpapahayag ng niloloob ng tao D. Ang tao at wika ay kapwa may kaluluwa. 53. Anong hulwaran ng organisasyon ito? Tumaas ang presyo ng lahat ng bilihin ngayong taon. Dahil kasi ito sa pagtaas ng dagdag na buwis na ipinataw ng pamahalaan sa lahat ng mga bilihin.
A. Paghahambing at pagkokontrast B. Problema at solusyon C. Sanhi at bunga D. Enumerasyon 54. Sina Nora Aunor at Vilma Santos ay kapwa mahuhusay na artista. Taglay nila ang kahusayan sa pag- arte, halos lahat ng kanilang pelikula ay nabigay sa kanila ng acting awards. Si Nora ay tinaguriang “Superstar” at si Vilma naman ay tinaguriang “Star for all seasons”. Bagamat pareho silang sikat na artista, si Nora ay mahusay rin na mang-aawit at si Vilma ngayon ay mahusay na pulitiko. A. Problema at solusyon B. Depinisyon C. Order o pagkakasunud-sunod D. Paghahamibing at pagkokontrast E. 55. Ang gitara ay isang uri ng instrumenting pangmusika na nahahanay o nauuri sa string. Upang tumunog ang instrumentong ito ay kailangang mo itong kalabitin ng kanang kamay at titipahin naman ng kaliwang kamay. A. Paghahambing at pagkokontrast B. Sanhi at bunga C. Depinisyon D. Enumerasyon 56. Ang isang set ng kompyuter ay binubuo ng mga sumusunod: CPU, monitor, mouse, key board at avr. Ang opsyunal na bahagi nito ay printer at scanner. Ibig sabihin, maaaring wala ang mga kagamitang ito. A. Enumerasyon C. Sanhi at bunga B. Depinisyon D. Order Basahin ang Teksto sa ibaba at sagutan ang mga kasunod na aytem. Mag-isip ka, Binata Ikaw ay baguntao… malakas, makisig, matatag, maginoo, ikaw, tulad, ng iyong ama ay magiging haligi ng tahanan. Huwaran mo ang iyong ama. Siya ang utak na namamatnugot sa inyong tahanan samantalang ang iyong ina ang siyang katuwang sa pagpapaligaya nito. Ikaw ay galamay ng iyong mga magulang. Ikaw ang pag-asa nila sa kanilang pagtanda. Ikaw ang dahilan ng kanilang pagkakasakit. Dapat mong gantihan ng kabutihan ang kanilang paghihirap. Ngayon nag-aaral ka pa’y maaari kang tumulong sa anu mang paraan. Ngunit ang higit nilang inaasahan sa iyo ay ang pagtatapos mo ng pag-aaral. Para kanino ang iyong pag-aaral? Ito’y para sa iyong kinabukasan, upang ikaw ay maging matatag at nakahandang tumanggap ng pananagutan. Kaya dapat mong ibigin at igalang ang iyong mga magulang. Tungkulin mong paglingkuran sila nang buong lugod at kasiyahan. Huwag mo silang biguin sa pangarap nila sa iyo! 57. Ang pananaw na ginamit sa teksto ay _________________. A. Unang panahunan B. Ikalawang panahunan C. Ikatlong panahunan D. Wala ginamit 58. Ang tono ng teksto ay _________________. A. Mapangutya C. Mapanghikayat B. Mapagbiro D. Mapanumbat 59. Sa pamagat ng teksto ay mahihinuhang _________________. A. Ang teksto ay nangangaral sa mga binata B. Ang teksto ay nagbababala sa mga binata C. Ang teksto ay isang pagsusulit para sa mga binata. D. Ang teksto ay isang pagtawag sa atensyon para sa mga binata. 60. Ang ikalawang talata ng teksto ay gumagamit ng hulwarang _________________. A. Depinisyon B. Paghahambing at pagkokontrast C. Problema at solusyon D. Enumerasyon 61. Anong uri ng tayutay ang napapaloob sa pahayag na ito? NALIGO NA SA HAMOG NG GABI ANG MGA BULAKLAK A. pagmamalabis B. pag-uuyam C. pagpapalit-tawag D. pagsasatao
62. Ano ang tawag sa kabuhuan ng mga katangian sa pagsasalita ng tao? A. register C. sosyolek B. idyolek D. mode 63. Ang mga sumusunod na bokabularyo gaya na court, pleading at exhibit tinatawag na _______. A. Sosyolek C. Jargon B. Dayalek D. Idyolek 64. Anong uri ng tayutay ang napapaloob sa pahayag na ito? Musika ang gamot sa nalulungkot niyang damdamin A. Pagsasatao C. Pag-uyam B. Pagpapalit-tawag D. Pagwawangis 65. Anong uri ng tayutay ang napapaloob sa pahayag na ito? Maliliit na palad ang nagungal ng bukirin A. Pagpapalit-saklaw B. Pagpapalit-tawag C. Pagtutulad D. Pagsasatao 66. Ang pagkilala ng kahulugan ng salita sa pamamagitan ng pagkuha ng salitang sa pamamagitan ng pagkuha ng salitang ugat o panlapi ay nasa paraang __________. A. pagsusuring istruktural B. paggamit ng context clues C. paggamit ng diksyunaryo D. paggamit ng matatalinhagang pananlita 67. Ang kasiphayuan-kaligayahan ay isang halimbawa ng __________. A. pagkakatulad B. pagsasalungatan C. pagbibigay ng katangian D. pagbubuo 68. Ang pagpuna sa wastong pagkakasunud-sunod ng mga pangyayari as nasa dimensyong ___________. A. pag-unawang literal B. pagkaunawang ganap sa mga kaisipan ng may-akda C. paglikha ng sariling kaisipan D. pagsasanib ng mga kaisipang nabasa at mga karanasan 69. Ang isang halimbawa ng dimension sa paglikha ng sariling kaisipan ayon sa mga kasanayan at kawilihan sa binasang seleksyon ay ang ____________. A. pagdama sa katangian ng tauhan B. pag-unawa sa mga impresyon o kakintalang nadarama. C. pagbubuod o paglalagom sa binasa D. paglikha ng sariling kwento batay sa binasa 70. Sa pagbasa, ang kakayahan sa pagsasama-sama at pa-uugnay-ugnay ng mga nakaraan at ng mga bagong karanasan ay tinatawag na ___________. A. persepsyon o pagkilala C. paghawan ng balakid B. pag-unawa D. asimilasyon 71. Upang matamo ang mahahalagang layunin sa maunlad na pagabasa, kailangan ang ____________. A. kritikal na pag-iisip at pagpapahalaga B. imahinasyon C. pagkilala sa kahinaan D. interes at hilig ng bumabasa 72. Upang matiyak kung paano magkakaroon ng interaksyon ang nauunang kaalaman at karanasang pangkapaligiran na kaugnay sa binasa ang layunin ng teoryang ___________. A. panimulang pagbasa B. pinatnubayang pagbasa C. schema D. semantic webbing 73. Sa pagtuturo ng pagbasa sa pangalawang wika, dapat isaalang-alang ____________.
A. ang simulain ng pagkakasunud-sunod ng mga yunit ng paksang aralin B. ang pagtatala ng mahahalagang bahagi ng araling sasaklawin C. ang bawat bahagi ng balarila D. ang pagsasanay na transisyon 74. Sa saknong na ito, ang mga tunog na may salungguhit ay isang halimbawa ng ____________. A. aliterasyon C. asonansya B. tugma D. onomatopeya 75. Pinag-aaralan naming si Efren Abueg. Ang pangungusap na ito’y isang halimbawa ng _____________. A. eksaherasyon o hyperbole B. pagpapalit-tawag o metonomiya C. pagwawangis o metapora D. patulad o simile “Kung tatanawin mo sa malayang pook Ako’y tila isang nakadipang krus.” (Halaw sa “ISANG PUNONGKAHOY” ni Jose Corazon De Jesus) 76. Ang taludtod sa itaas ay ___________. A. patulad (simile) C. patalinhaga (allegory) B. pahalintulad (analogy) D. padiwangtao (personification) Siya’t tanging siya ang paru-parong gubat Mandi’y isang tinik sa lipon ng rosas” 77. Ang taludtod sa itaas ay ___________. A. padiwang tao C. patalinhaga B. patulad D. pahalintulad “Ang mga kamay ko’y martilyo’t sandatang pambuo’t panggiba ng anumang pita” 78. Ang taludtod sa itaas ay ___________. A. patulad C. pawangis B. pahintulad D. patalinhaga 79. Ang proseso ng paggamit sa Filipino sa iba’t ibang disiplinang siyentifiko at teknikal ay tinatawag na ___________. A. Istandardisasyon C. Bilinggualismo B. Intelektwalisasyon D. Lingua-franca 80. Ang wikang ginagamit sa isang particular na lugar ay tinatawag na ___________. A. Wikang Pambansa C. Lingua-franca B. Wikang Ofisyal D. Unang Wika 81. Ang sarsuwelang higit na kaugnay ng pangalang Severino Reyes ay ____________. A. Dalagang Bukid B. R.I.P. C. Walang Sugat D. Minda Nora 82. Ang pinakatanyag sa dulang isinulat ni Julian Cruz Balmaceda ay ang ____________. A. Sa Bunganga ng Patnig B. Ang Piso ni Anita C. Isang Kualtang Abaka D. Dahil sa Anak 83. Ang kalipunan ng mga tula mula kina Huseng Sisiw at Balagtas hanggang sa makabagong makata ay ipinalimbag ni Alejandro G. Abadilla ay ang ____________. A. Buhay at Iba pang Tula B. Tanagabadilla C. Ako ang Daigdig D. Parnasong Tagalog 84. Si Jose Corazon De Jesus, ang pangunahing makatang liriko ng panulaang Tagalog ay lalong kilala sa tawag na ____________________.
A. Huseng Sisiw B. Batukaling C. Huseng Batute D. Taga-ilog 85. Ang awit na ito ay tinatawag _________. A. Oyay B. Tikam C. Soliranin D. Kundiman Palay siyang matino Nang Humangi’y yumuko Ngunit muling tumayo Nagkabunga ng ginto (Halaw sa “Palay” ni Ildefonso Santos) 86. Anong uri ito ng tula? A. Elehiya C. Oda B. Soneto D. Tanaga Sa mata’y dilim At hindi pa liwanag Ang tumatabing 87. Anong uri ito ng tula? A. Pantun C. Tanaga B. Haiku D. May sukat at tugma At buhat noon, tinawag na Banahaw ang malaking bundok na yaon sa gitna ng Luzon. Gayon din ang bayan ng Lukban at Tayabas na nagmula sa pangalang Bayabas at Lukban, na ang mga magulang ni Limbas. 88. Ang talata sa itaas ay wakas ng isang _________. A. Alamat C. Kuwentong bayan B. Pabula D. Mitolohiya 89. Alin sa mga ito ang karaniwang nasasaksihan sa paglalamay sa patay at paglisahan sa pangangatwiran sa paraang patula? A. Duplo C. Juego de prenda B. Karagatan D. Balagtasan 90. Alin sa mga maikling kwentong ito ang unang nagwagi ng Carlos Palanca Memorial Awards A. Mabangis na Lungsod C. Kwentong ni Mabuti B. Sampaguitang walang bango D. Lihim ng isang pulo 91. Ang dulang ito ay itinuturing na drama simboliko noong 1903. A. Nene at Neneng B. Sampaguitang walang bango C. Kahapon, Ngayon at Bukas D. Lihim ng isang pulo 92. Sa tulang ito pinahalagahan ni Jose Rizal ang mga kabataang Pilipino. A. Sa Aking mga Kababata B. Mi Ultimo Adios
C. Filipino Dentro de Cien anos D. Ala Juventud Filipino 93. Ano ang anyo ng salitang may salungguhit sa, “Ang magtanim ng hangin, bagyo ang aanihin.” A. Pandiwa B. Pawatas C. Pangangalan D. Pang-abay 94. Ano ang pokus ng pandiwang nagluluto? A. Layon B. Tagaganap C. Tagatanggap D. Sanhi 95. Sa ________ ng gabi gaganapin ang pulong sa mga manunulat. A. Ika-walo B. Ika-8 C. Ika 8 D. Ikawalo 96. Kunin mo ang walis at ______ at maglilinis ako. A. Pangdakot C. Pamdakot B. Pandakot D. Pang-dakot 97. Ang isang maliit na pangkat ng formal o makabuluhang katangian na nauugnay sa partikular na uri ng katangiang sosyo-sitwasyonal. A. Idyolek C. mode B. varayti D. rehistro Basahin at Sagutin ang mga sumusunod. I. Ang Philosopher na si Conficius ay naniniwala rin sa malaking tulong ng tsaa sa kalusugan. II. Taglay ng kape ang tinatawag na Cancer Fighting Polyphenosis. Nakatutulong din ang kape laban sa migraine, parkinson’s disease, colon cancer, asthma gayundin ang mga problemang may kinalaman sa atay, apdo at puso. III. Gaya ng kape, mabisang panlaban din sa cancer ang tsaa lalo na ang green tea. Marami ng nagpatunay na pangunahing inuming pangkalusugan ang tsaa sa mga bansang China, Japan at Korea. Mabisang panlinis ng bituka ang tsaa at malaking tulong sa pagtunaw ng pagkain at saka isa rin itong anti-oxidant. IV. Taglay din ng kape ang “tannin” isang anti-oxidant na mabisa sa kalusugan ng puso at atay. Ito ang pumupuksa sa cirrhosis at maging sa mga bad cholesterol. 98. Aling pangungusap ang angkop na pagpapahayag ng pagtanggap tungkol sa isyu ng tekstong binasa? A. May alinlangan na ang kape at tsaa ay epektibong panlaban sa mga sakit. B. Subalit maraming Pilipino and di umiinom ng kape at tsaa C. Marahil kailangan pa ang masusing pag-aaral dulot ng kape at tsaa sa ating katawan. D. Tunay na mabisang panlaban sa kanser ang kape dahil sa ito ay Cancer Fighting Polyphenosis 99. Anong himig o tono ang ipinahihiwatig sa talata I? A. Nagpapaliwanag sa pakinabang ng kape sa ating katawan. B. Nanghihikayat para sa malaking produksyon ng kape C. Nangangaral sa dapat na inuming babagay sa katawan. D. Naglalarawan ng tamang pangangalaga ng kape. 100. Ano ang tiyak na layon ng teksto? A. Ipatalastas na ang kape at tsaa ay mahusay sa maraming sakit. B. Ipabatid ang buting dulot ng kape at tsaa sa katawan ng tao. C. Ipaliwanag na ang kape at tsaaay sa murang halaga nabibili. D. Ipaalam na ayon sa pananaliksik ang kape at tsaa ay nakakagamot ng kanser.
KEY TO CORRECTION Filipino 1. C 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. B 16. A 17. D 18. D 19. B 20. C 21. C 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. D 26. B 27. A 28. B 29. A 30. A 31. B 32. D 33. D 34. D 35. B 36. D 37. C 38. D 39. C 40. A 41. B 42. C 43. A 44. B 45. B 46. D 47. B 48. A 49. A 50. A 51. D 52. C 53. C 54. D 55. C 56. A 57. B 58. C 59. B 60. C 61. D 62. B 63. C 64. B 65. A 66. A 67. B 68. B 69. D 70. D 71. A 72. C 73. A 74. A 75. B 76. A 77. A 78. A 79. B 80. C 81. C 82. D 83. D 84. C 85. C 86. D 87. B 88. A 89. A 90. C 91. C 92. D 93. A 94. B 95. B 96. B 97. B 98. C 99. A 100. B
SOCIAL SCIENCE 1. What values is being promoted by the Philippine Government when it launced the “Juan Time” project in 2011? A. Punctuality C. Palabra De Honor B. Austerity D. Close family ties 2. A UNESCO World heritage Site in Ilocos Norte. A. Bangui windmills C. Currimao Rock Formations B. Paoay church D. Pagudpod 3. An international convention where the Philippine can validate its claim to the Spartlys and other territories in the West Philippine Sea. A. United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (Unclos) B. Geneva Convention C. Rio de Janeiro Convention D. Kyoto Protocol 4. The author of “Flora de Filipinas” circa 1837, the botanical illustrations of plant specimens that grew into the Philippines herbarium. A. Gov. Polavieja C. Currimao Rock Formations B. Padre Emmanuel Gonzales D. Gov. Narciso Claveria 5. The Philippines was ruled by Spain through __________ until 1814. A. Cuba C. Viceroy of Mexico B. Puerto Rico D. Guam 6. This is a guarantee given by the Constitution to certain units of government where their approved annual appropriations shall be autotimatically an regularly released. A. General Appropriations Act B. Fiscal Autonomy C. Fiscal Discipline D. Internal Revenue Allocations 7. Which order of governments correctly applies during the American regime? A. Civil, Military, Commonwealth B. Military, Civil, Commonwealth C. Civil, Commonwealth, Military D. Military, Commonwealth, Civil 8. Which order of presidents correctly applies to Philippine history? I. Carlos P. Garcia II. Diosdado Macapagal III. Manuel Roxas IV. Ferdinand Marcos A. III, I, II, IV B. IV, II, I, III C. I, II, III, IV D. IV, III, II, I 9. In whose presidency was the famous MIRACLE RICE produced? A. Ferdinand Marcos C. Erap Estrada B. Fidel Ramos D. Sergio Osmeña 10. The municipal mayor is for today while _____ was during the Spanish period. A. Alcade mayor B. Cabeza de Barangay C. Gobernadorcillo D. Gobernador General 11. Respect for parents is shown in various ways by different groups of people in different places. A. Cultural relativism B. Ethical relativism C. Ethnocentrism D. Xenophobia 12. If you keep seeing your ways of doing things as the right way and everybody else’s as the wrong way, you tend to have the attitude called A. Cultural relativism B. Ethical relativism
C. Ethnocentrism D. Xenophobia 13. After the Second World War, which emerged as new powers? A. People’s Republic of China and United States of America B. South Korea and Soviet Union C. Germany and Soviet Union D. United States of America and Soviet Union 14. Legislation granting special priveleges to senior citizens help to neutralize prejudice and discrimination toward a social category based on: A. Age B. Ethnicity C. Gender D. Race 15. Giving “abuloy” to a bereaved family, an act of hospitality and the “bayanihan spirit” prove which Filipino trait. A. Adaptability B. Religiosity C. Hard work and perseverance D. Pakikipag kapwa TAO 16. Which was the most important accomplishment of Aguinaldo’s dictatorial government? A. Separation of church and state B. Abolition of polo y servicio personal (forced labor) C. Treaty of Paris D. Proclamation of Philippine Independence on June 12, 1898 17. The employees of MET review center want to associate, pool their savings, and use the fund as soon as possible to grant loans to members and capitalized and operate the canteen of the said revie center. What type of cooperative will they organize and register? A. Service cooperative B. Producer’s cooperative C. Consumer cooperative D. Credit cooperative 18. The basic principle of taxation where the sources of funds or revenues should be sufficient to meet the needs of public expenditure. A. Basic adequacy C. Equity B. Equality D. Administrative feasibility 19. One of the types of positive economics that collects and presents data that can describe the phenomena. A. Descriptive economics C. Growth B. Economic theory D. Stability 20. The complex set of relationships with in the agricultural secotr and between tenure structure, production structure, and the structure of supporting services. A. Land reform B. Agrarian structure C. Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Law D. Agrarian reform measures 21. The earliest mode of economic life in human history according to Karl Marx. A. Enlightened self-interest B. Reciprocity C. Primitive communism D. Agricultural 22. The process in which members of one cultural group adopt the beliefs and behaviors of another group. A. Acculturation B. Enculturation C. Assimilation D. Cultural relativism 23. The adoption of the behavior patterns of the surrounding culture; “the socialization of children to the norms of their culture.” A. Acculturation B. Enculturation C. Assimilation D. Cultural relativism 24. What is the power of the State to take property for public use with “just compensation?” A. Taxation B. Eminent Domain
C. Judicial review D. Police Power 25. It refers to the full and fair equivalent of the property taken from its owner by the expropriator, and the guage for computation is not the taker’s gain but the owner’s loss. In order for the payment to be “just,” it must be real, substantial, full, and ample; made within a reasonable time from the taking of the property. A. Property B. Public use C. Eminent domain D. Just compensation 26. This can be identified with public purpose, public interest and public convenience. A. Property C. Eminent Domain B. Public use D. Just compensation 27. The complete name of Dr. Jose Rizal. A. Jose Protacio Rizal Mercado y Alonzo Realonda B. Jose Protacio Rizal C. Jose Rizal y Protacio D. Jose Rizal y Mercado 28. Rizal’s famous sculptural work was ________________, a clay sculpture of a naked young woman with overflowing hair, standing on a skull while bearing a torch held high. A. La Spolarium B. Sa Aking mga Kababata C. Mi Ultimo Adios D. The triump of Science over Death 29. Northeast Luzon. The longest river in the country, originates from the mountains of Quirino and Nueva Vizcaya and drains the whole Cagayan Valley exiting through the town of Aparri and Cagayan. A. Agno river C. Pampanga river B. Abra river D. Rio Grande de Cagayan 30. _______________ anthropology, focuses on the study of human population using an evolutionary framework. A. Biological and Physical Anthropolgy B. Cultural Anthropology C. Human Anthropolgy D. Linguistic Anthorpology 31. He coined the term “survival of the fittest” A. Auguste Comte B. Karl Marx C. Herbert Spencer D. Arnold Toynbee 32. Who said this phrase: “There are no tyrants where there are no slaves.? A. Jose Rizal B. Apolinario Mabini C. Gregorio del Pilar D. Graciano Lopez Jaena 33. The 1987 Constitution created a body with the power to confirm major appointments of the president. What is this body called? A. Commission on Appointments B. Blue Ribbon Committee C. Civil Service Commission D. Electoral Tribunal “The President shall nominate and, with the consent of the Commission on Appointments, appoint the heads of the executive departments, ambassadors, other public ministers and consuls, or officers of the armed forces from the rank of colonel or naval captiain, and other officers whse appointments are vested in him in this constitution. He shall also appoint all other officers of the Government whose appointments are not otherwise provided for by law, and those whom he may be authorized by law to appoint. The congress may, by law, vest the appointment of other officers lower in rank in the President alone, in the courts, or in the heads of departments, agencies, commissions, or boards. 34. The legislative power shall be vested in the Congress of the Philippines which shall consist of ______________ except to the extent reserved to the people by the provision on initiative and referendum. A. Senate and House of Representatives B. Senate
C. House of Representatives D. Malacañang 35. The State recognizes the Filipino _________ as the foundation of the nation. Accordingly, it shall strengthen its solidarity and actively promote its total development. A. Family C. Church B. Barangay D. School 36. The “La liga Filipina” was A CONCRETE EVIDENCE OF Rizal’s desire for: __________ I. Unite the entire Philippine archipelago II. Fight violence and injustice III. Revolt against the Spaniards A. I and II C. I and IV B. II and III D. I and III 37. What is mean by SONA? A. Speech Of Noynoy Aquino B. Speech Of the Nation Address C. State of the Nation Address D. Status of the Nation Assembly 38. The people of this country shows courtesy by living their footwears on the stairs. A. Italians C. Americans B. Japanese D. Koreans 39. Pro-environment people believe that _____________________. A. Opening dumping sites will solve problems in waste disposal B. Burning plastic will ease the clogging of water canals. C. Classifying of garbage identifies biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste. D. Burning of garbage is the best approach 40. Violators of RA 9165 are positive with the use and trafficking of ____________ and sentenced to lethal injection before the lifting of death penalty for the heinous crimes. A. Antibiotics C. Marijuana B. Sleeping pills D. Shabu 41. The Philippine National Bank has used an icon for its advertisement. It is ____________. A. Pigeon B. Hawk C. Eagle D. Parrot 42. No country will experience economic progress unless it is part of a world organization. What international organization this saying is true? A. UNESCO B. NATO C. WHO D. GATT 43. ________________ refers to a group with common aspirations. A. Ethnic groups C. Aborgines B. Natives D. Norms 44. The way of the Arabian dignitaries to greet a friend. A. Hand grip C. Kiss B. Embrace D. Hand shake 45. It refers to the rightness and wrongness of our decisions. A. Morality C. Philosophy B. Theology D. Values Values exert major influence on the behavior of an individual and serve as broad guidelines in all situations. 46. Jose Rizal faced the firing squad in Bagumbayan de Luneta on December 30, 1896. This is a genuine manifestation of Rizal’s strong sense of ____________.
A. Honesty C. Patriotism B. Fidelity D. Loyalty 47. The Philippine ten-year transition period before the granting of complete independence from the Americans. A. Commonwealth Government B. Third Republic C. Puppet Government D. Revolutionary 48. The first appointed head of the Department of Education during Commonwealth period. A. Claro M. Recto B. Sergio Osmena C. Rafael Palma D. Jose P. Laurel 49. The “father of social justice.” A. Claro M. Recto B. Sergio Osmena C. Manuel L. Quezon D. Jose P. Laurel 50. The leader of Sakdalista uprising A. Benigno Aquino C. Isabelo delos Reyes B. Benigno Ramos D. Isabelle Espiritu 51. The Rizal Day Celebration reminds us about heroes worth A. appreciating B. reading about C. emulating D. studying 52. SECTION 3, Article XIV states that “ALL educational institutions shall include the study of ___________________ as part of curriculum.” A. History B. Science and Technology C. Sports D. Constitution 53. Who has the power to declare the existence of the state of war? A. Senate President B. Chief Justice C. President D. Congress 54. “The states shall protect and promote the right of all citizens to equality education at all levels.” Which government program support of this? A. Exclusion of children with special needs from the formal system. B. Free elementary and secondary education. C. Deregulated tuition fee hike D. Re-introduction of the NEAT and NSAT. 55. The old name of EDSA during early part of American occupation A. 19 de Junio C. Highway 53 B. Highway 54 D. Highway 52 56. RA 9155 also known as “___________________.” A. Basic Education Act of 2001 B. Restructured Basic Education C. Education for All D. Bridge Program 57. RA 4670 also known as “__________________.” A. Board of Higher Education B. The Magna Carta for Public School Teachers C. State of National Emergency D. Calibrated Pre-emptive Response 58. How long can an elected President of the Philippines serve under the 1987 Constitution. A. two terms, 6 years each B. two terms, 4 years each C. one term for 6 years D. one term for 4 years 59. Historically, Why does the Philippines have claim over Sabah? A. The sultan of Sulu, who received the territory as a gift, has given the Philippine Government power to reclaim his territory. B. The Malays, the third wave of migrants to the country, own the territory. C. Sabah was formerly a part of the Philippine archiepelago D. The Philippine government bought it from the Sultan of Brunei.
60. Which of the following describes the Battle of Manila Bay between American and Spanish naval forces? A. The Americans ships outnumbered those of the Spaniards. B. The Spaniards readily won the battle over the Americans. C. It was a mock naval battle between the Spaniards and the Americans. D. The Americans won the battle with great difficulty. 61. Who was the first president of the Republic of the Philippines when independence from America was granted on July 4, 1946?? A. Pres. Corazon Aquino C. Pres. Ferdinand Marcos B. Pres. Elipidio Quirino D. Pres. Manuel Roxas 62. According to him “…this Nation will be great again…!” A. Pres. Benigno Simeon Cuangco Aquino III B. Pres. Elpidio Quirino C. Pres. Ferdinand Marcos D. Pres. Manuel Roxas 63. He had promised sweeping economic changes, and he did make progress in land reform, opening new settlements outside crowded Luzon island. His death in an airplane crash in March 1957, was a serious blow to national morale. A. Pres. Ramon Magsaysay B. Pres. Elpidio Quirino C. Pres. Ferdinand Marcos D. Pres. Manuel Roxas 64. What is Republic Act 8049? A. Anti – hazing Law B. Anti sexual harassment Law C. Law Protecting Women and Children against all forms of abuses, and exploitation D. Expanded Senior Citizen Act of 2010. 65. What is Republic Act 9994? A. Anti-hazing Law B. Anti sexual harassment Law C. Law Protecting Women and Children against all forms of abuses, and exploitation D. Expanded Senior Citizen Act of 2010 66. Republic Act 9262 adheres with A. Anti-hazing Law B. Anti sexual harassment Law C. Law Protecting Women and Children against all forms of abuses, and exploitation D. Expanded Senior Citizen Act of 2010 67. Republic Act 7877 also known as A. Anti-hazing Law B. Anti sexual harassment Law C. Law Protecting Women and Children against all forms of abuses, and exploitation D. Expanded Senior Citizen Act of 2010 68. With peace education in mind, what is NOT included: A. Dialogue B. Meditation C. Cooperation D. Conflict 69. The first essay of Rizal A. El Armor Patrio C. Sa Aking Kababata B. A La Juventud Filipina D. Mi Ultimo Adios 70. The Republic Act that requires us to teach Rizal and other Filipino patriots to tertiary students. A. RA 7836 C. RA 1425 B. RA 7610 D. RA 9165
71. What is the Right of SUFFRAGE advocates? A. The right of the people to vote B. The right of the people to vote and be elected in public office C. The right of the people not to vote D. The right of the people for clean elections 72. Known as the “Islas de Pintados” by the Spaniards. A. Luzon C. Mindanao B. Visayas D. Isla Verde 73. Man’s conviction is his/her ________. A. Norms C. Values B. Belief D. Mores 74. Known as Ma-i by the early Chinese traders. A. Mindoro C. Cebu B. Aklan D. Manila 75. The longest revolt in Philippine History A. Dahogoy revolt B. Diego Silang revolt C. Gabriela Silang revolt D. Palaris revolt 76. What was our government under the 1935 Constitution. A. Revolutionary B. Monarchy C. Commonwealth D. Military 77. What is meant by the worker’s right to security of tenure? I. To continue in their jobs. II. Not to be contractual after six months III. May not be dismissed unless there is just or valid cause provide by law A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. I and III 78. The process by which a person learns the requirements of the culture by which he or she is surrounded, and acquires values and behaviours that are appropriate or necessary in that culture. A. Assimilation B. Enculturation C. Cultural relativism D. Acculturation 79. The exchange of cultural features that results when groups of individuals having different cultures come into continuous first hand contact; the original cultural patterns of either or both groups may be altered, but the groups remain distinct. A. Assimilation B. Enculturation C. Cultural relativism D. Acculturation 80. The process whereby a minority group gradually adapts to the customs and attitudes of the prevailing culture and customs. A. Assimilation B. Enculturation C. Cultural relativism D. Acculturation 81. The principle that an individual human’s beliefs and activities should be understood in terms of his or her own culture. A. Assimilation B. Enculturation C. Cultural relativism D. Acculturation 82. In economics, _________ is a rise in the general level of prices of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. A. Inflation B. mercantilism C. depression D. free trade
83. What event in history followed when the Katipunan movement was discovered? A. Philippine revolution/Cry of Pugad Lawin B. Treaty of Paris 1898 C. Execution of Rizal D. Capture of Aguinaldo 84. Are traditional courtship songs in the Mexican-Spanish tradition based on the habanera rhythm A. Harana B. Kundiman C. Jazz D. Modern 85. The distinct components of music for both Japanese traditional and modern music. A. Carnatic and Hindustani music B. Ling Lun C. Koumintang D. Ongaku and gaku 86. The classical music of India includes the following varieties. A. Carnatic and Hindustani music B. Ling Lun C. Koumintang D. Ongaku and gaku 87. The legendary founder of music of China. A. Lin Lun B. Koumintang C. Shih huang Ti D. Zhou 88. In 1402, he commanded a large Chinese fleet along the coast towns of the Philippine Islands? A. Cheng-Ho B. Cheng C. Ho D. Me Chiang 89. The supreme daily of the ancient Filipinos. A. Maykapal C. Babaylan B. Bathala D. Katalona 90. He introduced the Islamic religion in the Philippines. A. Mudum B. Baginda C. Amaya D. Katalona 91. Known as “Province de Comintang” during the Spanish period. A. Bataan C. Palawan B. Cavite D. Batangas 92. The Spanish Governor-General who ordered the deportation of Jose Rizal to Dapitan, Zamboanga Del Norte, Mindanao. A. Gov. Gen. Blanco C. Gov. Gen. Despujol B. Gov. Gen. Claveria D. Gov. Gen. Polavieja 93. The first word of the 1987 Philippine Constitution. A. You C. I B. We D. If 94. The first commercial bank in the Philippines and the Far East. A. Allied Bank C. BDO B. China Bank D. Banco Islas de Filipinas 95. The schools of the Pre-Spanish children in Panay Island. A. Bothoan C. Bangka B. Bototan D. Bandiwa 96. The last Filipino General who surrendered to the American during Filipino-American War. A. Simeon Ola C. Miguel Malvar B. Macario Sakay D. Gregorio Del Pilar 97. He named the Philippines as “Islas de San Lazaro” A. Miguel Lopez de Legazpi C. Lapu-lapu
B. Ferdinand Magellan D. Francisco Dagohoy 98. The second group of people who migrated by sea to the Philippines. A. Indonesians C. Vietnamese B. Malaysians D. Chinese 99. The earliest form of writing in the Philippines. A. Alibata C. Heiroglypics B. Cuneiform D. Baybay 100. He designed the Rizal Monument. A. Deodato Arellano B. Abad Santos C. David Nepomuceno D. Richard Kissling
KEY TO CORRECTION Social Science 1. A 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. C 11. A 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. D 16. D 17. D 18. A 19. A 20. B 21. C 22. A 23. B 24. B 25. D 26. B 27. A 28. D 29. D 30. A 31. C 32. A 33. A 34. A 35. A 36. A 37. C 38. B 39. C 40. D 41. C 42. D 43. A 44. B 45. D 46. C 47. A 48. B 49. C 50. B 51. C 52. D 53. D 54. B 55. B 56. A 57. B 58. C 59. A 60. A 61. D 62. C 63. A 64. A 65. D 66. C 67. B 68. D 69. A 70. C 71. B 72. B 73. B 74. A 75. A 76. C 77. C 78. B 79. D 80. A 81. C 82. A 83. A 84. A 85. D 86. A 87. A 88. A 89. B 90. A 91. D 92. C 93. B 94. D 95. A 96. A 97. B 98. A 99. A 100. D
NATURAL SCIENCE 1. Plants lose water through transpiration, which process is responsible for this? A. diffusion B. capillarity C. surface tension D. osmosis 2. Which of the following is produced during photosynthesis? A. oxygen and inorganic compound B. carbon dioxide and water C. oxygen and water D. oxygen and organic compound 3. What will be formed when radium isotope, with 88 protons and 138 neutrons undergoes alpha decay? A. radon atom (Rn222) with 86 protons B. francium atom (Fr222) with 87 protons C. actinium atom (Ac222) with 89 protons D. thorium atom (Th222) with 90 protons 4. Strontium-90 has a half life of 28 years. When atmospheric concentration os strontium-90 was measured, it was found it to be 1/8 the amount that was measured many years ago. How many years have passed since their first measurement? A. 12 years C. 84 years B. 28 years D. 56 years 5. How are ions formed? A. by gaining or losing protons B. by gaining or losing electrons C. by sharing protons D. by sharing electrons 6. Which of the following waves of visible light has the highest frequency? A. violet B. green C. indigo D. blue 7. Where is the earth located during a lunar eclipse? A. behind the moon B. between the sun and the moon C. at a point 180 degrees from North D. behind the sun 8. Which of the following parts can only be seen in plant cell? A. mitochondria B. a nucleus C. lysosomes D. a cell wall 9. How should conclusions be stated? A. a form that can be evaluated by others B. that it is completely correct, with no mistakes C. that it works with only 1 set of data D. that no one can refute the conclusion 10. A block of wood is at rest on top of a table. Which of the following is correct? A. The block of wood has no inertia. B. There is no force acting on the block. C. The inertia of the book is equal to the inertia of the table. D. The block of wood is in equilibrium. 11. What do you call that property of a moving object to continue moving in a straight line unless acted on by outside force? A. acceleration B. velocity C. inertia D. speed
12. A car initially at rest accelerates in a straight line at 6 m/s². What will be its speed after 3 seconds? A. 18 m/s B. 0 m/s C. 9 m/s D. 2 m/s 13. What do we determine when we specify both the magnitude and the direction of an object? A. mass B. acceleration C. velocity D. weight 14. The moon’s gravity is 1/6 of the earth’s gravity. What will be the weight of the bowling ball on earth? A. 1/6 that of its weight on the moon B. it varies C. 6 times that of its weight on moon D. equal that of its weight on moon 15. A certain element has an atomic numbe of 92 and an atomic mass number of 238. Which is true of this element? A. It has 92 protons, 146 neutrons, and 92 electrons B. It has 92 protons, 238 neutrons, and 146 electrons C. It has 146 protons, 92 neutrons, and 92 electrons D. It has 92 protons, 146 neutrons, and 238 electrons 16. What is formed when elements are chemicaly combined? A. alloys C. mixtures B. nuclei D. compounds 17. What is the formula for determining density of an object? A. mass plus volume C. volume divided by mass B. mass divided by volume D. mass times volume 18. Which of the following is true for buoyant force? A. It’s the force of gravity cting on a submerged object B. It depends on the density of the submerged object C. It is the net upward force of the surrounding liquid acting on a submerged object D. it is the difference between a submerged object’s weight and the weight of an equal mass of water 19. A block of wood floats in water. What can be said of its buoyant force? A. Its buoyant force is greater than the weight of the wood B. Its buoyant frce is equal to the weight of the wood C. Its buoyant frce is less than the weight of the wood D. Cannot be determined because the block is not completely submerged 20. An object with a mass of 2 kg displaces 1000 ml of water. Which of the following is true? A. The weight of this object is 20 N. B. The weight of this object is 5 N. C. The buoyant force on this object is 500 N. D. The buoyant force on this object is 30 N. 21. An object with a mass of 1.5 kg displaces 1 kg of water. Which of the following is true? A. The buoyant force of this object is 10 N. B. The buoyant force of this object is 15 N. C. the buoyant force of this object is 25 N. D. The density of the object is less than that of the water. 22. Water has a higher specific heat than iron. What does this mean?
A. water is hotter than iron B. water heats more rapidly than iron C. water is more dense than iron D. water heats more slowly than iron 23. Which of the following is responsible for heat transfer by radiation? A. atmospheric currents B. collision of particles C. electromagnetic waves D. molecular and electronic collision 24. Which of the following is true when an object is positively charged? A. It has a deficiency of neutrons C. It has a deficiency of electrons B. It has an excess of neutrons D It has a deficiency of protons 25. What do you call the charges in an electrical circuit flowng in the same direction? A. constant current C. direct current B. an alternating current D. basic current 26. If the current in a wire is 5 amperes, how much charge will flow through it in 5 seconds? A. 10 coulombs C. 2.5 coulombs B. 25 coulombs D. 2 coulombs 27. If the voltage of 100 volts produces a current of 5 amperes in an electrical device, what is the resistance? A. 95 ohms. C. 105 ohms. B. 20 ohms. D. 500 ohms. 28. If three light bulbs of different wattage are connected in series to a battery, which of the following is true? A. the resistance in each light bulb will be the same B. the current in each light bulb will be the same C. the light utput of each bulb will be the same D. the power consumed by the light will be the same 29. What is true when material is transparent? A. light can pass freely through in a straight line B. it reflects light C. it cannot emit any light D. it absorbs light and redistributes the thermal energy 30. What is the weight of an object whose mass is 17.6 g? A. 0.176 N C. 176 N B. 1.76 N D. 17.6 N 31. Using the table below, what is the independent variable? Food use Temperature Room Lighting Exposure Amount of moisture Result White bread 35 degrees Dimly lighted Air High Plenty of molds White bread 35 degrees Dimly lighted Air Low Tiny spots of mold A. type of bread C. exposure time B. temperature D. amount of moist growth 32. What conclusion ca be formulated/stated from the above experiment?
A. Molds grow on bread. B. Molds’ growth is dependent on temperature. C. Molds grow best in moist places. D. Molds like breads. 33. What absorbs a portion of the radiation from the sun, preventing it from reaching the earth’s surface? A. chlorofluorocarbon B. hydrofluorocarbon C. carbon dioxide D. ozone layer 34. Which of the following is true about sub-atomic particles, mass number and atomic number? A. The number of protons and electron is equal to the mass number. B. Atomic number is equal to the number of protons. C. Mass number is equal to the number of neutron and electron. D. Mass number and atomic number are equal. 35. What do you call atoms of the same elements having the same atomic number but have different mass number due to differences in their number of neutrons? A. isotopes C. isomers B. inert gases D. ion 36. Given the following electron configuration, determine the group umber nd period number of element. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s² A. period 4, group 2 C. period 7, group 20 B. period 2, group 5 D. period 6, group 2 37. A chemical bond is an attractive force that holds atoms together. What type of chemical bond is referred to as electrovalent or electrostatic attraction between positive and negative ions? A. metallic bond C. ionic bond B. abnormal bond D. covalent bond 38. Which of the following statement is true? A. orbitals make up a subshell; subshells make up a shell B. shells make up an orbital; orbitals make up a subshell C. subshells make up a shell; shells make up an orbital D. shells make up subshell; shells make up orbital 39. If 100g of reactants are used up in a reaction, what will be the mass of the products? A. 100 C. 25 B. 45 D. 50 40. Which of the following is not a chemical reaction? A. ripening of fruit C. freezing of water B. rusting of metal D. burning of wood 41. What happens to the volume of a confined gas if its pressure is doubled and its temperature remains constant? A. decrease C. increase B. will remain the same D. impossible to determine 42. What differentiates a eukaryotic cell from a prokaryotic cell? A. presence of nucleus C. preence of chromosomes B. presence of cell membrane D. none of the above 43. What best describes a cold blooded animal?
A. They thrive in cold environment B. Their body fluid temperature adapts to the environment C. They are first order consumers D. Their blood is cold 44. Organisms may reproduce sexually, asexually, or both sexually and asexually. Which of the following is an example of sexual reproduction? A. vegetative reproduction C. fission B. union of gametes D. budding 45. During photosynthesis, plants produce food in the form of glucose, kown as the end product of photosynthesis. In what form do plants and other autotrophic organisms store food? A. Root Crops C. Rhizome B. Fruits D. Starch 46. Genes are known as the units of heredity because they carry the hereditary information from generation to generation. What organic compound in the genes does this work? A. Carbohydrates C. Proteins B. Lipids D. Nucleic Acid 47. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the levels of organization in human body? A. cells>tissues>organs>system B. organs>tissue>system>cells C. system>ogans>tissue>cells D. None of the above 48. The following are insects except one. Which of the following is not an insect? A. mosquito C. spider B. firefly D. ant 49. Which of the following is true of inertia? A. It is the tendency of an object at rest to remain at rest. B. It is the tendency of an obect in otion to gain speed. C. It is the tendency of the movig object to change its direction. D. It is the tendency of matter to disintegrate. 50. Which is the hottest star? A. Red C. Yellow B. Blue D. White 51. Which of the following statements explains Boyle’s Law? A. The pressure exerted by a certain amount of gas is directly proportional to the volume of that gas as long as the temperature remains constant. B. The volume of a certain amount of gas is directly proportional to the temperature of that gas in any situation. C. The pressure exerted by a cetain amount of gas is inversely proportional to the volume of that gas as long as the temperature remains constant D. The volume of a certain amount of gas is dretly proportional to the temperature of that gas as long as the pressure remains constant. 52. Which of the following statement explains Charles Law? A. The pressure exerted by a certain amount of gas is inversely propoertional the volume of that gas as long as the temperature remains constant.
B. The volume of a certain amount of gas is directly proportional to the temperature of that gas as long as the pressure remains constant. C. The volume of a certain amount of gas is directly proportional to the temperature of that gas in any situation. D. The volume of a certain amount of gas is inversely proportional to the temperature of that gas as long as the pressure remains constant. 53. Which of the following explains the ideal gas law? A. The current state of an ideals gas depends upon the volume, pressure, and temperature of that gas. B. The temperature of an ideal gas has no effect on the state of that gas. C. The volume of a certain gas is inversely proportional to the temperature of that gas as long as the pressure remains constant. D. The pressure exerted by a certain amount of gas is directly proportional to the volume of that gas as long as the temperature remains constant. 54. Which of the following are the three basic components of an atom? A. protons, neutrons, ions B. protons, neutrons, electrons C. protons, electrons, ions D. neutrons, electrons, ions 55. 14 6C and 12 6 C are examples of carbon. A. ions C. valences B. molecule D. isotopes 56. Why does greenhouse effect result to warmer temperature near the surface of the earth? A. Ozone traps ultraviolet radiation. B. Carbon dioxide traps infrared radiation C. Clouds traps infrared radiation D. Soil absorbs incoming radiation 57. Which two systems of yours when you move your leg? A. Immune and Excretory B. Nervous and Muscular C. Digestive and respiratory D. Circulatory and Integumentary 58. Barometer – Air pressure: ________ - ________ A. Decibel – Sound B. Kilometer – Length C. Thermometer – Temperature D. Odometer – Smell 59. ______ - Cancer: Cardiologist - _________ A. Geologist – Earth B. Cardiologist – Urethra C. Oncologists – Heart D. Leukemia – Lymph Nodes 60. Which of the following is the function of the chloroplast? A. Mitosis and Meiosis B. Cellular respiration C. Conversion of the light energy to chemical energy D. Protein synthesis 61. It is observed that most leaves have fewer stomata on the upper surface than on the lower surface. A greater number of stomata on the upper surface would result in _____. A. closing and opening of stomata on the lower surface B. excessive loss of water C. faster rate of photosynthesis D. reduced transpiration
62. A student placed some sliced of potato in a glass of drinking water. After a while she took a few slices and found the slices very turgid. What can you infer from this observation? A. The slices became smaller B. The potato slices did not change in shape C. Water was absorbed by the potato D. Water moved out of the tissues of potato 63. Which of the following can contribute to the “greenhouse effect”? A. Land plants using carbon dioxide B. Depletion of minerals in soil by over farming C. Destruction of forest D. Capturing radiant energy using solar cells 64. In taxanomy, which classification is arranged from largest related groups to the smallest? A. Species, genus, order, family, class, phylum, kingdom B. Species, order, genus, family, class, phylum, kingdom C. Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Order, Family, Genus, Species D. Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species 65. Which of these is the correct representation of the hierarchical organization of life from least to most complex? A. hydrogen, water, heart muscle cell, nucleus, heart muscle tissues, heart, human B. hydrogen, water, nucleus, heart muscle cell, heart muscle tissues, heart, human C. hydrogen, water, nucleus, heart muscle cell, heart, heart muscle tissue, human D. water, hydrogen, nucleus, heart muscle cell, heart muscle tissue, heart, human 66. Oxygen has an atomic number of 8. Therefore, it must have A. 8 protons B. 8 electrons C. 6 neturons D. Only A and B are correct 67. The mass number of an element can be easily approximated by adding together the number of A. protons and neutrons B. electrons orbitals in each energy level C. protons and electrons D. neutrons and electrons 68. A mango leaf is at which level in the hierarchial organization of life? A. Tissue B. organ C. organelle D. population 69. Which of the following includes all the others? A. ecosystem B. community C. individual D. population 70. In a natural community, the primary consumers are A. herbivores B. carnivores C. scavenger D. decomposers 71. The following activities change the composition of the substance EXCEPT. A. Corrosion of metal B. Boiling of water C. Decaying of leaves D. Curdling of milk 72. Which of the following does not show chemical change?
A. Formation of precipitates B. Evolution of gas C. Change in temperature D. Change in phase 73. Which of the following is non – biodegradable? A. plastic straw B. animal bones C. tea leaves D. dried plants 74. A stone is dropped in a graduated cylinder previously filled with water. This will cause the rising of the level of water in the graduated cylinder. Why does the level of water rise? A. The stone has more mass than water B. The water is less dense than stone C. The stone is heavy D. The stone takes the place occupied by water 75. Which of the following is the manifestation of life? A. reproduction C. responsiveness B. genetic control D. all of the above 76. Why is it easier to stay afloat when on a beach that when in a swimming pool? A. Freshwater is denser than sea water B. Sea water is denser than the freshwater C. Freshwater provides a greater buoyant force on you D. Beach has a bigger area than a swimming pool 77. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the most penetrating power? A. x – rays B. radio waves C. gamma rays D. ultraviolet rays 78. Mother needs a material to be used as a handle of a cooking utensils which of the following materials should she use? A. Aluminum B. Wood C. Iron D. Copper 79. Which of the following characteristics is true both in pure substances and mixture? A. It has a sharp boiling point B. It has definite composition C. It consists of a single phase D. Its components lose their individual properties 80. Which of the following results are is not due to depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer? A. Higher rates of skin cancer B. Higher rates of lung cancer C. Greater incidence of premature skin aging D. Enhanced incidence of severe sunburns 81. Which of the following best describes the process of osmosis? A. It is a is the physical process by which the cytoplasm of a cell divides to split the two cells. B. It is a is the physical process by which a cell divides itself into four completely new cells. C. It is a is the physical process by which a cell divides itself into two completely new, but identical cells. D. It is a is the physical process by which fluid moves through a membrane. 82. Which of the following statements describes the process of metabolism? A. It is process by which an organism produces and uses energy.
B. It is process by which fluid moves through membrane. C. It is process by which a cell duplicates itself. D. It is process by which a cell defends the organism from outside attackers. 83. Which of the following is an alternative to ozone depleting substances? A. Hydroflourocarbons B. Chloroflorocarbons C. Carbon Tetrachloride D. Methyl bromide 84. Why is predation an important process in maintaining balance in ecosystem? A. it kills all harmful organsims B. it keeps the size of the population C. it prevents the small organisms from wandering D. it makes the food chain complete 85. A scientific study showed that the depth at which algae were present in a lake varied in different times. During sunny days, the algae were found as much as 6 meters below the surface of the water. However, on cloudy days but were only 1 meter below the surface. Which hypothesis best explains these observations? A. Wind currents affect the growth of algae B. Precipitation affects growth of algae. C. Nitrogen concentration affects the growth of algae. D. Light intensity affects growth of algae. 86. Which of the following colors have the longest wavelength? A. Red B. Green C. Violet D. Orange 87. Acid rain occurs when A. carbon dioxide combines with water in the atmosphere. B. phosphorus-rich water in lakes evaporates to form phosphoric acid C. sulfur released in burning fossil fuels combines with water in the atmosphere D. excess hydrogen is released into the atmosphere where ozone is formed. 88. A certain volcano is made up of alternating layer of lava and fragmental materials. Due to this its eruption style may vary from a relatively quiet eruption to a more explosive type. What is this kind of volcano? A. cinder B. composite C. shield D. none of these 89. Which of the following differentiates intensity and magnitude? A. Intensity measures strength while magnitude measures the energy of an earthquake. B. Intensity determines the focus of an earthquake while magnitude determines its epicenter C. There is no difference between an earthquake’s intensity and magnitude. D. Both a and b are correct. 90. The following are parts of the circulatory system EXCEPT: A. lungs B. blood C. heart D. blood vessel
91. Which of the following parts of the cell is present only among plants? A. cell membranes B. nucleus C. chloroplast D. mitochondrion 92. Cations are generated in the process of A. Electron gain B. Electron lost C. Hybridization D. Delocalization 93. Which of the following shows work is done when blowing a balloon? A. The balloon has potential energy which is charged to kinetic energy. B. The balloon is filled with air which has weight and occupied space C. The balloon moves outward as the force is exerted on it. D. The force of gravity on the balloon increases. 94. Water boils at a lower temperature on a mountain than on the sea level. Why is this so? A. The temperature of the air rises as the height increases B. The atmospheric pressure is lower as the height increases C. The temperature of the air falls as the height increases D. The atmospheric pressure is higher as the height increases. 95. When is the sex of the child determined? A. During ovulation period of a woman B. When the embryo is implanted in the uterus C. After the first few division of the zygote D. At the moment of fertilization 96. Which of the following statements is not true? A. Atoms of isotopes of an element have different numbers of protons B. The nucleus of an atom contains the protons and the neutrons C. The nucleus of an atom is positively charge D. Atoms are mostly empty spaces. 97. Which type of volcano is the least explosive? A. Shield volcano B. Composite C. Cinder D. Stratovolcano 98. Which of the following is an anthropod? A. snail C. starfish B. mosquito D. jellyfish 99. Which of the following is used in classifying rocks into three main types? A. formation C. texture B. color D. size 100. Is CO2 matter? A. No, because it is gas C. Yes, because molecules are matter B. Not sure, because it can’t be seen D. Both A and B
KEY TO CORRECTION Natural Science 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. A 16. D 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. D 23. C 24. C 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. A 31. D 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. A 36. A 37. C 38. A 39. A 40. C 41. A 42. A 43. B 44. C 45. D 46. D 47. A 48. C 49. A 50. B 51. C 52. B 53. A 54. B 55. D 56. B 57. B 58. C 59. C 60. C 61. B 62. C 63. C 64. D 65. B 66. D 67. A 68. B 69. A 70. A 71. B 72. D 73. A 74. D 75. D 76. B 77. C 78. B 79. C 80. B 81. D 82. A 83. A 84. B 85. D 86. A 87. C 88. B 89. A 90. A 91. C 92. B 93. C 94. B 95. D 96. A 97. A 98. B 99. A 100. C
CHILD AND ADOLESCENT DEVELOPMENT 1. According to Sigmund Freud, there is a stage wherein young boys experience a strong rivalry with Father for their mother’s affection. This period is known as _________. A. Oedipus Complex B. Elektra Complex C. Achilles Syndrome D. Cassandra Syndrome 2. Catherine is a resilient child with superior intelligence. She grew up in a very poor environment. With this condition, the probable outcome would be A. No change in IQ because the environment deprivation has nothing to do with intelligence B. Slight change in IQ although he can overcome frustration and obstacle C. Mental retardation since he is culturally dprived. D. Great change in IQ because he is culturally deprived 3. Trishia a 1 and half year old girl, baby talks and commonly mispronounces words. This is regarded as cute by her parents and relatives. They are not aware that this attitude towards Trishia’s mispronounciation might create a speech hazard on the part of Trishia. If parent hear their children mispronounce words, they must: A. correct their mistakes B. ask the child to rephrase the statement C. ignore the statement until the child says it correctly on his own. D. respond to the content of the statement and ignore the error. 4. The following is TRUE in the development of understanding in early childhood, EXCEPT A. abilities to reason and too see relationship. B. sensory experiences. C. ability to explore their environment. D. ability to ask questions. 5. The following concept of development is true EXCEPT: A. Development is a continuous process. B. The sequence of development is the same for all children C. Maturation has nothing to do with development D. Certain reflexes present at birth anticipate voluntary movement 6. Which of the following is an expression of child’s interest in his body? A. looking at themselves in the mirror. B. looking at the picture of adult men and women C. commenting on various parts of the body and ask questions about them. D. comparing themselves with others. 7. Which statement should be omitted when we talk about adolescence? A. It begins with the onset of puberty B. It is a time where the young person is longer a child but is not yet an adult C. It ends when puberty is complete D. It is a time of preoccupation with one’s own thought. 8. Following Piaget’s Theory of Cognitive Development, Ms. Ramirez provides her students varied activities that enable them to classify objects according to more than one variable, rank order items in logical series and understand that amount of mass or liquid do not change because their shape does. These developments can be expected to be performed by A. Preschoolers C. High school students B. College students D. Elementary school children 9. This theorist proposed that human activity is based on association and response. A. Sigmund Freud C. BF Skinner B. Ivan Pavlov D. Edward Thorndike
10. If we want children to treat each other with courtesy and dignity, then we must do the same to them. If we yell at children, they will soon be shouting at each other. These behaviors are likely to be demonstrated by children because A. They are imitative B. They learn best by observing a model C. They are helpless and entirely dependent on adults D. They are afraid of other teachers if they fail to follow 11. Motor development is manifested by a particular child who __________. A. knows how to control his emotions because he could not ride the motorcycle. B. recognizes the different sizes of toys given to him. C. has playmates within the neighborhood and is popular among kids D. learns how to walk, run, steer and jump 12. This is a phenomenon in Psychology wherein students perform better than other students simply because they were expected to do so A. Rosenthal or Pygmalion B. John Henry effect C. Hawthrone effect D. Withitness 13. Teacher Lawrence scolded a pupil named Pewee for not listening attentively. As a result, the whole class paid attention to Teacher Lawrence. What explains the phenomenon? A. Placebo effect B. Halo effect C. Ripple effect D. John Henry effect 14. This view of education promotes that education started from primitive people particularly those of the tribe. A. Evolutionist B. Creationist C. Culturalist D. Progressivist 15. Tricia, a Third Year student is popular not only in her classroom but also in the entire campus. She is always invited to soirees and pygama parties. Students are drawn to her because of her seemingly friendly attitude. This intelligence according to Gardner is known as _____________. A. Popularity B. Congenial C. Interpersonal D. Intrapersonal 16. Krathwohl is famous for his Taxonomy of Affective Domain, while Anita Harrow is known for his _______ domain. A. Affective C. Cognitive B. Psychomotor D. Metacognition 17. The following negates facilitating learning EXCEPT: A. focus on the right side of the brain B. involve both sides of the brain C. focus on cognitive objectives all the time D. focus on the left side of the brain 18. Using Bloom’s Taxanomy, the highest among the following is. A. Critical comprehension B. Critical evaluation C. Integration D. Literal comprehension
19. Among the following educators, who proposed the placement of children in a “prepared environment”? A. Thorndike B. Montessori C. Kilpatrick D. Froebel 20. According to Erickson, a major conflict in the first year of life is that between A. trust versus mistrust B. initiative versus gulit C. autonomy versus shame and doubt D. relatedness vs. isolation 21. Identification with peer groups A. decreases during adolescence B. gives an adolescent a measure of security and a sense of identity C. reduces self-esteem and self-worth D. seems to always lead to incredibly destrictive behaviors. 22. Which among the following drugs is commonly used for children with ADHD? A. Haldol B. Thorazine C. Ritalin D. Valium 23. What is the main reason why children with ADHD have limited learning skills? A. are mildly retarded. B. act on impulse and cannot concentrate. C. must take stimulants which shorthen attention span. D. are given sedatives which make them listless. 24. Gary a 3 yo boy lacks the ability to control his bowel. He could be suffering from? A. enuresis. B. analism. C. encopresis. D. anorexia nervosa 25. What is passive euthanasia? A. a person’s body is frozen upon death. B. drugs are administered to hasten death. C. body temperature is lowered to delay death. D. death is allowed but not caused. 26. Many concerned parents commonly make the mistake of A. deliberately creating high levels of stress for their child. B. unintentionally creating high levels of stress for their child. C. attempting to protect their children from all stress. D. unintentionally rewarding their children for creating stress. 27. Who among the following advocated that we face a specific psychosocial dilemma at each stage of life? A. James Coleman B. Lawrence Kohlberg C. Erik Erickson D. Sigmund Freud 28. Why are life stages important? A. they represent the outcome of major biological changes. B. they represent a set of developmental tasks to be mastered. C. they provide insight into values and aspirations of particular cultures. D. their beginning and end are perfectly correlated with chronological age.
29. Lawrence Kohlberg is known for his research in the area of _________ development. A. cognitive C. moral B. physical D. motor 30. Which is True about peer groups? A. decreases during adolescence. B. Gives an adolescent a measure of security and sense of identity. C. reduces self-esteem and self worth. D. seems to always lead to incredibly destructive behaviors. 31. Stuttering is commonly caused by A. side effect of authoritarian parenting. B. result of fixation caused by conflicts during toilet trainings. C. psychological consequence of permissive parenting. D. Problem with a physical origin. 32. When a person fails to develop a consistent identity, this usually results to A. isolation. B. inferiority C. role confusion. D. stagnation. 33. According to Kubler-Ross, when faced with death, the most common order of emotional reactions is A. anger, depression, bargaining, denial, acceptance. B. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance. C. anger, depression, denial, barganing, acceptance. D. depression, anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance. 34. Paul a 4 yo boy have a problem of occasional bedwetting. We can advise his parents to A. limit the amount of water he drinks in the evening. B. punish him for “wet” nights. C. wake him up during the night to use the toilet. D. Consider medication or psychotherapy. 35. Which among the following describes grief? A. the period of emotional adjustment that follows the death of a loved one. B. the intense emotional state that follows the death of a lover, friend, or relative. C. the period during which a person seems dazed or numb and shows little emotion. D. demoralization and discouragement. 36. How can parents foster initiative and independence in children? A. restricting a child’s freedom to play, to use imagination, and to choose activities. B. identity vs. role confusion C. encouragement from parents when a childs plans and carries out a task. D. mastering psychomotor skills. 37. Generativity according to Erik Erickson is A. concern for welfare of others and society as a whole. B. the desire to have children and thereby ensure survival of the species. C. the ability to establish adequate social and financial security. D. active acceptance of aging and the social changes it brings. 38. Stored knowledge like vocabulary A. reach their peak a few years after high school or college. B. are examples of fossilized intelligence. C. are examples of fluid intelligence. D. are examples of crystallized intelligence.
39. Which stage consider teachers, peers, and adults outside home important in shaping attitudes toward oneself. A. trust vs. mistrust C. industry vs. inferiority B. initiative vs. guilt D. integrity vs. despair 40. Which of the following is the common life stages among Trisha, Patty and Alma? A. infancy C. later adulthood B. late adolescence D. old age 41. Menopause: Aging A. integrity is to autonomy. B. birth is to death. C. activity is to ageism. D. puberty is to adolescence. 42. When a child manifests mutism, self-destructive behavior, and echolalia, the child might be showing the symptoms of A. childhood autism C. ADHD B. anorexia nervosa D. dyslexia 43. According to Kohlberg, conforming to the expectations of others or to socially accepted rules and values describes a person at the ___________ level of morality. A. obedience B. concrete C. post conventional D. conventional 44. Roel, a 5 yo boy lacks bladder control. He might be suffering from A. colitis. C. enuresis. B. anorexia. D. encopresis. 45. When a person’s moral choices are determined by the direct consequences of actions, he is most like in a stage of A. pre-conventional B. conventional C. concrete D. post conventional 46. Puberty is commonly considered A. the same as adolescence. B. occurs after for boys than for girls. C. is the period of growth and hormonal changes that lead to sexual maturity. D. involves a growth spurt 1-2 years during which boys are taller than girls 47. Which is NOT true about autism? A. violent temper tantrums and repetitive actions. B. sensory blocking and echolalia C. language ang learning deficiencies D. encopresis and overeating 48. Jenny is encourage by her parents to ask questions, and allows her to choose activities she will find enjoyable and worthwhile. If this will continue, Erickson believes that Jenny will achieve A. industry. C. generativity. B. identity. D. initiative. 49. James, a 41 yo man was diagnosed with stage 4 cancer of the lungs, his most likely reaction would be A. anger. C. bargaining. B. denial. D. depression.
50. According to Kohlberg the correct order of Moral Development is A. preconventional, conventional, post conventional B. conditional, unconditional, and postconditional C. self interested, social, and personal D. premoral, conventional and postethical 51. When a girl matures early she is more likely A. to engage in earlier sexual relations. B. to be socially ostracized in middle and high school. C. to withdraw and become socially isolated. D. to become tall and thin. 52. Why is hyperactivity is a serious childhood problem? A. It is associated with severe brain damage and retardation. B. it cannot be treated. C. it interferes with success in school and learning in general. D. hyperactive children tend to be self-destructive and withdrawn. 53. Emmanuel who is just starting school, tries to learn good habits and to do well. What is his stage of development according to Erickson? A. initiative vs. guilt. B. industry vs. inferiority. C. generativity vs. stagnation. D. integrity vs. despair. 54. Life stages are important according to Erickson because A. each involves a crisis or dilemma. B. each signals a new stage of cognitive development. C. each is an expression of biological programming. D. their failure to appear is evidence of psychopathology. 55. Elementary age children belong to the stage of A. initiative vs. independence B. industry vs. inferiority C. education vs. indolence D. autonomy vs. conformity 56. What is the best thing to do when somebody you know is dying? A. avoid disturbing that person by not mentioning death. B. allow that person to talk about death with you. C. tell that person about the stages of dying. D. keep your visits short and infrequent in order to avoid tiring that person. 57. Some children go through a period of intense appetite when they eat or chew on all sorts of inedible substances. This is called A. pica. C. encopresis. B. enuresis. D. anorexia. 58. Elizabeth Kubler-Ross is known for her research in the area of A. eating disorder. B. adolescent behavior. C. copping with stress. D. death and dying. 59. Mrs. Grace Polinatan was not accepted by a certain company because of her age. This discrimination based on age is called A. gerontism. B. autism. C. ageism. D. senilism.
60. Kohlberg, the main proponent of Moral Development Theory studied moral development by A. having subjects keep a daily journal of their actions. B. evaluating criminal and delinquent person’s court records. C. posing moral dilemmas to children of different ages. D. having subjects perform various legal or illegal behaviors. 61. Thomas’ parents do not want their child with ADHD to undergo drug treatment, their better alternative would be A. psychotherapy. B. behavior modification or behavior management. C. punishment. D. progressive inhibition 62. Toilet training is the central activity during this stage of development according to Erikson A. identity vs. role confusion B. initiative vs. guilt. C. autonomy vs. shame and doubt. D. intimacy vs. isolation. 63. Janet is undergoing the process of “bereavement”. Bereavement actually refers to A. the period of emotional adjustment that follows the death of a loved one. B. the intense emotional state that follows the death of a lover, friend, or relative. C. the period during which a person seems dazed or numb and shows little emotion. D. demoralization and discouragement. 64. Young adults are normally interested in developing A. intimacy. C. integrity. B. generativity. D. initiative. 65. Modeling is a teaching activity rooted on __________ learning theory. A. Bandura C. Thorndike B. Skinner D. Bruner 66. Providing variety of learning activities to students is a characteristic of a teacher who understand the principle of A. reward as a potential means of increasing the participation B. proactive teaching as a modern technique of teaching C. facilitating learning with emphasis on individual differences D. allowing the student to be exposed to various teaching techniques 67. All of the following shows respect for individual differences EXCEPT. A. treat all learners alike while in the classroom. B. provide for a variety of learning activities. C. give greater attention to gifted learners D. prepare modules for slow learners in class 68. Ripple effect can also be seen in misdemeanor. The teacher should therefore: A. reinforce positive behavior B. immediately responds to misbehavior C. be consistent in classroom management D. count 1 to 10 before she gets angry 69. The best example of Operant Conditioning among the following is A. connecting facts and concepts B. fostering conducive learning environment C. using reinforcement D. using manipulative devices
70. During the height of anger the _______ operates according to Freud A. Ego C. Id and ego B. Superego D. Id 71. A teacher present a morally ambiguous situation to his students and ask them what to do, the teacher’s technique is based on the theory of: A. Bandura C. Kohlberg B. Piaget D. Bruner 72. Nathan always waits his neighbor Raphael every morning. He enjoyed seeing him while biking and imitates the actions of Raphael while he rides his own bike. Who is the proponent the Social Learning Theory which applies in this example? A. Bandura C. Bruner B. Kohlberg D. Skinner 73. According to Jerome Bruner, learning is a simultaneous process of acquisition, transformation and __________. A. evaluation C. metacognition B. question D. education 74. A child receives a STAR STAMP after correctly completing his task. The child always tries to complete all tasks correctly for him to have a stamp once again. What is being shown in the situation? A. Associative learning B. Classical conditioning C. Operant conditioning D. Pavlovian conditioning 75. A child submitted a poor written report but packaged with brightly colored paper over. This showcases __________. A. art over academics C. art over science B. substance over “porma” D. “porma” over substance 76. Student participation will most likely happen when A. Feeling or emotions are not permtted in the discussion. B. The group leader allows quiet members to remain quiet. C. The teacher models good listening habit. D. Repeat directions over and over until everyone listen. 77. Which of the following promotes learning at the maximum? A. learning execises are focused on the right side of the brain. B. learning exercises involve both sides of the brain. C. learning execises are focused on cognitive objectives. D. learning execises are focused on the left side of the brain. 78. Peter saw another student being bullied. He did not try to stop the fight because he enjoys watching it. Did Peter act responsibly? A. Yes, because by not taking part he prevented the fight from becoming worse. B. Yes, because he did not involve himself in the fight. C. No, Peter’s motive did not lead to any good. D. Yes, because anyway the students, a bully himself, deserves to be beaten. 79. Students who are disobedient and display negative attitudes towards others are best handled by a teacher who will A. Insist on compliance to the same degree required of pupils. B. Take every opportunity to praise him for every positive attitude displays. C. Avoid giving him orders or if you do and he objects take back the order. D. Detain him after office hours for him to do what he has been ordered to. 80. What is the motivation of a person who paints for the sheer enjoyment of creating artwork? A. Intrinsic and extrinsic B. Extrinsic C. Intrinsic D. Insufficient
81. Clarence has inherent skills in taking care of plants. It is highly possible that she has ___________ intelligence. A. naturalistic intelligence C. spatial intelligence B. intrapersonal intelligence D. existential intelligence 82. One of the following shows skills in interpersonal intelligence. This person usually A. work on his/her own B. keeps interest to himself/herself C. seek out a classmate for help when problem occurs D. spends time meditating 83. Which of the following develops critical thinking skills among the students? A. Asking low level questions B. A willingness to suspend judgment until sufficient evidence is presented. C. Asking convergent questions D. Blind obedience to authority 84. With the use of mnemonics the students are able to __________ information. A. analyze C. apply B. understand D. remember 85. The following is true about teacher as facilitator of learning EXCEPT A. Teachers does more talk so learners talk less. B. Teacher make use of interactive teaching strategies. C. Teacher caters to multiple intelligences. D. Teacher does less talk for learners to talk more. 86. According to Erikson, a child who is cold towards the people around him might have failed to attain what basic goal based on psychosocial development? A. Autonomy B. Trust C. Initiative D. Mistrust 87. When a boy of 5 years old show extreme attachment to his mother, he is likely to be undergoing the ________ stage of psychosexual development. A. Oedipal complex B. Latent stage C. Phallic stage D. Pre-genital stage 88. Harold, a 6 yo boy likes to play with his friends, but easily gets angry when defeated. Piaget’s theory states that this pupil is under what development stage? A. Concrete operation B. Sensorimotor C. Formal operation D. Pre-operation 89. What is the most likely characteristic of children aged 3 to 5 according Erikson? A. Mischievous C. Lazy B. Ego-centric D. Altruistic 90. Two years of age are described as “terrible two” by Erikson because _____. A. They are inquisitive. B. They are sickly. C. They are playful. D. They are assertive. 91. A person who is friendly and has a capacity to make people laugh possesses: A. Naturalistic intelligence B. Spatial intelligence C. Intrapersonal intelligence D. Interpersonal intelligence
92. A child who always fight with his/her classmates, who has very short attention span, and who has frequent tantrums is believed to be suffering from: A. Mental retardation B. Down syndrome C. Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder D. Learning disability 93. Metacognition is primarily characterized by: A. Recalling the past lesson B. Visualizing in advance C. Formulating hypothesis D. Thinking about their thinking 94. The following are characteristics of ADHD EXCEPT A. Hyperactivity C. Inattention B. Focus D. Impulsivity 95. Mother asked the child “Which is heavier, one kilo of gold or one kilo of cotton?”. The child readily answered “Mommy, one kilo of gold is heavier”. From this conversation, we can deduce that the child is under _______ stage of cognitive development. A. sensorimotor C. concrete operational B. preoperational D. formal operational 96. Teacher May bridges the student’s present skill and the desired level with a technique advised by Vygotsky as A. challenging C. inspiring B. scaffolding D. motivating 97. Teacher Lea has been lecturing for more than an hour and she notices that students are not not anymore able to absorb additional information. This phenomenon is known as A. Plateau of learning C. Procractination B. Stagnation D. Boredom 98. Planned ignoring, signal inference, and proximity control are techniques used in _________. A. managing temper tantrums B. operant conditioning C. managing surface behavior D. life-space interviewing 99. Based on this philosophy learning occurs when there are changes in mental structure. A. cognitive dissonance C. cognitive learning model B. humanistic D. gestalt philosophy 100. The following are “red flags” in infant ages one month EXCEPT: A. sucks poorly B. doesn’t blink when exposed to light C. rarely moves arms and legs D. cries aloud when hungry 101. A foreigner who is studying here in the Philippines was turned-off by the Filipinos’ way of eating Balut and Frogs A. Ethnocentrism C. Xenocentrism B. Colonial mentality D. Culture shock 102. What need is a person trying to satisfy, when the person strives to develop himself to the fullest? A. Safety needs C. Sense of Belongingness B. Physiological needs D. Self-actualization 103. This period is the transition between childhood and adulthood. A. puberty C. late childhood B. adolescence D. early adulthood
104. The following are factors affecting motor development of children EXCEPT A. maternal nutrition C. child nutrition B. early stimulation D. preschool education 105. The disorder typically presents itself during childhood, and is characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity, as well as forgetfulness, poor impulse control or impulsivity, and distractibility. A. Autism C. Mental Retardation B. Aspergers D. ADHD 106. Who among the following claimed that children are natural learners and therefore must be taught in natural setting? A. Montessori C. Piaget B. Kohlberg D. Froebel 107. According to John Locke the mind at birth is “tabula rasa” or A. with skills already present C. full of ideas B. blank sheet D. open for new ideas 108. To determine her students’ level of moral development. Teacher Lawrence presents to his class a morally ambiguous situation and asks them what they would do in such a situation. On whose theory is Teacher Lawrence’s technique based? A. Bruner C. Freud B. Piaget D. Kohlberg 109. The concept that learning to read or write does not happen quickly but is built upon many small steps that occur over the course of the child’s early childhood. A. emergent literacy C. innate literacy B. functional literacy D. academic literacy 110. Teacher Marissa would like to employ Operant conditioning on hre students to increase the probabilities of greater participation during discussion. It is highly possible that teacher Marissa will A. put more emphasis on sharing and consistently guide them to new ideas. B. allow them to think about thingking C. give a star token to those who will participate D. let them exercise metacognitive approaches to better understand the topic 111. A student is finding it hard to read. When the guidance counselor traced the child’s history, the counselor was able to find out that the student came from a dysfunctional fa-mily, aside from that, the child was abused and neglected. What could have caused the student’s reading disability? A. Emotional factors B. Poor teaching C. Neurological factors D. Immaturity 112. Laughing at a two-year-old child who uttered a bad word is not proper thing to do because in this stage of the child’s life, the child is _________. A. Considering the views of others B. Distinguishing sex differences C. Socializing D. Distinguishing right from wrong 113. A child was punished for cheating in an exam. For sure the child won’t cheat ever again in short span of time, but this does not guarantee that the child won’t cheat ever again. Based on Thorndike’s Theory on punishment and learning, this shows that ______. A. Punishment strengthens a response B. Punishment removes response C. Punishment doesn’t remove a response D. Punishment weakens a response
114. A child who cold towards the people around him might have failed to attain what basic goal based on Erikson’s theory of development? A. Autonomy C. Initiative B. Trust D. Mistrust 115. A boy is closer to his mother and a girl is close to her father. These instances are under _________. A. Oedipal Complex C. Phallic stage B. Latent stage D. Pre-genital stage 116. An adolescent exhibits what common characteristics? A. Reasonable and secure B. Feels intense emotions and sense of disequilibrium C. Slow but steady physical growth D. Passive and obedient 117. The school director emphasizes the necessity of clean and green environment to contribute to effective teaching and learning. This is an example of: A. Providing an atmosphere conducive to learning. B. Providing adequate physical facilities C. Utilize educational technology D. Establish rapport between teachers and pupils 118. Teacher Marissa would like to employ Operant conditioning on her students to increase the probabilities of greater participation during discussion. It is highly possible that teacher Marissa will A. put more emphasis on sharing and consistently guide them to new ideas B. allow them to think about thinking C. give a star token to those who will participate D. let them execise metacognitive approaches to better understand the topic 119. This group is the “real world” of the teenager. A. peer group C. in group B. reference group D. circle 120. According to Jean Piaget “Animism” occurs during ________ stage. A. Sensorimotor C. Concrete Operational B. Preoperational D. Formal Operational 121. Planned ignoring, signal inference, and proximity control are techniques used in ________. A. managing temper tantrums C. managing surface behavior B. operant conditioning D. life-space interviewing 122. This period is the transition between childhood to adulthood. A. puberty C. late childhood B. adolescence D. early childhood 123. The following negates facilitating learning EXCEPT. A. focus on the right side of the brain B. involve both sides of the brain C. focus on cognitive objectives all the time D. focus on the left side of the brain 124. Teachers are facilitator of learning. Which among the following negates this principle? A. familiar with the latest innovations in teaching B. performs not only classroom roles but community involvement as well C. uses proactive discipline methods D. redicules background of the students 125. The nearest to the real thing according to Edgar Dale’s Cone of Experience is A. watching demo B. attending exhibit C. hearing and listening D. viewing images
KEY TO CORRECTION Child and Adolescent Development 1. A 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. B 18. B 19. B 20. A 21. B 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. D 26. C 27. C 28. B 29. C 30. B 31. A 32. C 33. B 34. A 35. B 36. C 37. A 38. D 39. C 40. A 41. D 42. A 43. D 44. C 45. A 46. C 47. D 48. A 49. B 50. A 51. A 52. C 53. B 54. A 55. B 56. B 57. A 58. D 59. C 60. C 61. B 62. C 63. A 64. A 65. A 66. C 67. A 68. A 69. C 70. D 71. C 72. A 73. A 74. C 75. D 76. C 77. B 78. C 79. B 80. C 81. A 82. C 83. B 84. D 85. A 86. B 87. C 88. D 89. B 90. D 91. D 92. C 93. D 94. B 95. B 96. B 97. A 98. C 99. C 100. D 101. D 102. D 103. B 104. D 105. D 106. D 107. B 108. D 109. A 110. C 111. A 112. D 113. D 114. B 115. C 116. B 117. A 118. C 119. A 120. B 121. C 122. B 123. B 124. D 125. A
SOCIAL DIMENSION OF EDUCATION 1. Ms. Ortiz ranked no. 1 in March 2012 LET Exam. Upon learning this by the school where she had her internship, she was offered immediately of a position for the school year 2012-2013. She gladly accepted this job offering. She submitted all the documents required by the school and just waited for the result of her medical exam was released. She learned that she has a tuberculosis. Which of the following do you think should Ms. Ortiz do? A. Hide her sickness from the Principal and proceed to teach in the SY 2012-2013 B. Ask the examining doctor to give her medical clearance so that she can teach and assure the doctor she will continue the medication. C. Tell the Principal that she has changed her mind and opted not to teach anymore D. Discuss her medical condition to the principal and defer to teach until she gets well 2. Mrs. Banaticla is a high school teacher known for her integrity and credibility. In her community, she was regarded as one of the leaders. All thru out her career as a teacher, she is alo a part of the board of canvasser every time there is an election. One time, she was asked by her nephew to campaign for him in the forthcoming election for he will run as a Congressman. Should Mrs. Banaticla campaign for her nephew? A. Yes, there is no reason why she can’t do this since blood thicker than water. B. Yes, she will be campaigning for her nephew and will do it discretely. C. No, she hates her nephew and it’s time to get even. D. No, she knows that it is against her principle as a teacher and this might put her credibility as a teacher at risk. 3. Jonathan San Diego, son of the Principal of Mapagpala Elementary School is running as a mayor in their town. Is it ethical for Principal San Diego to vote for his son during the election? A. Yes, it is a constitutional right of Principal San Diego to vote B. Yes, his vote is an additional point for his son. C. No, out of delicadeza, he should refrain from voting since his son is a candidate D. No, he has no right to vote 4. Mrs. Concepcion is a public school teacher for 35 years. Every time she was asked by her principal to attend a seminar, she refused and requested that the new teacher be the one to take her slot. Is this correct? A. Yes, Mrs. Concepcion had enough of these seminars. B. Yes, Mrs. Concepcion is about to retire and these seminars will have no longer use of her C. No, Mrs. Concepcion should take every opportunity to attend a seminar for her own professional growth. D. No, Mrs. Concepcion has the prerogative to what seminar she will attend 5. Teacher Allyce doesn’t like Maria, her student who is expected to graduate as class Valedictorian. In this regard, she is so impartial to her, she also gives her low marks in recitation and project. Is this correct? A. Yes, it is the right of every teacher to determine the mark of every student. B. Yes, it is human nature to feel disgust to an individual. C. No, it is a mortal sin to hate anyone. D. No, it is a must that every teacher be impartial to each student. 6. Mrs. Quinay was asked by the parents of Michael (her favorite student) to help them to get the concession of the school canteen. Mrs. Quinay, effortless made this possible for Michael’s parents. In return, Michael’s parent gave her a brand new refrigerator as a gift. How should Mrs. Quinay react on this? A. Accept the gift since she has made a favor for Michael’s parents. B. Accept the gift and asked Michael’s parents to be discrete about this. C. Accept not the gift and politely explain that it is against the principle of a teacher to adhere in such practice. D. Accept not the refrigerator and tell to Michael’s parents that she prefers cash over the refrigerator.
7. The Code of Ethics for Professional Teachers Cover(s) A. All Private school teachers in all educational institutions at the preschool, primary, elementary, secondary, and tertiary levels whether academic, vocational, special, technical, or non-formal B. All Public school teachers in an educational institutions at the preschool, primary, elementary, secondary, and tertiary levels whether academic, vocational, special, technical, or non-formal C. All public and private school teachers in all educational institutions at the preschool, primary, elementary, secondary, and tertiary levels whether academic, vocational, special, technical or non-formal. D. All public and private school teachers in all educational institutions at the preschool, primary, elementary and secondary levels whether academic, vocational, special, technical or non- formal. All public and private school teachers in all educational institutions at the preschool, primary, elementary and secondary levels whether academic, vocational, special, technical or non-formal. 8. Which of the following is a mark of a good teacher? A. Has the control of the class B. Has the mastery of the lesson C. Has the capability to implement corporal punishment D. Has the habit of preparing for visual aids. 9. Under the “Learning to do”, which of the following instrument must be acquired so that a person can perform his work effectively? A. Insight C. Communication B. Competence D. Compromise 10. “Life is what you make it” exemplifies best what ________ is: A. Existentialism C. Progressivism B. Humanism D. Essentialism 11. Mr. De Guzman is regarded as the best teacher in their school. He is known not only because he teaches well but also because of his integrity and credibility. In addition, he is also an adviser in their barangay. Without the knowledge of everyone he is consistently attending the cockfight in his adjacent town every other day. He is also known for betting a big amount of money in every game. Can he continue doing this considering his profession as a teacher? A. Yes, this activity is not affecting his work as a teacher. B. Yes, this activity is being funded by his own money. C. No, this activity will merit him reasonable social recognition D. No, this acitivity may lead him to financial loss and problem 12. What do you think would be the action of a teacher who found out and has proven that his principal is involved in the malversation of funds of their school? A. Malign him through an anonymous letter B. Circulate the issue and let it become a gossip C. Present the charge to a competent authority D. Ignore what the teacher has discovered about this action of the principal 13. After listening to the homily of the Priest about fidelity, Catherine has a moment of reflection. Her understanding of the value of fidelity has become deeper as she related this to her past experience. This typifies what kind of philosophy? A. Constructivism C. Humanism B. Reconstructionism D. Existentialism 14. Teacher Riean is a new teacher. She realizes that handling her student’s misbehavior is a very demanding aspect of classroom management. In this regard, she thought of giving up teaching. What advice can you give her? A. Agree with the class on what rules to follow B. Report every student’s misbehavior to the principal C. Set the ground rules for the whole class D. None of the above
15. If a teacher is an advocate of “banking concept of education”, he or she viewed student as? A. Clear account to be filled up by the teacher B. Dormant account to be activated by the teacher C. Wobble account to be balanced by the teacher D. None of the above 16. After studying the Principle of Identity, Teacher Beng asks her students to determine which among the given set of problems conforms to the said identity. This shows that Teacher Beng upholds this kind of philosophy? A. Perrenialism C. Essentialism B. Progressivism D. Naturalism 17. Teacher Carol is a neophyte teacher. One time a mother of one of her students confronted and maligned her in front of her colleagues. How should Teacher Carol react on this kind of situation? A. Walk away and ignore the mother B. Answer back the mother and malign her too C. Allow the mother to keep on maligning her until it’s her turn to do the same D. Wait until the emotion of the mother subsides and invite her to discuss the concern wth the principal or guidance counselor. 18. During the distribution of the report card, which of the following must be foremost concern of a teacher? A. Discuss the projects of the school B. Discuss the progress as well as the deficiencies of the student C. Discuss the unsettled bills of the students. D. Discuss the complaints of other teachers and classmates of the students. 19. Which of the following would best describe the role of schools? A. To educate the citizens B. To fit the citizens into the society C. To educate the citizens to change the society D. All of the above 20. Which of the following is the political purpose of the school? A. To teach the basic cognitive skills B. To foster patriotism and loyalty to the existing political order C. To familiarize every citizen of their various function in the society D. To prepare every citizen for the world of work 21. How will you classify the purpose of the school as it concerns with the training and preparation of citizens for the world of work? A. Political Purposes B. Cognitive Purposes C. Economic Purposes D. Social Purposes 22. Which of the following will best describe the purpose of holistic education? A. To prepare the students to meet the challenges of living and schooling B. To prepare the students to meet the challenges of schooling and society C. To prepare the students to meet the challenges of living and society D. All of the above 23. To ensure holistic education, students must have knowledge and understanding of? A. Themselves and their healthy relationships with others. B. Social development and resilience C. Beauty, truth and transcendental experience D. All fo the above
24. Which of the following is NOT correct under the Code of Ethics for Teachers regarding Teacher and Business? A. No teacher shall act, directly or indirectly, as agent of, or be financially interested in, any commercial venture which furnish textbooks and other school commodities in the purchase and disposal of which he can exercise official influence, except only when his assignment is inherently, related to such purchase and disposal: provided they shall be in accordance with the existing regulations; provided, further, that members of duly recognized teachers cooperatives may participate in the distribution and sale such commodities. B. A teacher has no right to engage, directly or indirectly, in legitimate income generation C. A teacher shall maintain a good reputation with respect to the financial matters such as in the settlement of his debts and loans in arranging satisfactorily his private financial affairs. D. None of the above 25. Teacher Mely, a neophyte in the field, experienced for the first time a complaint from the mother of one of her students during the distribution of the report card. Which of the following do you think must be attitude of teacher Mely? A. Bring the mother to the Guidance Counselor B. Ignore the complaint of the mother C. Listen to the complaint of the mother with sympathy D. None of the above 26. Thea listened to the advice given by her sister to end the relationship that she has with Gilbert. However, her sister learned that the advice she has given was not followed and Thea decided to continue the relationship. This action of Thea is a manifestation of what kind of philosophy? A. Essentialism B. Existentialism C. Perrenialism D. Humanism 27. Teacher Leor and student Joy are mutually attracted the first time they see each other. This mutual attraction developed into love. Eventually, the teacher-student became a boyfriend-girlfriend relationship. Can they continue this relationship? A. Continue the relationship but teacher Leor must execise utmost professional discretion so as to protect the interest of one another. B. Stop the relationship because teacher Leor is not allowed to have a romantic relationship with any his students. C. Defer the relationship and wait for the right time D. None of the above 28. After finishing the degree in Education, teacher Marie learns that learning never stops. In fact, she accumulates more knowledge after leaving the portal of her alma mater. This typifies what kind of philosophy? A. Constructivism B. Perrenialism C. Progressivism D. Humanism 29. Riean Therese is an advocate of the principle “making the most of your life”. She is indeed an advocate of what kind of philosophy? A. Humanism B. Idealism C. Realism D. Existentialism 30. Student Dianne hits her classmate. What do you think should her teacher do so that she can learn from the consequence of her action? A. Ask Dianne’s classmate to hit her too B. Request Dianne to stand for the entire period C. Give Dianne a failing mark in the subject D. None of the above
31. Principal Lourdes asks the assistance of teacher Elvie to prepare the report to be presented to the District Supervisor. After the presentation, the District Supervisior commended her for the excellent report. She even asks her to print the materials for the distribution to other principals. In the printed work, principal Lourdes does not even acknowledge teacher Elvie. Is this morally correct? A. Yes, the principal has all the right to decide who will be acknowledged B. Yes, the principal knows that teacher Elvie is afraid of her and will not complaint C. Yes, the principal must impress her district supervisor and hide the truth that it is not her alone who preared the report. D. None of the choices is correct 32. During the class reunion of Teacher Eloisa, she learned that most of her classmates are successful in their fields. Also, she found out that most of them are wealthy because they have chosen a lucrative profession. Confronted with this situation, how should teacher Eloisa react? A. Hide to those who asked her real profession B. Leave the event so as to avoid being asked about her profession C. Tell with pride that she is a teacher by profession D. Answer not their question concerning her profession 33. Teacher Marie Antoniette is a very dedicated teacher in the nursery. Her foremost concern is for the students to learn how to adapt themselves in the environment. This shows that Teacher Marie Antoniette upholds this kind of philosophy? A. Naturalism B. Pragmatism C. Progressivism D. Rationalism 34. Teacher Roj serves as an inspiration to his students because of his efficiency and effectiveness as a teacher. The mind set of his students towards him is an instance of what kind of philosophy? A. Realism B. Idealism C. Nationalism D. Constructivism 35. Keane learns well through active interplay with others. His learning increases when engaged in acitivities that has meaning in him. Which philosophy can describe this? A. Progressivism B. Idealism C. Realism D. Empiricism 36. Which of the following pillar of education is vital in the building of a genuine and lasting culture of peace in the world? A. Learning to know B. Learning to do C. Learning to live together D. Learning to be 37. Which of the following pillar of education is dominant in the report of Edgar Faure’s report concerning the development of man’s complete dimension? A. Learning to know B. Learning to do C. Learning to live together D. Learning to be 38. Which of the following instrument is necessary under the “Learning to live together” in the pillar of education? A. Competence B. Communication C. Comprehension D. All of the above 39. The Four Pillars of Education started with the report entitled Learning the Treasure Within. The report is about A. Insights into education for the 21st century B. Insights into education for the 20th century C. Insights for the education for the 19th century D. Insights for the education for the 18th century 40. Who among the following philosophers considered habits and reasons as equally important forces to be cultivated in education? A. Avicenna C. Aristotle B. Jerome Bruner D. Maria Montessori
41. Ms. Valenzuela is always guarded by the principle that she has a foremost responsibility as a teacher. Given the following, which do you think is the main responsibility of Ms. Valenzuela? A. Shares responsibility in counseling B. Guides students in learning process C. Inspires students through interesting lessons D. Asks challenging questions 42. What practice (s) will demonstrate the teacher’s genuine concern on the learning of students? A. Confer progress of students to their parents. B. Guides students to meet their learning goals C. Validates if learning goals were met D. All of the above 43. “Learning is the process of retrieving prior learning”, this is a statement form a A. Constructivist B. Reconstructivist C. Progressivist D. Idealist 44. Which of the following is the most important component of educational reform? A. Implementing a better curriculum for students B. Allowing the students to participate more in extra-curricular activities C. Hiring only the excellent teachers D. Involving parents in the education of their children 45. Teacher Angelita iis not only a competent teacher but also a community leader in their place. Which of the following should teacher Angelita NOT do as a teacher? A. Consistently porposes projects that will benefit the community B. Actively participate in the activities of the community. C. Always make herself unapproachable to every member of the community so that her decisions will have no effect of political economics D. Constantly help in raising funds for community projects 46. Teacher Helen knows of the illicit affair that her colleague has with a married man. However, she chooses to be silent about this for the fear of getting involved in this situation. Which of the following principle of morality does teacher Helen fail to comply? A. The end does not justify the mean B. Do what is good C. Choose the lesser evil D. All of the above 47. The failure in the test of independence among Filipino students can be attributed to A. Lack of skills B. Strong family ties C. High degree of dependence to authority D. All of the above 48. Which of the following is NOT in accordance to the provision under the Code of Ethics for Teachers? A. All school officials shall at all times show professional courtesy, helpfulness and sympathy towards teachers and other personnel, such practices being standards of effective school supervision, dignified administration, responsible leadership and enlightened directions. B. School officials shall encourage and attend the professional growth of all teachers under them such as recommending them for promotion, giving time due recognition for meritorious performance, and allowing them to participate in conferences in training programs. C. School officials, teachers, and other school personnel shall consider it their cooperative responsibility to formulate policies or introduce important changes in the system at all levels. D. No school officials can be stopped from dismissing or from recommending the dismissal a teacher or other subordinates even without a cause. 49. Which of the following is incorrect? A. Teaching profession is a dignified mean of learning to have a decent living B. Teaching profession is the noblest profession C. Teaching profession can be used in soliciting funds for personal gain D. None of the above
50. Teachers being the trustee of the cultural and educational heritage of the nation is under obligation to A. transmit to learners such heritage and elevate national morality B. promote national pride, cultivate love of country and instill allegiance to the constitution and for all duly constituted authorities C. promote obedience to the laws of the state D. all of the above 51. The term “tabula rasa” implies that? A. Man is born with innate ideas B. Man is born with few ideas C. Man is born with no ideas D. Man is born full of ideas 52. Principal Thea is very much interested in a quality professional development program of her teachers. Which of the following should she consider to realize this? A. Prescribed by top educational leaders B. Dependent on the availability of funds C. Required for renewal of professional teachers D. Responsive to identified teachers’ needs 53. Mrs. San Rafael is the principal of Matimbo Elementary School. For her to ensure high standards of teachers’ personal and professional development, which of the following measures should she implement? I. Plans the professional development of her teachers. II. Allows each of her teacher to formulate their own professional development III. Monitors her teachers as they implement what they learned in training. A. I only B. I and III C. II and III D. II only 54. Aside from being a teacher, Mr. Sandoval is also a community leader. Which of the following should Mr. Sandoval NOT do as teacher and community leader? A. Support effort of the community to improve his status in life. B. Make himself aloof to ensure that his decision will not be influenced by community politics C. Solicit donation from philanthropists in the community D. Play an active part in the activities of the community 55. A teacher is said to be a “trustee of the cultural and educational heritage of the nation and is under obligation to transmit to learners such heritage.” Which practice makes the teacher fulfill such obligation? A. Use interactive teaching strategies B. Use the latest educational technology C. Observe continuing professional education D. As a class, study the life of Filipinos heroes. 56. A father tells his daughter “You are a woman. You are meant for the home and so for you going to school is not necessary.” Is the father CORRECT? A. It depends on the place where the daughter and father live. B. Yes, women are meant to be mothers only. C. No, today women can take on the jobs of men. D. No, there is gender equality in education. 57. Is there a legal basis for increasing the teacher’s starting salary to P18, 000 a month? A. No, it is a gift to teachers from Congress. B. Yes, RA 7836. C. No, it is simplify an act of benevolence from the President D. Yes, the Phil. Constitution 58. Mencius believed that all people are born good. This thought on the innate goodness of people makes it easier to ______ our pupils. A. teach B. respect C. reward D. motivate
59. The specialization required of every professional teacher for him/her to be competent is in line with which pillar of learning? A. Learning to know B. Learning to be C. Learning to live together D. Learning to do 60. Which pillar of learning is aimed at the holistic development of man ad his complete fulfillment? A. Learning to know B. Learning to be C. Learning to live together D. Learning to do 61. Cris is a sophomore student who complains to his teacher about his failing grade. When his teacher recomputed his grade, the teacher found out that he committed an error. The teacher decided not to accept the erroneous computation before Cris and so leave the failing grade for the fear that he may lose credibility. Is this morally right? A. No, the reason for not accepting the error before Cris is a sign of weakness B. No, the end does not justify the mean. C. Yes, the end justifies the means D. Yes, as a teacher you must maintain your credibility 62. Teacher Wendell knows of the illegal activities of Mr. Cordero, his neighbor but keeps quiet in order not to be involved in any investigation. Which foundational principle of morality does Teacher Wendell fail to apply? A. The end does not justify the means. B. The end justifies the means. C. Always do what is right. D. Between two evils, do the lesser evil 63. Which of the following action of Teacher Ford is an INAPPRORIATE way to manage off-task behavior? A. Redirect child’s attention to task and check his progress to make sure he is continuing to work. B. Make eye contact to communicate what you wish to communicate. C. Move closer to the child to make him feel your presence. D. Stop your class activity to correct a child who is no longer on task. 64. Mrs. Cristobal is admired for being an effective classroom manager. She is not only friendly but at the same time be ______. A. confident C. analytical B. businesslike D. buddy-buddy 65. Teacher Filemon is convinced that whenever a student performs a desired behavior, and provide reinforcement, he learns to perform the behavior on his own. On which principle is Teacher Filemon’s conviction based? A. Environmentalism C. Cognitivism B. Behaviorism D. Constructivism 66. Mrs. Adriano, the Principal of Sumulong High School told her teachers in a faculty meeting “We need to improve our school performance in the National Achievement Test. What should we do? The teachers gave varied answers as follows: 1. Let’s give incentives and rewards to students who get a rating of 90%. 2. Let’s teach them to accept complete responsibility for their performance. 3. Let’s make the school environment conducive for learning. 4. Let’s make use of the experiential methods of teaching. Which response/s come/s from a behaviorist? A. #2 and #4 C. #3 and #4 B. #1 and #2 D. #1 and #3
67. Ms. Paguiligan wants to help in ending Ms. Sandoval’s act of immorality but doesn’t have the courage to confront her. What she did was to write and secretly distribute copies of anonymous letter to her colleagues. What should have been done instead? A. Ask a third party while the anonymous letter to prevent her from being involved. B. Talk to married man with whom Ms. Sandoval is having an ilicit affair. C. If the charge is valid; present such charge under oath before her school head. D. Secretly give anonymous letter only to the people concerned. 68. Principal Jon asked his good teachers to write modular lesson in Filipino, then he had them published with his name printed as author. Which is unethical in this case? A. He was the exclusive beneficiary of the royalty from the modules. B. He had the modular lessons published when they worth publishing. C. He got merit which was due for his teacher-writers. D. He burdened the teachers with work not related to teaching. 69. Teacher Marie, unlike other teachers in her school, practices the non-traditional method of discussing the lessons using not only the book prescribed by the school as the main source of information and knowledge. Instead, she went out of her way to devise others means that will help her students to understand better their lessons. To what philosophy does Teacher Marie submit to? A. Progressivism B. Nationalism C. Constructionism D. Humanism 70. During the faculty recollection. Mr. Alcoriza asked his teachers to share their thoughts about their students as their primary consumer. What followed were the gist of what were shared: T. Maida: The learner is a product of his environment. Sometimes he has no choice. He is determined by his environment. T. Agnes: The learner can choose what he becomes despite his environment. T. Mitch: The learner is a social being who learns well through an active interplay with others. T. Beng: The learner is a rational being. School should develop his rational and moral powers. I. Whose philosophical concept is that of Teacher Maida? A. Rationalist’s B. Behaviorist’s C. Existentialist’s D. Progressivist’s 71. Teacher Agnes’s response come from the mouth of? A. Behaviorist C. Essentialist B. Existentialist D. Pereenialist 72. If you agree with Teacher Mitch, you are more of _______. A. Perennialist C. Essentialist B. Rationalist D. Progressivist 73. If you identify with Teacher Beng, you adhere to this Philosophy A. Progressivist C. Existentialist B. Behaviorist D. Perennialist 74. Whose response denies man’s free will? A. Teacher Maida B. Teacher Agnes C. Teacher Mitch D. Teacher Beng 75. The “banking concept in education” viewed students as: A. Clear account to be filled up by the teacher B. Dormant account to be activated by the teacher
C. Wooble account to be balanced by the teacher D. All fo the above 76. Jerome Bruner is known for this principle A. Banking concept in education B. Dichotomy method in education C. Spiral curriculum in education D. None of the above 77. Teacher Divine, a teacher for thrity two years, refuses to attend seminars. She claims that her thirty two years of teaching is more than all the seminars she is asked to attend. Are her actuation and thinking in accordance with the Code of Ethics for Professional Teachers? A. No, non-attendance to seminars would mean no increase in salary. B. No, a profesiional teacher, regardless of teaching experience, ought to go through continuing process of education. C. Yes, because, she taught for thirty two years and may have mastered the treaded. D. Yes, provided she has an excellent performance rating. 78. Teacher Riean has not only explained the concept of Philosophy of Education but also imparted to her students. This demonstrates what kind of philosophy? A. Naturalism C. Realism B. Idealism D. Perrenialism 79. Which pillar of learning aimed in the acquisition of the instrument of understanding in order to develop the students’ learn-to-learn skills? A. Learning to do C. Learning to Live Together B. Learning to know D. Learning to be 80. Which pillar of learning is vital in building a genuine and lasting culture of peace in the world? A. Learning to do C. Learning to Live Together B. Learning to know D. Learning to be 81. Which of the following would be the most fitting action of a teacher who is having a relationship with his/her student? A. Deny the relationship B. Enjoy the relationship while it lasts C. Defer the relationship until they are ready to admit it. D. Continue the relationship and exercise utmost professional discretion about this 82. Student Gilbert, after receiving the conceptual knowledge on multiplication of trinomials from his Algebra Teacher, immediately answers the exercises in the book. This demonstrates what kind of philosophy? A. Idealism C. Progressivism B. Essentialism D. Constructivism 83. Ms. Lopez is a sickly teacher. She gets to school even late and not feeling well. What provision in RA 7836 does she violate? A. Teachers must be devoted, honest and punctual in performing their duty B. Teachers should be physically, mentally and morally fit to teach. C. Teachers should manifest genuine enthusiasm and pride in teaching as a noble profession D. All of the above 84. Teacher Cris views his students as a unique, free choosing and responsible indiviudals. He encourages them to develop their own individualities. What philosophy does Teacher Cris adhere to? A. Humanism B. Existentialism C. Reconstructionism D. Essentialism
85. In the Social Science class of Ms. Macatangay, students identify the various social and economic problems that require urgent solutions. They not only discuss the ways to address it but also agreed to participate in solving them. What kind of philosophy does this class uphold? A. Naturalism C. Nationalism B. Constructivism D. Reconstructionism 86. “Education is a continuous process of experiencing and visiting or reorganizing experiences” according to a Progressivist. What does it mean? A. Education begins and ends in school B. Education takes place anytime and anywhere C. Education happens formally or informally D. Education goes on throughout life. 87. In the National Election, the Chairman of Precinct 34 asked Teacher Emily to change the entries in the election returns in exchange for special favors. It would be best for Teacher Emily to ________. A. Change some discretely B. Follow what the Chairman has instructed C. Say yes to the chairman but don’t do it D. Say no to the Chairman and be firmed about it 88. Which of the following would best manifest the Teacher-Student Relationship? A. Teacher to inflict corporal punishment to offending student upon the approval of parents. B. Teacher to inflict corporal punishment on offending student secretly C. Teacher to inflict corporal punishment to offending student at all times D. Teacher to inflict no corporal punishment on offending student at all times 89. Teacher Jenny is an inspiration to almost all of her students. Her efficiency and effectiveness in the profession is truly outstanding. Which of the following describes this attitude of the students toward her? A. Progressivism C. Idealism B. Naturalism D. Perrenialism 90. Teacher Veena is a newly appointed teacher. The principal told her to avoid any conducts that will discredit the teaching profession. Which of the following do you think will not in any manner discredit the teaching profession? A. Revealing confidential information of the school B. Writing anonymous letter malgning colleagues C. Joining social drinking D. Practicing entrepreneurship with the students as clients 91. Mrs. San Pedro is an institution in her school. She is not only competent but also known for her integrity. One time, she fine herself in need of money to settle an honest obligation in the bank. To her surprise, Mr. Almiro, (the manager of the bank where her property was mortgaged) is the father of Juliane, her student who is a candidate for failure. The manager offers her the amount she needed. Which of the following would you think would be the best action of Mrs. San Pedro? A. Accepts the help, after all, this is an offer and she never asks for it. B. Accepts the help but emphasize to Mr. Almiro that there is no string attached to it. C. Accepts not to help and inform her principal and the PTA board regarding this matter D. Accepts not the help and politely explains that as a professional you are not allowed to receive any favor from the parents or relatives of the student that may lead to conflict of interest 92. In a some culture, women never experienced to be in school. School is no longer necessary for them since their essence is to serve their families and perform domestic responsibilities. Is this correct? A. Yes, women are domestic partners B. No, there is gender equality in education C. It depends on what kind of culture that a woman is accustomed D. No, women have also possess skills just like men 93. Which among the following pillars of learning aimed for the holistic development and complete fulfillment of man? A. Learning to do
B. Learning to Live Together C. Learning to Be D. Learning to Know 94. Which among the following situations violate the principle of respect? A. Teacher Helen tells her student that what Teacher Joann taught is wrong B. Teacher Joann, upon learning what teacher Helen did, asked the students not to attend her class. C. Teacher Janis is giving special favor to students to please them so that she can get a remarkable results in the evaluation D. All fo the above 95. For Teacher Kristine to promote fairness among her students of diverse gender, family background and culture, ensure a learning environment that is A. Inclusive B. Gender-Sensitive C. Secure D. All of the above 96. Teacher Cris is a Reading Teacher. She keeps on advising her class to “read between the lines. What does she mean on this? A. Skip not even a single paragaraph in reading B. Ascertain what is meant by what is stated C. Look for the main thought of what is reading D. Relate to life what is read 97. Teacher Jon knows of the illegal gambling that his neighbor is operating. However, he chooses to be quiet about for the fear of getting involved in any investigation that may lead to this. Which among the following principle of morality does Teacher Jon fails to comply? A. Choose the good and avoid evil B. Choose the lesser evil C. The end justifies the mean D. The end does not justify the mean 98. Which according to RA 9155 is considered as the “heart of the formal education system”? A. The pupil C. The classroom B. The teacher D. The school 99. According to RA 9155, a school head has two rules, namely administrative manager and _____. A. guidance counselor C. health officer B. instructional leader D. facilitator of learning 100. The main contribution of the Arroyo administration in education is Republic Act No. 9155. This provision A. Established the study – pay later B. Started the National Scholarship Program C. Renamed the DECS to DepED D. Conceptualized the K-12 Educational Program 101. The main purpose of compulsory education of the Constitution is to A. Develop students with into responsible, thinking citizens. B. Acquaint students with the historical development of the Constitution C. Prepare students to be lawyers D. Make students constitutional expert 102. The principle of individual differences enables a teacher to A. Provide different activities to meet student needs B. Reduce students engagement in learning C. Requires much times to teach D. Treat all learners alike while inside the classroom
103. Where did the belief that the government has the responsibility to provide education originated? A. Chinese Education B. Greek Education C. Egyptian Education D. Philippine Education 104. Egyptian Education provided the modern world with the basic foundation of education, art, science, engineering and others. This was evident with their system of picture writing known as A. Alibata B. Heiroglypics C. Anlects D. Sankrit 105. “Pleasure is the greatest good”. This phrase would probably derived from which philosophical school? A. Academy C. Stoics B. Epicurean D. Lyceum 106. In order to carry-out these ends the church authorized the establishment of several priestly orders that would severe as the educational and social arm of the church. The key contributors are as follows except A. St. Ignatius of Loyola B. Jean Duvegier de Haureme C. Jean Baptiste de la Salle D. St. Thomas of Aquinas 107. In the Preamble of the Code of Ethics of Professional Teachers, which is NOT said among teachers? A. LET passers B. Possess dignity and reputation C. Duly licensed professional D. High moral values with competencies 108. Loco Parentis was promulgated under the provision? A. RA 4670 C. RA 4288 B. RA 7877 D. RA 7836 109. Parents retain access to their children’s school records until the child reaches the age of 18. This provision is found under A. The Rights of Parents B. The Rights of Teachers C. The Rights of Students D. The Rights of the School 110. If you have a foreign, what would be the best gift to buy? A. Imported antiques B. Expensive Buddha Figures C. Porcelain wares D. Embroided product from Quezon province 111. If Teacher A is the rationalist and Teacher B is an empiricist, which of the following is correct? A. Teacher A and B are complemting each other B. Teacher A and B are contrry each other C. Teacher A and B are contradictory each other D. Teacher A and B are relative to each other 112. Ms. Cruz is a Sociology Professor for almost a decade. In her class she asked this question “What type of learning environment should a teacher implement in a high pluralistic society?” If you are her student, what would be your answer? A. Safe and Secure B. Safe and Gender-biased C. Safe, Secure, and Gender-biased D. Secure and Gender-biased
113. Which among the following should be developed in curriculum to counteract the growing number of shooting incidents in school abroad? A. Inclusion of socio-emotional teaching B. Intensify the focus on academic achievement and productivity C. Emphasize cooperative learning rather than of competition to others D. All of the above 114. When all other requirements are met, when should religion be taught in public schools as provided for in the Constitution? A. Outside regular school hours B. Once a week at lunch break C. Once a week after class hours D. Within the regular class hours 115. Ms. Gabrielle is the most admired pre-school teacher in her school. Which among the following can best explain her being a good teacher? A. she adheres to the want of the parents for their children B. she manages to instill control to her students C. she endorses all the projects of the school for her students D. she gives easy exams to her students 116. Teacher Marie, unlike other teachers in her school, practices the non-traditional method of discussing the lessons using not only the book prescribed by the school as the main source of information and knowledge. Instead, she went out of her way to devise other means that will help her students to understand better their lessons. To what philosophy does Teacher Marie submit to? A. Progressivism B. Nationalism C. Constructivism D. Humanism 117. Teacher Mahi finds teaching in a multi cultural classes very challenging. Which among the following choices will alleviate the difficulty of addressing these challenges? A. She must embody a curriculum rather than perspectives B. She must consider stereo typing rather than cultural identities and biased attitudes C. She must nurture diversity rather than practicing domination and oppression D. She must welcome one sided view rather then the recognition of biases 118. Which of the following is the most important component of education reform? A. Implementing a better curriculum for the students B. Hiring only the excellent teachers C. Allowing the students to participate more in extra-curricular activities D. Involving the parents in the education of their children 119. Teacher Helen’s class is engage in problem solving activity which in a way is a reflection of the personal and social experiences. The purpose of this activity is for the students to acquire the skills that can help them in solving their own real-life problems. What can best describe this? A. Realism B. Idealism C. Progressivism D. Existentialism 120. In her class, Teacher Janis always presents principles and values so as to encourage her students to examine them and decide for themselves whether to accept it or not. What kind of philosophy does Teacher Janis practice? A. Idealism C. Humanism B. Essentialism D. Existentialism 121. Teacher Jenny is an inspiration to almost all of her students. Her efficiency and effectiveness in the profession is truly outstanding. Which of the following describes this attitude of the students toward her? A. Progressivism B. Naturalism C. Idealism D. Perennialism
122. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Pragmatic Teacher: A. Equipping the learners with the basic abilities and skills B. Providing the learners with the opportunities to apply theories and principles C. Requiring the learners with full mastery of the lessons D. Encourage the learners to memorize factual knowledge 123. In line with the philosophy of Reconstructivism, which of the following should be given emphasis in teaching? A. To seek for a better position in the society B. To compare oneself with the less fortunate C. To become economically self-reliant D. To designate one’s superiority over the others 124. If a Teacher states that “Specialization is knowing more and more about less and less, hence it is better to be generalist”. What kind of philosophy does he uphold? A. Existentialism C. Essentialism B. Progressivism D. Positivism 125. Among the following situations which violate the principle of respect? A. Teacher Helen tell her student that what Teacher Joann taught is wrong B. Teacher Joann, upon learning what Teacher Helen did, asked the students not to attend her class. C. Teacher Janis is giving special favor to students to please the students so that she can get a remarkable result in evaluation D. All of the above
KEY TO CORRECTION Social Dimension of Education 1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. D 18. B 19. D 20. B 21. C 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. C 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. A 30. D 31. D 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. A 36. C 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. C 41. B 42. D 43. A 44. D 45. C 46. B 47. C 48. D 49. C 50. D 51. C 52. D 53. B 54. B 55. D 56. D 57. B 58. A 59. D 60. A 61. A 62. C 63. D 64. B 65. B 66. D 67. C 68. C 69. A 70. B 71. B 72. D 73. D 74. A 75. A 76. C 77. B 78. C 79. B 80. C 81. D 82. C 83. B 84. B 85. D 86. D 87. D 88. D 89. C 90. C 91. D 92. B 93. C 94. D 95. D 96. B 97. A 98. D 99. B 100. C 101. A 102. A 103. A 104. B 105. B 106. D 107. A 108. A 109. A 110. D 111. C 112. A 113. D 114. D 115. B 116. A 117. C 118. D 119. C 120. D 121. C 122. B 123. C 124. C 125. D
PRINCIPLES OF TEACHING 1. Tricia, a Third Year student is popular not only in her classroom but also in the entire campus. She is always invited to soirees and pyjama parties. Students are drawn to her because of her seemingly friendly attitude. This intelligence according to Garnder is known as _________. A. Popularity B. Congenial C. Interpersonal D. Intrapersonal 2. Teacher Harold brought a hamster in the class during lecture about mammals. The hamster is a device commonly known as a REALIA. Teacher can bring Realia ONLY when ________. A. Available C. Affordable B. Feasible D. Workable 3. When asked, students of Teacher Roel described him as someone who knows what he is talking about. Teacher Roel therefore exhibits a power known as _______. A. Legitimate Power B. Expert Power C. Referrent Power D. Reward Power 4. Teacher Emmanuel requires his students to memorize the poem “Mi Ultimo Adios” but they do not actually know the meaning of the poem. This traditional technique which turns the students into “tiny parrots” is exhibited when teachers use __________? A. 2x4x8 Concept Teaching B. Textbook Technique C. Direct Instruction Technique D. Rote Learning Technique 5. When will teacher employ the “Oxford Oregon’? A. during discussion B. during debate C. during reporting D. during lecture 6. Students were required to stay and live with the family of aetas in Zambales for week. They will do this lifestyle f the ethnic group and come up with a report about the particular group. The teacher will most probably rely on what technique? A. Laboratory Technique B. Practicum Technique C. Field Study Technique D. Apprenticeship Technique 7. Teacher Gary religiously records the attendance of his students everyday. He marks those who are tardy and absent in this particular recording document known as _________. A. Form 1 B. Form 138 C. Form 137 D. Class Record 8. The directress of the school demanded that teachers should encourage their students to go beyond simple recall and comprehension; instead she said that students should “thinking about thinking”. If the teachers will follow the directress’ instruction, the students will develop their _________ skill. A. hypothesis skills B. cognitive skills C. metacognitive skills D. drill skills 9. The teachers feels that he is somebody who lives in an “ivory tower”. This “I-Thou” relationship between student and teacher is shown by A. Exercising favoritism B. Teacher is pretending he knows everything C. Respect towards each other D. Prejudice towards the poor 10. Krathwohl is famous for his taxonomy of Affective Domain, while Anita Harrow is known for his _____ domain. A. Affective C. Cognitive B. Psychomotor D. Metacognition 11. Teacher Edward invited several experts to shed light on the topic of environmental protection. Teacher Edward using the technique known as _________. A. Symposium B. Panel discussion C. Interview D. Socialized Classroom Discussion
12. To show disapproval to the misbehavior of the student. Teacher Charles clear his throat and looks at the erring student. This classroom management style is commonly known as _________. A. Proximity Control B. Dropping of Name C. Signal Interference D. Direct Appeal 13. Teacher Teresa would most likely end her goal-oriented lesson by __________. A. planning of activities B. evaluation C. identification of topics D. formulation of objectives 14. According to Krathwohl’s affective domain of objectives, __________ is the lowest level of affective behavior. A. Valuing B. Characterization C. Responding D. Organization 15. To show the social relations that exist among the Fourth Year students of Matayog Elementary School, the teacher can use ___________. A. Johari Window B. Sociogram C. Group Dynamics D. Counseling 16. To improve comprehension and retention among the students, the teacher’s best option woulb be to use A. Six Thinking Hats B. Contextual Clues C. SQ3R D. Autodidactic Activities 17. Teacher May would like to compare and contrast plant cell vs. animal cell. She would most likely use: A. Fishbone Diagram B. Venn Diagram C. Tree Diagram D. KWL Chart 18. The students of Teacher Corazon feels that their teacher has an “eye” behind her head” This characteristic of the teacher is known as A. Referent power C. Pygmation Effect B. Withitness D. Rosenthal Effect 19. Edward de Bono is famous for this instructional innovation ___________. A. Six Thinking Hats B. Graphic Organizers C. Understanding by Design D. 7 Habits of Highly Effective People 20. It refers to the science of developing a plan to attain goal and to guard against undesirable results. A. Strategy of Teaching B. Method of Teaching C. Technique of Teaching D. Teaching Device 21. Teachers should allow his or her students to create the rules inside the classroom to develop a sense of… A. discipline B. self control C. leadership D. ownership 22. The teacher started his lesson about “addition of similar fraction” by giving a general rule on how to add similar fraction then eventually gives examples. His teaching technique is known as… A. inductive B. deductive C. transductive D. outlining 23-25 (Study the case below) Case 1 Teacher Fidelita conducted the lesson about mammals using the following procedure She showed pictures of animal like dog, cat, cow and horse. She asked the students to look at the similarity among the animal. Shen then gave the general characteristic of mammals. 23. Based on the above case, what method did the teacher use? A. Case presentation B. Deductive C. Inductive D. Picture aided
24. Looking at how she presented the lesson, do you think the teacher presented the lesson effectively? A. Yes, she showed picture. B. No, the manner she presented the lesson is limited. C. Yes, she presented it thoroughly. D. No, there was no evaluation. 25. How can the lesson be improved? A. Add a discussion B. Include the quiz C. Start by review D. Show more picture 26. Which statement is not true about recitation? A. It is announced B. Possible questions are given C. Call a student before giving situation D. It is a form of discussion 27. The following negates facilitating learning EXCEPT A. focus on the right side of the brain B. involve both sides of the brain C. focus on cognitive objectives all the time D. focus on the left side of the brain 28. Using Bloom’s Taxanomy, the highest among the following is. A. Critical comprehension B. Critical evaluation C. Integration D. Literal comprehension 29. Among the following educators, who proposed the placement of children in a “prepared environment”? A. Thorndike C. Kilpatrick B. Montesorri D. Froebel 30. Teacher Roger would like to present the historical events that happened in the field of education. Which among the following would be of best help? A. Cluster Map C. Story Map B. Time Line D. Affinity Chart 31. When choosing an instructional aid or device, the primary consideration of the teacher would be ____________. A. cost B. availability C. efficiency D. suitability 32. This is a kind of intelligence that is characterized by a strong ability to see patterns in abstract forms. A. kinesthetic C. logical B. spatial D. natural 33. Katrina shows strong interest in writing personal jounals and diaries. She does not feel left out even if she is mostly by herself in the school. She is most likely intelligent in the area of ________. A. Spatial C. Intrapersonal B. Verbal D. Interpersonal 34. Which of the computer-based instructional tool can help you revise written work such as short stories and essays? A. Word processing C. Database B. Spreadsheet D. Desktop publishing 35. With the use of computer aided software, which can be used to organize information about trees and planets? A. Word processing C. Database B. Spreadsheet D. Desktop publishing 36. A document published by the school district that identifies rules of behavior that must be followed by anyone using the school districts computers, network, or internet connection. A. Classroom rules C. Fair use
B. Acceptable use policy D. Ethical internet use policy 37. Mrs. Reyes is a seasoned teacher. She has been in the service longer than anyone else in her department. However, she is also the first person to resist in media utilization in the classroom and found out to be technophobic. What is she afraid of? A. Fear in the use of technology due to limited exposure to new ideas and new equipment. B. Fear of computers, laptops, PDA C. Fear of being changed by computers D. Fear of electrical circuits 38. Teacher is the best visual aid. What does this statement mean? A. The teacher prepares the visual aids B. The teacher is the sole source of learning C. The teacher is always the medium of teaching – learning process D. The teacher uses visual aid effectively 39. Teacher Grace is assigned to handle a multi – grade class. What instructional material must be used to provide the needs of each grade? A. Differentiated materials to cater to different levels B. Multisensory material C. Colourful, useful and durable materials D. Materials of high level thinking skills 40. Which of the following are the rationales behind using technology in the classrooms? I. Motivational II. Unique instructional capabilities III. Increased Teachers’ Productivity A. I only C. II and III only B. I and II only D. I, II and III 41. As a teacher employing the project-based multimedia learning (PBML) strategy, what are some limitations teachers excpect from the encounter? I. There is a need for extending the time to use several media II. The presentation of the product is not an easy task III. The technology skills to produce a product may be lacking A. I only B. I, II, III C. III only D. I and II only 42. Ms. Malañac wants to show to her class a magnified picture of the Mt. Pinatubo’s crater fixed on a bond paper. Which of the following tools can she use? A. Filmstrip B. Opaque projector C. Overhead projector D. Slides 43. “Technology is not a panacea. “What does this statement mean? A. Technology is the answer to all the problems of the teachers. B. Technology is not a “cure – all” tools ofr teachers. C. Technology will not always be a remedy in the learning process of the student D. Technology is not a necessity in the teaching and learning process 44. Teacher Malou likes to show a close representation of the size and shape of the earth and its location in the entire solar system. What is the best instructional aid? A. Picture B. Model C. Realia D. Film 45. Mrs. Cruz dreams to organize a seminar wth a known poet from another country but she cannot afford to spend for the transportation of the said poet. Which of the following can she use so she won’t need to spend much? A. instant messaging B. video conferencing C. distant communication D. podcasting
46. Teacher Elisa wants her students to express their opinions regarding a certain government issue. Which of the following can she use to do this? A. forum C. email B. blog D. group messaging system 47. A student of Ms. Bernadette wants to clarify something regarding the project she gave them. Which of the following is the fastest way the student can use to send her the message if she is not online? A. email the message B. post the message in a blog C. use instant messaging on social networking sites D. wait until you meet the teacher 48. Ms. Ella will be absent for two days because of national conference. She wants her students to work on a certain module. What is the fastest way of sending the module to her students while she is away? A. email a module to her students B. share it to all her live account C. send the module through group instant messaging D. message each of the students on a social networking site 49. Ms. Castillo wants to be sure if her instructional materials are effective? What should she consider? A. guidelines of the use of instructional material B. taking it for granted C. purchasing it without thinking many times D. use materials immediately 50. Teacher Susan wants her student to learn more English. Specifically she wants her students to improve her listening skills. She has a CD player, tape recorder and an internet connection. Which of the following is best for her students? A. CD’s with English listening drills B. Tapes with English listening drills C. Internet websites such as Go4English, English language listening lab D. All of the above 51. Mary is a new English teacher. She wants to give her students some English puzzles and games to do over holidays. She likes the idea of giving them vocabulary word hunt. She knows Microsoft word but does not know how to make a word hunt puzzle. Which of the following should she follow? A. Go to Microsoft Word > File open > Tools B. Go to Microsoft Excel > File open > Tools C. Go to Microsoft Power Point > File open > Insert object D. Go to Micorsoft Word > File open > Table > Insert Tabe 52. B. F. Skinner is a known psychologist and the one who first to describe operant conditioning. Which of the techniques is an application of operant conditioning? A. Mastery learning C. Computer-assisted instruction B. Project method D. Process approach 53. Ms. Gretchen is an elementary grades teacher in a rural community not reached by electricity yet, but she has some tapes which can be useful to teach the topics on weather. What practical audio-visual material should she use instead? A. Pictures B. Power Point Presentation C. Flims D. Transparencies 54. Which statements on Information Communication Technology are TRUE? I. The use of ICT has negative effects. II. The use of ICT has a lot of benefits. III. The use of ICT is effectively only in industrialized countries. A. I and II C. III only B. II only D. I and II 55. Which of the following statements about computer viruses is TRUE?
A. Test files are the only files to be corrupted by viruses B. Files are always permanently damaged by viruses. C. Files damaged by computer viruses can be cured D. Compressed files can never be damaged by viruses. 56. What teaching method can best taught by the use of computers? A. Role playing B. Debate C. Panel discussion D. Individualized instruction 57. Which teaching delivery will have the most use of educational technology? A. Cooperative learning B. Distance learning C. Investigatory learning D. Sandwich program 58. Which of the following is a result of compressing the file? A. The file is deleted. B. The file size is smaller. C. The three character extension is hidden. D. All file properties are lost. 59. Which of the following are the basic components of a curriculum design? A. Content, structure and delivery B. Assessment, Teaching strategies, and textbooks C. Philosophy, goals and objectives D. Standards, learning competencies, and evaluation 60. The following are examples of Learning-Centered Design EXCEPT? A. Child-centered design B. Experience-centered design C. Humanistic-centered design D. Life situation design 61. Curriculum is defined as the total learning experiences of the children in school. Which part of curriculum will assure these experiences? A. Curriculum plan C. Curriculum evaluation B. Curriculum implementation D. Curriculum assessment 62. Which of the following is NOT the aim of Elementary Education under the Education Act of 1982? A. Provide knowledge and develop skills, attitudes, values essential to personal development and necessary for living in and contributing to a developing and changing world. B. Provide learning experiences which increase the child’s awareness of and responsiveness to the changes in the society. C. Promote and intensify knowledge, identification with and love for the nation and the people to which develop orientation to the world of work and prepare the learner to engage in honest and gainful work. D. Discover and enhance the different aptitudes and interests of students in order to equip them with skills for productive endeavor and or to prepare them for tertiary level 63. In the Basic Education Curriculum in 2002, MAKABAYAN was envisioned to be ____________? A. The laboratory of life B. The history of life C. The combined subject D. The tool for the 21st century 64. Which of the following choices is considered as social force that affects the school and the curriculum? A. learner’s style C. nature of knowledge B. changes in gender roles D. lerner’s characteristics 65. Every curriculum has this dimension. This is both unplanned and implicit but its instructional effects are often evident in the students’ behavior, values and dispositions. This dimension is referred to as __________. A. societal curriculum C. institutional curriculum B. intrcutional curriculum D. hidden curriculum 66. Dr. Reyes, the provincial hospital director, plans to attend a school board meeting where a new high school science curriculum will be discussed. Which level of curriculum is shown in this situation? A. experiential C. institutional B. instructional D. societal
67. This concept includes the sub-processes of curriculum planning, organization, implementation, and evaluation. What concept is this? A. curriculum development C. curriculum management B. curriculum assessment D. curriculum and assessment 68. On weekends, Mrs. Cruz asks her two children on different grade levels what they learned in school on that week. Which level of curriculum does Mrs. Cruz practice? A. institutional C. societal B. experiential D. instructional 69. The rationale of the K+12 program of the Department of Education are the following EXCEPT: A. The quality of education is reflected in the inadequate preparation of high school graduates for the world of work or entrepreneurship or higher education. B. The poor quality of basic education is reflected in the low achievement scores of Filipino students including international test results C. To be the same as other countries n terms of number of years in the Basic education D. The congested curriculum partly explains the present state of education 70. When instruction in the curriculum focuses on the mastery of the content and the evaluation that follows measures only the knowledge learned, such curriculum design is ________. A. Learner centered design C. Problem centered design B. Subject centered design D. Teacher centered design 71. The understanding by design curricular approach, the first consideration is about _____. A. Learning experiences C. Desired results B. Testing of knowledge D. Teaching strategies 72. Among the following curriculum stakeholders, who has the most responsibility in the curriculum implementation? A. The learners C. The teachers B. The school head D. The parent 73. Which educational philosophy focuses on the role of curriculum as a means in remarking society and rebuilding culture? A. Perennialism C. constructivism B. progressivism D. reconstructionism 74. Ms. Pearl is a member of the curriculum committee on a private school in Bulacan. What educational philosophy does she consider if her major concern is to give the child’s freedom to choose what to learn and believe, as she allow them to set their own identities and standards. What philosophy will you consider? A. Existentialism B. Realism C. Idealism D. Pragmatism 75. Which statement about the subject-centered curriculum is NOT true? A. There is a high level of cooperative interaction B. It covers much content in a short period of time C. The teacher has full control of the classroom activities D. The main task is mastery of learning 76. In which historical period does specific subject areas in the curriculum started to be taught in Filipino while the others, in English, as provided in the newly-mandated Bilingual Education Policy? A. Commonwealth B. Third Republic C. New Society D. Japanese 77. The Center for Excellence in Teacher Education in the Philippines was created by _____________. A. RA No. 7784 C. RA No. 7791 B. RA No. 7836 D. RA No. 9917
78. When certain topics are presented in the elementary in a manner appropriate for grade schoolers, and the same topic is tackled in the high school, but on much deeper level, this is referred to as a ___________. A. Discovery learning B. Classified curriculum C. Spiral curriculum D. Symbolic learning 79. Which important elements must the phases of Curriculum Development consider according to Ralph Tyler? I. Learners II. Society III. Environment IV. Subject Matter A. I, II and IV B. I, III and IV C. II, III and IV D. I, II and III 80. The revised policies and standards for undergraduate teacher Educatio Curriculum which is the current requirement before one is qualified to take the licensure examination is ____________. A. CMO No. 30, s 2004 B. CMO No. 31, s 2005 C. CMO No. 20, s 2005 D. CMO No. 21, s 2004 81. In evaluating a curriculum, which is the most valid criterion to observe? A. Methods B. Available resources C. Activities D. Consistency and objectives 82. Preparing the students to think critically and ensuring that democratic and ensuring those democratic principles are carried out are considered important in developing a curriculum. This is in accordance with the philosophical beliefs of the ______. A. Nationalists B. Idealists C. Constructivists D. Pragmatists 83. Who are considered community-based stakeholders in curriculum development? A. Government officials B. Civic groups C. School boards D. Industry groups 84. When 3-6 students discuss an assigned topic or solve problem the teacher is doing A. Buzz session B. Round Robin C. Philips 66 D. Plenary 85. Students are asked to produce a graphical representation that illustrates relationships between concepts. A. Venn diagram C. Fishbone diagram B. Concept mapping D. Pros and cons Chart 86. An issue/problem is indicated on flipchart paper and there are may bemany in the room on tables. As individuals or groups (with different colored markers) the student visit each station, they write their opinions/answer/question. A. Chart concept B. Flipchart technique C. Graffiti D. Round da clock 87. Students stand/sit in a U-shape wit the ends of the U being extreme opinions on an issue and as the debate continues, people move along the continuum A. Oxford Oregon B. Formal Argument C. U Shape Debate D. Semi Circle Debate 88. Students are asked to create five types of questions fro a reading assignment, with each question moving to a higher level of thinking. Place the questions on note cards to be passed and discussed or handed in. A. Question Generation B. Divergent Questions C. Simple Questions D. Convergent Questions 89. When teachers use clickers, thumbs up or down, show of hands A. Nomination B. Polling
C. Election D. Canvassing 90. Each group begins with a folder/envelope with the stated problem on the outside. They place a solution inside the folder or envelope and pass it on, receiving a new problem. They don’t look at the solutions, only come up with their own. Keep passing depending on number of problems until the original one gets back to them. Then that group reads all the solutions and selects the best one to report. A. Send a problem B. Hypothesis C. Pass a problem D. Problem Generation 91. A web-based activity where students must navigate through pre-designated websites to solve a problem or answer a question or complete research. A. web workload C. www B. webquest D. website development 92. A discussion conducted entirely in the form of questions. A. Quecussion B. Question/discussion pair C. Socialized Discussion D. Panel Discussion 93. Small circle forms inside a larger one, smaller circle discusses while the larger circle listens and then roles are reversed. A. Round Robin B. Think pair share C. Fishbowl D. Concentric Circles 94. Each pair forms a group of 4 to groups of 8, etc. A. Boat is sinking B. Snowball C. Pyramid D. Tower Building 95. Students groups create a 30 – second tv commercial that illustrate concepts covered A. TV commercial C. Group Dynamics B. Advertisement D. Drama 96. Student pair discuss what they know prior the lesson and questions that they have and then they discuss after the lesson to confirm their learning. A. Dyad C. Sharing B. Bookends D. Dialogue 97. A bingo card is given to the students ahead of the lesson and question pertaining to the lesson and they fill in the answers from the lesson. A. Game Strategy B. Group Dynamics C. Bingo Lecture D. Ice breaker 98. Among the following which can be a nice homework after a lesson on fossils by grade 6 pupils? A. Excavate fossil in the mountain B. Interview a paleontologist C. Create a video about fossil D. Answer crossword puzzle about fossil 99. Students are given time to think of the issue on their own and then pair with another to share ideas and then report to the large group A. Think Pair Share B. Community Sharing C. Dyad D. Open Forum 100. Students are grouped and assigned a topic, chapter, to become experts on and then after they have discussed their expertise they will be assigned to different groups composed of a member from each expert group to teach each other. A. Shared Vision B. Jigsaw C. Round Robin D. Expert Discussion 101. Near the end of grading quarter, students vote on which piece of knowledge was most useful to them. A. Knowledge Grammy Award B. Summary C. KWL D. Graphic Organizer 102. The teacher creates a spinning wheel marked into 4 quadrants and labeled: Predict, Explain, Summarize and Evaluate. After new material is presented, the teacher spins and asks a student to respond accordingly.
A. Spin a Win C. Wheel of Fortune B. Idea Spinner D. Spinning Wheel 103. Teacher hands out a stack of blank sheets. Students write a review question on the sheet and then scrunch it up and attempt to throw it into something (a basket usually) at the front of the room. Instructor picks out a question and the class tries to answer it. A. Throw at Me B. Review Throw C. Slum Dunk Review D. Basket Throw 104. This characteristic of instructional plans allow the parts to have a smooth flow of transition. A. clarity B. symmetry C. coherence D. conciseness 105. When a teacher makes his students feel that he knows what he is talking about, he is showing his ___________ power. A. referent power B. legitimate power C. expert power D. philosophical power 106. Referent power of teacher is shown by A. making them feels you know what you are talking about B. telling them the importance of good grades C. reminding your students your authority over them again and again. D. giving your students a sens of belongingness and acceptance. 107. The teacher would like to discuss the Water Cycle among his grade 5 pupils. Which among the following graphic organizer would be best to use? A. Sequence chain B. Story map C. Web D. Attribute Wheel 108. Students are giving constructive comments on how to improve the work of other groups. This particular technique employed by the teacher is commonly known as: A. Jury Trial B. Critiquing session C. Consensus decision D. Round Table 109. The primary concern when choosing instructional aid should be _______. A. made skillfully B. mirrors Filipino setting C. maintains students’ attention D. must be suited to the lesson objective 110. A teacher would like to teach proper table etiquette to the students, she put up a long dinner table with complete formal dinner set-up and conducted a lecture on how to properly use the utensils. Afterwards, foods were served and she observes how her students conduct themselves in front of the dinner table. She is using _____ technique. A. Role playing C. Panel discussion B. Simulation D. Brainstorming 111. If I want my students to master the skill in adding fractions, which among the following would be the my best option? A. Discovery method C. Unit method B. Type method D. Drill method 112. A teacher calls a student before he asks a question during recitation. This practice a considered: A. Right, because it gives a certain formality to the recitation B. Wrong, because the question may not be suited for that particular student. C. Right, because it makes the students very attentive. D. Wrong, because the moment the teacher calls a name, the rest of the class will not listen anymore to the question since it’s not for them. 113. The teacher shown an ambiguous picture to a student and asks him to respond to some questions. This technique is known as ____________. A. Anecdotal record B. Sociometry C. Projective technique D. Problem checklist
114. During flag ceremony, Marita a 3rd year student was seen shaking and has a very pala face. The student was brought to the school clinic. The adviser of Marita took note of this incident through ___________. A. Class Record B. Problem Checklist C. Permanent Student Record D. Anecdotal Record 115. Which of the following shows well managed class? A. Students pursue their task without inhibition. B. The learners are controlled by the teacher. C. There’s blind obedience among the students. D. The learners are eager to reach their objectives. 116. This acitivity is appropriate with the intrapersonal intelligent pupils. A. Project method B. Individualized instruction C. Independent study D. Abstract test 117. By using the _________ technique, the teacher can show cause and effect. A. Histogram B. K-W-L technique C. Fishbone Diagram D. Spider web 118. The best device in the classroom is A. Blackboard C. Realia B. Chart D. Teacher 119. As “trustee of the cultural and educational heritage of the nation and is under obligation to transmit to learners such heritage.” The teacher should therefore A. Use modern technology in teaching B. Use advance learning dynamics C. Continue higher educational pursuits like MA or PhD. D. Conduct a lesson on the life of Filipino heroes 120. To show how blood circulation in the heart, which of the following devices will be the best choice. A. model C. replica B. mock-up D. realia 121. Realia is used whenever it is A. available C. affordable B. feasible D. plausible 122. The teacher would like to discuss about the Earth and therefore brought with him a globe when started his lesson. How would you classify Teacher Roel’s device? A. Chart B. Replica C. Model D. Realia 123. If a teacher would like his students to use higher order thinking skills then he should ask more ___________ questions. A. fact C. convergent B. close D. divergent 124. To maintain orderly transition between activities, teachers should: A. make students socialize between activities B. make the materials readily available C. assign fewer time per activity D. wait for those who are slow 125. Which of the following would be the best choice if teacher would like to focus on attitudinal change. A. dramatization B. field study C. role play D. simulation
KEY TO CORRECTION Principles of Teaching 1. C 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. B 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. A 21. D 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. B 29. B 30. B 31. D 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. C 36. D 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. D 41. B 42. B 43. C 44. B 45. B 46. A 47. C 48. C 49. A 50. D 51. D 52. C 53. A 54. A 55. A 56. D 57. B 58. B 59. D 60. D 61. B 62. D 63. A 64. B 65. D 66. C 67. A 68. B 69. C 70. B 71. C 72. C 73. D 74. A 75. A 76. C 77. A 78. A 79. A 80. A 81. D 82. D 83. A 84. A 85. B 86. C 87. C 88. A 89. B 90. A 91. B 92. A 93. D 94. B 95. A 96. B 97. C 98. D 99. A 100. B 101. A 102. B 103. C 104. C 105. C 106. D 107. A 108. B 109. D 110. B 111. D 112. D 113. C 114. D 115. D 116. C 117. C 118. D 119. D 120. B 121. B 122. C 123. D 124. B 125. C
ASSESSMENT OF LEARNING 1. Teacher Ryan conducted a short quiz after discussing the topic “Item Analysis,” to get feedback on how much the students learned which may not be used for grading purposes is classified as a _______. A. Placement Assessment C. Formative Assessment B. Summative Assessment D. Diagnostic Assesment 2. The criterion of success of Teacher RC in his lesson is that “the students must be able to get 85% of the test items correctly”. Luis and 29 other students in the class answered only 33 out of 40 items correctly. This means that Teacher RC ___________. A. attained his lesson objective because of his effective problem solving drills. B. did not attain his lesson objective because his students lack of attention C. attained his lesson objective D. did not attain his lesson objective as far as the 30 students are connected 3. To increase the difficulty of a multiple-choice test item, which of the following should be done? A. Make the options homogeneous B. Make the stem short and clear C. Make it grammatically correct D. Make the options equal in length 4. Teacher Y set 85% accuracy in a test on predicting the kind of weather given five different atmospheric conditions. Marivic obtained a score of 82% can be interpreted as _________. A. she obtained 82% percentile score. B. She did not meet the set standard by 3%. C. She is higher than 82% of the group. D. She is 3% short of the set percentile score. 5. Teacher Anne gave a test at the end of a lesson to find out if the objectives of her lesson have been obtained. This can be classified as __________. A. Placement Assessment C. Norm-referenced B. Curricular Assessment D. Critertion-referenced 6. What are the characteristics of a good assessment instrument? I. Objectivity II. Validity III. Practicality and Efficiency IV. Reliability A. I, III and IV B. I, II and IV C. I, II D. I, IV 7. Teacher Ace wants to establish the reliability of his test in Biology. Which of the following will accomplish? I. Administer a parallel test II. Split the test III. Construct a variety of items IV. Administer the same test twice A. I, III, IV B. I, II, IV C. I, II D. I, IV 8. Teacher Nancy constructed a matching type test item. In her column of descriptions are combinations of presidents, current issues, and sports. Which rule of constructing a matching type test item was NOT allowed? A. The options must be greater than the descriptions. B. The descriptions must be homogeneous C. The descriptions must be heterogeneous D. Arrange the options according to order 9. Teacher MJ gives a 50-item test in English where the mean performance of the group is 40 and the standard deviation is 6. Markie obtained a score of 45. Which of the following best describe his performance?
A. Below average C. Above average B. Average D. Outstanding 10. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group when we talk about projective personality test? A. Sentence completion test B. Interview C. Word association test D. Thematic Appreciation test 11. Which of the following is the main purpose of administering a pre-test and post-test to the students? A. Measure the value of the materials used B. Accustom the students in frequent learning C. Measure gain in learning D. Measure the effectiveness of instruction 12. Teacher G discovered that his students are weak in grammar. Which assessment procedure should Teacher G to further deteremine in which other skills his students are weak? A. Placement Assessment B. Diagnostic Assessment C. Summative Assessment D. Formative Assessment 13. Teacher K conducted a test in MAKABAYAN IV, in her item number 13 it is said to be non- discriminating. What can be said about this item? I. The item is very difficult that nobody got the correct answer. II. Teaching or learning is very good. III. The item is very easy and everybody got it right. A. I only B. I and II C. I and III D. III only 14. A portfolio assessment requires a presentation of a collection of students’ work. What is the purpose of the said activity? I. To showcase the current abilities and skills of the learners. II. To show growth and development of the learners. III. To evaluate the cumulative achievement of the learners. A. I, II and III C. I and III B. I and II D. II and III 15. Which of the following is/are true about matching type of test? I. The descriptions and options must be homogeneous. II. The options at the first column and the descriptions at the second column. III. The number of options must be greater than the number of descriptions. IV. There must be at least three items. A. I only C. I, II, III B. I and III D. I, III and IV 16. Which statement is true in a bell-shaped curve? A. There are more high scores than low scores. B. Most of the scores are high. C. The scores are normally distributed. D. There are more low scores than high scores. 17. Jay R’s raw score in Mathematics class is 94 which is equal to 97 percentile. What does this mean? A. 97% of Jay R’s classmates got a score higher than 94. B. 97% of Jay R’s classmates got a score lower than 94. C. Jay R’s score is less than 97% of his classmates. D. Jay R is higher than 97% of his classmates. 18. The discrimination index of a test item is 0.35. What does this mean? A. More student in the lower group got the item correctly than those students in the upper group. B. More students in the upper group got the item correctly than those students in the lower group. C. The number of students in the lower group and upper group who got the item correctly are equal. D. More students from the upper group got the item correctly.
19. Which of the following statement/s is/are important in developing a scoring rubric? I. Description of each criterion to serve as standard. II. Very clear descriptions of performance in each level. III. Rating scale IV. Mastery level of achievement A. I only C. I, II, III B. I and II D. I, II, III, IV 20. Teacher A is talking about “grading on the curve” in a district meeting. What does this mean? A. A student grade determines whether or not a student attains a defined standard of achievement. B. A student grade tell how closely he is achieving to his potential. C. A student grade compares his achievement to his effort. D. A student grade depends on how his achievement compares with the achievements of other students in a class. 21. Which of the following statement best describes norm-referenced interpretation? A. BJ performed better in Mathematics than 85% of his classmates. B. BJ was able to get 60% of the items correctly. C. BJ got 40 items correctly out 50 items. D. BJ was able to answer his test in 45 minutes only. 22. Which of the following instructional objectives is the highest level of Bloom’s cognitive taxonomy? A. Compute the standard deviation value: 25, 27, 30, 33 & 36. B. Identify the kinds of measures of variation. C. Compare and contrast quartile deviation and standard deviation. D. Explain the concept of variation. 23. Teacher DJ wants to test his student’s ability to formulate ideas, which type of test should he formulate? A. Completion type B. Matching type C. Multiple-choice type D. Essay 24. Which is the first step in planning periodic test? A. Select the type of test item to use. B. Construct a table of specification. C. Go back to the instructional objectives. D. Determine the group of whom the test is intended. 25. Below is a list of methods used to establish the reliability of a test, which method is questionable due to practice and familiarity? A. Split half B. Equivalent form C. Kuder Richardson D. Test-retest 26. Teacher BJ wrote about Ryan: “When Ryan came to class this morning, he seemed very tired and slouched into his seat. He took no part in his class discussion and seemed to have no interest in what is being discussed. This was very unusual foe he has been eager to participate and often monopolizes the class discussion. What Teacher BJ wrote is an example of a/an __________. A. anecdotal record C. personality report B. observation report D. incidence report 27. About how many percent of the class fall between -2SD and +2SD in the normal curve? A. 34.13 C. 95.44 B. 68.26 D. 99.72 28. Teacher Luis found out that more from the lower group got item #16 correctly in his item analysis. This means that the test item has __________. A. negative discriminating power B. low validity C. positive discriminating power D. zero discriminating power
29. Under which assumption is portfolio assessment based? A. Portfolio assessment is dynamic assessment. B. Assessment should stress the reproduction of knowledge. C. An individual learner is inadequately characterized by a test score. D. An individual learner is adequately characterized by a test score. 30. What is the meaning of TOS in the parlance of test construction? A. Table of Specifics C. Table of Specific Test B. Table of Specification D. Table of Subject 31. Which is implified by a positively skewed score distribution? A. The mean, the median and the mode are equal. B. Most of the scores are high. C. The mode is high. D. Most of the scores are low. 32. Which statement best descirbes a negatively skewed score distribution? A. Most examinees got high scores B. The value of median and mode are equal. C. The value of mode corresponds to a low score. D. The value of median is higher than the value of mode. 33. In a normal distribution, a T-score of 70 is ___________. A. two SDS below the mean B. two SDS above the mean C. one SD below the mean D. one SD above the mean 34. The computed value of r for Math and Science is 0.92. What does this mean? A. Math and Science scores are inversely related. B. High scores in Math are associated with high scores in Science. C. Low scores in math are associated with high scores in Science. D. The higher the scores in Science, the lower the scores in Math. 35. Teacher B is researching on family income distribution which is symmetrical. Which measure/s of central tendency will be most informative and appropriate? A. Mode B. Mean C. Median D. Mean and Median 36. What measure/s of central tendency does the number 20 represent in the following score distribution? 25, 15, 17, 20, 23, 20, 18, 20, 24? A. Mode only B. Mode and median C. Median only D. Mean and mode 37. The Analysis of Variance utilizing the F-test is appropriate to test the significant difference between ____________. A. frequencies B. two means only C. median D. three or more means 38. Which statement about standard deviation is CORRECT? A. The smaller the standard deviation the more spread the scores are. B. The larger the standard deviation the less spread the scores are. C. The larger the standard deviation the more spread the score are. D. It is a measure of central tendency. 39. Teacher Ryan Christopher gave a summative test. In which competency did his students find the greatest difficulty? In the item with a difficulty index of _____________. A. 0.09 B. 1.0 C. 0.75 D. 0.45 40. Teacher Kristy conducted an item analysis in her Chapter examination, she found out that the difficulty index of item 20 is 0.45 and the discrimination index is 0.33. What should the teacher do with this item?
A. Reject the item B. Retain the item C. Revise the item D. Make the item bonus Situation A. Study this group of test which was administered to a class to whom Ritz Glenn belongs, then answer the questions (41-43) Subject Ritz Glenn’s Score Mean Score Standard Deviation Math 90 85 1.5 English 95 97 2.0 PEHM 94 92 1.75 41. In which subject/s did Ritz Glenn performed well? A. Math B. Math and English C. English D. PEHM 42. What type of learner is Ritz Glenn? A. logic and bodily kinesthetic B. logical C. linguistic D. bodily kinesthetic 43. In which group of scores most spread? A. Math and PEHM B. Math C. English D. PEHM 44. The score distribution of Set A and Set B have equal mean but with different SD’s. Set A has SD OF 2.75 while the set B has SD of 3.25. Which statement is TRUE of the score distributions? A. Majority of the scores in set B are clustered around the mean. B. Majority of the scores in set A are clustered around the mean than in Set B. C. Scores in Set A are more widely scattered. D. The scores of Set B has less variability than the scores in Set A. Situation B. Study the table on item analysis for non-attractiveness and non-plausibility of distracters based on the results of try-out set in Science. The letter marked with an asterisk is the correct answer. Item No. 1 A B C D Upper 27% 3 3 1 8 Lower 27% 5 1 6 3 45. The Table shows that the test item analyzed _______________. A. has a positive discrimination index B. has a negative discrimination index C. is easy D. is difficult 46. Based on the table, which is most effective distracter? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D 47. What is the difficulty level of the given item? A. Easy B. Moderately difficult C. Difficult D. Very difficult
48. Based on the table, what should you do with the test item? A. make the item bonus B. reject the item C. retain the item D. revise the item 49. Which of the following statements are the components of the grading system based on Dep Ed Order 33, series of 2004? I. The lowest failing grade appeared in the report card is 65%. II. Transmutation table is utilized in the computation of grade. III. Mastery of at least 75% of the components. IV. Use table of equivalence in the computation of grade. V. Cumulative system for final grade is utilized. A. I, III, IV B. I, II, III, IV C. II, IV, V D. I, II, III, IV, V 50. JP’s scores in English quizzes are as follows: 96, 90, 85, 89, 65, 99, 84, 82. What is the mean value? A. 83.25 C. 85.25 B. 84.25 D. 86.25 51. Teacher Adrian will construct an achievement test. Which of the following he will accomplish first? A. Construct relevant test items. B. Prepare table of specification. C. Determine the number of items to be constructed. D. Identify the intended learning outcomes. Situation A (For item 52-53) Direction: Column A describes events associated with the U.S presidents, inventor, and civil right leader. Indicate which name in Column B matches each event by placing the appropriate letter to the left of the number to Column A. Each name may be used once only. Column A 1. President of the 20th Century 2. Invented the telephone 3. Delivered the Emancipation Proclamation 4. Recent President to resign from office 5. Civil rights leader 6. Invented the cotton gin 7. Our first president 8. Only president elected for more than two terms Column B A. Lincoln B. Nixon C. Whitney D. Ford E. King F. Washington G. Roosevelt 52. Which guideline of writing matching type item was NOT FOLLOWED? A. It is very difficult test items. B. Consist of less than ten items. C. It is NOT valid test items. D. It is NOT homogeneous. 53. Using the data in situation A. How would you improve the options to avoid ambiguity? A. Arrange the options in alphabetical order. B. Add two more options to avoid guessing. C. Write the complete names in the options. D. Remove two options to have valid options. 54. Which of the following objectives is the highest level of Bloom’s Taxanomy? A. Identifies the meaning of item. B. Identifies the order of the given events. C. Interprets the meaning of an idea. D. Improves defective test items. 55. Which statement/s is/are true in constructing matching type of test? I. The options and descriptions not necessarily homogeneous.
II. The options must be greater than the descriptions. III. The directions must state the basis of matching. IV. Descriptions in Column A and options in Column B. A. I, II and III B. II, III and IV C. I, II and IV D. I, II, III and IV 56. Which of the following should be AVOIDED in constructing true or false test? I. Verbal clues and specific determiner. II. Terms denoting definite degree or amount. III. Taking statements directly from the book. IV. Keep true and false statement the samw in length. A. I and III only C. I, II and IV B. I, II and III D. II and IV only 57. Which of the following test item can best effectively measure higher order of cognitive learning objectives? A. Objective test C. Completion test B. Achievement test D. Extended essay test 58. Which statements best describes a short-answer test items? I. It is easy to write test items. II. Broad range of knowledge outcomes can be measured. III. Adaptable in measuring complex learning outcomes. IV. Scoring is NOT tedious and time consuming. A. I, II and III B. I and II only C. II and IV only D. II, III and IV Situation B. The data on the table below are results of test which was administered to four subjects in which Ritz Glenn belong. Using the said data answer the questions. (59-63). Subject Ritz Glenn’s Score Mean Standard Deviation English 88 85 3.5 Mathematics 95 97 5 Music 90 98 6.5 PE 94 91 4 59. In which subject did Ritz Glenn performed best in relation to the performance of the group? A. English B. Music C. Mathematics D. PE 60. What type of learner is Ritz Glenn? A. Bodily Kinesthetic B. Logical C. Musical D. Linguistic 61. In which subject did Ritz Glenn performed most poorly in relation to the group performance? A. English C. Mathematics B. Music D. PE 62. In which subject the scores most dispersed? A. English C. Mathematics B. Music D. PE 63. In which subject the scores less dispersed?
A. English C. Mathematics B. Music D. PE 64. Which statement best describes normal distribution? A. Only few got average scores. B. The mean, the median are equal. C. Negatively skewed distribution. D. Most of the scores lies at one end of distribution. 65. Standard deviation is to Measure of Variation as _______ is to Measures of Central Tendency. A. Quartile deviation C. Range B. Mean deviation D. Mode 66. What type of measure of variation easily affected by the extreme scores? A. Range C. Inter-quartile range B. Quartile deviation D. Standard deviation 67. Which measure/s of central tendency easily affected by the extreme scores? A. Median C. Mode B. Mean D. Mean and Median 68. A type of error committed in grading the performance of the students by the rater who avoids both extremes of the scale and tends to rate everyone as average. A. generosity error C. logical error B. severity error D. central tendency error 69. What error committed by the rater if he overate the performance of the student/s? A. generosity error C. logical error B. severity error D. central tendency error 70. Which of the following assessment techniques best assess the objective” Plans and designs an experiment to be performed”. A. Paper and pencil test C. Checklist B. Rating scale D. Essay 71. Teacher Gina is talking about “grading on the curve” in a teacher’s assembly. This means that she’s referring to what type of grading system? A. Cumulative method of grading B. Norm-reference grading C. Criterion-reference grading D. Combination of B and C 72. The computed value of r= 0.95 in Mathematics and English. What does this imply? A. Mathematics score is not related to English score. B. English score is moderately related to Mathematics score. C. Mathematics score is highly positive related to English score. D. English score is not anyway related to Mathematics score. 73. Teacher Jean will conducted a test “to measure her student’s ability to organize thoughts and present original ideas”. Which type of test is most appropriate? A. Modified true-false test item B. Completion type test C. Short answer test D. Essay test 74. Which characteristic best descirbes the given score distribution? The scores are: 22, 23, 24, 24, 24, 25, 26, 26, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 39, 39, 40, 40, 45. A. Multi-modal C. Normally distributed B. Bimodal D. Skewed to the left 75. Which of the following statements refers to criterion-reference interpretation? A. Ritz got the highest score in Mathematics. B. Luis completed the problem solving faster than his classmates. C. Vinci set up his laboratory equipments in 2 minutes. D. Lovely’s test score higher than 95% of the class. 76. Which of the following is an example of norm-referenced interpretation?
A. Lord’s test score is higher than 89% of the class. B. Vinci set up his laboratory equipments in 2 minutes. C. Harold must spell 25 words correctly out of 30 words. D. Mark solv 5 problems correctly in 30 minutes. 77. What is the main advantage of using table of specification (TOS) when constructing periodic test? A. It increases the reliability of the test results. B. It reduces the scoring time. C. It makes test construction easier. D. It improves the sampling of content areas 78. The main objective of testing in teaching is _____________. A. to assess the students learning and the effectiveness of instruction. B. to assess the effectiveness of teaching method used. C. to evaluate the instructional materilas used. D. to evaluate the performance of the teacher in that particular lesson. 79. Which of the following statement is the main reason why should negative words be avoided in constructing multiple-choice test? A. Increase the difficulty of the test item. B. More difficult to construct options. C. Might be overlooked. D. Stems tends to be longer. 80. Obtaining a dependable ranking of students is a major concern when using. A. teacher-made diagnostic test. B. norm-reference assessment test. C. criterion-reference assessment test D. mastery achievement test 81. When a test is lengthened, the reliability is likely to ____________? A. increase C. not determined B. decrease D. both A and B 82. Which of the following statements describes performance based assessment? I. Evaluate complex learning outcomes and skills. II. Encourages the application of learning to “real life” situation. III. Measure broad range of contents. A. I only C. III only B. I and II D. I, II and III 83. Teacher Adrian conducted iitem analysis and he found out that more from the lower group got the test item numbers 6 correctly. This means that the test item ___________. A. has a low reliability B. has a high validity C. has a positive discriminating power D. has a negative discriminating power 84. Which is implied by a positively skewed score distribution? A. Most of the scores are below the mean value. B. Most of the scores are above the mean value. C. The mean is less than the median. D. The mean, the median and the mode are equal 85. Most of the students who took the examination got scores above the mean. What is the graphical repsentation of the score distribution? A. Skewed to the left B. Skewed to the right C. Socres are normally distributed D. Positively skewed 86. Which statement best describes a negatively skewed score distribution? A. The value of mean and median are equal. B. Most examinees got scores above the mean C. The value of mode corresponds to a low score D. The value of median is higher than the value of mode 87. In a normal distribution a T-score of 80 is _____________________. A. two SD’s below the mean B. two SD’s above the mean
C. three SD’s below the mean D. three SD’s above the mean 88. The distribution of a class with academically poor students is most likely ______________. A. Normally distributed C. Skewed to the right B. Skewed to the left D. Leptokurtic 89. Teacher Paul conducted item analysis and he found out that significantly greater number form the upper group of the class got test item number 10 correctly. This means that the test item ______________. A. has a negative discriminating power B. has a positive discriminating power C. has low reliability D. has high validity 90. Mary Anne obtained a NAT percentile rank of 93. This imply that _____________. A. she surpassed in performance 7% of her group. B. she got a score of 93 C. she answered 93 items correctly. D. she surpassed in performance 93% of her fellow examinees 91. Based from the two sets of scores below, which statement correctly applies to the two sets of data? Set A: 10, 13, 15, 16, 20, 25 Set B: 13, 14, 17, 18, 23, 25 A. The range of Set B is 15. B. The range of Set A is 11. C. An scores in Set A are more scattered than those in Set B. D. An scores in Set B are more scattered than those in Set A. 92. Which of the following statements best describes the incorrect options in item analysis? A. Determining the percentage equivalent of the cut off score. B. Determining the highest score C. Determining the attractiveness of distracters D. Determining the cut off scores 93. Teacher Kristy gave a chapter test, in which competency did her students find greatest difficulty? In the item with a difficulty index of ______. A. 0.25 B. 0.15 C. 0.75 D. 1.00 94. Fifty students took 40 items in English, below are their scores. (Items 94-95) Scores Number of students 11 – 15 7 16 – 20 10 21 – 25 7 26 – 30 20 31 – 35 6 In which interval the median value lies? A. In the interval 16 – 20 B. In the interval 26 – 30 C. Between the interval 16 – 20 and 21 – 25 D. In the interval 21 – 25 95. Based on the data on item number 94, how many percent of the scores lower than 21? A. 14% C. 20% B. 17% D. 34%
96. Teacher Lawrence gave a test in Mathematics. The facility index of item No. 10 is 75%. The best way to described item no. 10 is ________. A. very easy item B. easy item C. average item D. difficult item 97. At the end of the school year, all third year students presented their portfolio in English subject. Students, teachers, and other stakeholders were asked to view and give their comments regarding what was viewed. Which authentic assessment was organized? A. Exhibits B. Program C. Conference D. Seminar 98. Joseph’s score in Science is 1.5 standard deviation above the mean of his group and 2 standard deviation above Mathematics. What does this mean? A. He excels both in Science and in Mathematics B. He is better in Mathematics than in Science C. He is better in Science than in Mathematics D. He does not excel in both subjects 99. The criterion of success in Teacher Jenny objective is that “the students must be able to get 80% of the test items correctly”. Luis and 24 other students in the class answered only out 20 out of 25 items correctly. This means that teacher Jenny ___________________. A. attained her lesson objective because of her effective problem solving drills. B. did not attain her lesson objective because her students lack of attention. C. attained her lesson objective. D. did not attain her lesson objective as far as the 25 students are concerned. 100. The grading system of Department of Education is averaging. What is the average final grade of Andie in English for four grading periods? 1st Grading 2nd Grading 3rd Grading 4th Grading Final Rating 90 88 93 95 ?s A. 91.75 C. 94.00 B. 92.25 D. 95.00 101. The grading method which gives weight to the present grade and the previous grade of the student such as = 1/3 (TGG) + 2/3 (FGG) Final Grade is called _________. A. Averaging C. Norm referenced B. Criterion-referenced D. Cumulative 102. To increase the difficulty of a multiple-choice test item, which of the following should be done? A. Make the stem short and clear. B. Make the options homogeneous. C. Make it grammatically correct. D. Make the option equal in length. Situation C. (Item number 104-110) Given the table on item analysis for non-attractiveness and non-plausibility of distracters based on the results of a try-out test in English. The letter mark with an asterisk is the correct answer. Item No. 10 A* B C D Upper 27% 3 3 10 1 Lower 27% 6 6 8 2 104. Based on the table, which group got more correct answer? A. Lower group B. Upper group C. Can’t be determined D. Either lower group or upper group 105. Based on the table in Situation C, which is the most effective distracter?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D 106. Based on the table in Situation C, which distracters should be revised? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D 107. What is the level of difficulty of item 6 in Situation C? A. Very easy C. Moderately difficult B. Easy D. Difficult 108. What is the discriminating index of item number 6 in situation C? A. 3% C. 7% B. 6% d. 50% 109. Which statement about performance-based assessment is FALSE? A. They stress on process as well as product. B. They also stress on doing, not only knowing C. Essay tests are example of performance-based assessments. D. They emphasize merely on process. 110. A Z-scores provide information about the location of the raw scores ____________. A. below the mean in units of the range of the distribution. B. above the mean in units of the standard deviation of the distribution. C. above and below the mean in units of the range of the distribution. D. above and below the mean in standard deviation units from the mean. 111. Assessment is sadi to be authentic when the teacher ______________. A. considers students’ suggestions in testing B. gives valid and reliable paper-and-pencil test C. gives students real-life tasksto accomplish D. includes parents in the determination of assessment procedures. 112. If teacher Jerick Ivan want to test his students’ synthesizing skills. Which of the following has the highest diagnostic value? A. Completion test C. Essay test B. Performance test D. Multiple choice test 113. Which of the following statement about making on a normative basis? A. the normal distribution curve should be followed. B. most of the students get low scores. C. most of the students get high scores. D. the grading about should based from the given criteria. 114. The discriminating index of item number 15 is 0.44. This means that ______________. A. more students from the upper group the item correctly. B. more students from the lower group the item correctly. C. equal number of students got the correct answer from the upper and lower group. D. the test item is very easy. 115. The difficulty index of item 20 is 0.55 and the discrimination index is 0.15. What should teacher do with this item? A. Reject the item C. Revise the item B. Retain the item D. Make the item bonus 116. The discriminating index of item number 1 is -0.15. This means that ____________. A. More students from the upper group got the item correctly. B. More students from the lower group got the item correctly. C. Equal number of students got the correct answer from the upper and lower group. D. The test item is very difficult.
117. Suppose that a certain aptitude test administered to a randomly selected group of college students had a mean of 80 and standard deviation of 5. If BJ got a z-scores of 3, what is the value of his raw score? A. 80 C. 90 B. 85 D. 95 118. About how many percent of the cases fall between -1SD and +1SD in the normal curve? A. 99.72 C. 68.26 B. 95.44 D. 34.13 119. In research, t-test is appropriate to test the significant difference between: A. frequencies B. median C. two means only D. three or more means 120. Skewed score distribution means: A. The scores are normally distributed. B. The mean and the median are equal. C. The mode, the mean, and the median are equal. D. The scores are concentrated more at one end or the other end. 121. Teacher Anne gives achievement test to her 30 students. The test consists of the 25 items. She wants to compare her students’ performance based on the test result. What is the appropriate measure for this position? A. Percentage B. Percentile rank C. z-score D. Standard nine 122. Student J was asked to report to the Guidance Office. Student J and his classmates at once remarked: “What’s wrong?” What does this mean? A. Reporting to a Guidance Office is often associated with misbehavior. B. The parents of student J must be of the delinquent type. C. Student J is a “problem” student. D. Guidance counselors are perceived to be “almighty and omniscient”. 123. Which of the following statements is one of the strength of an autobiography as a technique for personally appraisal? A. It can replace data obtained from other data gathering technique. B. It may be read by unauthorized people. C. It gives complete data about the author. D. It makes possible presentation of intimate experiences. 124. The counselee revealed that she will commit suicide on weekend. Can the counselor reveal the secret to the parents? A. Yes, it is mandatory that in cases involving suicide that confidentially is superseded. B. No, the counselor has no right. C. Yes as long as he tells the parents that he is not the source. D. No, it is unethical. 125. This is the pre-planned collection of sample of student works, assessed results and other output by the students. A. Diary B. Observation report C. Portfolio D. Anecdotal records
KEY TO CORRECTION Assessment of Learning 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. C 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. D 16. C 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. D 21. A 22. C 23. D 24. C 25. D 26. A 27. C 28. A 29. A 30. B 31. D 32. A 33. B 34. B 35. B 36. B 37. D 38. C 39. A 40. B 41. A 42. B 43. C 44. B 45. A 46. C 47. C 48. C 49. A 50. D 51. D 52. D 53. C 54. D 55. B 56. A 57. D 58. B 59. A 60. D 61. B 62. B 63. A 64. D 65. B 66. A 67. B 68. D 69. A 70. C 71. B 72. C 73. D 74. B 75. C 76. A 77. D 78. A 79. C 80. B 81. A 82. B 83. D 84. A 85. A 86. B 87. D 88. C 89. B 90. D 91. C 92. C 93. B 94. B 95. D 96. B 97. C 98. B 99. C 100. D 101. D 102. B 103. B 104. A 105. B 106. C 107. C 108. C 109. D 110. D 111. C 112. C 113. A 114. A 115. C 116. B 117. B 118. C 119. C 120. D 121. C 122. A 123. D 124. A 125. C

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GenEd ProfEd LET reviewer

  • 1.
    ENGLISH Direction: Choose thebest answer from the choices given. 1. It surely takes a lifetime for Edgar Allan Poe to forget his lost love, but he ________________ hard to move on amidst tremendous loneliness and despair. A. has been trying B. has tried C. had tried D. had been trying 2. What can be the most appropriate follow-up sentence to the given statement below? “I have been teaching for 34 years.” A. So it is now time to quit B. And I can’t imagine doing anything else C. And I want this to end right now D. And my children are now teachers, too 3. Emily Bronte ___________ her last novel when she died. A. has written C. had written B. had been writing D. has been writing 4. Which among the sentences below followed the correct order of adjectives? A. She drives an expensive black Japanese sports car. B. She drives a black Japanese expensive sports car. C. She drives a black expensive Japanese sports car. D. She drives an expensive Japanese black sports car. 5. Only 85% of the total number of applicants ___________ able to pass the entrance test last year. A. are C. is B. was D. were 6. Neither Emily Bronte nor her sister ____________ their real names in their writing career. A. use C. using B. uses D. has used 7. The man looks ____________. A. strange C. stranger B. strangely D. has strange 8. A number of whale species __________ now extinct because of illegal hunting and alarming change in sea water temperature. A. are C. were B. is D. was 9. The problem that I encountered were ____________ for me to handle. A. so much C. very much B. too much D. too more 10. In Benjamin Franklin’s “Poor Richard’s Almanac” it was said that: early to bed, _____________ makes man healthy. A. early rising C. early to rise B. rising early D. waking up early 11. Which among these words has the voiceless /th/ sound? A. These C. Think B. Mother D. There
  • 2.
    12. Which wordmust have the primary stress in the sentence below if we want to emphasize possession? “That’s my bag.” A. that C. my B. is D. bag 13. What pitch level must be used in starting a sentence? A. 1 C. 3 B. 2 D. 4 14. Which among the words below has the /sh/ sound? A. Vision C. Sure B. Leisure D. Salient 15. Your father isn’t working anymore, ____________? A. is he C. has he B. isn’t he D. hasn’t he 16. Their pertains to the pauses or rests in speech. A. Pitch B. Juncture C. Stress D. Intonation 17. I would not leave you come hell or high water. Based on the given sentence, we can surmise that: A. the speaker won’t leave the person no matter what B. the speaker warns the person of a forthcoming disaster C. the speaker wants the person to give up D. the speaker wants the person continue fighting 18. Her nervousness keeps her on her toes. The underlined phrase means: A. she is always alert and cautious B. she is always ready to fight C. she is always confident D. she is always on the go 19. Emily Dickinson was ostracized by her peers primarily because of her eccentric principles. The underlined word means: A. Criticized C. Excluded B. Condemned D. Praised 20. The death of Ninoy Aquino prompted the conglomeration of people from different walks of life. The words below are synonyms of the underlined word except: A. Gathering C. Accumulation B. Assembly D. Diffusion 21. For a non-believer, the noise heard during the street procession would seem cacophonous. The underlined word means: A. Loud and unpleasant B. Loud and yet pleasant C. Soft and yet unpleasant D. Soft and pleasant 22. Which among the sound below is a voiceless sound? A. /dz/ C. /z/ B. /g/ D. /sh/ 23. Which among the words below does not belong? A. Conceal C. Reveal B. Screen D. Obscure 24. A paragraph is believed to have coherence if: A. the sentences are all about the topic sentence B. the sentences are smoothly connected with each other through transitional devices C. the sentences are correctly written in terms of grammar rules D. the sentences are independent
  • 3.
    25. Aside frombeing renowned writer, Carl Sanburg is also believed to have the gift of gab. The underlined word means: A. The ability to speak clearly B. The ability to speak persuasively C. The ability to speak honestly D. The ability to speak accurately 26. Which among the sounds below does not belong? A. /p/ B. /f/ C. /s/ D. /v/ 27. As a historian, Herodotus never missed any salient point in his creation “The Histories”. The words below are synonyms of the underlined word except. A. Leading B. Relevant C. Significant D. Minor 28. Which among the sounds below does not belong? A. /m/ B. /w/ C. /b/ D. /n/ SONNET 18 Shall I compare thee to a summer’s day Thou art more lovely and more temperate Rough winds do shake the darling buds of May And summer’s least hath all too short a date 29. The sonnet above is an example of a: A. Shakespearean sonnet C. Jacobean sonnet B. Petrarchan sonnet D. Italian sonnet 30. What is the rhyme scheme of the first quatrain of the given sonnet? A. ABAB C. AABA B. ABBA D. AABB 31. This is a collection of stories told by the pilgrims while on their way to the chapel of Canterbury. A. The Canterbury Tales B. The Canterbury Collection C. The Canterbury Flies D. The Canterbury Saga 32. “One thousand hands made the pyramids of Egypt.” What figure of speech was used in the given statement? A. Synecdoche C. Onomatopoeia B. Metonymy D. Metaphor And I shall be telling this with a sigh Somewhere ages and ages hence Two roads in the woods and I I took the one less travelled by And that has made all the difference 33. The lines above are taken from what particular poem? A. The Road not Taken B. Stopping by the Woods on a Snowey Evening C. Fire and Ice D. The Raven 34. Who is the author behind the lines given above? A. Oscar Wide C. Robert Frost B. Rudyard Kipling D. Walt Whitman
  • 4.
    35. This isthe first accepted masterpiece in Philippine Literature in English. A. Dead Stars C. My Father Goes to Court B. Small Key D. Desire 36. If Salvador Lopez advocates Proletariat literature, who adheres to the concept of “art for art’s sake” A. Jose Garcia Villa B. F. Sionil Jose C. Nick Joaquin D. Amador Daguio 37. Which does not characterize our country’s primitive literature? A. Mainly in oral tradition B. Some were written in not so sturdy materials such as leaves and woods. C. Recognizes the existence of a supreme being D. Has continued to flourish in the colonial times 38. Which does not describe the illustrados? A. Filipinos who were able to study abroad B. Filipino painters in Spain C. Filipino who ask for change in the society D. Filipinos who left the country for good 39. This period is considered as the Golden Age of Filipino Language. A. Japanese Regime C. Spanish Regime B. American Regime D. Marcos Regime 40. This is Nick Joaquin’s masterpiece that talks about the pagan “tadtarin”/ “tatarin” ritual. A. May Day Eve C. Summer Solstice B. Woman with Two Navels D. Ermita 41. They are considered as the first teachers in the Philippines who taught English in a formal classroom setting. A. American Regime C. The Thomasians B. The Thomasites D. The Sophists 42. Who wrote the short story “The Weeding Dance” which is about the ill-fated love of Awiyao and Lumnay? A. Amador Daguio C. Estrella Alfon B. Manuel Arguilla D. Paz Latorena 43. If a student has familiarity with the sounds of the language, he/she is said to have: A. Garphophonemic skills B. Phonemic awareness C. Vocabulary D. Fluence 44. If the student can relate the words in a sentence with each other to create a significant idea, he/she is to have: A. Phonemic awareness B. Vocabulary C. Fluency D. Comprehension 45. “The wind kisses my cheeks.” What figure of speech is used in the given statement? A. Personification B. Metaphor C. Simile D. Onomatopoeia For poetry never says; It unsays. To say Is to confine, contain, To unsay is to explore the Vaguely all hovering Presence of the unseen, Deliberately left-out
  • 5.
    46. What canbe inferred from the lines of the given poem? A. that a poem must not reveal itself to its readers easily B. that a poem must have no words C. that a poem must be detailed D. that a poem must have deep words 47. Which statement is not a correct inference from the lines of the given poem? A. that the beauty of the poem relies on the transformation of the familiar to the unfamiliar. B. that a poem must not give everything to the readers. C. that a poem must be transparent-the meaning of it must clearly drawn out. D. that a poem must be read-intelligently- one must look into metaphors and symbolism used 48. The editor found the new story not so entertaining. He found it full of: A. adjectives C. pronouns B. verbs D. adverbs 49. “On the street of this position of God’s world I feel neighbor to a rat, so brother of a worm; Forever chasing rainbows at muddy margins.” This line on Quemeda’s poem is saying that: A. Life is fruitful B. Life is not worth living C. Life is empty and meaningless D. Life is full of challenges 50. “The whale has no famous author and whaling no famous chronicles, “Based on this line from the novel, Moby Dick is treated as: A. Whaling is not truly structure. B. Whales are ordinary creatures. C. Whale is a wild mammal that haunts mariners. D. Whaling is an old hobby. 51. Venus is an exemplification of feminine. Pulchritude means: A. Plain C. Ugliness B. Beauty D. Homeliness 52. After 7 depressing years, Mitch finally quit the job. She ______ along with her superior for a long time before she finally decided to look for a new position. A. didn’t get C. hasn’t been getting B. isn’t getting D. hadn’t been getting 53. Five years of intensive language study are required for second language learners. Chun-Li ________ English for three years, but she will need more training to be more proficient. A. has studied B. will have been studying C. has been studying D. will be studying 54. The laborers are so happy that _____ now reaping the fruit of _____ efforts. A. they’re-their C. there-their B. they’re-there D. their-their 55. This seatwork is difficult for Paul and _____. A. Myself C. Me B. I D. Himself 56. The candy cane smells ______. A. Sweet C. Sweeter B. Sweetly D. More sweet 57. A comma indicates: A. Pause C. longer pause B. Slight pause D. no pause 58. Which word has the C pronounced as /k/?
  • 6.
    A. Century C.City B. Cold D. Censure 59. Which word is accented on the first syllable? A. Fifteen B. Outspeak C. Understand D. Heaven 60. Which word has the C pronounced as /s/? A. Censure B. Connote C. Comma D. Collaborate 61. She is riding _____ a plane. A. In C. at B. On D. into 62. What makes the sentence below erroneous? “I have written a letter yesterday.” A. Yesterday B. Have C. A D. Letter 63. What is NOT true about the present perfect tense? A. The action started somewhere in the past and continued up until present. B. It must bear with it the auxiliary verb has/have, plus the past participle form of the verb. C. The action still happening at present or just recently ended. D. The action is happening at present and may still happen in future 64. Read the poem below: “That the wind seraphs of heaven Coveted her and me That is the reason, not so long ago In a kingdom by the sea A wind blew out of a cloud Chillin and killin my Annabel Lee” What can be the cause of death of Annabel Lee? A. Consumption C. HIV B. Dengue D. Hepatitis 65. What is TRUE about the Past Perfect Tense? A. There must be two past actions B. The auxiliary verb must be “has” C. The main verb must be in the present pariticipial phrase D. The auxiliary verb “had” must not be used 66. This tense connotes actions that are happening at present time, meaning right now. A. Present Tense B. Past Tense C. Progressive Tense D. Present Tense 67. Filipino as language blossomed during the time of the _________. A. Japanese C. Spanish B. American D. Commonwealth 68. Who is considered the goddess of Philippine society? A. Ophelia Alcantara Dimalanta B. Teresa Subido C. Aida Rivera Ford D. Angela Manalang Gloria
  • 7.
    69. The underlinedword in the sentence below is an _________? “She took the early train.” A. Adjective C. Apostrophe B. Adverb D. Appositive 70. Jose Rizal’s novel Noli Me Tangere is inspired by the novel written by Harriet Beecher Stowe titled _________. A. Uncle Tom’s Cabin C. Tom Sawyer B. Les Miserables D. War and Peace 71. The family that ______ together, _______ together. A. prays-stays C. prayed-stayed B. pray-stay D. praying-staying 72. One thirds of the population ______ poor. A. is C. was B. are D. were 73. Neither Jordan nor his brothers _______ leaving the company. A. is C. was B. are D. were 74. Which sound is a voiced bilabial stop? A. /b/ C. /k/ B. /p/ D. /t/ 75. The teacher was asked to speak for her students when they won the speech choir competition, and so she says “_________ of my students, I want to thank you.” A. On behalf C. Because B. in behalf D. For 76. Which of the following inspired Rizal’s El Filibusterismo? A. The execution of GOMBURZA B. The death of Andres Bonifacio C. The death of his father D. The imprisonment of his mother 77. What is the First American School in the Philippines that aims in teaching the Filipinos how to use the English Language. A. Philippine Normal University B. Far Eastern University C. University of Santo Tomas D. University of the Philippines 78. In Development Reading, this pertains to the familiarity of the students toward the sounds of the language. A. Phonemic awareness C. Syntax B. Phonology D. Semantics 79. In Developmental Reading, this pertains to the ability of the learner to relate the written symbol to its corresponding sound. A. Phonemic awareness C. Syntax B. Phonics D. Semantics 80. English Sonnet: Shakespeare, Italian Sonnet: A. Alighieri C. Boccaccio B. Petrarch D. Dante 81. In Reading, IRI means:
  • 8.
    A. Informal ReadingIntervention B. Informal Reading Inventory C. Informal Reading Innovation D. Informal reading Integration 82. In the cueing system, this pertains to the structure of grammar. A. phonology C. morphology B. semantics D. syntax 83. In the cueing system, this is about vocabulary and coming up with meanings in a context. A. phonology C. morphology B. semantics D. syntax 84. I n the cueing system, this pertains to the information of sounds of the language. A. phonology C. morphology B. semantics D. syntax 85. The poem “The Road Not taken” which road did the traveler take? A. Clear road B. Road less travelled C. high way D. Streets 86. Who wrote the novel “A Christmas Carol” which is about a man who hates Christmas? A. Charles Dickens B. Oscar Wilde C. H.G Wells D. D.H. Lawrence 87. “She is a star in the heavens above.” What figure of speech is used? A. Simile B. Metaphor C. Personification D. Hyperbole 88. What figure of speech is used in the sentence below? “I can eat a whole cow!” A. Simile B. Metaphor C. Personification D. Hyperbole 89. Mark Twain’s novels Tom Sawyer and Huckleberry Finn are set in the ________ river. A. Nile C. Amazon B. Mississippi D. Rio Grande 90. The words “inadequate, disembark, uneducated, and illegitimate” have prefixes that are: A. Positive C. Negative B. Common D. Neutral 91. Which does not belong? A. Assumption C. Synthesis B. Summary D. Generalization 92. Which sounds like “shine”? A. cry C. fry B. brine D. why 93. The speaker approached the stage with his spiel. His hands were shaking and he was sweating tremendously. He experienced: A. Heart attack C. Stage fight B. Nausea D. Epilepsy 94. “He was like a snake in the night”, what figure of speech in present? A. Personification B. Simile C. Metaphor D. Apostrophe
  • 9.
    95. “To beor not to be, that is the question” this line is taken from what particular Shakespearean play? A. Hamlet C. Macbeth B. Romeo and Juliet D. The Ghost 96. “The train arrived early.” The underlined word is an _______. A. Adjective C. Adverb B. Verb D. Noun 97. What figure of speech is used in the sentence below? “Oh Zeus look down on your people” A. Simile B. Metaphor C. Personification D. Apostrophe 98. “The voice resounds across the universe.” What figure of speech is used? A. Hyperbole C. Personification B. Simile D. Metaphor 99. To make a fantastic group work, each member must put his/her finger in the pie. The underlined phrase means: A. Bake a pie C. join a group B. Taste a pie D. participate in a group 100. The suspect was spared because all he said were all white lies. The underlined word phrase means: A. Lies that bare harmless B. Lies recited are illogical C. lies are type written D. the lies are made in public.
  • 10.
    KEY TO CORRECTION: English 1.A 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. C 11. C 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. D 21. A 22. D 23. C 24. B 25. B 26. A 27. D 28. D 29. A 30. A 31. A 32. A 33. A 34. C 35. A 36. A 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. C 41. B 42. A 43. B 44. D 45. A 46. A 47. C 48. C 49. D 50. B 51. B 52. D 53. C 54. A 55. C 56. A 57. B 58. B 59. D 60. A 61. B 62. B 63. D 64. A 65. A 66. C 67. A 68. A 69. A 70. A 71. A 72. B 73. B 74. A 75. A 76. A 77. A 78. A 79. B 80. B 81. B 82. D 83. B 84. A 85. B 86. A 87. B 88. D 89. B 90. C 91. A 92. B 93. C 94. B 95. A 96. C 97. D 98. A 99. D 100. A
  • 11.
    MATHEMATICS 1. The averageof 5 students is 85. The average of the first 2 students is 88. What is the average of the other 3 students? A. 81 C. 83 B. 82 D. 84 2. Solve for x. 2 ½ : x = 10:4 A. 2 C. ½ B. 1 D. 3 3. 12.5 % of 30 is what number? A. 3.5 C. 4.75 B. 3.75 D. 4.5 4. 0.12 is what percent of 24? A. 0.5% B. 0.05% C. 0.005% D. 5% 5. Last year, 2000 students enrolled in MET Review classes. This year, enrollment increased by 8%. How many students enrolled this year? A. 2160 B. 2100 C. 2200 D. 2180 6. A TV set that originally cost P15,000 is now sold P12, 000. What is the percentage decrease in the price of the TV set? A. 5% C. 10% B. 15% D. 20% 7. A 180-degree angle is divided into 3 in the ratio 1:3:5. What is the measure of the biggest angle? A. 80º C. 120º B. 60º D. 100º 8. After receiving a 20% discount, Lawrence paid P180 for an item. What is the regular price of the item? A. P250 C. P225 B. P275 D. P200 9. A store allows 25% discount of all items. How much does a buyer pay for an item which is marked P1200? A. P900 B. P1000 C. P950 D. P850 10. The number of hours spent for review in Science, English and Math is in the ratio 2:1:5. How many hours does each other student spend for Math in a 120-hour review package? A. 75 C. 70 B. 50 D. 60 11. Three boys have marbles in the ratio of 19:5:3. If the boy with the least number has 9 marbles, how many does the boy with the greatest number have? A. 48 C. 60 B. 81 D. 57 12. Arnel borrowed P10, 000 from the bank at the rate of 13% per year. How much will he owe the bank after year? A. P12, 000 C. P11, 000 B. P11, 300 D. P11, 400 13. What is the total sales if for a 15% rate of commission, an agent gets P10, 500? A. P70, 500 C. P70, 000
  • 12.
    B. P80, 500D. P80, 000 14. A salesman gets 12% commission for the first P15, 000 and 10% for the amount over P15, 000 of his total sales. How much does he get for a total sales of P30, 600? A. P3400 C. P3340 B. P3360 D. P3460 15. How much should a man deposit in a bank at 8% interest if he wants to gain P 1, 600 in a year? A. P16, 000 C. P18, 000 B. P15, 000 D. P20, 000 16. A car is able to travel 210 km in 3 hours. How far can it travel in 8 hours? A. 600 km C. 500 km B. 560 km D. 660 km 17. Jean buys 3 apples for P50. How much does she pay for a dozen of these apples? A. P150 B. P220 C. P200 D. P180 18. To finish a certain job in 6 days, 8 workers are needed. If it is required to finish the same job 2 days earlier, how many workers have to work? A. 12 C. 6 B. 10 D. 14 19. An amount of P2100 is to be divided among 3 children John, Jay and Joseph. Jay will receive double that of John and Joseph will receive double that of Jay. How much will Joseph receive? A. P6000 B. P8000 C. P1000 D. P1200 20. Manny can finish typing 5 pages in 8 minutes. How long will it take him to finish 12 pages? A. 19.2 minutes B. 19 minutes C. 18.2 minutes D. 18 minutes 21. A rectangular figure is 6 inches wide and 1 foot long. If the width is to be decreased by 2 inches, by how much should the length be increased, if the area remains the same? A. 8 inches B. 2 inches C. 6 inches D. 4 inches 22. Which of these numbers does NOT belong to the group? A. 83 B. 91 C. 71 D. 97 23. Lito spent half of his money in SM and half of the remaining at Rustan Store. If he had 250 left, how much did he have at the start? A. P1000 B. P1200 C. P1500 D. P1600 24. Maria brought 120 handkerchiefs at 10 pesos each. Then she sold them at 3 handkerchiefs for P50. If she sold all the handkerchiefs, how much profit did she make? A. P600 B. P800 C. P850 D. 650 25. The price of one seat in a theatre is P40 and an average of 400 persons enter everyday. If the price was increased to P50, how many persons would yield the same amount to the theatre? A. 300 C. 350 B. 340 D. 320 26. A man is 4 times as old as his son. Five years ago, the sum of their ages is 65. How old is the son? A. 18 C. 10 B. 15 D. 12 27. A square has an area of 400 sq. cm. What is its perimeter?
  • 13.
    A. 80 cmC. 100 cm B. 60 cm D. 120 cm 28. The surface area of cube is 50 sq.cm. What is the volume of the cube? A. 64 cu. cm. C. 81 cu. cm. B. 300 cu. cm. D. 125 cu. cm. 29. A rectangular sheet of paper is folded in half. Then it is folded again in half. If the foldings in half is done 5 times, the edges are creased each time, how many small rectangles will you see when you unfold the original sheet of paper? A. 16 C. 32 B. 25 D. 24 30. 1/6, 1/3, ½ , 2/3, 5/6, ____ A. ¾ C. 7/6 B. 1 D. ¼ 31. If the diagonal of a table with square top is 6 ft., what is the area of the table top? A. 18 ft. C. 36 sq. ft. B. 18 sq. ft. D. 36 ft. 32. If m > 0 and n < 0, which of the following is true? A. m/n = 0 C. 1/m > 1/n B. mn > 0 D. 1/n > 1/m 33. Find the value of (8x2) -3 when x = 1. A. 1/216 C. 1/81 B. 216 D. 81 34. Simplify: ( x2/y2) 2 (y2/x)3 A. x/y4 C. xy4 B. x4/y D. x4y 35. A, B and C are consecutive whole numbers. If A>B>C, what is the value of (A-B) (A-C) (B-C)? A. 1 B. -1 C. 2 D. -2 36. If x is an odd integer and y is an even integer, which of the following is an odd iteger? A. 2x-y B. x2 + y-1 C. x2 + 3y D. x-1 37. Simplify: 12 1/8 – 3 5/6 – 7 2/3 A. 1/8 B. 1 5/8 C. 5/8 D. 3/8 38. Simplify: (3x+5) – [3x – (-x + 1) -3] A. –x – 9 B. -9 + x C. 9 + x D. 9 – x 39. A dinner menu offers choices of 5 appetizers, 8 main dishes and 2 desserts. How many ways can you choose one of each course? A. 15 B. 5!8!2! C. 15! D. 80 40. A ball is drawn at random from a box containing 3 red balls, 4 white balls and 5 blue balls. Find the probability that the ball is NOT red. A. ¼ B. ¾ C. 2/9 D. 1/3 41. When a pair of fair dice is thrown, what is the probability of getting a sum of 9? A. 2/3 B. 1/9
  • 14.
    C. 2/9 D.1/3 42. Simplify: 420/240 A. 1 C. 220 B. 4 D. (1/2)20 43. A big garden has a triangular shape. It has a height of 12 meters and a base of 9 meters. What is its area? A. 54 m2 C. 122 m2 B. 42 m2 D. 106 m2 44. How many ounces of pure acid must be added to 20 ounces of a solution that is 5% acid to make a mixture that is 24% acid? A. 5 C. 10 B. 3 D. 2 45. In how many ways can a coach assign the 5 starting positions in basketball to 10 equally qualified men? A. 252 C. 5 B. 30, 420 D. 10 46. In how many ways can 8 guests be seated in a round table with 8 chairs? A. 8! B. 7! C. 5! D. 6! 47. In how many ways may a rural health officer assign one or more of 6 available barangay health workers? A. 6! B. 6 C. 5! D. 63 48. A committee of 5 persons must be selected from a group of 5 men and 8 women. In how many ways may the selection be made with no restrictions? A. 154440 C. 13P5 B. 1287 D. 5!13! 49. The value of k for which the number 128k0 is divisible by 4? A. 1 C. 5 B. 3 D. 8 50. One side of a rectangle is x inches. If the perimeter is P inches, what is the length (in inches) of the other side? A. 2x + p/2 C. p + x/2 B. p-2x/2 D. 2x – p/2 51. 36.6 % in terms of fraction. A. 183/1000 C. 366/100 B. 366/500 D. 183/500 52. 2 1/6 in terms of percent A. 216.6% C. 216 2/3% B. 216 1/3% D. 216% 53. P12, 500 is what percent of P50, 000? A. 10% B. 15% C. 25% D. 20% 54. P15800 decreased by 12.5% is how much? A. P13, 800 B. P13, 525 C. P13, 285 D. P13, 825 55. ¾ of 1/3 of 30 is what % of 60?
  • 15.
    A. 15.625% C.26.89% B. 25.89% D. 25.79% 56. What is 16 2/3 % of 42? A. 7 B. 6 C. 5 D. 7.5 57. John jogs every morning. Yesterday, he covered 2 km. Today he covers 2 km. What is the percent of increase in the distance he traveled? A. 50% C. 10% B. 25% D. 20% 58. A 180 – degree angle is divided into 3 in the ratio 1:2:3. What is the measure of the biggest angle? A. 45º C. 60º B. 90º D. 30º 59. What is the area of a rectangle of width 10 inches and perimeter of 120 inches? A. 200 sq. in. C. 400 sq. in. B. 300 sq. in. D. 500 sq. in. 60. Jay invested P 4, 500 in a buy and sell. How much will his money be in 3 years if it earns 12.5% simple interest rate in a year? A. P6, 187.50 B. P6, 188 C. P6, 187 D. P6, 189.50 61. A store allows P15 discount on all items. How much does a customer pay for an item which is marked P800? A. P700 B. P790 C. P680 D. P785 62. What is the percentage commission if a salesman gets P 800 from a total sale of P15, 000? A. 5% C. 5 1/3% B. 5.5% D. 5.3% 63. The side of a square of area x2 – 4x + 4 A. x – 4 C. x - 2 B. x + 4 D. x + 2 64. Five liters of gasoline can travel a distance of 70 km. how far can 8 liters reach? A. 80 km. B. 50 km. C. 100 km. D. 112 km. 65. At 75 kph. Jigs can reach home within 50 minutes. At what rate should he drive his car so that he can reach home 10 minutes earlier? A. 80 kph. C. 60 kph. B. 93.75 kph. D. 90 kph. 66. The area of a circle with circumference 4¶ A. 4𝜋 C. 6 𝜋 B. 2𝜋 D. 3 𝜋 67. Find X: 2 1/3 = 1 1/6 X 6 A. 4 C. 6 B. 10 D. 12 68. An angle which measures between 0º and 90º A. Acute C. Right B. Obtuse D. Supplementary 69. Two angles whose sum of degrees is equal to 180º
  • 16.
    A. Complimentary B. Supplementary C.Obtuse D. Vertical 70. Two complementary angles are in the ratio 1:4. What is the smaller angle? A. 40º C. 72º B. 18º D. 36º 71. An angle which measures greater than 90º but less than 180. A. Acute B. Supplementary C. Right D. Obtuse 72. In an isosceles right, triangle, the hypotenuse is 12 cm long. What is the length of one of its congruent legs? A. 5√2 cm C. 6√2 cm B. 5 cm D. 6 cm 73. A rectangular farm has dimensions 500 meters by 40 meters. Find its area in hectares. A. 2 B. 3 C. 2.5 D. 3.5 74. What is the area of a triangle of sides 4, 7 and 9 units? A. 6 sq. units C. √6 sq. units B. 5 sq. units D. √5 sq. units 75. The circumference of a circle of area 4 𝜋. A. 4𝜋 C. 2 𝜋 B. 𝜋 D. 3 𝜋 76. The area of a circle of diameter 10 units. A. 25 sq. units B. 25 𝜋 sq. units C. 5 sq. units D. 5 𝜋 sq. units 77. The area of a triangular garden of base 20 ft. and altitude 10 ft. A. 50 sq. ft. B. 10 sq. ft. C. 80 sq. ft. D. 100 sq. ft. 78. One of the legs of a right triangle is 5 cm long and its hypotenuse is 15 cm. How long is the other leg? A. 10 cm C. 8 cm B. 10 √2 cm D. 8 √2 cm 79. In the figure, ADE ~ ABC. If AD = 6, DE = 9 and AB = 10, what is BC? A D E B C A. 8 C. 15 B. 10 D. 12 80. What type of a regular polygon is one whose interior angle measures 108 degrees? A. Heptagon B. Pentagon
  • 17.
    C. Octagon D.Hexagon 81. What is the sum of the measure of the angles of a convex octagon? A. 900º B. 1200º C. 1800º D. 1080º 82. What is the average of 1/3, ¼ and 1/6? A. ¼ C. ¾ B. ½ D. 4/3 83. A meter stick was cut into 2 pieces at the 36 cm – mark. What is the ratio of the smaller piece to the larger piece? A. 16:25 C. 9:25 B. 13:50 D. 9:16 84. 2 + 3P, 4 + 2P, 6 + P, _______ A. 4 + P B. 8 C. 4 – P D. 6 85. ½, 2/3, 5/6 ______ A. 2 C. 1 B. 1/6 D. 5/6 86. Find the quotient: (3/4 – 2/3) + (5/6 – 3/5) A. 1/14 C. 3/14 B. 4/14 D. 5/14 87. A, B and C are all working in a certain company, they are all on leave. A will file a leave every 4 days, B every 6 days and C every 8 days. When will they be all on leave? A. After 24 days C. After 20 days B. After 16 days D. After 18 days 88. Juan drives 5 ¾ km. to work and drives home the same day, for five working days a week, how many kilometers does he drive each week? A. 57 km. B. 57.5 km. C. 58 km. D. 57 km. 89. The average of 4 numbers is 28. If 3 of the 4 numbers are 18, 28 and 36, what is the 4th number? A. 30 C. 26 B. 28 D. 24 90. The polynomial x2 + 4x – 32 is the area of a rectangular floor. What is the length of one of its sides? A. x – 2 C. x + 8 B. x + 4 D. x + 2 91. aº = ? a ≠ 0 A. Underlined C. 0 B. Indeterminate D. 1 92. LCM of 4x2y and 30 xy3 A. 30 x2y3 C. 60 x2y3 B. 30 x3y2 D. 60 x3y2 93. Solve for x: 4 (x – 1) -2 (x + 1) = 3x – 2 A. -4 C. 2 B. 4 D. -2 94. Factored form of x5 – x3 + x2 – 1 A. (x+1) (x-1) (x2-x+1) C. (x+1) (x-1)2 (x2-x+1) B. (x+1)2 (x-1) (x2+x+1) D. (x+1)2 (x-1) (x2-x+1)
  • 18.
    95. Simplify 4√8- 9√8 - 3√50 A. 34 √2 C. 18 √2 B. -34 √2 D. -18 √2 96. The sum of 2 consecutive numbers is 75. If x is the smaller number, what is the value of x. A. 35 C. 38 B. 40 D. 37 97. The graph of linear equation is __________. A. Curve C. Parabola B. Vertical D. Line 98. The GCD of 18, 24 and 30 A. 6 C. 4 B. 8 D. 2 99. The coin is tossed 3 times. What is the probability that not all 3 tosses are the same? A. ¼ C. 5/8 B. 3/8 D. 6/8 100. The tens digit of a certain two – digit number is 4 more than the unit’s digit, the sum of the squares of the two digits is 26. Find the numbers. A. 51 C. 45 B. 15 D. 54
  • 19.
    KEY TO CORRECTION Mathematics 1.C 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. D 16. B 17. C 18. A 19. D 20. A 21. C 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. D 26. B 27. A 28. D 29. C 30. B 31. B 32. C 33. A 34. C 35. C 36. C 37. C 38. D 39. D 40. B 41. B 42. A 43. A 44. A 45. B 46. B 47. D 48. B 49. D 50. B 51. D 52. C 53. C 54. D 55. A 56. A 57. B 58. B 59. D 60. A 61. D 62. C 63. C 64. D 65. B 66. A 67. D 68. A 69. B 70. B 71. D 72. C 73. A 74. D 75. A 76. B 77. D 78. B 79. C 80. B 81. D 82. A 83. D 84. B 85. C 86. D 87. A 88. B 89. A 90. C 91. D 92. C 93. A 94. D 95. B 96. D 97. D 98. A 99. D 100. A
  • 20.
    FILIPINO I. Piliin angsalitang kasingkahulugan ng salitang may salungguhit sa mga sumusunod na pangungusap. 1. Ang banghay na ginagawa niya ay may kahirapang gawin. A. Buhay C. Plano B. Balangkas D. Pangako 2. Ang panukalang inahing niya ay lubhang malalim at mahirap abutin. A. Proyekto C. Mungkahi B. Layon D. Hiling 3. Matapos ang maghapong gawain siya ay luggami na. A. Lubog C. Nalungkot B. Yumayaman D. Lupaypay 4. Ang mga nangyari sa kanya ay hampas lamang ng panahon. A. Hataw C. Palo B. Hagupit D. Sampal 5. Hindi ko sukat akalain na siya pala ay isang balakyot. A. Marumi B. Makasalanan C. Mapanlinlang D. Mabaho 6. Ang damuho ay may asawa pala. A. Salbahe B. Kabiyak C. Tanga D. Di-mapagkakatiwalaan 7. Ang magkaibigan ay may karatig pook lamang. A. Kasama C. Kasing laki B. Kasabihan D. Kalapit 8. Ang abrigo na ibinigay sa may kaarawan ay makulay. A. Pamaypay C. Balabal B. Tela D. Banig 9. Magalang na ipinakilala ng binate ang kanyang kasintahan sa kanyang ama. A. Mapagmahal C. Mabait B. Mapagmataas D. Mapitagan 10. Mahalaga ang dangal sa pamilya Formaran kaysa sa mga pansariling materyal na kagustuhan. A. Puri B. Bayani C. Pagmamalaki D. Kaugalian II. Piliin ang mga salita na kasalungat ng salitang nakasalungguhit sa pahayag. 11. Naglaho ang mga panagarap ng ina sa kanyang anak ng ito ay mag-asawa. A. Nawala B. Lumitaw C. Lumisan D. Namatay 12. Maraming dukha na Filipino ang humingi ng tulong sa DSWD. A. Nakakaawa C. Nakasimangot B. Nakaririwasa D. Nakasisira 13. Masalimuot ang mga pangyayari sa pagkamatay ni Ramgen. A. Magulo C. Maalalahanin B. Makulay D. Mapayapa 14. Katunggali niya sa paligsahan ang kanyang matalik na kaibigan. A. Kasamahan C. Kakampi
  • 21.
    B. Katalik D.Kasulatan 15. Ang kanyang kapatid ay masintahin sa mga bata. A. Masayahin C. Mapagmahal B. Malupit D. Mapagmura 16. Ang dalangin ng mga Filipino sa taong 2012 ay magkakaroon ng kasaganahan sa buhay. A. Kahirapan C. Kaperahan B. Kasipagan D. Kayamanan 17. Ang pamilya Yulo ay may mababang-loob sa mga taong nangangailangan. A. Maawain C. Matabil B. Mapagpala D. Mayabang 18. Karamihan sa mga kabataan sa ngayon ay mga pasaway sa mga patakaran ng paaralan. A. sumasama C. Palaangal B. Palaaway D. Sumusunod 19. Maalyaw na buhay ang ibibigay ko sa aking mga anak. A. Masarap C. Masagana B. Mahirap D. Mahigpit 20. Malabay na punong-kahoy ang makikita sa bakuran ni Mang Baste. A. Mataba C. Payat B. Malusog D. Putol III. Piliin ang tamang sagot sa bawat tanong. 21. Sila ay kabilang ______ sa mga inayayahan. A. daw/din C. rin B. din D. raw/rin 22. Nagbasa ______ maayos ang mag-aaral. A. siya C. ng B. nang D. sila 23. ______ iinumin ka bang gamot? A. Mayroon C. May B. Meron D. Nang 24. Ano ang kahulugan ______ iyong paliwanag. A. nang C. din B. ng D. rin 25. Ang mga regalong natira ay ______ Ayeng, Miguel at Joffrey. A. para sa atin C. para sa iyo B. para sa kanila D. para kina 26. Kilalanin ang salitang nakasalungguhit. Siya ay karapat-dapat sa posisyong nakalaan. A. Pang-uri C. Pangngalan B. Pandiwa D. Pantukoy 27. Nahuli ng pulis ang magnanakaw ng bag. A. Pang-uri C. Pandiwa B. Pantukoy D. Pangngalan 28. Anong bahagi ng paglalahad ito?
  • 22.
    “iba na talagaang yumayaman”, sabi ng kausap” hindi naman, ang tagay ay nakapagpahanda lang para sa pagtanda” sagot ni Ka Erning. A. Isang sipi B. Isang salitaan C. Isang pangungusap na humihikayat D. Isang katanungan 29. Anong uri ng tayutay ito? Dumadagudong ang tunog ng loud speaker sa mahinang dibdib ng matanda. A. Onomatopeya o paghihimig B. Apostrophe o pagtutulad C. Alliteration o pag-uulit D. Antithesis o pagtatambis 30. Hindi ko sinasabi na ayaw ko sa kanya pero suklam na suklam ako sa kanya. A. Litotes o pagtanggi B. Tanong Retorikal C. Metaphor o pagwawangis D. Sinekdoke o pagpapalit-saklaw 31. Ang mukha niya’y animo’y maamong tupa na sunudsunuran. A. Metaphor o pagwawangis C. Metonomi o pagpapalit tawag B. Simile o pagtutulad D. Epigram o pagsalungat 32. Ang paalala ay gamot sa taong nakakalimot. A. Simile o pagtutulad C. Hyperbole o pagmamalabis B. Personification o pagtatao D. Metaphor o pagwawangis 33. Sumisipol ang hanging amihan. A. Sinekdoke o pagmamalabis B. Irony o pag-uyam C. Metonomy o pagpapapalit-tawag D. Personification o pagtatao 34. Alin ang kasingkahulugan ng pariralang nagbibilang ng poste? A. mahusay magbilang B. mahusay magtrabaho C. walang poste D. walang trabaho 35. Alin ang kasingkahulugan ng pariralang buwaya sa katihan? A. mapang-api B. mapang-imbot C. mapanukso D. mapagmalabis 36. Ano ang pokus ng pandiwa sa pangungusap na ito? IPANGSULAT MO ANG LAPIS NA MAY TASA A. tagaganap C. sanhi B. tagatanggap D. gamit 37. Ang mga mata ng may matataas na tungkulin ay maagap sa pagbibigay ng ulat. A. gamit sa paningin C. espiya B. maganda D. matitikas 38. Anong teorya sa wika ang tinutukoy? Ang tao’y nakalilikha ng tunog kapag siya’y nageeksert ng pwersa. A. teoryang pooh-pooh B. teoryang bow-wow C. teoryang ta-ta D. teoryang yo-he-ho 39. Ang isang taong napapabulalas sa sakit ay maaaring napapa-aray! O napapa-ouch! A. teoryang ding-dong B. teoryang bow-wow C. teoryang pooh-pooh D. teoryang ta-ra-ra-boom – de-ay 40. Ang alpabeto ng ating mga ninuno noong panahong pre-kolonyal ay tinatawag na A. alibata C. talibaba
  • 23.
    B. Alibaba D.abakada 41. Ayon sa Bagong Saligang Batas (1987), ang Wikang Pambansa ng Pilipinas ay tatawaging A. Pilifino C. Pilipino B. Filipino D. Filifino 42. Kapag tayo ay nabigo, bumangon tayo agad. Sakaling dumating ang daluyong, sandali siyang iiwas. A. Payak B. Tambalan C. Hugnayan D. Langkapan 43. Ang mga mag-aaral ng Nolasco High School ay nagsasayawan at nag-aawitan. A. Payak B. Tambalan C. Hugnayan D. Langkapan 44. Nagtapos nang may karangalan si Ryan dahil nagsikap siya sa kanyang pag-aaral. A. Payak B. Tambalan C. Hugnayan D. Langkapan 45. Alin sa mga pangungusap ang higit na epektibong pagpapahayag? A. Nang nailikas ang mga tao ay bumaha sa aming bayan. B. Nang bumaha sa aming bayan ay nailikas na ang mga tao. C. Nang lumikas ang mga tao ay bumaha sa aming bayan. D. Pagkalikas sa mga tao ay bumaha sa aming bayan. 46. Nakalulungkot isipin na pagkatapos ng ating pagsusumikap ay patuloy pa ring nawawasak ang ating kapaligiran. Sa pangungusap na ito anong salita ang naghuhudyat ng pagkakasunod-sunod? A. pagkatapos B. nakakalungkot C. pagsusumikap D. patuloy 47. Ano ang nagaganap na pagbabagong morpoponemiko sa salitang may salungguhit? Nasa mesa ang mga kagamitan sa panlinis. A. pagkakaltas B. asimilasyon C. metatisis D. reduplikasyon 48. Marumi ang kamay niya nang kumain. A. pagpapalit ponema B. paglilipat diin C. asimilsayon D. metatesis 49. Asnan mo ang binili kong isda. A. pagkakaltas ng ponema B. paglilipat diin C. asimilasyon D. metatesis 50. Aptan mo ang nasirang bubong. A. Metatesis B. pagkakaltas ng ponema C. paglilipat diin D. pagpapalit ponema 51. Kapag sinasabing “Itaga mo sa bato ang aking pangako” siya ay A. Natutuwa sa kanyang pangako B. Nakataga ng pangako sa bato C. Nagsasabi ng totoo D. Nanganggako ng pagtupad sa pangako 52. Ano ang ibig sabihin nito “wika ang kaluluwa ng isang lahi” A. Ang wika ay kaluluwa ng isang lahi dahil naitatala nito ng kasaysayan B. Ang wika ay may damdamin C. Ang wika ay nakapagpapahayag ng niloloob ng tao D. Ang tao at wika ay kapwa may kaluluwa. 53. Anong hulwaran ng organisasyon ito? Tumaas ang presyo ng lahat ng bilihin ngayong taon. Dahil kasi ito sa pagtaas ng dagdag na buwis na ipinataw ng pamahalaan sa lahat ng mga bilihin.
  • 24.
    A. Paghahambing atpagkokontrast B. Problema at solusyon C. Sanhi at bunga D. Enumerasyon 54. Sina Nora Aunor at Vilma Santos ay kapwa mahuhusay na artista. Taglay nila ang kahusayan sa pag- arte, halos lahat ng kanilang pelikula ay nabigay sa kanila ng acting awards. Si Nora ay tinaguriang “Superstar” at si Vilma naman ay tinaguriang “Star for all seasons”. Bagamat pareho silang sikat na artista, si Nora ay mahusay rin na mang-aawit at si Vilma ngayon ay mahusay na pulitiko. A. Problema at solusyon B. Depinisyon C. Order o pagkakasunud-sunod D. Paghahamibing at pagkokontrast E. 55. Ang gitara ay isang uri ng instrumenting pangmusika na nahahanay o nauuri sa string. Upang tumunog ang instrumentong ito ay kailangang mo itong kalabitin ng kanang kamay at titipahin naman ng kaliwang kamay. A. Paghahambing at pagkokontrast B. Sanhi at bunga C. Depinisyon D. Enumerasyon 56. Ang isang set ng kompyuter ay binubuo ng mga sumusunod: CPU, monitor, mouse, key board at avr. Ang opsyunal na bahagi nito ay printer at scanner. Ibig sabihin, maaaring wala ang mga kagamitang ito. A. Enumerasyon C. Sanhi at bunga B. Depinisyon D. Order Basahin ang Teksto sa ibaba at sagutan ang mga kasunod na aytem. Mag-isip ka, Binata Ikaw ay baguntao… malakas, makisig, matatag, maginoo, ikaw, tulad, ng iyong ama ay magiging haligi ng tahanan. Huwaran mo ang iyong ama. Siya ang utak na namamatnugot sa inyong tahanan samantalang ang iyong ina ang siyang katuwang sa pagpapaligaya nito. Ikaw ay galamay ng iyong mga magulang. Ikaw ang pag-asa nila sa kanilang pagtanda. Ikaw ang dahilan ng kanilang pagkakasakit. Dapat mong gantihan ng kabutihan ang kanilang paghihirap. Ngayon nag-aaral ka pa’y maaari kang tumulong sa anu mang paraan. Ngunit ang higit nilang inaasahan sa iyo ay ang pagtatapos mo ng pag-aaral. Para kanino ang iyong pag-aaral? Ito’y para sa iyong kinabukasan, upang ikaw ay maging matatag at nakahandang tumanggap ng pananagutan. Kaya dapat mong ibigin at igalang ang iyong mga magulang. Tungkulin mong paglingkuran sila nang buong lugod at kasiyahan. Huwag mo silang biguin sa pangarap nila sa iyo! 57. Ang pananaw na ginamit sa teksto ay _________________. A. Unang panahunan B. Ikalawang panahunan C. Ikatlong panahunan D. Wala ginamit 58. Ang tono ng teksto ay _________________. A. Mapangutya C. Mapanghikayat B. Mapagbiro D. Mapanumbat 59. Sa pamagat ng teksto ay mahihinuhang _________________. A. Ang teksto ay nangangaral sa mga binata B. Ang teksto ay nagbababala sa mga binata C. Ang teksto ay isang pagsusulit para sa mga binata. D. Ang teksto ay isang pagtawag sa atensyon para sa mga binata. 60. Ang ikalawang talata ng teksto ay gumagamit ng hulwarang _________________. A. Depinisyon B. Paghahambing at pagkokontrast C. Problema at solusyon D. Enumerasyon 61. Anong uri ng tayutay ang napapaloob sa pahayag na ito? NALIGO NA SA HAMOG NG GABI ANG MGA BULAKLAK A. pagmamalabis B. pag-uuyam C. pagpapalit-tawag D. pagsasatao
  • 25.
    62. Ano angtawag sa kabuhuan ng mga katangian sa pagsasalita ng tao? A. register C. sosyolek B. idyolek D. mode 63. Ang mga sumusunod na bokabularyo gaya na court, pleading at exhibit tinatawag na _______. A. Sosyolek C. Jargon B. Dayalek D. Idyolek 64. Anong uri ng tayutay ang napapaloob sa pahayag na ito? Musika ang gamot sa nalulungkot niyang damdamin A. Pagsasatao C. Pag-uyam B. Pagpapalit-tawag D. Pagwawangis 65. Anong uri ng tayutay ang napapaloob sa pahayag na ito? Maliliit na palad ang nagungal ng bukirin A. Pagpapalit-saklaw B. Pagpapalit-tawag C. Pagtutulad D. Pagsasatao 66. Ang pagkilala ng kahulugan ng salita sa pamamagitan ng pagkuha ng salitang sa pamamagitan ng pagkuha ng salitang ugat o panlapi ay nasa paraang __________. A. pagsusuring istruktural B. paggamit ng context clues C. paggamit ng diksyunaryo D. paggamit ng matatalinhagang pananlita 67. Ang kasiphayuan-kaligayahan ay isang halimbawa ng __________. A. pagkakatulad B. pagsasalungatan C. pagbibigay ng katangian D. pagbubuo 68. Ang pagpuna sa wastong pagkakasunud-sunod ng mga pangyayari as nasa dimensyong ___________. A. pag-unawang literal B. pagkaunawang ganap sa mga kaisipan ng may-akda C. paglikha ng sariling kaisipan D. pagsasanib ng mga kaisipang nabasa at mga karanasan 69. Ang isang halimbawa ng dimension sa paglikha ng sariling kaisipan ayon sa mga kasanayan at kawilihan sa binasang seleksyon ay ang ____________. A. pagdama sa katangian ng tauhan B. pag-unawa sa mga impresyon o kakintalang nadarama. C. pagbubuod o paglalagom sa binasa D. paglikha ng sariling kwento batay sa binasa 70. Sa pagbasa, ang kakayahan sa pagsasama-sama at pa-uugnay-ugnay ng mga nakaraan at ng mga bagong karanasan ay tinatawag na ___________. A. persepsyon o pagkilala C. paghawan ng balakid B. pag-unawa D. asimilasyon 71. Upang matamo ang mahahalagang layunin sa maunlad na pagabasa, kailangan ang ____________. A. kritikal na pag-iisip at pagpapahalaga B. imahinasyon C. pagkilala sa kahinaan D. interes at hilig ng bumabasa 72. Upang matiyak kung paano magkakaroon ng interaksyon ang nauunang kaalaman at karanasang pangkapaligiran na kaugnay sa binasa ang layunin ng teoryang ___________. A. panimulang pagbasa B. pinatnubayang pagbasa C. schema D. semantic webbing 73. Sa pagtuturo ng pagbasa sa pangalawang wika, dapat isaalang-alang ____________.
  • 26.
    A. ang simulainng pagkakasunud-sunod ng mga yunit ng paksang aralin B. ang pagtatala ng mahahalagang bahagi ng araling sasaklawin C. ang bawat bahagi ng balarila D. ang pagsasanay na transisyon 74. Sa saknong na ito, ang mga tunog na may salungguhit ay isang halimbawa ng ____________. A. aliterasyon C. asonansya B. tugma D. onomatopeya 75. Pinag-aaralan naming si Efren Abueg. Ang pangungusap na ito’y isang halimbawa ng _____________. A. eksaherasyon o hyperbole B. pagpapalit-tawag o metonomiya C. pagwawangis o metapora D. patulad o simile “Kung tatanawin mo sa malayang pook Ako’y tila isang nakadipang krus.” (Halaw sa “ISANG PUNONGKAHOY” ni Jose Corazon De Jesus) 76. Ang taludtod sa itaas ay ___________. A. patulad (simile) C. patalinhaga (allegory) B. pahalintulad (analogy) D. padiwangtao (personification) Siya’t tanging siya ang paru-parong gubat Mandi’y isang tinik sa lipon ng rosas” 77. Ang taludtod sa itaas ay ___________. A. padiwang tao C. patalinhaga B. patulad D. pahalintulad “Ang mga kamay ko’y martilyo’t sandatang pambuo’t panggiba ng anumang pita” 78. Ang taludtod sa itaas ay ___________. A. patulad C. pawangis B. pahintulad D. patalinhaga 79. Ang proseso ng paggamit sa Filipino sa iba’t ibang disiplinang siyentifiko at teknikal ay tinatawag na ___________. A. Istandardisasyon C. Bilinggualismo B. Intelektwalisasyon D. Lingua-franca 80. Ang wikang ginagamit sa isang particular na lugar ay tinatawag na ___________. A. Wikang Pambansa C. Lingua-franca B. Wikang Ofisyal D. Unang Wika 81. Ang sarsuwelang higit na kaugnay ng pangalang Severino Reyes ay ____________. A. Dalagang Bukid B. R.I.P. C. Walang Sugat D. Minda Nora 82. Ang pinakatanyag sa dulang isinulat ni Julian Cruz Balmaceda ay ang ____________. A. Sa Bunganga ng Patnig B. Ang Piso ni Anita C. Isang Kualtang Abaka D. Dahil sa Anak 83. Ang kalipunan ng mga tula mula kina Huseng Sisiw at Balagtas hanggang sa makabagong makata ay ipinalimbag ni Alejandro G. Abadilla ay ang ____________. A. Buhay at Iba pang Tula B. Tanagabadilla C. Ako ang Daigdig D. Parnasong Tagalog 84. Si Jose Corazon De Jesus, ang pangunahing makatang liriko ng panulaang Tagalog ay lalong kilala sa tawag na ____________________.
  • 27.
    A. Huseng Sisiw B.Batukaling C. Huseng Batute D. Taga-ilog 85. Ang awit na ito ay tinatawag _________. A. Oyay B. Tikam C. Soliranin D. Kundiman Palay siyang matino Nang Humangi’y yumuko Ngunit muling tumayo Nagkabunga ng ginto (Halaw sa “Palay” ni Ildefonso Santos) 86. Anong uri ito ng tula? A. Elehiya C. Oda B. Soneto D. Tanaga Sa mata’y dilim At hindi pa liwanag Ang tumatabing 87. Anong uri ito ng tula? A. Pantun C. Tanaga B. Haiku D. May sukat at tugma At buhat noon, tinawag na Banahaw ang malaking bundok na yaon sa gitna ng Luzon. Gayon din ang bayan ng Lukban at Tayabas na nagmula sa pangalang Bayabas at Lukban, na ang mga magulang ni Limbas. 88. Ang talata sa itaas ay wakas ng isang _________. A. Alamat C. Kuwentong bayan B. Pabula D. Mitolohiya 89. Alin sa mga ito ang karaniwang nasasaksihan sa paglalamay sa patay at paglisahan sa pangangatwiran sa paraang patula? A. Duplo C. Juego de prenda B. Karagatan D. Balagtasan 90. Alin sa mga maikling kwentong ito ang unang nagwagi ng Carlos Palanca Memorial Awards A. Mabangis na Lungsod C. Kwentong ni Mabuti B. Sampaguitang walang bango D. Lihim ng isang pulo 91. Ang dulang ito ay itinuturing na drama simboliko noong 1903. A. Nene at Neneng B. Sampaguitang walang bango C. Kahapon, Ngayon at Bukas D. Lihim ng isang pulo 92. Sa tulang ito pinahalagahan ni Jose Rizal ang mga kabataang Pilipino. A. Sa Aking mga Kababata B. Mi Ultimo Adios
  • 28.
    C. Filipino Dentrode Cien anos D. Ala Juventud Filipino 93. Ano ang anyo ng salitang may salungguhit sa, “Ang magtanim ng hangin, bagyo ang aanihin.” A. Pandiwa B. Pawatas C. Pangangalan D. Pang-abay 94. Ano ang pokus ng pandiwang nagluluto? A. Layon B. Tagaganap C. Tagatanggap D. Sanhi 95. Sa ________ ng gabi gaganapin ang pulong sa mga manunulat. A. Ika-walo B. Ika-8 C. Ika 8 D. Ikawalo 96. Kunin mo ang walis at ______ at maglilinis ako. A. Pangdakot C. Pamdakot B. Pandakot D. Pang-dakot 97. Ang isang maliit na pangkat ng formal o makabuluhang katangian na nauugnay sa partikular na uri ng katangiang sosyo-sitwasyonal. A. Idyolek C. mode B. varayti D. rehistro Basahin at Sagutin ang mga sumusunod. I. Ang Philosopher na si Conficius ay naniniwala rin sa malaking tulong ng tsaa sa kalusugan. II. Taglay ng kape ang tinatawag na Cancer Fighting Polyphenosis. Nakatutulong din ang kape laban sa migraine, parkinson’s disease, colon cancer, asthma gayundin ang mga problemang may kinalaman sa atay, apdo at puso. III. Gaya ng kape, mabisang panlaban din sa cancer ang tsaa lalo na ang green tea. Marami ng nagpatunay na pangunahing inuming pangkalusugan ang tsaa sa mga bansang China, Japan at Korea. Mabisang panlinis ng bituka ang tsaa at malaking tulong sa pagtunaw ng pagkain at saka isa rin itong anti-oxidant. IV. Taglay din ng kape ang “tannin” isang anti-oxidant na mabisa sa kalusugan ng puso at atay. Ito ang pumupuksa sa cirrhosis at maging sa mga bad cholesterol. 98. Aling pangungusap ang angkop na pagpapahayag ng pagtanggap tungkol sa isyu ng tekstong binasa? A. May alinlangan na ang kape at tsaa ay epektibong panlaban sa mga sakit. B. Subalit maraming Pilipino and di umiinom ng kape at tsaa C. Marahil kailangan pa ang masusing pag-aaral dulot ng kape at tsaa sa ating katawan. D. Tunay na mabisang panlaban sa kanser ang kape dahil sa ito ay Cancer Fighting Polyphenosis 99. Anong himig o tono ang ipinahihiwatig sa talata I? A. Nagpapaliwanag sa pakinabang ng kape sa ating katawan. B. Nanghihikayat para sa malaking produksyon ng kape C. Nangangaral sa dapat na inuming babagay sa katawan. D. Naglalarawan ng tamang pangangalaga ng kape. 100. Ano ang tiyak na layon ng teksto? A. Ipatalastas na ang kape at tsaa ay mahusay sa maraming sakit. B. Ipabatid ang buting dulot ng kape at tsaa sa katawan ng tao. C. Ipaliwanag na ang kape at tsaaay sa murang halaga nabibili. D. Ipaalam na ayon sa pananaliksik ang kape at tsaa ay nakakagamot ng kanser.
  • 29.
    KEY TO CORRECTION Filipino 1.C 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. B 16. A 17. D 18. D 19. B 20. C 21. C 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. D 26. B 27. A 28. B 29. A 30. A 31. B 32. D 33. D 34. D 35. B 36. D 37. C 38. D 39. C 40. A 41. B 42. C 43. A 44. B 45. B 46. D 47. B 48. A 49. A 50. A 51. D 52. C 53. C 54. D 55. C 56. A 57. B 58. C 59. B 60. C 61. D 62. B 63. C 64. B 65. A 66. A 67. B 68. B 69. D 70. D 71. A 72. C 73. A 74. A 75. B 76. A 77. A 78. A 79. B 80. C 81. C 82. D 83. D 84. C 85. C 86. D 87. B 88. A 89. A 90. C 91. C 92. D 93. A 94. B 95. B 96. B 97. B 98. C 99. A 100. B
  • 30.
    SOCIAL SCIENCE 1. Whatvalues is being promoted by the Philippine Government when it launced the “Juan Time” project in 2011? A. Punctuality C. Palabra De Honor B. Austerity D. Close family ties 2. A UNESCO World heritage Site in Ilocos Norte. A. Bangui windmills C. Currimao Rock Formations B. Paoay church D. Pagudpod 3. An international convention where the Philippine can validate its claim to the Spartlys and other territories in the West Philippine Sea. A. United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (Unclos) B. Geneva Convention C. Rio de Janeiro Convention D. Kyoto Protocol 4. The author of “Flora de Filipinas” circa 1837, the botanical illustrations of plant specimens that grew into the Philippines herbarium. A. Gov. Polavieja C. Currimao Rock Formations B. Padre Emmanuel Gonzales D. Gov. Narciso Claveria 5. The Philippines was ruled by Spain through __________ until 1814. A. Cuba C. Viceroy of Mexico B. Puerto Rico D. Guam 6. This is a guarantee given by the Constitution to certain units of government where their approved annual appropriations shall be autotimatically an regularly released. A. General Appropriations Act B. Fiscal Autonomy C. Fiscal Discipline D. Internal Revenue Allocations 7. Which order of governments correctly applies during the American regime? A. Civil, Military, Commonwealth B. Military, Civil, Commonwealth C. Civil, Commonwealth, Military D. Military, Commonwealth, Civil 8. Which order of presidents correctly applies to Philippine history? I. Carlos P. Garcia II. Diosdado Macapagal III. Manuel Roxas IV. Ferdinand Marcos A. III, I, II, IV B. IV, II, I, III C. I, II, III, IV D. IV, III, II, I 9. In whose presidency was the famous MIRACLE RICE produced? A. Ferdinand Marcos C. Erap Estrada B. Fidel Ramos D. Sergio Osmeña 10. The municipal mayor is for today while _____ was during the Spanish period. A. Alcade mayor B. Cabeza de Barangay C. Gobernadorcillo D. Gobernador General 11. Respect for parents is shown in various ways by different groups of people in different places. A. Cultural relativism B. Ethical relativism C. Ethnocentrism D. Xenophobia 12. If you keep seeing your ways of doing things as the right way and everybody else’s as the wrong way, you tend to have the attitude called A. Cultural relativism B. Ethical relativism
  • 31.
    C. Ethnocentrism D.Xenophobia 13. After the Second World War, which emerged as new powers? A. People’s Republic of China and United States of America B. South Korea and Soviet Union C. Germany and Soviet Union D. United States of America and Soviet Union 14. Legislation granting special priveleges to senior citizens help to neutralize prejudice and discrimination toward a social category based on: A. Age B. Ethnicity C. Gender D. Race 15. Giving “abuloy” to a bereaved family, an act of hospitality and the “bayanihan spirit” prove which Filipino trait. A. Adaptability B. Religiosity C. Hard work and perseverance D. Pakikipag kapwa TAO 16. Which was the most important accomplishment of Aguinaldo’s dictatorial government? A. Separation of church and state B. Abolition of polo y servicio personal (forced labor) C. Treaty of Paris D. Proclamation of Philippine Independence on June 12, 1898 17. The employees of MET review center want to associate, pool their savings, and use the fund as soon as possible to grant loans to members and capitalized and operate the canteen of the said revie center. What type of cooperative will they organize and register? A. Service cooperative B. Producer’s cooperative C. Consumer cooperative D. Credit cooperative 18. The basic principle of taxation where the sources of funds or revenues should be sufficient to meet the needs of public expenditure. A. Basic adequacy C. Equity B. Equality D. Administrative feasibility 19. One of the types of positive economics that collects and presents data that can describe the phenomena. A. Descriptive economics C. Growth B. Economic theory D. Stability 20. The complex set of relationships with in the agricultural secotr and between tenure structure, production structure, and the structure of supporting services. A. Land reform B. Agrarian structure C. Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Law D. Agrarian reform measures 21. The earliest mode of economic life in human history according to Karl Marx. A. Enlightened self-interest B. Reciprocity C. Primitive communism D. Agricultural 22. The process in which members of one cultural group adopt the beliefs and behaviors of another group. A. Acculturation B. Enculturation C. Assimilation D. Cultural relativism 23. The adoption of the behavior patterns of the surrounding culture; “the socialization of children to the norms of their culture.” A. Acculturation B. Enculturation C. Assimilation D. Cultural relativism 24. What is the power of the State to take property for public use with “just compensation?” A. Taxation B. Eminent Domain
  • 32.
    C. Judicial reviewD. Police Power 25. It refers to the full and fair equivalent of the property taken from its owner by the expropriator, and the guage for computation is not the taker’s gain but the owner’s loss. In order for the payment to be “just,” it must be real, substantial, full, and ample; made within a reasonable time from the taking of the property. A. Property B. Public use C. Eminent domain D. Just compensation 26. This can be identified with public purpose, public interest and public convenience. A. Property C. Eminent Domain B. Public use D. Just compensation 27. The complete name of Dr. Jose Rizal. A. Jose Protacio Rizal Mercado y Alonzo Realonda B. Jose Protacio Rizal C. Jose Rizal y Protacio D. Jose Rizal y Mercado 28. Rizal’s famous sculptural work was ________________, a clay sculpture of a naked young woman with overflowing hair, standing on a skull while bearing a torch held high. A. La Spolarium B. Sa Aking mga Kababata C. Mi Ultimo Adios D. The triump of Science over Death 29. Northeast Luzon. The longest river in the country, originates from the mountains of Quirino and Nueva Vizcaya and drains the whole Cagayan Valley exiting through the town of Aparri and Cagayan. A. Agno river C. Pampanga river B. Abra river D. Rio Grande de Cagayan 30. _______________ anthropology, focuses on the study of human population using an evolutionary framework. A. Biological and Physical Anthropolgy B. Cultural Anthropology C. Human Anthropolgy D. Linguistic Anthorpology 31. He coined the term “survival of the fittest” A. Auguste Comte B. Karl Marx C. Herbert Spencer D. Arnold Toynbee 32. Who said this phrase: “There are no tyrants where there are no slaves.? A. Jose Rizal B. Apolinario Mabini C. Gregorio del Pilar D. Graciano Lopez Jaena 33. The 1987 Constitution created a body with the power to confirm major appointments of the president. What is this body called? A. Commission on Appointments B. Blue Ribbon Committee C. Civil Service Commission D. Electoral Tribunal “The President shall nominate and, with the consent of the Commission on Appointments, appoint the heads of the executive departments, ambassadors, other public ministers and consuls, or officers of the armed forces from the rank of colonel or naval captiain, and other officers whse appointments are vested in him in this constitution. He shall also appoint all other officers of the Government whose appointments are not otherwise provided for by law, and those whom he may be authorized by law to appoint. The congress may, by law, vest the appointment of other officers lower in rank in the President alone, in the courts, or in the heads of departments, agencies, commissions, or boards. 34. The legislative power shall be vested in the Congress of the Philippines which shall consist of ______________ except to the extent reserved to the people by the provision on initiative and referendum. A. Senate and House of Representatives B. Senate
  • 33.
    C. House ofRepresentatives D. Malacañang 35. The State recognizes the Filipino _________ as the foundation of the nation. Accordingly, it shall strengthen its solidarity and actively promote its total development. A. Family C. Church B. Barangay D. School 36. The “La liga Filipina” was A CONCRETE EVIDENCE OF Rizal’s desire for: __________ I. Unite the entire Philippine archipelago II. Fight violence and injustice III. Revolt against the Spaniards A. I and II C. I and IV B. II and III D. I and III 37. What is mean by SONA? A. Speech Of Noynoy Aquino B. Speech Of the Nation Address C. State of the Nation Address D. Status of the Nation Assembly 38. The people of this country shows courtesy by living their footwears on the stairs. A. Italians C. Americans B. Japanese D. Koreans 39. Pro-environment people believe that _____________________. A. Opening dumping sites will solve problems in waste disposal B. Burning plastic will ease the clogging of water canals. C. Classifying of garbage identifies biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste. D. Burning of garbage is the best approach 40. Violators of RA 9165 are positive with the use and trafficking of ____________ and sentenced to lethal injection before the lifting of death penalty for the heinous crimes. A. Antibiotics C. Marijuana B. Sleeping pills D. Shabu 41. The Philippine National Bank has used an icon for its advertisement. It is ____________. A. Pigeon B. Hawk C. Eagle D. Parrot 42. No country will experience economic progress unless it is part of a world organization. What international organization this saying is true? A. UNESCO B. NATO C. WHO D. GATT 43. ________________ refers to a group with common aspirations. A. Ethnic groups C. Aborgines B. Natives D. Norms 44. The way of the Arabian dignitaries to greet a friend. A. Hand grip C. Kiss B. Embrace D. Hand shake 45. It refers to the rightness and wrongness of our decisions. A. Morality C. Philosophy B. Theology D. Values Values exert major influence on the behavior of an individual and serve as broad guidelines in all situations. 46. Jose Rizal faced the firing squad in Bagumbayan de Luneta on December 30, 1896. This is a genuine manifestation of Rizal’s strong sense of ____________.
  • 34.
    A. Honesty C.Patriotism B. Fidelity D. Loyalty 47. The Philippine ten-year transition period before the granting of complete independence from the Americans. A. Commonwealth Government B. Third Republic C. Puppet Government D. Revolutionary 48. The first appointed head of the Department of Education during Commonwealth period. A. Claro M. Recto B. Sergio Osmena C. Rafael Palma D. Jose P. Laurel 49. The “father of social justice.” A. Claro M. Recto B. Sergio Osmena C. Manuel L. Quezon D. Jose P. Laurel 50. The leader of Sakdalista uprising A. Benigno Aquino C. Isabelo delos Reyes B. Benigno Ramos D. Isabelle Espiritu 51. The Rizal Day Celebration reminds us about heroes worth A. appreciating B. reading about C. emulating D. studying 52. SECTION 3, Article XIV states that “ALL educational institutions shall include the study of ___________________ as part of curriculum.” A. History B. Science and Technology C. Sports D. Constitution 53. Who has the power to declare the existence of the state of war? A. Senate President B. Chief Justice C. President D. Congress 54. “The states shall protect and promote the right of all citizens to equality education at all levels.” Which government program support of this? A. Exclusion of children with special needs from the formal system. B. Free elementary and secondary education. C. Deregulated tuition fee hike D. Re-introduction of the NEAT and NSAT. 55. The old name of EDSA during early part of American occupation A. 19 de Junio C. Highway 53 B. Highway 54 D. Highway 52 56. RA 9155 also known as “___________________.” A. Basic Education Act of 2001 B. Restructured Basic Education C. Education for All D. Bridge Program 57. RA 4670 also known as “__________________.” A. Board of Higher Education B. The Magna Carta for Public School Teachers C. State of National Emergency D. Calibrated Pre-emptive Response 58. How long can an elected President of the Philippines serve under the 1987 Constitution. A. two terms, 6 years each B. two terms, 4 years each C. one term for 6 years D. one term for 4 years 59. Historically, Why does the Philippines have claim over Sabah? A. The sultan of Sulu, who received the territory as a gift, has given the Philippine Government power to reclaim his territory. B. The Malays, the third wave of migrants to the country, own the territory. C. Sabah was formerly a part of the Philippine archiepelago D. The Philippine government bought it from the Sultan of Brunei.
  • 35.
    60. Which ofthe following describes the Battle of Manila Bay between American and Spanish naval forces? A. The Americans ships outnumbered those of the Spaniards. B. The Spaniards readily won the battle over the Americans. C. It was a mock naval battle between the Spaniards and the Americans. D. The Americans won the battle with great difficulty. 61. Who was the first president of the Republic of the Philippines when independence from America was granted on July 4, 1946?? A. Pres. Corazon Aquino C. Pres. Ferdinand Marcos B. Pres. Elipidio Quirino D. Pres. Manuel Roxas 62. According to him “…this Nation will be great again…!” A. Pres. Benigno Simeon Cuangco Aquino III B. Pres. Elpidio Quirino C. Pres. Ferdinand Marcos D. Pres. Manuel Roxas 63. He had promised sweeping economic changes, and he did make progress in land reform, opening new settlements outside crowded Luzon island. His death in an airplane crash in March 1957, was a serious blow to national morale. A. Pres. Ramon Magsaysay B. Pres. Elpidio Quirino C. Pres. Ferdinand Marcos D. Pres. Manuel Roxas 64. What is Republic Act 8049? A. Anti – hazing Law B. Anti sexual harassment Law C. Law Protecting Women and Children against all forms of abuses, and exploitation D. Expanded Senior Citizen Act of 2010. 65. What is Republic Act 9994? A. Anti-hazing Law B. Anti sexual harassment Law C. Law Protecting Women and Children against all forms of abuses, and exploitation D. Expanded Senior Citizen Act of 2010 66. Republic Act 9262 adheres with A. Anti-hazing Law B. Anti sexual harassment Law C. Law Protecting Women and Children against all forms of abuses, and exploitation D. Expanded Senior Citizen Act of 2010 67. Republic Act 7877 also known as A. Anti-hazing Law B. Anti sexual harassment Law C. Law Protecting Women and Children against all forms of abuses, and exploitation D. Expanded Senior Citizen Act of 2010 68. With peace education in mind, what is NOT included: A. Dialogue B. Meditation C. Cooperation D. Conflict 69. The first essay of Rizal A. El Armor Patrio C. Sa Aking Kababata B. A La Juventud Filipina D. Mi Ultimo Adios 70. The Republic Act that requires us to teach Rizal and other Filipino patriots to tertiary students. A. RA 7836 C. RA 1425 B. RA 7610 D. RA 9165
  • 36.
    71. What isthe Right of SUFFRAGE advocates? A. The right of the people to vote B. The right of the people to vote and be elected in public office C. The right of the people not to vote D. The right of the people for clean elections 72. Known as the “Islas de Pintados” by the Spaniards. A. Luzon C. Mindanao B. Visayas D. Isla Verde 73. Man’s conviction is his/her ________. A. Norms C. Values B. Belief D. Mores 74. Known as Ma-i by the early Chinese traders. A. Mindoro C. Cebu B. Aklan D. Manila 75. The longest revolt in Philippine History A. Dahogoy revolt B. Diego Silang revolt C. Gabriela Silang revolt D. Palaris revolt 76. What was our government under the 1935 Constitution. A. Revolutionary B. Monarchy C. Commonwealth D. Military 77. What is meant by the worker’s right to security of tenure? I. To continue in their jobs. II. Not to be contractual after six months III. May not be dismissed unless there is just or valid cause provide by law A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. I and III 78. The process by which a person learns the requirements of the culture by which he or she is surrounded, and acquires values and behaviours that are appropriate or necessary in that culture. A. Assimilation B. Enculturation C. Cultural relativism D. Acculturation 79. The exchange of cultural features that results when groups of individuals having different cultures come into continuous first hand contact; the original cultural patterns of either or both groups may be altered, but the groups remain distinct. A. Assimilation B. Enculturation C. Cultural relativism D. Acculturation 80. The process whereby a minority group gradually adapts to the customs and attitudes of the prevailing culture and customs. A. Assimilation B. Enculturation C. Cultural relativism D. Acculturation 81. The principle that an individual human’s beliefs and activities should be understood in terms of his or her own culture. A. Assimilation B. Enculturation C. Cultural relativism D. Acculturation 82. In economics, _________ is a rise in the general level of prices of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. A. Inflation B. mercantilism C. depression D. free trade
  • 37.
    83. What eventin history followed when the Katipunan movement was discovered? A. Philippine revolution/Cry of Pugad Lawin B. Treaty of Paris 1898 C. Execution of Rizal D. Capture of Aguinaldo 84. Are traditional courtship songs in the Mexican-Spanish tradition based on the habanera rhythm A. Harana B. Kundiman C. Jazz D. Modern 85. The distinct components of music for both Japanese traditional and modern music. A. Carnatic and Hindustani music B. Ling Lun C. Koumintang D. Ongaku and gaku 86. The classical music of India includes the following varieties. A. Carnatic and Hindustani music B. Ling Lun C. Koumintang D. Ongaku and gaku 87. The legendary founder of music of China. A. Lin Lun B. Koumintang C. Shih huang Ti D. Zhou 88. In 1402, he commanded a large Chinese fleet along the coast towns of the Philippine Islands? A. Cheng-Ho B. Cheng C. Ho D. Me Chiang 89. The supreme daily of the ancient Filipinos. A. Maykapal C. Babaylan B. Bathala D. Katalona 90. He introduced the Islamic religion in the Philippines. A. Mudum B. Baginda C. Amaya D. Katalona 91. Known as “Province de Comintang” during the Spanish period. A. Bataan C. Palawan B. Cavite D. Batangas 92. The Spanish Governor-General who ordered the deportation of Jose Rizal to Dapitan, Zamboanga Del Norte, Mindanao. A. Gov. Gen. Blanco C. Gov. Gen. Despujol B. Gov. Gen. Claveria D. Gov. Gen. Polavieja 93. The first word of the 1987 Philippine Constitution. A. You C. I B. We D. If 94. The first commercial bank in the Philippines and the Far East. A. Allied Bank C. BDO B. China Bank D. Banco Islas de Filipinas 95. The schools of the Pre-Spanish children in Panay Island. A. Bothoan C. Bangka B. Bototan D. Bandiwa 96. The last Filipino General who surrendered to the American during Filipino-American War. A. Simeon Ola C. Miguel Malvar B. Macario Sakay D. Gregorio Del Pilar 97. He named the Philippines as “Islas de San Lazaro” A. Miguel Lopez de Legazpi C. Lapu-lapu
  • 38.
    B. Ferdinand MagellanD. Francisco Dagohoy 98. The second group of people who migrated by sea to the Philippines. A. Indonesians C. Vietnamese B. Malaysians D. Chinese 99. The earliest form of writing in the Philippines. A. Alibata C. Heiroglypics B. Cuneiform D. Baybay 100. He designed the Rizal Monument. A. Deodato Arellano B. Abad Santos C. David Nepomuceno D. Richard Kissling
  • 39.
    KEY TO CORRECTION SocialScience 1. A 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. C 11. A 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. D 16. D 17. D 18. A 19. A 20. B 21. C 22. A 23. B 24. B 25. D 26. B 27. A 28. D 29. D 30. A 31. C 32. A 33. A 34. A 35. A 36. A 37. C 38. B 39. C 40. D 41. C 42. D 43. A 44. B 45. D 46. C 47. A 48. B 49. C 50. B 51. C 52. D 53. D 54. B 55. B 56. A 57. B 58. C 59. A 60. A 61. D 62. C 63. A 64. A 65. D 66. C 67. B 68. D 69. A 70. C 71. B 72. B 73. B 74. A 75. A 76. C 77. C 78. B 79. D 80. A 81. C 82. A 83. A 84. A 85. D 86. A 87. A 88. A 89. B 90. A 91. D 92. C 93. B 94. D 95. A 96. A 97. B 98. A 99. A 100. D
  • 40.
    NATURAL SCIENCE 1. Plantslose water through transpiration, which process is responsible for this? A. diffusion B. capillarity C. surface tension D. osmosis 2. Which of the following is produced during photosynthesis? A. oxygen and inorganic compound B. carbon dioxide and water C. oxygen and water D. oxygen and organic compound 3. What will be formed when radium isotope, with 88 protons and 138 neutrons undergoes alpha decay? A. radon atom (Rn222) with 86 protons B. francium atom (Fr222) with 87 protons C. actinium atom (Ac222) with 89 protons D. thorium atom (Th222) with 90 protons 4. Strontium-90 has a half life of 28 years. When atmospheric concentration os strontium-90 was measured, it was found it to be 1/8 the amount that was measured many years ago. How many years have passed since their first measurement? A. 12 years C. 84 years B. 28 years D. 56 years 5. How are ions formed? A. by gaining or losing protons B. by gaining or losing electrons C. by sharing protons D. by sharing electrons 6. Which of the following waves of visible light has the highest frequency? A. violet B. green C. indigo D. blue 7. Where is the earth located during a lunar eclipse? A. behind the moon B. between the sun and the moon C. at a point 180 degrees from North D. behind the sun 8. Which of the following parts can only be seen in plant cell? A. mitochondria B. a nucleus C. lysosomes D. a cell wall 9. How should conclusions be stated? A. a form that can be evaluated by others B. that it is completely correct, with no mistakes C. that it works with only 1 set of data D. that no one can refute the conclusion 10. A block of wood is at rest on top of a table. Which of the following is correct? A. The block of wood has no inertia. B. There is no force acting on the block. C. The inertia of the book is equal to the inertia of the table. D. The block of wood is in equilibrium. 11. What do you call that property of a moving object to continue moving in a straight line unless acted on by outside force? A. acceleration B. velocity C. inertia D. speed
  • 41.
    12. A carinitially at rest accelerates in a straight line at 6 m/s². What will be its speed after 3 seconds? A. 18 m/s B. 0 m/s C. 9 m/s D. 2 m/s 13. What do we determine when we specify both the magnitude and the direction of an object? A. mass B. acceleration C. velocity D. weight 14. The moon’s gravity is 1/6 of the earth’s gravity. What will be the weight of the bowling ball on earth? A. 1/6 that of its weight on the moon B. it varies C. 6 times that of its weight on moon D. equal that of its weight on moon 15. A certain element has an atomic numbe of 92 and an atomic mass number of 238. Which is true of this element? A. It has 92 protons, 146 neutrons, and 92 electrons B. It has 92 protons, 238 neutrons, and 146 electrons C. It has 146 protons, 92 neutrons, and 92 electrons D. It has 92 protons, 146 neutrons, and 238 electrons 16. What is formed when elements are chemicaly combined? A. alloys C. mixtures B. nuclei D. compounds 17. What is the formula for determining density of an object? A. mass plus volume C. volume divided by mass B. mass divided by volume D. mass times volume 18. Which of the following is true for buoyant force? A. It’s the force of gravity cting on a submerged object B. It depends on the density of the submerged object C. It is the net upward force of the surrounding liquid acting on a submerged object D. it is the difference between a submerged object’s weight and the weight of an equal mass of water 19. A block of wood floats in water. What can be said of its buoyant force? A. Its buoyant force is greater than the weight of the wood B. Its buoyant frce is equal to the weight of the wood C. Its buoyant frce is less than the weight of the wood D. Cannot be determined because the block is not completely submerged 20. An object with a mass of 2 kg displaces 1000 ml of water. Which of the following is true? A. The weight of this object is 20 N. B. The weight of this object is 5 N. C. The buoyant force on this object is 500 N. D. The buoyant force on this object is 30 N. 21. An object with a mass of 1.5 kg displaces 1 kg of water. Which of the following is true? A. The buoyant force of this object is 10 N. B. The buoyant force of this object is 15 N. C. the buoyant force of this object is 25 N. D. The density of the object is less than that of the water. 22. Water has a higher specific heat than iron. What does this mean?
  • 42.
    A. water ishotter than iron B. water heats more rapidly than iron C. water is more dense than iron D. water heats more slowly than iron 23. Which of the following is responsible for heat transfer by radiation? A. atmospheric currents B. collision of particles C. electromagnetic waves D. molecular and electronic collision 24. Which of the following is true when an object is positively charged? A. It has a deficiency of neutrons C. It has a deficiency of electrons B. It has an excess of neutrons D It has a deficiency of protons 25. What do you call the charges in an electrical circuit flowng in the same direction? A. constant current C. direct current B. an alternating current D. basic current 26. If the current in a wire is 5 amperes, how much charge will flow through it in 5 seconds? A. 10 coulombs C. 2.5 coulombs B. 25 coulombs D. 2 coulombs 27. If the voltage of 100 volts produces a current of 5 amperes in an electrical device, what is the resistance? A. 95 ohms. C. 105 ohms. B. 20 ohms. D. 500 ohms. 28. If three light bulbs of different wattage are connected in series to a battery, which of the following is true? A. the resistance in each light bulb will be the same B. the current in each light bulb will be the same C. the light utput of each bulb will be the same D. the power consumed by the light will be the same 29. What is true when material is transparent? A. light can pass freely through in a straight line B. it reflects light C. it cannot emit any light D. it absorbs light and redistributes the thermal energy 30. What is the weight of an object whose mass is 17.6 g? A. 0.176 N C. 176 N B. 1.76 N D. 17.6 N 31. Using the table below, what is the independent variable? Food use Temperature Room Lighting Exposure Amount of moisture Result White bread 35 degrees Dimly lighted Air High Plenty of molds White bread 35 degrees Dimly lighted Air Low Tiny spots of mold A. type of bread C. exposure time B. temperature D. amount of moist growth 32. What conclusion ca be formulated/stated from the above experiment?
  • 43.
    A. Molds growon bread. B. Molds’ growth is dependent on temperature. C. Molds grow best in moist places. D. Molds like breads. 33. What absorbs a portion of the radiation from the sun, preventing it from reaching the earth’s surface? A. chlorofluorocarbon B. hydrofluorocarbon C. carbon dioxide D. ozone layer 34. Which of the following is true about sub-atomic particles, mass number and atomic number? A. The number of protons and electron is equal to the mass number. B. Atomic number is equal to the number of protons. C. Mass number is equal to the number of neutron and electron. D. Mass number and atomic number are equal. 35. What do you call atoms of the same elements having the same atomic number but have different mass number due to differences in their number of neutrons? A. isotopes C. isomers B. inert gases D. ion 36. Given the following electron configuration, determine the group umber nd period number of element. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s² A. period 4, group 2 C. period 7, group 20 B. period 2, group 5 D. period 6, group 2 37. A chemical bond is an attractive force that holds atoms together. What type of chemical bond is referred to as electrovalent or electrostatic attraction between positive and negative ions? A. metallic bond C. ionic bond B. abnormal bond D. covalent bond 38. Which of the following statement is true? A. orbitals make up a subshell; subshells make up a shell B. shells make up an orbital; orbitals make up a subshell C. subshells make up a shell; shells make up an orbital D. shells make up subshell; shells make up orbital 39. If 100g of reactants are used up in a reaction, what will be the mass of the products? A. 100 C. 25 B. 45 D. 50 40. Which of the following is not a chemical reaction? A. ripening of fruit C. freezing of water B. rusting of metal D. burning of wood 41. What happens to the volume of a confined gas if its pressure is doubled and its temperature remains constant? A. decrease C. increase B. will remain the same D. impossible to determine 42. What differentiates a eukaryotic cell from a prokaryotic cell? A. presence of nucleus C. preence of chromosomes B. presence of cell membrane D. none of the above 43. What best describes a cold blooded animal?
  • 44.
    A. They thrivein cold environment B. Their body fluid temperature adapts to the environment C. They are first order consumers D. Their blood is cold 44. Organisms may reproduce sexually, asexually, or both sexually and asexually. Which of the following is an example of sexual reproduction? A. vegetative reproduction C. fission B. union of gametes D. budding 45. During photosynthesis, plants produce food in the form of glucose, kown as the end product of photosynthesis. In what form do plants and other autotrophic organisms store food? A. Root Crops C. Rhizome B. Fruits D. Starch 46. Genes are known as the units of heredity because they carry the hereditary information from generation to generation. What organic compound in the genes does this work? A. Carbohydrates C. Proteins B. Lipids D. Nucleic Acid 47. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the levels of organization in human body? A. cells>tissues>organs>system B. organs>tissue>system>cells C. system>ogans>tissue>cells D. None of the above 48. The following are insects except one. Which of the following is not an insect? A. mosquito C. spider B. firefly D. ant 49. Which of the following is true of inertia? A. It is the tendency of an object at rest to remain at rest. B. It is the tendency of an obect in otion to gain speed. C. It is the tendency of the movig object to change its direction. D. It is the tendency of matter to disintegrate. 50. Which is the hottest star? A. Red C. Yellow B. Blue D. White 51. Which of the following statements explains Boyle’s Law? A. The pressure exerted by a certain amount of gas is directly proportional to the volume of that gas as long as the temperature remains constant. B. The volume of a certain amount of gas is directly proportional to the temperature of that gas in any situation. C. The pressure exerted by a cetain amount of gas is inversely proportional to the volume of that gas as long as the temperature remains constant D. The volume of a certain amount of gas is dretly proportional to the temperature of that gas as long as the pressure remains constant. 52. Which of the following statement explains Charles Law? A. The pressure exerted by a certain amount of gas is inversely propoertional the volume of that gas as long as the temperature remains constant.
  • 45.
    B. The volumeof a certain amount of gas is directly proportional to the temperature of that gas as long as the pressure remains constant. C. The volume of a certain amount of gas is directly proportional to the temperature of that gas in any situation. D. The volume of a certain amount of gas is inversely proportional to the temperature of that gas as long as the pressure remains constant. 53. Which of the following explains the ideal gas law? A. The current state of an ideals gas depends upon the volume, pressure, and temperature of that gas. B. The temperature of an ideal gas has no effect on the state of that gas. C. The volume of a certain gas is inversely proportional to the temperature of that gas as long as the pressure remains constant. D. The pressure exerted by a certain amount of gas is directly proportional to the volume of that gas as long as the temperature remains constant. 54. Which of the following are the three basic components of an atom? A. protons, neutrons, ions B. protons, neutrons, electrons C. protons, electrons, ions D. neutrons, electrons, ions 55. 14 6C and 12 6 C are examples of carbon. A. ions C. valences B. molecule D. isotopes 56. Why does greenhouse effect result to warmer temperature near the surface of the earth? A. Ozone traps ultraviolet radiation. B. Carbon dioxide traps infrared radiation C. Clouds traps infrared radiation D. Soil absorbs incoming radiation 57. Which two systems of yours when you move your leg? A. Immune and Excretory B. Nervous and Muscular C. Digestive and respiratory D. Circulatory and Integumentary 58. Barometer – Air pressure: ________ - ________ A. Decibel – Sound B. Kilometer – Length C. Thermometer – Temperature D. Odometer – Smell 59. ______ - Cancer: Cardiologist - _________ A. Geologist – Earth B. Cardiologist – Urethra C. Oncologists – Heart D. Leukemia – Lymph Nodes 60. Which of the following is the function of the chloroplast? A. Mitosis and Meiosis B. Cellular respiration C. Conversion of the light energy to chemical energy D. Protein synthesis 61. It is observed that most leaves have fewer stomata on the upper surface than on the lower surface. A greater number of stomata on the upper surface would result in _____. A. closing and opening of stomata on the lower surface B. excessive loss of water C. faster rate of photosynthesis D. reduced transpiration
  • 46.
    62. A studentplaced some sliced of potato in a glass of drinking water. After a while she took a few slices and found the slices very turgid. What can you infer from this observation? A. The slices became smaller B. The potato slices did not change in shape C. Water was absorbed by the potato D. Water moved out of the tissues of potato 63. Which of the following can contribute to the “greenhouse effect”? A. Land plants using carbon dioxide B. Depletion of minerals in soil by over farming C. Destruction of forest D. Capturing radiant energy using solar cells 64. In taxanomy, which classification is arranged from largest related groups to the smallest? A. Species, genus, order, family, class, phylum, kingdom B. Species, order, genus, family, class, phylum, kingdom C. Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Order, Family, Genus, Species D. Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species 65. Which of these is the correct representation of the hierarchical organization of life from least to most complex? A. hydrogen, water, heart muscle cell, nucleus, heart muscle tissues, heart, human B. hydrogen, water, nucleus, heart muscle cell, heart muscle tissues, heart, human C. hydrogen, water, nucleus, heart muscle cell, heart, heart muscle tissue, human D. water, hydrogen, nucleus, heart muscle cell, heart muscle tissue, heart, human 66. Oxygen has an atomic number of 8. Therefore, it must have A. 8 protons B. 8 electrons C. 6 neturons D. Only A and B are correct 67. The mass number of an element can be easily approximated by adding together the number of A. protons and neutrons B. electrons orbitals in each energy level C. protons and electrons D. neutrons and electrons 68. A mango leaf is at which level in the hierarchial organization of life? A. Tissue B. organ C. organelle D. population 69. Which of the following includes all the others? A. ecosystem B. community C. individual D. population 70. In a natural community, the primary consumers are A. herbivores B. carnivores C. scavenger D. decomposers 71. The following activities change the composition of the substance EXCEPT. A. Corrosion of metal B. Boiling of water C. Decaying of leaves D. Curdling of milk 72. Which of the following does not show chemical change?
  • 47.
    A. Formation ofprecipitates B. Evolution of gas C. Change in temperature D. Change in phase 73. Which of the following is non – biodegradable? A. plastic straw B. animal bones C. tea leaves D. dried plants 74. A stone is dropped in a graduated cylinder previously filled with water. This will cause the rising of the level of water in the graduated cylinder. Why does the level of water rise? A. The stone has more mass than water B. The water is less dense than stone C. The stone is heavy D. The stone takes the place occupied by water 75. Which of the following is the manifestation of life? A. reproduction C. responsiveness B. genetic control D. all of the above 76. Why is it easier to stay afloat when on a beach that when in a swimming pool? A. Freshwater is denser than sea water B. Sea water is denser than the freshwater C. Freshwater provides a greater buoyant force on you D. Beach has a bigger area than a swimming pool 77. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the most penetrating power? A. x – rays B. radio waves C. gamma rays D. ultraviolet rays 78. Mother needs a material to be used as a handle of a cooking utensils which of the following materials should she use? A. Aluminum B. Wood C. Iron D. Copper 79. Which of the following characteristics is true both in pure substances and mixture? A. It has a sharp boiling point B. It has definite composition C. It consists of a single phase D. Its components lose their individual properties 80. Which of the following results are is not due to depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer? A. Higher rates of skin cancer B. Higher rates of lung cancer C. Greater incidence of premature skin aging D. Enhanced incidence of severe sunburns 81. Which of the following best describes the process of osmosis? A. It is a is the physical process by which the cytoplasm of a cell divides to split the two cells. B. It is a is the physical process by which a cell divides itself into four completely new cells. C. It is a is the physical process by which a cell divides itself into two completely new, but identical cells. D. It is a is the physical process by which fluid moves through a membrane. 82. Which of the following statements describes the process of metabolism? A. It is process by which an organism produces and uses energy.
  • 48.
    B. It isprocess by which fluid moves through membrane. C. It is process by which a cell duplicates itself. D. It is process by which a cell defends the organism from outside attackers. 83. Which of the following is an alternative to ozone depleting substances? A. Hydroflourocarbons B. Chloroflorocarbons C. Carbon Tetrachloride D. Methyl bromide 84. Why is predation an important process in maintaining balance in ecosystem? A. it kills all harmful organsims B. it keeps the size of the population C. it prevents the small organisms from wandering D. it makes the food chain complete 85. A scientific study showed that the depth at which algae were present in a lake varied in different times. During sunny days, the algae were found as much as 6 meters below the surface of the water. However, on cloudy days but were only 1 meter below the surface. Which hypothesis best explains these observations? A. Wind currents affect the growth of algae B. Precipitation affects growth of algae. C. Nitrogen concentration affects the growth of algae. D. Light intensity affects growth of algae. 86. Which of the following colors have the longest wavelength? A. Red B. Green C. Violet D. Orange 87. Acid rain occurs when A. carbon dioxide combines with water in the atmosphere. B. phosphorus-rich water in lakes evaporates to form phosphoric acid C. sulfur released in burning fossil fuels combines with water in the atmosphere D. excess hydrogen is released into the atmosphere where ozone is formed. 88. A certain volcano is made up of alternating layer of lava and fragmental materials. Due to this its eruption style may vary from a relatively quiet eruption to a more explosive type. What is this kind of volcano? A. cinder B. composite C. shield D. none of these 89. Which of the following differentiates intensity and magnitude? A. Intensity measures strength while magnitude measures the energy of an earthquake. B. Intensity determines the focus of an earthquake while magnitude determines its epicenter C. There is no difference between an earthquake’s intensity and magnitude. D. Both a and b are correct. 90. The following are parts of the circulatory system EXCEPT: A. lungs B. blood C. heart D. blood vessel
  • 49.
    91. Which ofthe following parts of the cell is present only among plants? A. cell membranes B. nucleus C. chloroplast D. mitochondrion 92. Cations are generated in the process of A. Electron gain B. Electron lost C. Hybridization D. Delocalization 93. Which of the following shows work is done when blowing a balloon? A. The balloon has potential energy which is charged to kinetic energy. B. The balloon is filled with air which has weight and occupied space C. The balloon moves outward as the force is exerted on it. D. The force of gravity on the balloon increases. 94. Water boils at a lower temperature on a mountain than on the sea level. Why is this so? A. The temperature of the air rises as the height increases B. The atmospheric pressure is lower as the height increases C. The temperature of the air falls as the height increases D. The atmospheric pressure is higher as the height increases. 95. When is the sex of the child determined? A. During ovulation period of a woman B. When the embryo is implanted in the uterus C. After the first few division of the zygote D. At the moment of fertilization 96. Which of the following statements is not true? A. Atoms of isotopes of an element have different numbers of protons B. The nucleus of an atom contains the protons and the neutrons C. The nucleus of an atom is positively charge D. Atoms are mostly empty spaces. 97. Which type of volcano is the least explosive? A. Shield volcano B. Composite C. Cinder D. Stratovolcano 98. Which of the following is an anthropod? A. snail C. starfish B. mosquito D. jellyfish 99. Which of the following is used in classifying rocks into three main types? A. formation C. texture B. color D. size 100. Is CO2 matter? A. No, because it is gas C. Yes, because molecules are matter B. Not sure, because it can’t be seen D. Both A and B
  • 50.
    KEY TO CORRECTION NaturalScience 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. A 16. D 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. D 23. C 24. C 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. A 31. D 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. A 36. A 37. C 38. A 39. A 40. C 41. A 42. A 43. B 44. C 45. D 46. D 47. A 48. C 49. A 50. B 51. C 52. B 53. A 54. B 55. D 56. B 57. B 58. C 59. C 60. C 61. B 62. C 63. C 64. D 65. B 66. D 67. A 68. B 69. A 70. A 71. B 72. D 73. A 74. D 75. D 76. B 77. C 78. B 79. C 80. B 81. D 82. A 83. A 84. B 85. D 86. A 87. C 88. B 89. A 90. A 91. C 92. B 93. C 94. B 95. D 96. A 97. A 98. B 99. A 100. C
  • 51.
    CHILD AND ADOLESCENTDEVELOPMENT 1. According to Sigmund Freud, there is a stage wherein young boys experience a strong rivalry with Father for their mother’s affection. This period is known as _________. A. Oedipus Complex B. Elektra Complex C. Achilles Syndrome D. Cassandra Syndrome 2. Catherine is a resilient child with superior intelligence. She grew up in a very poor environment. With this condition, the probable outcome would be A. No change in IQ because the environment deprivation has nothing to do with intelligence B. Slight change in IQ although he can overcome frustration and obstacle C. Mental retardation since he is culturally dprived. D. Great change in IQ because he is culturally deprived 3. Trishia a 1 and half year old girl, baby talks and commonly mispronounces words. This is regarded as cute by her parents and relatives. They are not aware that this attitude towards Trishia’s mispronounciation might create a speech hazard on the part of Trishia. If parent hear their children mispronounce words, they must: A. correct their mistakes B. ask the child to rephrase the statement C. ignore the statement until the child says it correctly on his own. D. respond to the content of the statement and ignore the error. 4. The following is TRUE in the development of understanding in early childhood, EXCEPT A. abilities to reason and too see relationship. B. sensory experiences. C. ability to explore their environment. D. ability to ask questions. 5. The following concept of development is true EXCEPT: A. Development is a continuous process. B. The sequence of development is the same for all children C. Maturation has nothing to do with development D. Certain reflexes present at birth anticipate voluntary movement 6. Which of the following is an expression of child’s interest in his body? A. looking at themselves in the mirror. B. looking at the picture of adult men and women C. commenting on various parts of the body and ask questions about them. D. comparing themselves with others. 7. Which statement should be omitted when we talk about adolescence? A. It begins with the onset of puberty B. It is a time where the young person is longer a child but is not yet an adult C. It ends when puberty is complete D. It is a time of preoccupation with one’s own thought. 8. Following Piaget’s Theory of Cognitive Development, Ms. Ramirez provides her students varied activities that enable them to classify objects according to more than one variable, rank order items in logical series and understand that amount of mass or liquid do not change because their shape does. These developments can be expected to be performed by A. Preschoolers C. High school students B. College students D. Elementary school children 9. This theorist proposed that human activity is based on association and response. A. Sigmund Freud C. BF Skinner B. Ivan Pavlov D. Edward Thorndike
  • 52.
    10. If wewant children to treat each other with courtesy and dignity, then we must do the same to them. If we yell at children, they will soon be shouting at each other. These behaviors are likely to be demonstrated by children because A. They are imitative B. They learn best by observing a model C. They are helpless and entirely dependent on adults D. They are afraid of other teachers if they fail to follow 11. Motor development is manifested by a particular child who __________. A. knows how to control his emotions because he could not ride the motorcycle. B. recognizes the different sizes of toys given to him. C. has playmates within the neighborhood and is popular among kids D. learns how to walk, run, steer and jump 12. This is a phenomenon in Psychology wherein students perform better than other students simply because they were expected to do so A. Rosenthal or Pygmalion B. John Henry effect C. Hawthrone effect D. Withitness 13. Teacher Lawrence scolded a pupil named Pewee for not listening attentively. As a result, the whole class paid attention to Teacher Lawrence. What explains the phenomenon? A. Placebo effect B. Halo effect C. Ripple effect D. John Henry effect 14. This view of education promotes that education started from primitive people particularly those of the tribe. A. Evolutionist B. Creationist C. Culturalist D. Progressivist 15. Tricia, a Third Year student is popular not only in her classroom but also in the entire campus. She is always invited to soirees and pygama parties. Students are drawn to her because of her seemingly friendly attitude. This intelligence according to Gardner is known as _____________. A. Popularity B. Congenial C. Interpersonal D. Intrapersonal 16. Krathwohl is famous for his Taxonomy of Affective Domain, while Anita Harrow is known for his _______ domain. A. Affective C. Cognitive B. Psychomotor D. Metacognition 17. The following negates facilitating learning EXCEPT: A. focus on the right side of the brain B. involve both sides of the brain C. focus on cognitive objectives all the time D. focus on the left side of the brain 18. Using Bloom’s Taxanomy, the highest among the following is. A. Critical comprehension B. Critical evaluation C. Integration D. Literal comprehension
  • 53.
    19. Among thefollowing educators, who proposed the placement of children in a “prepared environment”? A. Thorndike B. Montessori C. Kilpatrick D. Froebel 20. According to Erickson, a major conflict in the first year of life is that between A. trust versus mistrust B. initiative versus gulit C. autonomy versus shame and doubt D. relatedness vs. isolation 21. Identification with peer groups A. decreases during adolescence B. gives an adolescent a measure of security and a sense of identity C. reduces self-esteem and self-worth D. seems to always lead to incredibly destrictive behaviors. 22. Which among the following drugs is commonly used for children with ADHD? A. Haldol B. Thorazine C. Ritalin D. Valium 23. What is the main reason why children with ADHD have limited learning skills? A. are mildly retarded. B. act on impulse and cannot concentrate. C. must take stimulants which shorthen attention span. D. are given sedatives which make them listless. 24. Gary a 3 yo boy lacks the ability to control his bowel. He could be suffering from? A. enuresis. B. analism. C. encopresis. D. anorexia nervosa 25. What is passive euthanasia? A. a person’s body is frozen upon death. B. drugs are administered to hasten death. C. body temperature is lowered to delay death. D. death is allowed but not caused. 26. Many concerned parents commonly make the mistake of A. deliberately creating high levels of stress for their child. B. unintentionally creating high levels of stress for their child. C. attempting to protect their children from all stress. D. unintentionally rewarding their children for creating stress. 27. Who among the following advocated that we face a specific psychosocial dilemma at each stage of life? A. James Coleman B. Lawrence Kohlberg C. Erik Erickson D. Sigmund Freud 28. Why are life stages important? A. they represent the outcome of major biological changes. B. they represent a set of developmental tasks to be mastered. C. they provide insight into values and aspirations of particular cultures. D. their beginning and end are perfectly correlated with chronological age.
  • 54.
    29. Lawrence Kohlbergis known for his research in the area of _________ development. A. cognitive C. moral B. physical D. motor 30. Which is True about peer groups? A. decreases during adolescence. B. Gives an adolescent a measure of security and sense of identity. C. reduces self-esteem and self worth. D. seems to always lead to incredibly destructive behaviors. 31. Stuttering is commonly caused by A. side effect of authoritarian parenting. B. result of fixation caused by conflicts during toilet trainings. C. psychological consequence of permissive parenting. D. Problem with a physical origin. 32. When a person fails to develop a consistent identity, this usually results to A. isolation. B. inferiority C. role confusion. D. stagnation. 33. According to Kubler-Ross, when faced with death, the most common order of emotional reactions is A. anger, depression, bargaining, denial, acceptance. B. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance. C. anger, depression, denial, barganing, acceptance. D. depression, anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance. 34. Paul a 4 yo boy have a problem of occasional bedwetting. We can advise his parents to A. limit the amount of water he drinks in the evening. B. punish him for “wet” nights. C. wake him up during the night to use the toilet. D. Consider medication or psychotherapy. 35. Which among the following describes grief? A. the period of emotional adjustment that follows the death of a loved one. B. the intense emotional state that follows the death of a lover, friend, or relative. C. the period during which a person seems dazed or numb and shows little emotion. D. demoralization and discouragement. 36. How can parents foster initiative and independence in children? A. restricting a child’s freedom to play, to use imagination, and to choose activities. B. identity vs. role confusion C. encouragement from parents when a childs plans and carries out a task. D. mastering psychomotor skills. 37. Generativity according to Erik Erickson is A. concern for welfare of others and society as a whole. B. the desire to have children and thereby ensure survival of the species. C. the ability to establish adequate social and financial security. D. active acceptance of aging and the social changes it brings. 38. Stored knowledge like vocabulary A. reach their peak a few years after high school or college. B. are examples of fossilized intelligence. C. are examples of fluid intelligence. D. are examples of crystallized intelligence.
  • 55.
    39. Which stageconsider teachers, peers, and adults outside home important in shaping attitudes toward oneself. A. trust vs. mistrust C. industry vs. inferiority B. initiative vs. guilt D. integrity vs. despair 40. Which of the following is the common life stages among Trisha, Patty and Alma? A. infancy C. later adulthood B. late adolescence D. old age 41. Menopause: Aging A. integrity is to autonomy. B. birth is to death. C. activity is to ageism. D. puberty is to adolescence. 42. When a child manifests mutism, self-destructive behavior, and echolalia, the child might be showing the symptoms of A. childhood autism C. ADHD B. anorexia nervosa D. dyslexia 43. According to Kohlberg, conforming to the expectations of others or to socially accepted rules and values describes a person at the ___________ level of morality. A. obedience B. concrete C. post conventional D. conventional 44. Roel, a 5 yo boy lacks bladder control. He might be suffering from A. colitis. C. enuresis. B. anorexia. D. encopresis. 45. When a person’s moral choices are determined by the direct consequences of actions, he is most like in a stage of A. pre-conventional B. conventional C. concrete D. post conventional 46. Puberty is commonly considered A. the same as adolescence. B. occurs after for boys than for girls. C. is the period of growth and hormonal changes that lead to sexual maturity. D. involves a growth spurt 1-2 years during which boys are taller than girls 47. Which is NOT true about autism? A. violent temper tantrums and repetitive actions. B. sensory blocking and echolalia C. language ang learning deficiencies D. encopresis and overeating 48. Jenny is encourage by her parents to ask questions, and allows her to choose activities she will find enjoyable and worthwhile. If this will continue, Erickson believes that Jenny will achieve A. industry. C. generativity. B. identity. D. initiative. 49. James, a 41 yo man was diagnosed with stage 4 cancer of the lungs, his most likely reaction would be A. anger. C. bargaining. B. denial. D. depression.
  • 56.
    50. According toKohlberg the correct order of Moral Development is A. preconventional, conventional, post conventional B. conditional, unconditional, and postconditional C. self interested, social, and personal D. premoral, conventional and postethical 51. When a girl matures early she is more likely A. to engage in earlier sexual relations. B. to be socially ostracized in middle and high school. C. to withdraw and become socially isolated. D. to become tall and thin. 52. Why is hyperactivity is a serious childhood problem? A. It is associated with severe brain damage and retardation. B. it cannot be treated. C. it interferes with success in school and learning in general. D. hyperactive children tend to be self-destructive and withdrawn. 53. Emmanuel who is just starting school, tries to learn good habits and to do well. What is his stage of development according to Erickson? A. initiative vs. guilt. B. industry vs. inferiority. C. generativity vs. stagnation. D. integrity vs. despair. 54. Life stages are important according to Erickson because A. each involves a crisis or dilemma. B. each signals a new stage of cognitive development. C. each is an expression of biological programming. D. their failure to appear is evidence of psychopathology. 55. Elementary age children belong to the stage of A. initiative vs. independence B. industry vs. inferiority C. education vs. indolence D. autonomy vs. conformity 56. What is the best thing to do when somebody you know is dying? A. avoid disturbing that person by not mentioning death. B. allow that person to talk about death with you. C. tell that person about the stages of dying. D. keep your visits short and infrequent in order to avoid tiring that person. 57. Some children go through a period of intense appetite when they eat or chew on all sorts of inedible substances. This is called A. pica. C. encopresis. B. enuresis. D. anorexia. 58. Elizabeth Kubler-Ross is known for her research in the area of A. eating disorder. B. adolescent behavior. C. copping with stress. D. death and dying. 59. Mrs. Grace Polinatan was not accepted by a certain company because of her age. This discrimination based on age is called A. gerontism. B. autism. C. ageism. D. senilism.
  • 57.
    60. Kohlberg, themain proponent of Moral Development Theory studied moral development by A. having subjects keep a daily journal of their actions. B. evaluating criminal and delinquent person’s court records. C. posing moral dilemmas to children of different ages. D. having subjects perform various legal or illegal behaviors. 61. Thomas’ parents do not want their child with ADHD to undergo drug treatment, their better alternative would be A. psychotherapy. B. behavior modification or behavior management. C. punishment. D. progressive inhibition 62. Toilet training is the central activity during this stage of development according to Erikson A. identity vs. role confusion B. initiative vs. guilt. C. autonomy vs. shame and doubt. D. intimacy vs. isolation. 63. Janet is undergoing the process of “bereavement”. Bereavement actually refers to A. the period of emotional adjustment that follows the death of a loved one. B. the intense emotional state that follows the death of a lover, friend, or relative. C. the period during which a person seems dazed or numb and shows little emotion. D. demoralization and discouragement. 64. Young adults are normally interested in developing A. intimacy. C. integrity. B. generativity. D. initiative. 65. Modeling is a teaching activity rooted on __________ learning theory. A. Bandura C. Thorndike B. Skinner D. Bruner 66. Providing variety of learning activities to students is a characteristic of a teacher who understand the principle of A. reward as a potential means of increasing the participation B. proactive teaching as a modern technique of teaching C. facilitating learning with emphasis on individual differences D. allowing the student to be exposed to various teaching techniques 67. All of the following shows respect for individual differences EXCEPT. A. treat all learners alike while in the classroom. B. provide for a variety of learning activities. C. give greater attention to gifted learners D. prepare modules for slow learners in class 68. Ripple effect can also be seen in misdemeanor. The teacher should therefore: A. reinforce positive behavior B. immediately responds to misbehavior C. be consistent in classroom management D. count 1 to 10 before she gets angry 69. The best example of Operant Conditioning among the following is A. connecting facts and concepts B. fostering conducive learning environment C. using reinforcement D. using manipulative devices
  • 58.
    70. During theheight of anger the _______ operates according to Freud A. Ego C. Id and ego B. Superego D. Id 71. A teacher present a morally ambiguous situation to his students and ask them what to do, the teacher’s technique is based on the theory of: A. Bandura C. Kohlberg B. Piaget D. Bruner 72. Nathan always waits his neighbor Raphael every morning. He enjoyed seeing him while biking and imitates the actions of Raphael while he rides his own bike. Who is the proponent the Social Learning Theory which applies in this example? A. Bandura C. Bruner B. Kohlberg D. Skinner 73. According to Jerome Bruner, learning is a simultaneous process of acquisition, transformation and __________. A. evaluation C. metacognition B. question D. education 74. A child receives a STAR STAMP after correctly completing his task. The child always tries to complete all tasks correctly for him to have a stamp once again. What is being shown in the situation? A. Associative learning B. Classical conditioning C. Operant conditioning D. Pavlovian conditioning 75. A child submitted a poor written report but packaged with brightly colored paper over. This showcases __________. A. art over academics C. art over science B. substance over “porma” D. “porma” over substance 76. Student participation will most likely happen when A. Feeling or emotions are not permtted in the discussion. B. The group leader allows quiet members to remain quiet. C. The teacher models good listening habit. D. Repeat directions over and over until everyone listen. 77. Which of the following promotes learning at the maximum? A. learning execises are focused on the right side of the brain. B. learning exercises involve both sides of the brain. C. learning execises are focused on cognitive objectives. D. learning execises are focused on the left side of the brain. 78. Peter saw another student being bullied. He did not try to stop the fight because he enjoys watching it. Did Peter act responsibly? A. Yes, because by not taking part he prevented the fight from becoming worse. B. Yes, because he did not involve himself in the fight. C. No, Peter’s motive did not lead to any good. D. Yes, because anyway the students, a bully himself, deserves to be beaten. 79. Students who are disobedient and display negative attitudes towards others are best handled by a teacher who will A. Insist on compliance to the same degree required of pupils. B. Take every opportunity to praise him for every positive attitude displays. C. Avoid giving him orders or if you do and he objects take back the order. D. Detain him after office hours for him to do what he has been ordered to. 80. What is the motivation of a person who paints for the sheer enjoyment of creating artwork? A. Intrinsic and extrinsic B. Extrinsic C. Intrinsic D. Insufficient
  • 59.
    81. Clarence hasinherent skills in taking care of plants. It is highly possible that she has ___________ intelligence. A. naturalistic intelligence C. spatial intelligence B. intrapersonal intelligence D. existential intelligence 82. One of the following shows skills in interpersonal intelligence. This person usually A. work on his/her own B. keeps interest to himself/herself C. seek out a classmate for help when problem occurs D. spends time meditating 83. Which of the following develops critical thinking skills among the students? A. Asking low level questions B. A willingness to suspend judgment until sufficient evidence is presented. C. Asking convergent questions D. Blind obedience to authority 84. With the use of mnemonics the students are able to __________ information. A. analyze C. apply B. understand D. remember 85. The following is true about teacher as facilitator of learning EXCEPT A. Teachers does more talk so learners talk less. B. Teacher make use of interactive teaching strategies. C. Teacher caters to multiple intelligences. D. Teacher does less talk for learners to talk more. 86. According to Erikson, a child who is cold towards the people around him might have failed to attain what basic goal based on psychosocial development? A. Autonomy B. Trust C. Initiative D. Mistrust 87. When a boy of 5 years old show extreme attachment to his mother, he is likely to be undergoing the ________ stage of psychosexual development. A. Oedipal complex B. Latent stage C. Phallic stage D. Pre-genital stage 88. Harold, a 6 yo boy likes to play with his friends, but easily gets angry when defeated. Piaget’s theory states that this pupil is under what development stage? A. Concrete operation B. Sensorimotor C. Formal operation D. Pre-operation 89. What is the most likely characteristic of children aged 3 to 5 according Erikson? A. Mischievous C. Lazy B. Ego-centric D. Altruistic 90. Two years of age are described as “terrible two” by Erikson because _____. A. They are inquisitive. B. They are sickly. C. They are playful. D. They are assertive. 91. A person who is friendly and has a capacity to make people laugh possesses: A. Naturalistic intelligence B. Spatial intelligence C. Intrapersonal intelligence D. Interpersonal intelligence
  • 60.
    92. A childwho always fight with his/her classmates, who has very short attention span, and who has frequent tantrums is believed to be suffering from: A. Mental retardation B. Down syndrome C. Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder D. Learning disability 93. Metacognition is primarily characterized by: A. Recalling the past lesson B. Visualizing in advance C. Formulating hypothesis D. Thinking about their thinking 94. The following are characteristics of ADHD EXCEPT A. Hyperactivity C. Inattention B. Focus D. Impulsivity 95. Mother asked the child “Which is heavier, one kilo of gold or one kilo of cotton?”. The child readily answered “Mommy, one kilo of gold is heavier”. From this conversation, we can deduce that the child is under _______ stage of cognitive development. A. sensorimotor C. concrete operational B. preoperational D. formal operational 96. Teacher May bridges the student’s present skill and the desired level with a technique advised by Vygotsky as A. challenging C. inspiring B. scaffolding D. motivating 97. Teacher Lea has been lecturing for more than an hour and she notices that students are not not anymore able to absorb additional information. This phenomenon is known as A. Plateau of learning C. Procractination B. Stagnation D. Boredom 98. Planned ignoring, signal inference, and proximity control are techniques used in _________. A. managing temper tantrums B. operant conditioning C. managing surface behavior D. life-space interviewing 99. Based on this philosophy learning occurs when there are changes in mental structure. A. cognitive dissonance C. cognitive learning model B. humanistic D. gestalt philosophy 100. The following are “red flags” in infant ages one month EXCEPT: A. sucks poorly B. doesn’t blink when exposed to light C. rarely moves arms and legs D. cries aloud when hungry 101. A foreigner who is studying here in the Philippines was turned-off by the Filipinos’ way of eating Balut and Frogs A. Ethnocentrism C. Xenocentrism B. Colonial mentality D. Culture shock 102. What need is a person trying to satisfy, when the person strives to develop himself to the fullest? A. Safety needs C. Sense of Belongingness B. Physiological needs D. Self-actualization 103. This period is the transition between childhood and adulthood. A. puberty C. late childhood B. adolescence D. early adulthood
  • 61.
    104. The followingare factors affecting motor development of children EXCEPT A. maternal nutrition C. child nutrition B. early stimulation D. preschool education 105. The disorder typically presents itself during childhood, and is characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity, as well as forgetfulness, poor impulse control or impulsivity, and distractibility. A. Autism C. Mental Retardation B. Aspergers D. ADHD 106. Who among the following claimed that children are natural learners and therefore must be taught in natural setting? A. Montessori C. Piaget B. Kohlberg D. Froebel 107. According to John Locke the mind at birth is “tabula rasa” or A. with skills already present C. full of ideas B. blank sheet D. open for new ideas 108. To determine her students’ level of moral development. Teacher Lawrence presents to his class a morally ambiguous situation and asks them what they would do in such a situation. On whose theory is Teacher Lawrence’s technique based? A. Bruner C. Freud B. Piaget D. Kohlberg 109. The concept that learning to read or write does not happen quickly but is built upon many small steps that occur over the course of the child’s early childhood. A. emergent literacy C. innate literacy B. functional literacy D. academic literacy 110. Teacher Marissa would like to employ Operant conditioning on hre students to increase the probabilities of greater participation during discussion. It is highly possible that teacher Marissa will A. put more emphasis on sharing and consistently guide them to new ideas. B. allow them to think about thingking C. give a star token to those who will participate D. let them exercise metacognitive approaches to better understand the topic 111. A student is finding it hard to read. When the guidance counselor traced the child’s history, the counselor was able to find out that the student came from a dysfunctional fa-mily, aside from that, the child was abused and neglected. What could have caused the student’s reading disability? A. Emotional factors B. Poor teaching C. Neurological factors D. Immaturity 112. Laughing at a two-year-old child who uttered a bad word is not proper thing to do because in this stage of the child’s life, the child is _________. A. Considering the views of others B. Distinguishing sex differences C. Socializing D. Distinguishing right from wrong 113. A child was punished for cheating in an exam. For sure the child won’t cheat ever again in short span of time, but this does not guarantee that the child won’t cheat ever again. Based on Thorndike’s Theory on punishment and learning, this shows that ______. A. Punishment strengthens a response B. Punishment removes response C. Punishment doesn’t remove a response D. Punishment weakens a response
  • 62.
    114. A childwho cold towards the people around him might have failed to attain what basic goal based on Erikson’s theory of development? A. Autonomy C. Initiative B. Trust D. Mistrust 115. A boy is closer to his mother and a girl is close to her father. These instances are under _________. A. Oedipal Complex C. Phallic stage B. Latent stage D. Pre-genital stage 116. An adolescent exhibits what common characteristics? A. Reasonable and secure B. Feels intense emotions and sense of disequilibrium C. Slow but steady physical growth D. Passive and obedient 117. The school director emphasizes the necessity of clean and green environment to contribute to effective teaching and learning. This is an example of: A. Providing an atmosphere conducive to learning. B. Providing adequate physical facilities C. Utilize educational technology D. Establish rapport between teachers and pupils 118. Teacher Marissa would like to employ Operant conditioning on her students to increase the probabilities of greater participation during discussion. It is highly possible that teacher Marissa will A. put more emphasis on sharing and consistently guide them to new ideas B. allow them to think about thinking C. give a star token to those who will participate D. let them execise metacognitive approaches to better understand the topic 119. This group is the “real world” of the teenager. A. peer group C. in group B. reference group D. circle 120. According to Jean Piaget “Animism” occurs during ________ stage. A. Sensorimotor C. Concrete Operational B. Preoperational D. Formal Operational 121. Planned ignoring, signal inference, and proximity control are techniques used in ________. A. managing temper tantrums C. managing surface behavior B. operant conditioning D. life-space interviewing 122. This period is the transition between childhood to adulthood. A. puberty C. late childhood B. adolescence D. early childhood 123. The following negates facilitating learning EXCEPT. A. focus on the right side of the brain B. involve both sides of the brain C. focus on cognitive objectives all the time D. focus on the left side of the brain 124. Teachers are facilitator of learning. Which among the following negates this principle? A. familiar with the latest innovations in teaching B. performs not only classroom roles but community involvement as well C. uses proactive discipline methods D. redicules background of the students 125. The nearest to the real thing according to Edgar Dale’s Cone of Experience is A. watching demo B. attending exhibit C. hearing and listening D. viewing images
  • 63.
    KEY TO CORRECTION Childand Adolescent Development 1. A 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. B 18. B 19. B 20. A 21. B 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. D 26. C 27. C 28. B 29. C 30. B 31. A 32. C 33. B 34. A 35. B 36. C 37. A 38. D 39. C 40. A 41. D 42. A 43. D 44. C 45. A 46. C 47. D 48. A 49. B 50. A 51. A 52. C 53. B 54. A 55. B 56. B 57. A 58. D 59. C 60. C 61. B 62. C 63. A 64. A 65. A 66. C 67. A 68. A 69. C 70. D 71. C 72. A 73. A 74. C 75. D 76. C 77. B 78. C 79. B 80. C 81. A 82. C 83. B 84. D 85. A 86. B 87. C 88. D 89. B 90. D 91. D 92. C 93. D 94. B 95. B 96. B 97. A 98. C 99. C 100. D 101. D 102. D 103. B 104. D 105. D 106. D 107. B 108. D 109. A 110. C 111. A 112. D 113. D 114. B 115. C 116. B 117. A 118. C 119. A 120. B 121. C 122. B 123. B 124. D 125. A
  • 64.
    SOCIAL DIMENSION OFEDUCATION 1. Ms. Ortiz ranked no. 1 in March 2012 LET Exam. Upon learning this by the school where she had her internship, she was offered immediately of a position for the school year 2012-2013. She gladly accepted this job offering. She submitted all the documents required by the school and just waited for the result of her medical exam was released. She learned that she has a tuberculosis. Which of the following do you think should Ms. Ortiz do? A. Hide her sickness from the Principal and proceed to teach in the SY 2012-2013 B. Ask the examining doctor to give her medical clearance so that she can teach and assure the doctor she will continue the medication. C. Tell the Principal that she has changed her mind and opted not to teach anymore D. Discuss her medical condition to the principal and defer to teach until she gets well 2. Mrs. Banaticla is a high school teacher known for her integrity and credibility. In her community, she was regarded as one of the leaders. All thru out her career as a teacher, she is alo a part of the board of canvasser every time there is an election. One time, she was asked by her nephew to campaign for him in the forthcoming election for he will run as a Congressman. Should Mrs. Banaticla campaign for her nephew? A. Yes, there is no reason why she can’t do this since blood thicker than water. B. Yes, she will be campaigning for her nephew and will do it discretely. C. No, she hates her nephew and it’s time to get even. D. No, she knows that it is against her principle as a teacher and this might put her credibility as a teacher at risk. 3. Jonathan San Diego, son of the Principal of Mapagpala Elementary School is running as a mayor in their town. Is it ethical for Principal San Diego to vote for his son during the election? A. Yes, it is a constitutional right of Principal San Diego to vote B. Yes, his vote is an additional point for his son. C. No, out of delicadeza, he should refrain from voting since his son is a candidate D. No, he has no right to vote 4. Mrs. Concepcion is a public school teacher for 35 years. Every time she was asked by her principal to attend a seminar, she refused and requested that the new teacher be the one to take her slot. Is this correct? A. Yes, Mrs. Concepcion had enough of these seminars. B. Yes, Mrs. Concepcion is about to retire and these seminars will have no longer use of her C. No, Mrs. Concepcion should take every opportunity to attend a seminar for her own professional growth. D. No, Mrs. Concepcion has the prerogative to what seminar she will attend 5. Teacher Allyce doesn’t like Maria, her student who is expected to graduate as class Valedictorian. In this regard, she is so impartial to her, she also gives her low marks in recitation and project. Is this correct? A. Yes, it is the right of every teacher to determine the mark of every student. B. Yes, it is human nature to feel disgust to an individual. C. No, it is a mortal sin to hate anyone. D. No, it is a must that every teacher be impartial to each student. 6. Mrs. Quinay was asked by the parents of Michael (her favorite student) to help them to get the concession of the school canteen. Mrs. Quinay, effortless made this possible for Michael’s parents. In return, Michael’s parent gave her a brand new refrigerator as a gift. How should Mrs. Quinay react on this? A. Accept the gift since she has made a favor for Michael’s parents. B. Accept the gift and asked Michael’s parents to be discrete about this. C. Accept not the gift and politely explain that it is against the principle of a teacher to adhere in such practice. D. Accept not the refrigerator and tell to Michael’s parents that she prefers cash over the refrigerator.
  • 65.
    7. The Codeof Ethics for Professional Teachers Cover(s) A. All Private school teachers in all educational institutions at the preschool, primary, elementary, secondary, and tertiary levels whether academic, vocational, special, technical, or non-formal B. All Public school teachers in an educational institutions at the preschool, primary, elementary, secondary, and tertiary levels whether academic, vocational, special, technical, or non-formal C. All public and private school teachers in all educational institutions at the preschool, primary, elementary, secondary, and tertiary levels whether academic, vocational, special, technical or non-formal. D. All public and private school teachers in all educational institutions at the preschool, primary, elementary and secondary levels whether academic, vocational, special, technical or non- formal. All public and private school teachers in all educational institutions at the preschool, primary, elementary and secondary levels whether academic, vocational, special, technical or non-formal. 8. Which of the following is a mark of a good teacher? A. Has the control of the class B. Has the mastery of the lesson C. Has the capability to implement corporal punishment D. Has the habit of preparing for visual aids. 9. Under the “Learning to do”, which of the following instrument must be acquired so that a person can perform his work effectively? A. Insight C. Communication B. Competence D. Compromise 10. “Life is what you make it” exemplifies best what ________ is: A. Existentialism C. Progressivism B. Humanism D. Essentialism 11. Mr. De Guzman is regarded as the best teacher in their school. He is known not only because he teaches well but also because of his integrity and credibility. In addition, he is also an adviser in their barangay. Without the knowledge of everyone he is consistently attending the cockfight in his adjacent town every other day. He is also known for betting a big amount of money in every game. Can he continue doing this considering his profession as a teacher? A. Yes, this activity is not affecting his work as a teacher. B. Yes, this activity is being funded by his own money. C. No, this activity will merit him reasonable social recognition D. No, this acitivity may lead him to financial loss and problem 12. What do you think would be the action of a teacher who found out and has proven that his principal is involved in the malversation of funds of their school? A. Malign him through an anonymous letter B. Circulate the issue and let it become a gossip C. Present the charge to a competent authority D. Ignore what the teacher has discovered about this action of the principal 13. After listening to the homily of the Priest about fidelity, Catherine has a moment of reflection. Her understanding of the value of fidelity has become deeper as she related this to her past experience. This typifies what kind of philosophy? A. Constructivism C. Humanism B. Reconstructionism D. Existentialism 14. Teacher Riean is a new teacher. She realizes that handling her student’s misbehavior is a very demanding aspect of classroom management. In this regard, she thought of giving up teaching. What advice can you give her? A. Agree with the class on what rules to follow B. Report every student’s misbehavior to the principal C. Set the ground rules for the whole class D. None of the above
  • 66.
    15. If ateacher is an advocate of “banking concept of education”, he or she viewed student as? A. Clear account to be filled up by the teacher B. Dormant account to be activated by the teacher C. Wobble account to be balanced by the teacher D. None of the above 16. After studying the Principle of Identity, Teacher Beng asks her students to determine which among the given set of problems conforms to the said identity. This shows that Teacher Beng upholds this kind of philosophy? A. Perrenialism C. Essentialism B. Progressivism D. Naturalism 17. Teacher Carol is a neophyte teacher. One time a mother of one of her students confronted and maligned her in front of her colleagues. How should Teacher Carol react on this kind of situation? A. Walk away and ignore the mother B. Answer back the mother and malign her too C. Allow the mother to keep on maligning her until it’s her turn to do the same D. Wait until the emotion of the mother subsides and invite her to discuss the concern wth the principal or guidance counselor. 18. During the distribution of the report card, which of the following must be foremost concern of a teacher? A. Discuss the projects of the school B. Discuss the progress as well as the deficiencies of the student C. Discuss the unsettled bills of the students. D. Discuss the complaints of other teachers and classmates of the students. 19. Which of the following would best describe the role of schools? A. To educate the citizens B. To fit the citizens into the society C. To educate the citizens to change the society D. All of the above 20. Which of the following is the political purpose of the school? A. To teach the basic cognitive skills B. To foster patriotism and loyalty to the existing political order C. To familiarize every citizen of their various function in the society D. To prepare every citizen for the world of work 21. How will you classify the purpose of the school as it concerns with the training and preparation of citizens for the world of work? A. Political Purposes B. Cognitive Purposes C. Economic Purposes D. Social Purposes 22. Which of the following will best describe the purpose of holistic education? A. To prepare the students to meet the challenges of living and schooling B. To prepare the students to meet the challenges of schooling and society C. To prepare the students to meet the challenges of living and society D. All of the above 23. To ensure holistic education, students must have knowledge and understanding of? A. Themselves and their healthy relationships with others. B. Social development and resilience C. Beauty, truth and transcendental experience D. All fo the above
  • 67.
    24. Which ofthe following is NOT correct under the Code of Ethics for Teachers regarding Teacher and Business? A. No teacher shall act, directly or indirectly, as agent of, or be financially interested in, any commercial venture which furnish textbooks and other school commodities in the purchase and disposal of which he can exercise official influence, except only when his assignment is inherently, related to such purchase and disposal: provided they shall be in accordance with the existing regulations; provided, further, that members of duly recognized teachers cooperatives may participate in the distribution and sale such commodities. B. A teacher has no right to engage, directly or indirectly, in legitimate income generation C. A teacher shall maintain a good reputation with respect to the financial matters such as in the settlement of his debts and loans in arranging satisfactorily his private financial affairs. D. None of the above 25. Teacher Mely, a neophyte in the field, experienced for the first time a complaint from the mother of one of her students during the distribution of the report card. Which of the following do you think must be attitude of teacher Mely? A. Bring the mother to the Guidance Counselor B. Ignore the complaint of the mother C. Listen to the complaint of the mother with sympathy D. None of the above 26. Thea listened to the advice given by her sister to end the relationship that she has with Gilbert. However, her sister learned that the advice she has given was not followed and Thea decided to continue the relationship. This action of Thea is a manifestation of what kind of philosophy? A. Essentialism B. Existentialism C. Perrenialism D. Humanism 27. Teacher Leor and student Joy are mutually attracted the first time they see each other. This mutual attraction developed into love. Eventually, the teacher-student became a boyfriend-girlfriend relationship. Can they continue this relationship? A. Continue the relationship but teacher Leor must execise utmost professional discretion so as to protect the interest of one another. B. Stop the relationship because teacher Leor is not allowed to have a romantic relationship with any his students. C. Defer the relationship and wait for the right time D. None of the above 28. After finishing the degree in Education, teacher Marie learns that learning never stops. In fact, she accumulates more knowledge after leaving the portal of her alma mater. This typifies what kind of philosophy? A. Constructivism B. Perrenialism C. Progressivism D. Humanism 29. Riean Therese is an advocate of the principle “making the most of your life”. She is indeed an advocate of what kind of philosophy? A. Humanism B. Idealism C. Realism D. Existentialism 30. Student Dianne hits her classmate. What do you think should her teacher do so that she can learn from the consequence of her action? A. Ask Dianne’s classmate to hit her too B. Request Dianne to stand for the entire period C. Give Dianne a failing mark in the subject D. None of the above
  • 68.
    31. Principal Lourdesasks the assistance of teacher Elvie to prepare the report to be presented to the District Supervisor. After the presentation, the District Supervisior commended her for the excellent report. She even asks her to print the materials for the distribution to other principals. In the printed work, principal Lourdes does not even acknowledge teacher Elvie. Is this morally correct? A. Yes, the principal has all the right to decide who will be acknowledged B. Yes, the principal knows that teacher Elvie is afraid of her and will not complaint C. Yes, the principal must impress her district supervisor and hide the truth that it is not her alone who preared the report. D. None of the choices is correct 32. During the class reunion of Teacher Eloisa, she learned that most of her classmates are successful in their fields. Also, she found out that most of them are wealthy because they have chosen a lucrative profession. Confronted with this situation, how should teacher Eloisa react? A. Hide to those who asked her real profession B. Leave the event so as to avoid being asked about her profession C. Tell with pride that she is a teacher by profession D. Answer not their question concerning her profession 33. Teacher Marie Antoniette is a very dedicated teacher in the nursery. Her foremost concern is for the students to learn how to adapt themselves in the environment. This shows that Teacher Marie Antoniette upholds this kind of philosophy? A. Naturalism B. Pragmatism C. Progressivism D. Rationalism 34. Teacher Roj serves as an inspiration to his students because of his efficiency and effectiveness as a teacher. The mind set of his students towards him is an instance of what kind of philosophy? A. Realism B. Idealism C. Nationalism D. Constructivism 35. Keane learns well through active interplay with others. His learning increases when engaged in acitivities that has meaning in him. Which philosophy can describe this? A. Progressivism B. Idealism C. Realism D. Empiricism 36. Which of the following pillar of education is vital in the building of a genuine and lasting culture of peace in the world? A. Learning to know B. Learning to do C. Learning to live together D. Learning to be 37. Which of the following pillar of education is dominant in the report of Edgar Faure’s report concerning the development of man’s complete dimension? A. Learning to know B. Learning to do C. Learning to live together D. Learning to be 38. Which of the following instrument is necessary under the “Learning to live together” in the pillar of education? A. Competence B. Communication C. Comprehension D. All of the above 39. The Four Pillars of Education started with the report entitled Learning the Treasure Within. The report is about A. Insights into education for the 21st century B. Insights into education for the 20th century C. Insights for the education for the 19th century D. Insights for the education for the 18th century 40. Who among the following philosophers considered habits and reasons as equally important forces to be cultivated in education? A. Avicenna C. Aristotle B. Jerome Bruner D. Maria Montessori
  • 69.
    41. Ms. Valenzuelais always guarded by the principle that she has a foremost responsibility as a teacher. Given the following, which do you think is the main responsibility of Ms. Valenzuela? A. Shares responsibility in counseling B. Guides students in learning process C. Inspires students through interesting lessons D. Asks challenging questions 42. What practice (s) will demonstrate the teacher’s genuine concern on the learning of students? A. Confer progress of students to their parents. B. Guides students to meet their learning goals C. Validates if learning goals were met D. All of the above 43. “Learning is the process of retrieving prior learning”, this is a statement form a A. Constructivist B. Reconstructivist C. Progressivist D. Idealist 44. Which of the following is the most important component of educational reform? A. Implementing a better curriculum for students B. Allowing the students to participate more in extra-curricular activities C. Hiring only the excellent teachers D. Involving parents in the education of their children 45. Teacher Angelita iis not only a competent teacher but also a community leader in their place. Which of the following should teacher Angelita NOT do as a teacher? A. Consistently porposes projects that will benefit the community B. Actively participate in the activities of the community. C. Always make herself unapproachable to every member of the community so that her decisions will have no effect of political economics D. Constantly help in raising funds for community projects 46. Teacher Helen knows of the illicit affair that her colleague has with a married man. However, she chooses to be silent about this for the fear of getting involved in this situation. Which of the following principle of morality does teacher Helen fail to comply? A. The end does not justify the mean B. Do what is good C. Choose the lesser evil D. All of the above 47. The failure in the test of independence among Filipino students can be attributed to A. Lack of skills B. Strong family ties C. High degree of dependence to authority D. All of the above 48. Which of the following is NOT in accordance to the provision under the Code of Ethics for Teachers? A. All school officials shall at all times show professional courtesy, helpfulness and sympathy towards teachers and other personnel, such practices being standards of effective school supervision, dignified administration, responsible leadership and enlightened directions. B. School officials shall encourage and attend the professional growth of all teachers under them such as recommending them for promotion, giving time due recognition for meritorious performance, and allowing them to participate in conferences in training programs. C. School officials, teachers, and other school personnel shall consider it their cooperative responsibility to formulate policies or introduce important changes in the system at all levels. D. No school officials can be stopped from dismissing or from recommending the dismissal a teacher or other subordinates even without a cause. 49. Which of the following is incorrect? A. Teaching profession is a dignified mean of learning to have a decent living B. Teaching profession is the noblest profession C. Teaching profession can be used in soliciting funds for personal gain D. None of the above
  • 70.
    50. Teachers beingthe trustee of the cultural and educational heritage of the nation is under obligation to A. transmit to learners such heritage and elevate national morality B. promote national pride, cultivate love of country and instill allegiance to the constitution and for all duly constituted authorities C. promote obedience to the laws of the state D. all of the above 51. The term “tabula rasa” implies that? A. Man is born with innate ideas B. Man is born with few ideas C. Man is born with no ideas D. Man is born full of ideas 52. Principal Thea is very much interested in a quality professional development program of her teachers. Which of the following should she consider to realize this? A. Prescribed by top educational leaders B. Dependent on the availability of funds C. Required for renewal of professional teachers D. Responsive to identified teachers’ needs 53. Mrs. San Rafael is the principal of Matimbo Elementary School. For her to ensure high standards of teachers’ personal and professional development, which of the following measures should she implement? I. Plans the professional development of her teachers. II. Allows each of her teacher to formulate their own professional development III. Monitors her teachers as they implement what they learned in training. A. I only B. I and III C. II and III D. II only 54. Aside from being a teacher, Mr. Sandoval is also a community leader. Which of the following should Mr. Sandoval NOT do as teacher and community leader? A. Support effort of the community to improve his status in life. B. Make himself aloof to ensure that his decision will not be influenced by community politics C. Solicit donation from philanthropists in the community D. Play an active part in the activities of the community 55. A teacher is said to be a “trustee of the cultural and educational heritage of the nation and is under obligation to transmit to learners such heritage.” Which practice makes the teacher fulfill such obligation? A. Use interactive teaching strategies B. Use the latest educational technology C. Observe continuing professional education D. As a class, study the life of Filipinos heroes. 56. A father tells his daughter “You are a woman. You are meant for the home and so for you going to school is not necessary.” Is the father CORRECT? A. It depends on the place where the daughter and father live. B. Yes, women are meant to be mothers only. C. No, today women can take on the jobs of men. D. No, there is gender equality in education. 57. Is there a legal basis for increasing the teacher’s starting salary to P18, 000 a month? A. No, it is a gift to teachers from Congress. B. Yes, RA 7836. C. No, it is simplify an act of benevolence from the President D. Yes, the Phil. Constitution 58. Mencius believed that all people are born good. This thought on the innate goodness of people makes it easier to ______ our pupils. A. teach B. respect C. reward D. motivate
  • 71.
    59. The specializationrequired of every professional teacher for him/her to be competent is in line with which pillar of learning? A. Learning to know B. Learning to be C. Learning to live together D. Learning to do 60. Which pillar of learning is aimed at the holistic development of man ad his complete fulfillment? A. Learning to know B. Learning to be C. Learning to live together D. Learning to do 61. Cris is a sophomore student who complains to his teacher about his failing grade. When his teacher recomputed his grade, the teacher found out that he committed an error. The teacher decided not to accept the erroneous computation before Cris and so leave the failing grade for the fear that he may lose credibility. Is this morally right? A. No, the reason for not accepting the error before Cris is a sign of weakness B. No, the end does not justify the mean. C. Yes, the end justifies the means D. Yes, as a teacher you must maintain your credibility 62. Teacher Wendell knows of the illegal activities of Mr. Cordero, his neighbor but keeps quiet in order not to be involved in any investigation. Which foundational principle of morality does Teacher Wendell fail to apply? A. The end does not justify the means. B. The end justifies the means. C. Always do what is right. D. Between two evils, do the lesser evil 63. Which of the following action of Teacher Ford is an INAPPRORIATE way to manage off-task behavior? A. Redirect child’s attention to task and check his progress to make sure he is continuing to work. B. Make eye contact to communicate what you wish to communicate. C. Move closer to the child to make him feel your presence. D. Stop your class activity to correct a child who is no longer on task. 64. Mrs. Cristobal is admired for being an effective classroom manager. She is not only friendly but at the same time be ______. A. confident C. analytical B. businesslike D. buddy-buddy 65. Teacher Filemon is convinced that whenever a student performs a desired behavior, and provide reinforcement, he learns to perform the behavior on his own. On which principle is Teacher Filemon’s conviction based? A. Environmentalism C. Cognitivism B. Behaviorism D. Constructivism 66. Mrs. Adriano, the Principal of Sumulong High School told her teachers in a faculty meeting “We need to improve our school performance in the National Achievement Test. What should we do? The teachers gave varied answers as follows: 1. Let’s give incentives and rewards to students who get a rating of 90%. 2. Let’s teach them to accept complete responsibility for their performance. 3. Let’s make the school environment conducive for learning. 4. Let’s make use of the experiential methods of teaching. Which response/s come/s from a behaviorist? A. #2 and #4 C. #3 and #4 B. #1 and #2 D. #1 and #3
  • 72.
    67. Ms. Paguiliganwants to help in ending Ms. Sandoval’s act of immorality but doesn’t have the courage to confront her. What she did was to write and secretly distribute copies of anonymous letter to her colleagues. What should have been done instead? A. Ask a third party while the anonymous letter to prevent her from being involved. B. Talk to married man with whom Ms. Sandoval is having an ilicit affair. C. If the charge is valid; present such charge under oath before her school head. D. Secretly give anonymous letter only to the people concerned. 68. Principal Jon asked his good teachers to write modular lesson in Filipino, then he had them published with his name printed as author. Which is unethical in this case? A. He was the exclusive beneficiary of the royalty from the modules. B. He had the modular lessons published when they worth publishing. C. He got merit which was due for his teacher-writers. D. He burdened the teachers with work not related to teaching. 69. Teacher Marie, unlike other teachers in her school, practices the non-traditional method of discussing the lessons using not only the book prescribed by the school as the main source of information and knowledge. Instead, she went out of her way to devise others means that will help her students to understand better their lessons. To what philosophy does Teacher Marie submit to? A. Progressivism B. Nationalism C. Constructionism D. Humanism 70. During the faculty recollection. Mr. Alcoriza asked his teachers to share their thoughts about their students as their primary consumer. What followed were the gist of what were shared: T. Maida: The learner is a product of his environment. Sometimes he has no choice. He is determined by his environment. T. Agnes: The learner can choose what he becomes despite his environment. T. Mitch: The learner is a social being who learns well through an active interplay with others. T. Beng: The learner is a rational being. School should develop his rational and moral powers. I. Whose philosophical concept is that of Teacher Maida? A. Rationalist’s B. Behaviorist’s C. Existentialist’s D. Progressivist’s 71. Teacher Agnes’s response come from the mouth of? A. Behaviorist C. Essentialist B. Existentialist D. Pereenialist 72. If you agree with Teacher Mitch, you are more of _______. A. Perennialist C. Essentialist B. Rationalist D. Progressivist 73. If you identify with Teacher Beng, you adhere to this Philosophy A. Progressivist C. Existentialist B. Behaviorist D. Perennialist 74. Whose response denies man’s free will? A. Teacher Maida B. Teacher Agnes C. Teacher Mitch D. Teacher Beng 75. The “banking concept in education” viewed students as: A. Clear account to be filled up by the teacher B. Dormant account to be activated by the teacher
  • 73.
    C. Wooble accountto be balanced by the teacher D. All fo the above 76. Jerome Bruner is known for this principle A. Banking concept in education B. Dichotomy method in education C. Spiral curriculum in education D. None of the above 77. Teacher Divine, a teacher for thrity two years, refuses to attend seminars. She claims that her thirty two years of teaching is more than all the seminars she is asked to attend. Are her actuation and thinking in accordance with the Code of Ethics for Professional Teachers? A. No, non-attendance to seminars would mean no increase in salary. B. No, a profesiional teacher, regardless of teaching experience, ought to go through continuing process of education. C. Yes, because, she taught for thirty two years and may have mastered the treaded. D. Yes, provided she has an excellent performance rating. 78. Teacher Riean has not only explained the concept of Philosophy of Education but also imparted to her students. This demonstrates what kind of philosophy? A. Naturalism C. Realism B. Idealism D. Perrenialism 79. Which pillar of learning aimed in the acquisition of the instrument of understanding in order to develop the students’ learn-to-learn skills? A. Learning to do C. Learning to Live Together B. Learning to know D. Learning to be 80. Which pillar of learning is vital in building a genuine and lasting culture of peace in the world? A. Learning to do C. Learning to Live Together B. Learning to know D. Learning to be 81. Which of the following would be the most fitting action of a teacher who is having a relationship with his/her student? A. Deny the relationship B. Enjoy the relationship while it lasts C. Defer the relationship until they are ready to admit it. D. Continue the relationship and exercise utmost professional discretion about this 82. Student Gilbert, after receiving the conceptual knowledge on multiplication of trinomials from his Algebra Teacher, immediately answers the exercises in the book. This demonstrates what kind of philosophy? A. Idealism C. Progressivism B. Essentialism D. Constructivism 83. Ms. Lopez is a sickly teacher. She gets to school even late and not feeling well. What provision in RA 7836 does she violate? A. Teachers must be devoted, honest and punctual in performing their duty B. Teachers should be physically, mentally and morally fit to teach. C. Teachers should manifest genuine enthusiasm and pride in teaching as a noble profession D. All of the above 84. Teacher Cris views his students as a unique, free choosing and responsible indiviudals. He encourages them to develop their own individualities. What philosophy does Teacher Cris adhere to? A. Humanism B. Existentialism C. Reconstructionism D. Essentialism
  • 74.
    85. In theSocial Science class of Ms. Macatangay, students identify the various social and economic problems that require urgent solutions. They not only discuss the ways to address it but also agreed to participate in solving them. What kind of philosophy does this class uphold? A. Naturalism C. Nationalism B. Constructivism D. Reconstructionism 86. “Education is a continuous process of experiencing and visiting or reorganizing experiences” according to a Progressivist. What does it mean? A. Education begins and ends in school B. Education takes place anytime and anywhere C. Education happens formally or informally D. Education goes on throughout life. 87. In the National Election, the Chairman of Precinct 34 asked Teacher Emily to change the entries in the election returns in exchange for special favors. It would be best for Teacher Emily to ________. A. Change some discretely B. Follow what the Chairman has instructed C. Say yes to the chairman but don’t do it D. Say no to the Chairman and be firmed about it 88. Which of the following would best manifest the Teacher-Student Relationship? A. Teacher to inflict corporal punishment to offending student upon the approval of parents. B. Teacher to inflict corporal punishment on offending student secretly C. Teacher to inflict corporal punishment to offending student at all times D. Teacher to inflict no corporal punishment on offending student at all times 89. Teacher Jenny is an inspiration to almost all of her students. Her efficiency and effectiveness in the profession is truly outstanding. Which of the following describes this attitude of the students toward her? A. Progressivism C. Idealism B. Naturalism D. Perrenialism 90. Teacher Veena is a newly appointed teacher. The principal told her to avoid any conducts that will discredit the teaching profession. Which of the following do you think will not in any manner discredit the teaching profession? A. Revealing confidential information of the school B. Writing anonymous letter malgning colleagues C. Joining social drinking D. Practicing entrepreneurship with the students as clients 91. Mrs. San Pedro is an institution in her school. She is not only competent but also known for her integrity. One time, she fine herself in need of money to settle an honest obligation in the bank. To her surprise, Mr. Almiro, (the manager of the bank where her property was mortgaged) is the father of Juliane, her student who is a candidate for failure. The manager offers her the amount she needed. Which of the following would you think would be the best action of Mrs. San Pedro? A. Accepts the help, after all, this is an offer and she never asks for it. B. Accepts the help but emphasize to Mr. Almiro that there is no string attached to it. C. Accepts not to help and inform her principal and the PTA board regarding this matter D. Accepts not the help and politely explains that as a professional you are not allowed to receive any favor from the parents or relatives of the student that may lead to conflict of interest 92. In a some culture, women never experienced to be in school. School is no longer necessary for them since their essence is to serve their families and perform domestic responsibilities. Is this correct? A. Yes, women are domestic partners B. No, there is gender equality in education C. It depends on what kind of culture that a woman is accustomed D. No, women have also possess skills just like men 93. Which among the following pillars of learning aimed for the holistic development and complete fulfillment of man? A. Learning to do
  • 75.
    B. Learning toLive Together C. Learning to Be D. Learning to Know 94. Which among the following situations violate the principle of respect? A. Teacher Helen tells her student that what Teacher Joann taught is wrong B. Teacher Joann, upon learning what teacher Helen did, asked the students not to attend her class. C. Teacher Janis is giving special favor to students to please them so that she can get a remarkable results in the evaluation D. All fo the above 95. For Teacher Kristine to promote fairness among her students of diverse gender, family background and culture, ensure a learning environment that is A. Inclusive B. Gender-Sensitive C. Secure D. All of the above 96. Teacher Cris is a Reading Teacher. She keeps on advising her class to “read between the lines. What does she mean on this? A. Skip not even a single paragaraph in reading B. Ascertain what is meant by what is stated C. Look for the main thought of what is reading D. Relate to life what is read 97. Teacher Jon knows of the illegal gambling that his neighbor is operating. However, he chooses to be quiet about for the fear of getting involved in any investigation that may lead to this. Which among the following principle of morality does Teacher Jon fails to comply? A. Choose the good and avoid evil B. Choose the lesser evil C. The end justifies the mean D. The end does not justify the mean 98. Which according to RA 9155 is considered as the “heart of the formal education system”? A. The pupil C. The classroom B. The teacher D. The school 99. According to RA 9155, a school head has two rules, namely administrative manager and _____. A. guidance counselor C. health officer B. instructional leader D. facilitator of learning 100. The main contribution of the Arroyo administration in education is Republic Act No. 9155. This provision A. Established the study – pay later B. Started the National Scholarship Program C. Renamed the DECS to DepED D. Conceptualized the K-12 Educational Program 101. The main purpose of compulsory education of the Constitution is to A. Develop students with into responsible, thinking citizens. B. Acquaint students with the historical development of the Constitution C. Prepare students to be lawyers D. Make students constitutional expert 102. The principle of individual differences enables a teacher to A. Provide different activities to meet student needs B. Reduce students engagement in learning C. Requires much times to teach D. Treat all learners alike while inside the classroom
  • 76.
    103. Where didthe belief that the government has the responsibility to provide education originated? A. Chinese Education B. Greek Education C. Egyptian Education D. Philippine Education 104. Egyptian Education provided the modern world with the basic foundation of education, art, science, engineering and others. This was evident with their system of picture writing known as A. Alibata B. Heiroglypics C. Anlects D. Sankrit 105. “Pleasure is the greatest good”. This phrase would probably derived from which philosophical school? A. Academy C. Stoics B. Epicurean D. Lyceum 106. In order to carry-out these ends the church authorized the establishment of several priestly orders that would severe as the educational and social arm of the church. The key contributors are as follows except A. St. Ignatius of Loyola B. Jean Duvegier de Haureme C. Jean Baptiste de la Salle D. St. Thomas of Aquinas 107. In the Preamble of the Code of Ethics of Professional Teachers, which is NOT said among teachers? A. LET passers B. Possess dignity and reputation C. Duly licensed professional D. High moral values with competencies 108. Loco Parentis was promulgated under the provision? A. RA 4670 C. RA 4288 B. RA 7877 D. RA 7836 109. Parents retain access to their children’s school records until the child reaches the age of 18. This provision is found under A. The Rights of Parents B. The Rights of Teachers C. The Rights of Students D. The Rights of the School 110. If you have a foreign, what would be the best gift to buy? A. Imported antiques B. Expensive Buddha Figures C. Porcelain wares D. Embroided product from Quezon province 111. If Teacher A is the rationalist and Teacher B is an empiricist, which of the following is correct? A. Teacher A and B are complemting each other B. Teacher A and B are contrry each other C. Teacher A and B are contradictory each other D. Teacher A and B are relative to each other 112. Ms. Cruz is a Sociology Professor for almost a decade. In her class she asked this question “What type of learning environment should a teacher implement in a high pluralistic society?” If you are her student, what would be your answer? A. Safe and Secure B. Safe and Gender-biased C. Safe, Secure, and Gender-biased D. Secure and Gender-biased
  • 77.
    113. Which amongthe following should be developed in curriculum to counteract the growing number of shooting incidents in school abroad? A. Inclusion of socio-emotional teaching B. Intensify the focus on academic achievement and productivity C. Emphasize cooperative learning rather than of competition to others D. All of the above 114. When all other requirements are met, when should religion be taught in public schools as provided for in the Constitution? A. Outside regular school hours B. Once a week at lunch break C. Once a week after class hours D. Within the regular class hours 115. Ms. Gabrielle is the most admired pre-school teacher in her school. Which among the following can best explain her being a good teacher? A. she adheres to the want of the parents for their children B. she manages to instill control to her students C. she endorses all the projects of the school for her students D. she gives easy exams to her students 116. Teacher Marie, unlike other teachers in her school, practices the non-traditional method of discussing the lessons using not only the book prescribed by the school as the main source of information and knowledge. Instead, she went out of her way to devise other means that will help her students to understand better their lessons. To what philosophy does Teacher Marie submit to? A. Progressivism B. Nationalism C. Constructivism D. Humanism 117. Teacher Mahi finds teaching in a multi cultural classes very challenging. Which among the following choices will alleviate the difficulty of addressing these challenges? A. She must embody a curriculum rather than perspectives B. She must consider stereo typing rather than cultural identities and biased attitudes C. She must nurture diversity rather than practicing domination and oppression D. She must welcome one sided view rather then the recognition of biases 118. Which of the following is the most important component of education reform? A. Implementing a better curriculum for the students B. Hiring only the excellent teachers C. Allowing the students to participate more in extra-curricular activities D. Involving the parents in the education of their children 119. Teacher Helen’s class is engage in problem solving activity which in a way is a reflection of the personal and social experiences. The purpose of this activity is for the students to acquire the skills that can help them in solving their own real-life problems. What can best describe this? A. Realism B. Idealism C. Progressivism D. Existentialism 120. In her class, Teacher Janis always presents principles and values so as to encourage her students to examine them and decide for themselves whether to accept it or not. What kind of philosophy does Teacher Janis practice? A. Idealism C. Humanism B. Essentialism D. Existentialism 121. Teacher Jenny is an inspiration to almost all of her students. Her efficiency and effectiveness in the profession is truly outstanding. Which of the following describes this attitude of the students toward her? A. Progressivism B. Naturalism C. Idealism D. Perennialism
  • 78.
    122. Which ofthe following is a characteristic of a Pragmatic Teacher: A. Equipping the learners with the basic abilities and skills B. Providing the learners with the opportunities to apply theories and principles C. Requiring the learners with full mastery of the lessons D. Encourage the learners to memorize factual knowledge 123. In line with the philosophy of Reconstructivism, which of the following should be given emphasis in teaching? A. To seek for a better position in the society B. To compare oneself with the less fortunate C. To become economically self-reliant D. To designate one’s superiority over the others 124. If a Teacher states that “Specialization is knowing more and more about less and less, hence it is better to be generalist”. What kind of philosophy does he uphold? A. Existentialism C. Essentialism B. Progressivism D. Positivism 125. Among the following situations which violate the principle of respect? A. Teacher Helen tell her student that what Teacher Joann taught is wrong B. Teacher Joann, upon learning what Teacher Helen did, asked the students not to attend her class. C. Teacher Janis is giving special favor to students to please the students so that she can get a remarkable result in evaluation D. All of the above
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    KEY TO CORRECTION SocialDimension of Education 1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. D 18. B 19. D 20. B 21. C 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. C 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. A 30. D 31. D 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. A 36. C 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. C 41. B 42. D 43. A 44. D 45. C 46. B 47. C 48. D 49. C 50. D 51. C 52. D 53. B 54. B 55. D 56. D 57. B 58. A 59. D 60. A 61. A 62. C 63. D 64. B 65. B 66. D 67. C 68. C 69. A 70. B 71. B 72. D 73. D 74. A 75. A 76. C 77. B 78. C 79. B 80. C 81. D 82. C 83. B 84. B 85. D 86. D 87. D 88. D 89. C 90. C 91. D 92. B 93. C 94. D 95. D 96. B 97. A 98. D 99. B 100. C 101. A 102. A 103. A 104. B 105. B 106. D 107. A 108. A 109. A 110. D 111. C 112. A 113. D 114. D 115. B 116. A 117. C 118. D 119. C 120. D 121. C 122. B 123. C 124. C 125. D
  • 80.
    PRINCIPLES OF TEACHING 1.Tricia, a Third Year student is popular not only in her classroom but also in the entire campus. She is always invited to soirees and pyjama parties. Students are drawn to her because of her seemingly friendly attitude. This intelligence according to Garnder is known as _________. A. Popularity B. Congenial C. Interpersonal D. Intrapersonal 2. Teacher Harold brought a hamster in the class during lecture about mammals. The hamster is a device commonly known as a REALIA. Teacher can bring Realia ONLY when ________. A. Available C. Affordable B. Feasible D. Workable 3. When asked, students of Teacher Roel described him as someone who knows what he is talking about. Teacher Roel therefore exhibits a power known as _______. A. Legitimate Power B. Expert Power C. Referrent Power D. Reward Power 4. Teacher Emmanuel requires his students to memorize the poem “Mi Ultimo Adios” but they do not actually know the meaning of the poem. This traditional technique which turns the students into “tiny parrots” is exhibited when teachers use __________? A. 2x4x8 Concept Teaching B. Textbook Technique C. Direct Instruction Technique D. Rote Learning Technique 5. When will teacher employ the “Oxford Oregon’? A. during discussion B. during debate C. during reporting D. during lecture 6. Students were required to stay and live with the family of aetas in Zambales for week. They will do this lifestyle f the ethnic group and come up with a report about the particular group. The teacher will most probably rely on what technique? A. Laboratory Technique B. Practicum Technique C. Field Study Technique D. Apprenticeship Technique 7. Teacher Gary religiously records the attendance of his students everyday. He marks those who are tardy and absent in this particular recording document known as _________. A. Form 1 B. Form 138 C. Form 137 D. Class Record 8. The directress of the school demanded that teachers should encourage their students to go beyond simple recall and comprehension; instead she said that students should “thinking about thinking”. If the teachers will follow the directress’ instruction, the students will develop their _________ skill. A. hypothesis skills B. cognitive skills C. metacognitive skills D. drill skills 9. The teachers feels that he is somebody who lives in an “ivory tower”. This “I-Thou” relationship between student and teacher is shown by A. Exercising favoritism B. Teacher is pretending he knows everything C. Respect towards each other D. Prejudice towards the poor 10. Krathwohl is famous for his taxonomy of Affective Domain, while Anita Harrow is known for his _____ domain. A. Affective C. Cognitive B. Psychomotor D. Metacognition 11. Teacher Edward invited several experts to shed light on the topic of environmental protection. Teacher Edward using the technique known as _________. A. Symposium B. Panel discussion C. Interview D. Socialized Classroom Discussion
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    12. To showdisapproval to the misbehavior of the student. Teacher Charles clear his throat and looks at the erring student. This classroom management style is commonly known as _________. A. Proximity Control B. Dropping of Name C. Signal Interference D. Direct Appeal 13. Teacher Teresa would most likely end her goal-oriented lesson by __________. A. planning of activities B. evaluation C. identification of topics D. formulation of objectives 14. According to Krathwohl’s affective domain of objectives, __________ is the lowest level of affective behavior. A. Valuing B. Characterization C. Responding D. Organization 15. To show the social relations that exist among the Fourth Year students of Matayog Elementary School, the teacher can use ___________. A. Johari Window B. Sociogram C. Group Dynamics D. Counseling 16. To improve comprehension and retention among the students, the teacher’s best option woulb be to use A. Six Thinking Hats B. Contextual Clues C. SQ3R D. Autodidactic Activities 17. Teacher May would like to compare and contrast plant cell vs. animal cell. She would most likely use: A. Fishbone Diagram B. Venn Diagram C. Tree Diagram D. KWL Chart 18. The students of Teacher Corazon feels that their teacher has an “eye” behind her head” This characteristic of the teacher is known as A. Referent power C. Pygmation Effect B. Withitness D. Rosenthal Effect 19. Edward de Bono is famous for this instructional innovation ___________. A. Six Thinking Hats B. Graphic Organizers C. Understanding by Design D. 7 Habits of Highly Effective People 20. It refers to the science of developing a plan to attain goal and to guard against undesirable results. A. Strategy of Teaching B. Method of Teaching C. Technique of Teaching D. Teaching Device 21. Teachers should allow his or her students to create the rules inside the classroom to develop a sense of… A. discipline B. self control C. leadership D. ownership 22. The teacher started his lesson about “addition of similar fraction” by giving a general rule on how to add similar fraction then eventually gives examples. His teaching technique is known as… A. inductive B. deductive C. transductive D. outlining 23-25 (Study the case below) Case 1 Teacher Fidelita conducted the lesson about mammals using the following procedure She showed pictures of animal like dog, cat, cow and horse. She asked the students to look at the similarity among the animal. Shen then gave the general characteristic of mammals. 23. Based on the above case, what method did the teacher use? A. Case presentation B. Deductive C. Inductive D. Picture aided
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    24. Looking athow she presented the lesson, do you think the teacher presented the lesson effectively? A. Yes, she showed picture. B. No, the manner she presented the lesson is limited. C. Yes, she presented it thoroughly. D. No, there was no evaluation. 25. How can the lesson be improved? A. Add a discussion B. Include the quiz C. Start by review D. Show more picture 26. Which statement is not true about recitation? A. It is announced B. Possible questions are given C. Call a student before giving situation D. It is a form of discussion 27. The following negates facilitating learning EXCEPT A. focus on the right side of the brain B. involve both sides of the brain C. focus on cognitive objectives all the time D. focus on the left side of the brain 28. Using Bloom’s Taxanomy, the highest among the following is. A. Critical comprehension B. Critical evaluation C. Integration D. Literal comprehension 29. Among the following educators, who proposed the placement of children in a “prepared environment”? A. Thorndike C. Kilpatrick B. Montesorri D. Froebel 30. Teacher Roger would like to present the historical events that happened in the field of education. Which among the following would be of best help? A. Cluster Map C. Story Map B. Time Line D. Affinity Chart 31. When choosing an instructional aid or device, the primary consideration of the teacher would be ____________. A. cost B. availability C. efficiency D. suitability 32. This is a kind of intelligence that is characterized by a strong ability to see patterns in abstract forms. A. kinesthetic C. logical B. spatial D. natural 33. Katrina shows strong interest in writing personal jounals and diaries. She does not feel left out even if she is mostly by herself in the school. She is most likely intelligent in the area of ________. A. Spatial C. Intrapersonal B. Verbal D. Interpersonal 34. Which of the computer-based instructional tool can help you revise written work such as short stories and essays? A. Word processing C. Database B. Spreadsheet D. Desktop publishing 35. With the use of computer aided software, which can be used to organize information about trees and planets? A. Word processing C. Database B. Spreadsheet D. Desktop publishing 36. A document published by the school district that identifies rules of behavior that must be followed by anyone using the school districts computers, network, or internet connection. A. Classroom rules C. Fair use
  • 83.
    B. Acceptable usepolicy D. Ethical internet use policy 37. Mrs. Reyes is a seasoned teacher. She has been in the service longer than anyone else in her department. However, she is also the first person to resist in media utilization in the classroom and found out to be technophobic. What is she afraid of? A. Fear in the use of technology due to limited exposure to new ideas and new equipment. B. Fear of computers, laptops, PDA C. Fear of being changed by computers D. Fear of electrical circuits 38. Teacher is the best visual aid. What does this statement mean? A. The teacher prepares the visual aids B. The teacher is the sole source of learning C. The teacher is always the medium of teaching – learning process D. The teacher uses visual aid effectively 39. Teacher Grace is assigned to handle a multi – grade class. What instructional material must be used to provide the needs of each grade? A. Differentiated materials to cater to different levels B. Multisensory material C. Colourful, useful and durable materials D. Materials of high level thinking skills 40. Which of the following are the rationales behind using technology in the classrooms? I. Motivational II. Unique instructional capabilities III. Increased Teachers’ Productivity A. I only C. II and III only B. I and II only D. I, II and III 41. As a teacher employing the project-based multimedia learning (PBML) strategy, what are some limitations teachers excpect from the encounter? I. There is a need for extending the time to use several media II. The presentation of the product is not an easy task III. The technology skills to produce a product may be lacking A. I only B. I, II, III C. III only D. I and II only 42. Ms. Malañac wants to show to her class a magnified picture of the Mt. Pinatubo’s crater fixed on a bond paper. Which of the following tools can she use? A. Filmstrip B. Opaque projector C. Overhead projector D. Slides 43. “Technology is not a panacea. “What does this statement mean? A. Technology is the answer to all the problems of the teachers. B. Technology is not a “cure – all” tools ofr teachers. C. Technology will not always be a remedy in the learning process of the student D. Technology is not a necessity in the teaching and learning process 44. Teacher Malou likes to show a close representation of the size and shape of the earth and its location in the entire solar system. What is the best instructional aid? A. Picture B. Model C. Realia D. Film 45. Mrs. Cruz dreams to organize a seminar wth a known poet from another country but she cannot afford to spend for the transportation of the said poet. Which of the following can she use so she won’t need to spend much? A. instant messaging B. video conferencing C. distant communication D. podcasting
  • 84.
    46. Teacher Elisawants her students to express their opinions regarding a certain government issue. Which of the following can she use to do this? A. forum C. email B. blog D. group messaging system 47. A student of Ms. Bernadette wants to clarify something regarding the project she gave them. Which of the following is the fastest way the student can use to send her the message if she is not online? A. email the message B. post the message in a blog C. use instant messaging on social networking sites D. wait until you meet the teacher 48. Ms. Ella will be absent for two days because of national conference. She wants her students to work on a certain module. What is the fastest way of sending the module to her students while she is away? A. email a module to her students B. share it to all her live account C. send the module through group instant messaging D. message each of the students on a social networking site 49. Ms. Castillo wants to be sure if her instructional materials are effective? What should she consider? A. guidelines of the use of instructional material B. taking it for granted C. purchasing it without thinking many times D. use materials immediately 50. Teacher Susan wants her student to learn more English. Specifically she wants her students to improve her listening skills. She has a CD player, tape recorder and an internet connection. Which of the following is best for her students? A. CD’s with English listening drills B. Tapes with English listening drills C. Internet websites such as Go4English, English language listening lab D. All of the above 51. Mary is a new English teacher. She wants to give her students some English puzzles and games to do over holidays. She likes the idea of giving them vocabulary word hunt. She knows Microsoft word but does not know how to make a word hunt puzzle. Which of the following should she follow? A. Go to Microsoft Word > File open > Tools B. Go to Microsoft Excel > File open > Tools C. Go to Microsoft Power Point > File open > Insert object D. Go to Micorsoft Word > File open > Table > Insert Tabe 52. B. F. Skinner is a known psychologist and the one who first to describe operant conditioning. Which of the techniques is an application of operant conditioning? A. Mastery learning C. Computer-assisted instruction B. Project method D. Process approach 53. Ms. Gretchen is an elementary grades teacher in a rural community not reached by electricity yet, but she has some tapes which can be useful to teach the topics on weather. What practical audio-visual material should she use instead? A. Pictures B. Power Point Presentation C. Flims D. Transparencies 54. Which statements on Information Communication Technology are TRUE? I. The use of ICT has negative effects. II. The use of ICT has a lot of benefits. III. The use of ICT is effectively only in industrialized countries. A. I and II C. III only B. II only D. I and II 55. Which of the following statements about computer viruses is TRUE?
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    A. Test filesare the only files to be corrupted by viruses B. Files are always permanently damaged by viruses. C. Files damaged by computer viruses can be cured D. Compressed files can never be damaged by viruses. 56. What teaching method can best taught by the use of computers? A. Role playing B. Debate C. Panel discussion D. Individualized instruction 57. Which teaching delivery will have the most use of educational technology? A. Cooperative learning B. Distance learning C. Investigatory learning D. Sandwich program 58. Which of the following is a result of compressing the file? A. The file is deleted. B. The file size is smaller. C. The three character extension is hidden. D. All file properties are lost. 59. Which of the following are the basic components of a curriculum design? A. Content, structure and delivery B. Assessment, Teaching strategies, and textbooks C. Philosophy, goals and objectives D. Standards, learning competencies, and evaluation 60. The following are examples of Learning-Centered Design EXCEPT? A. Child-centered design B. Experience-centered design C. Humanistic-centered design D. Life situation design 61. Curriculum is defined as the total learning experiences of the children in school. Which part of curriculum will assure these experiences? A. Curriculum plan C. Curriculum evaluation B. Curriculum implementation D. Curriculum assessment 62. Which of the following is NOT the aim of Elementary Education under the Education Act of 1982? A. Provide knowledge and develop skills, attitudes, values essential to personal development and necessary for living in and contributing to a developing and changing world. B. Provide learning experiences which increase the child’s awareness of and responsiveness to the changes in the society. C. Promote and intensify knowledge, identification with and love for the nation and the people to which develop orientation to the world of work and prepare the learner to engage in honest and gainful work. D. Discover and enhance the different aptitudes and interests of students in order to equip them with skills for productive endeavor and or to prepare them for tertiary level 63. In the Basic Education Curriculum in 2002, MAKABAYAN was envisioned to be ____________? A. The laboratory of life B. The history of life C. The combined subject D. The tool for the 21st century 64. Which of the following choices is considered as social force that affects the school and the curriculum? A. learner’s style C. nature of knowledge B. changes in gender roles D. lerner’s characteristics 65. Every curriculum has this dimension. This is both unplanned and implicit but its instructional effects are often evident in the students’ behavior, values and dispositions. This dimension is referred to as __________. A. societal curriculum C. institutional curriculum B. intrcutional curriculum D. hidden curriculum 66. Dr. Reyes, the provincial hospital director, plans to attend a school board meeting where a new high school science curriculum will be discussed. Which level of curriculum is shown in this situation? A. experiential C. institutional B. instructional D. societal
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    67. This conceptincludes the sub-processes of curriculum planning, organization, implementation, and evaluation. What concept is this? A. curriculum development C. curriculum management B. curriculum assessment D. curriculum and assessment 68. On weekends, Mrs. Cruz asks her two children on different grade levels what they learned in school on that week. Which level of curriculum does Mrs. Cruz practice? A. institutional C. societal B. experiential D. instructional 69. The rationale of the K+12 program of the Department of Education are the following EXCEPT: A. The quality of education is reflected in the inadequate preparation of high school graduates for the world of work or entrepreneurship or higher education. B. The poor quality of basic education is reflected in the low achievement scores of Filipino students including international test results C. To be the same as other countries n terms of number of years in the Basic education D. The congested curriculum partly explains the present state of education 70. When instruction in the curriculum focuses on the mastery of the content and the evaluation that follows measures only the knowledge learned, such curriculum design is ________. A. Learner centered design C. Problem centered design B. Subject centered design D. Teacher centered design 71. The understanding by design curricular approach, the first consideration is about _____. A. Learning experiences C. Desired results B. Testing of knowledge D. Teaching strategies 72. Among the following curriculum stakeholders, who has the most responsibility in the curriculum implementation? A. The learners C. The teachers B. The school head D. The parent 73. Which educational philosophy focuses on the role of curriculum as a means in remarking society and rebuilding culture? A. Perennialism C. constructivism B. progressivism D. reconstructionism 74. Ms. Pearl is a member of the curriculum committee on a private school in Bulacan. What educational philosophy does she consider if her major concern is to give the child’s freedom to choose what to learn and believe, as she allow them to set their own identities and standards. What philosophy will you consider? A. Existentialism B. Realism C. Idealism D. Pragmatism 75. Which statement about the subject-centered curriculum is NOT true? A. There is a high level of cooperative interaction B. It covers much content in a short period of time C. The teacher has full control of the classroom activities D. The main task is mastery of learning 76. In which historical period does specific subject areas in the curriculum started to be taught in Filipino while the others, in English, as provided in the newly-mandated Bilingual Education Policy? A. Commonwealth B. Third Republic C. New Society D. Japanese 77. The Center for Excellence in Teacher Education in the Philippines was created by _____________. A. RA No. 7784 C. RA No. 7791 B. RA No. 7836 D. RA No. 9917
  • 87.
    78. When certaintopics are presented in the elementary in a manner appropriate for grade schoolers, and the same topic is tackled in the high school, but on much deeper level, this is referred to as a ___________. A. Discovery learning B. Classified curriculum C. Spiral curriculum D. Symbolic learning 79. Which important elements must the phases of Curriculum Development consider according to Ralph Tyler? I. Learners II. Society III. Environment IV. Subject Matter A. I, II and IV B. I, III and IV C. II, III and IV D. I, II and III 80. The revised policies and standards for undergraduate teacher Educatio Curriculum which is the current requirement before one is qualified to take the licensure examination is ____________. A. CMO No. 30, s 2004 B. CMO No. 31, s 2005 C. CMO No. 20, s 2005 D. CMO No. 21, s 2004 81. In evaluating a curriculum, which is the most valid criterion to observe? A. Methods B. Available resources C. Activities D. Consistency and objectives 82. Preparing the students to think critically and ensuring that democratic and ensuring those democratic principles are carried out are considered important in developing a curriculum. This is in accordance with the philosophical beliefs of the ______. A. Nationalists B. Idealists C. Constructivists D. Pragmatists 83. Who are considered community-based stakeholders in curriculum development? A. Government officials B. Civic groups C. School boards D. Industry groups 84. When 3-6 students discuss an assigned topic or solve problem the teacher is doing A. Buzz session B. Round Robin C. Philips 66 D. Plenary 85. Students are asked to produce a graphical representation that illustrates relationships between concepts. A. Venn diagram C. Fishbone diagram B. Concept mapping D. Pros and cons Chart 86. An issue/problem is indicated on flipchart paper and there are may bemany in the room on tables. As individuals or groups (with different colored markers) the student visit each station, they write their opinions/answer/question. A. Chart concept B. Flipchart technique C. Graffiti D. Round da clock 87. Students stand/sit in a U-shape wit the ends of the U being extreme opinions on an issue and as the debate continues, people move along the continuum A. Oxford Oregon B. Formal Argument C. U Shape Debate D. Semi Circle Debate 88. Students are asked to create five types of questions fro a reading assignment, with each question moving to a higher level of thinking. Place the questions on note cards to be passed and discussed or handed in. A. Question Generation B. Divergent Questions C. Simple Questions D. Convergent Questions 89. When teachers use clickers, thumbs up or down, show of hands A. Nomination B. Polling
  • 88.
    C. Election D.Canvassing 90. Each group begins with a folder/envelope with the stated problem on the outside. They place a solution inside the folder or envelope and pass it on, receiving a new problem. They don’t look at the solutions, only come up with their own. Keep passing depending on number of problems until the original one gets back to them. Then that group reads all the solutions and selects the best one to report. A. Send a problem B. Hypothesis C. Pass a problem D. Problem Generation 91. A web-based activity where students must navigate through pre-designated websites to solve a problem or answer a question or complete research. A. web workload C. www B. webquest D. website development 92. A discussion conducted entirely in the form of questions. A. Quecussion B. Question/discussion pair C. Socialized Discussion D. Panel Discussion 93. Small circle forms inside a larger one, smaller circle discusses while the larger circle listens and then roles are reversed. A. Round Robin B. Think pair share C. Fishbowl D. Concentric Circles 94. Each pair forms a group of 4 to groups of 8, etc. A. Boat is sinking B. Snowball C. Pyramid D. Tower Building 95. Students groups create a 30 – second tv commercial that illustrate concepts covered A. TV commercial C. Group Dynamics B. Advertisement D. Drama 96. Student pair discuss what they know prior the lesson and questions that they have and then they discuss after the lesson to confirm their learning. A. Dyad C. Sharing B. Bookends D. Dialogue 97. A bingo card is given to the students ahead of the lesson and question pertaining to the lesson and they fill in the answers from the lesson. A. Game Strategy B. Group Dynamics C. Bingo Lecture D. Ice breaker 98. Among the following which can be a nice homework after a lesson on fossils by grade 6 pupils? A. Excavate fossil in the mountain B. Interview a paleontologist C. Create a video about fossil D. Answer crossword puzzle about fossil 99. Students are given time to think of the issue on their own and then pair with another to share ideas and then report to the large group A. Think Pair Share B. Community Sharing C. Dyad D. Open Forum 100. Students are grouped and assigned a topic, chapter, to become experts on and then after they have discussed their expertise they will be assigned to different groups composed of a member from each expert group to teach each other. A. Shared Vision B. Jigsaw C. Round Robin D. Expert Discussion 101. Near the end of grading quarter, students vote on which piece of knowledge was most useful to them. A. Knowledge Grammy Award B. Summary C. KWL D. Graphic Organizer 102. The teacher creates a spinning wheel marked into 4 quadrants and labeled: Predict, Explain, Summarize and Evaluate. After new material is presented, the teacher spins and asks a student to respond accordingly.
  • 89.
    A. Spin aWin C. Wheel of Fortune B. Idea Spinner D. Spinning Wheel 103. Teacher hands out a stack of blank sheets. Students write a review question on the sheet and then scrunch it up and attempt to throw it into something (a basket usually) at the front of the room. Instructor picks out a question and the class tries to answer it. A. Throw at Me B. Review Throw C. Slum Dunk Review D. Basket Throw 104. This characteristic of instructional plans allow the parts to have a smooth flow of transition. A. clarity B. symmetry C. coherence D. conciseness 105. When a teacher makes his students feel that he knows what he is talking about, he is showing his ___________ power. A. referent power B. legitimate power C. expert power D. philosophical power 106. Referent power of teacher is shown by A. making them feels you know what you are talking about B. telling them the importance of good grades C. reminding your students your authority over them again and again. D. giving your students a sens of belongingness and acceptance. 107. The teacher would like to discuss the Water Cycle among his grade 5 pupils. Which among the following graphic organizer would be best to use? A. Sequence chain B. Story map C. Web D. Attribute Wheel 108. Students are giving constructive comments on how to improve the work of other groups. This particular technique employed by the teacher is commonly known as: A. Jury Trial B. Critiquing session C. Consensus decision D. Round Table 109. The primary concern when choosing instructional aid should be _______. A. made skillfully B. mirrors Filipino setting C. maintains students’ attention D. must be suited to the lesson objective 110. A teacher would like to teach proper table etiquette to the students, she put up a long dinner table with complete formal dinner set-up and conducted a lecture on how to properly use the utensils. Afterwards, foods were served and she observes how her students conduct themselves in front of the dinner table. She is using _____ technique. A. Role playing C. Panel discussion B. Simulation D. Brainstorming 111. If I want my students to master the skill in adding fractions, which among the following would be the my best option? A. Discovery method C. Unit method B. Type method D. Drill method 112. A teacher calls a student before he asks a question during recitation. This practice a considered: A. Right, because it gives a certain formality to the recitation B. Wrong, because the question may not be suited for that particular student. C. Right, because it makes the students very attentive. D. Wrong, because the moment the teacher calls a name, the rest of the class will not listen anymore to the question since it’s not for them. 113. The teacher shown an ambiguous picture to a student and asks him to respond to some questions. This technique is known as ____________. A. Anecdotal record B. Sociometry C. Projective technique D. Problem checklist
  • 90.
    114. During flagceremony, Marita a 3rd year student was seen shaking and has a very pala face. The student was brought to the school clinic. The adviser of Marita took note of this incident through ___________. A. Class Record B. Problem Checklist C. Permanent Student Record D. Anecdotal Record 115. Which of the following shows well managed class? A. Students pursue their task without inhibition. B. The learners are controlled by the teacher. C. There’s blind obedience among the students. D. The learners are eager to reach their objectives. 116. This acitivity is appropriate with the intrapersonal intelligent pupils. A. Project method B. Individualized instruction C. Independent study D. Abstract test 117. By using the _________ technique, the teacher can show cause and effect. A. Histogram B. K-W-L technique C. Fishbone Diagram D. Spider web 118. The best device in the classroom is A. Blackboard C. Realia B. Chart D. Teacher 119. As “trustee of the cultural and educational heritage of the nation and is under obligation to transmit to learners such heritage.” The teacher should therefore A. Use modern technology in teaching B. Use advance learning dynamics C. Continue higher educational pursuits like MA or PhD. D. Conduct a lesson on the life of Filipino heroes 120. To show how blood circulation in the heart, which of the following devices will be the best choice. A. model C. replica B. mock-up D. realia 121. Realia is used whenever it is A. available C. affordable B. feasible D. plausible 122. The teacher would like to discuss about the Earth and therefore brought with him a globe when started his lesson. How would you classify Teacher Roel’s device? A. Chart B. Replica C. Model D. Realia 123. If a teacher would like his students to use higher order thinking skills then he should ask more ___________ questions. A. fact C. convergent B. close D. divergent 124. To maintain orderly transition between activities, teachers should: A. make students socialize between activities B. make the materials readily available C. assign fewer time per activity D. wait for those who are slow 125. Which of the following would be the best choice if teacher would like to focus on attitudinal change. A. dramatization B. field study C. role play D. simulation
  • 91.
    KEY TO CORRECTION Principlesof Teaching 1. C 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. B 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. A 21. D 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. B 29. B 30. B 31. D 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. C 36. D 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. D 41. B 42. B 43. C 44. B 45. B 46. A 47. C 48. C 49. A 50. D 51. D 52. C 53. A 54. A 55. A 56. D 57. B 58. B 59. D 60. D 61. B 62. D 63. A 64. B 65. D 66. C 67. A 68. B 69. C 70. B 71. C 72. C 73. D 74. A 75. A 76. C 77. A 78. A 79. A 80. A 81. D 82. D 83. A 84. A 85. B 86. C 87. C 88. A 89. B 90. A 91. B 92. A 93. D 94. B 95. A 96. B 97. C 98. D 99. A 100. B 101. A 102. B 103. C 104. C 105. C 106. D 107. A 108. B 109. D 110. B 111. D 112. D 113. C 114. D 115. D 116. C 117. C 118. D 119. D 120. B 121. B 122. C 123. D 124. B 125. C
  • 92.
    ASSESSMENT OF LEARNING 1.Teacher Ryan conducted a short quiz after discussing the topic “Item Analysis,” to get feedback on how much the students learned which may not be used for grading purposes is classified as a _______. A. Placement Assessment C. Formative Assessment B. Summative Assessment D. Diagnostic Assesment 2. The criterion of success of Teacher RC in his lesson is that “the students must be able to get 85% of the test items correctly”. Luis and 29 other students in the class answered only 33 out of 40 items correctly. This means that Teacher RC ___________. A. attained his lesson objective because of his effective problem solving drills. B. did not attain his lesson objective because his students lack of attention C. attained his lesson objective D. did not attain his lesson objective as far as the 30 students are connected 3. To increase the difficulty of a multiple-choice test item, which of the following should be done? A. Make the options homogeneous B. Make the stem short and clear C. Make it grammatically correct D. Make the options equal in length 4. Teacher Y set 85% accuracy in a test on predicting the kind of weather given five different atmospheric conditions. Marivic obtained a score of 82% can be interpreted as _________. A. she obtained 82% percentile score. B. She did not meet the set standard by 3%. C. She is higher than 82% of the group. D. She is 3% short of the set percentile score. 5. Teacher Anne gave a test at the end of a lesson to find out if the objectives of her lesson have been obtained. This can be classified as __________. A. Placement Assessment C. Norm-referenced B. Curricular Assessment D. Critertion-referenced 6. What are the characteristics of a good assessment instrument? I. Objectivity II. Validity III. Practicality and Efficiency IV. Reliability A. I, III and IV B. I, II and IV C. I, II D. I, IV 7. Teacher Ace wants to establish the reliability of his test in Biology. Which of the following will accomplish? I. Administer a parallel test II. Split the test III. Construct a variety of items IV. Administer the same test twice A. I, III, IV B. I, II, IV C. I, II D. I, IV 8. Teacher Nancy constructed a matching type test item. In her column of descriptions are combinations of presidents, current issues, and sports. Which rule of constructing a matching type test item was NOT allowed? A. The options must be greater than the descriptions. B. The descriptions must be homogeneous C. The descriptions must be heterogeneous D. Arrange the options according to order 9. Teacher MJ gives a 50-item test in English where the mean performance of the group is 40 and the standard deviation is 6. Markie obtained a score of 45. Which of the following best describe his performance?
  • 93.
    A. Below averageC. Above average B. Average D. Outstanding 10. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group when we talk about projective personality test? A. Sentence completion test B. Interview C. Word association test D. Thematic Appreciation test 11. Which of the following is the main purpose of administering a pre-test and post-test to the students? A. Measure the value of the materials used B. Accustom the students in frequent learning C. Measure gain in learning D. Measure the effectiveness of instruction 12. Teacher G discovered that his students are weak in grammar. Which assessment procedure should Teacher G to further deteremine in which other skills his students are weak? A. Placement Assessment B. Diagnostic Assessment C. Summative Assessment D. Formative Assessment 13. Teacher K conducted a test in MAKABAYAN IV, in her item number 13 it is said to be non- discriminating. What can be said about this item? I. The item is very difficult that nobody got the correct answer. II. Teaching or learning is very good. III. The item is very easy and everybody got it right. A. I only B. I and II C. I and III D. III only 14. A portfolio assessment requires a presentation of a collection of students’ work. What is the purpose of the said activity? I. To showcase the current abilities and skills of the learners. II. To show growth and development of the learners. III. To evaluate the cumulative achievement of the learners. A. I, II and III C. I and III B. I and II D. II and III 15. Which of the following is/are true about matching type of test? I. The descriptions and options must be homogeneous. II. The options at the first column and the descriptions at the second column. III. The number of options must be greater than the number of descriptions. IV. There must be at least three items. A. I only C. I, II, III B. I and III D. I, III and IV 16. Which statement is true in a bell-shaped curve? A. There are more high scores than low scores. B. Most of the scores are high. C. The scores are normally distributed. D. There are more low scores than high scores. 17. Jay R’s raw score in Mathematics class is 94 which is equal to 97 percentile. What does this mean? A. 97% of Jay R’s classmates got a score higher than 94. B. 97% of Jay R’s classmates got a score lower than 94. C. Jay R’s score is less than 97% of his classmates. D. Jay R is higher than 97% of his classmates. 18. The discrimination index of a test item is 0.35. What does this mean? A. More student in the lower group got the item correctly than those students in the upper group. B. More students in the upper group got the item correctly than those students in the lower group. C. The number of students in the lower group and upper group who got the item correctly are equal. D. More students from the upper group got the item correctly.
  • 94.
    19. Which ofthe following statement/s is/are important in developing a scoring rubric? I. Description of each criterion to serve as standard. II. Very clear descriptions of performance in each level. III. Rating scale IV. Mastery level of achievement A. I only C. I, II, III B. I and II D. I, II, III, IV 20. Teacher A is talking about “grading on the curve” in a district meeting. What does this mean? A. A student grade determines whether or not a student attains a defined standard of achievement. B. A student grade tell how closely he is achieving to his potential. C. A student grade compares his achievement to his effort. D. A student grade depends on how his achievement compares with the achievements of other students in a class. 21. Which of the following statement best describes norm-referenced interpretation? A. BJ performed better in Mathematics than 85% of his classmates. B. BJ was able to get 60% of the items correctly. C. BJ got 40 items correctly out 50 items. D. BJ was able to answer his test in 45 minutes only. 22. Which of the following instructional objectives is the highest level of Bloom’s cognitive taxonomy? A. Compute the standard deviation value: 25, 27, 30, 33 & 36. B. Identify the kinds of measures of variation. C. Compare and contrast quartile deviation and standard deviation. D. Explain the concept of variation. 23. Teacher DJ wants to test his student’s ability to formulate ideas, which type of test should he formulate? A. Completion type B. Matching type C. Multiple-choice type D. Essay 24. Which is the first step in planning periodic test? A. Select the type of test item to use. B. Construct a table of specification. C. Go back to the instructional objectives. D. Determine the group of whom the test is intended. 25. Below is a list of methods used to establish the reliability of a test, which method is questionable due to practice and familiarity? A. Split half B. Equivalent form C. Kuder Richardson D. Test-retest 26. Teacher BJ wrote about Ryan: “When Ryan came to class this morning, he seemed very tired and slouched into his seat. He took no part in his class discussion and seemed to have no interest in what is being discussed. This was very unusual foe he has been eager to participate and often monopolizes the class discussion. What Teacher BJ wrote is an example of a/an __________. A. anecdotal record C. personality report B. observation report D. incidence report 27. About how many percent of the class fall between -2SD and +2SD in the normal curve? A. 34.13 C. 95.44 B. 68.26 D. 99.72 28. Teacher Luis found out that more from the lower group got item #16 correctly in his item analysis. This means that the test item has __________. A. negative discriminating power B. low validity C. positive discriminating power D. zero discriminating power
  • 95.
    29. Under whichassumption is portfolio assessment based? A. Portfolio assessment is dynamic assessment. B. Assessment should stress the reproduction of knowledge. C. An individual learner is inadequately characterized by a test score. D. An individual learner is adequately characterized by a test score. 30. What is the meaning of TOS in the parlance of test construction? A. Table of Specifics C. Table of Specific Test B. Table of Specification D. Table of Subject 31. Which is implified by a positively skewed score distribution? A. The mean, the median and the mode are equal. B. Most of the scores are high. C. The mode is high. D. Most of the scores are low. 32. Which statement best descirbes a negatively skewed score distribution? A. Most examinees got high scores B. The value of median and mode are equal. C. The value of mode corresponds to a low score. D. The value of median is higher than the value of mode. 33. In a normal distribution, a T-score of 70 is ___________. A. two SDS below the mean B. two SDS above the mean C. one SD below the mean D. one SD above the mean 34. The computed value of r for Math and Science is 0.92. What does this mean? A. Math and Science scores are inversely related. B. High scores in Math are associated with high scores in Science. C. Low scores in math are associated with high scores in Science. D. The higher the scores in Science, the lower the scores in Math. 35. Teacher B is researching on family income distribution which is symmetrical. Which measure/s of central tendency will be most informative and appropriate? A. Mode B. Mean C. Median D. Mean and Median 36. What measure/s of central tendency does the number 20 represent in the following score distribution? 25, 15, 17, 20, 23, 20, 18, 20, 24? A. Mode only B. Mode and median C. Median only D. Mean and mode 37. The Analysis of Variance utilizing the F-test is appropriate to test the significant difference between ____________. A. frequencies B. two means only C. median D. three or more means 38. Which statement about standard deviation is CORRECT? A. The smaller the standard deviation the more spread the scores are. B. The larger the standard deviation the less spread the scores are. C. The larger the standard deviation the more spread the score are. D. It is a measure of central tendency. 39. Teacher Ryan Christopher gave a summative test. In which competency did his students find the greatest difficulty? In the item with a difficulty index of _____________. A. 0.09 B. 1.0 C. 0.75 D. 0.45 40. Teacher Kristy conducted an item analysis in her Chapter examination, she found out that the difficulty index of item 20 is 0.45 and the discrimination index is 0.33. What should the teacher do with this item?
  • 96.
    A. Reject theitem B. Retain the item C. Revise the item D. Make the item bonus Situation A. Study this group of test which was administered to a class to whom Ritz Glenn belongs, then answer the questions (41-43) Subject Ritz Glenn’s Score Mean Score Standard Deviation Math 90 85 1.5 English 95 97 2.0 PEHM 94 92 1.75 41. In which subject/s did Ritz Glenn performed well? A. Math B. Math and English C. English D. PEHM 42. What type of learner is Ritz Glenn? A. logic and bodily kinesthetic B. logical C. linguistic D. bodily kinesthetic 43. In which group of scores most spread? A. Math and PEHM B. Math C. English D. PEHM 44. The score distribution of Set A and Set B have equal mean but with different SD’s. Set A has SD OF 2.75 while the set B has SD of 3.25. Which statement is TRUE of the score distributions? A. Majority of the scores in set B are clustered around the mean. B. Majority of the scores in set A are clustered around the mean than in Set B. C. Scores in Set A are more widely scattered. D. The scores of Set B has less variability than the scores in Set A. Situation B. Study the table on item analysis for non-attractiveness and non-plausibility of distracters based on the results of try-out set in Science. The letter marked with an asterisk is the correct answer. Item No. 1 A B C D Upper 27% 3 3 1 8 Lower 27% 5 1 6 3 45. The Table shows that the test item analyzed _______________. A. has a positive discrimination index B. has a negative discrimination index C. is easy D. is difficult 46. Based on the table, which is most effective distracter? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D 47. What is the difficulty level of the given item? A. Easy B. Moderately difficult C. Difficult D. Very difficult
  • 97.
    48. Based onthe table, what should you do with the test item? A. make the item bonus B. reject the item C. retain the item D. revise the item 49. Which of the following statements are the components of the grading system based on Dep Ed Order 33, series of 2004? I. The lowest failing grade appeared in the report card is 65%. II. Transmutation table is utilized in the computation of grade. III. Mastery of at least 75% of the components. IV. Use table of equivalence in the computation of grade. V. Cumulative system for final grade is utilized. A. I, III, IV B. I, II, III, IV C. II, IV, V D. I, II, III, IV, V 50. JP’s scores in English quizzes are as follows: 96, 90, 85, 89, 65, 99, 84, 82. What is the mean value? A. 83.25 C. 85.25 B. 84.25 D. 86.25 51. Teacher Adrian will construct an achievement test. Which of the following he will accomplish first? A. Construct relevant test items. B. Prepare table of specification. C. Determine the number of items to be constructed. D. Identify the intended learning outcomes. Situation A (For item 52-53) Direction: Column A describes events associated with the U.S presidents, inventor, and civil right leader. Indicate which name in Column B matches each event by placing the appropriate letter to the left of the number to Column A. Each name may be used once only. Column A 1. President of the 20th Century 2. Invented the telephone 3. Delivered the Emancipation Proclamation 4. Recent President to resign from office 5. Civil rights leader 6. Invented the cotton gin 7. Our first president 8. Only president elected for more than two terms Column B A. Lincoln B. Nixon C. Whitney D. Ford E. King F. Washington G. Roosevelt 52. Which guideline of writing matching type item was NOT FOLLOWED? A. It is very difficult test items. B. Consist of less than ten items. C. It is NOT valid test items. D. It is NOT homogeneous. 53. Using the data in situation A. How would you improve the options to avoid ambiguity? A. Arrange the options in alphabetical order. B. Add two more options to avoid guessing. C. Write the complete names in the options. D. Remove two options to have valid options. 54. Which of the following objectives is the highest level of Bloom’s Taxanomy? A. Identifies the meaning of item. B. Identifies the order of the given events. C. Interprets the meaning of an idea. D. Improves defective test items. 55. Which statement/s is/are true in constructing matching type of test? I. The options and descriptions not necessarily homogeneous.
  • 98.
    II. The optionsmust be greater than the descriptions. III. The directions must state the basis of matching. IV. Descriptions in Column A and options in Column B. A. I, II and III B. II, III and IV C. I, II and IV D. I, II, III and IV 56. Which of the following should be AVOIDED in constructing true or false test? I. Verbal clues and specific determiner. II. Terms denoting definite degree or amount. III. Taking statements directly from the book. IV. Keep true and false statement the samw in length. A. I and III only C. I, II and IV B. I, II and III D. II and IV only 57. Which of the following test item can best effectively measure higher order of cognitive learning objectives? A. Objective test C. Completion test B. Achievement test D. Extended essay test 58. Which statements best describes a short-answer test items? I. It is easy to write test items. II. Broad range of knowledge outcomes can be measured. III. Adaptable in measuring complex learning outcomes. IV. Scoring is NOT tedious and time consuming. A. I, II and III B. I and II only C. II and IV only D. II, III and IV Situation B. The data on the table below are results of test which was administered to four subjects in which Ritz Glenn belong. Using the said data answer the questions. (59-63). Subject Ritz Glenn’s Score Mean Standard Deviation English 88 85 3.5 Mathematics 95 97 5 Music 90 98 6.5 PE 94 91 4 59. In which subject did Ritz Glenn performed best in relation to the performance of the group? A. English B. Music C. Mathematics D. PE 60. What type of learner is Ritz Glenn? A. Bodily Kinesthetic B. Logical C. Musical D. Linguistic 61. In which subject did Ritz Glenn performed most poorly in relation to the group performance? A. English C. Mathematics B. Music D. PE 62. In which subject the scores most dispersed? A. English C. Mathematics B. Music D. PE 63. In which subject the scores less dispersed?
  • 99.
    A. English C.Mathematics B. Music D. PE 64. Which statement best describes normal distribution? A. Only few got average scores. B. The mean, the median are equal. C. Negatively skewed distribution. D. Most of the scores lies at one end of distribution. 65. Standard deviation is to Measure of Variation as _______ is to Measures of Central Tendency. A. Quartile deviation C. Range B. Mean deviation D. Mode 66. What type of measure of variation easily affected by the extreme scores? A. Range C. Inter-quartile range B. Quartile deviation D. Standard deviation 67. Which measure/s of central tendency easily affected by the extreme scores? A. Median C. Mode B. Mean D. Mean and Median 68. A type of error committed in grading the performance of the students by the rater who avoids both extremes of the scale and tends to rate everyone as average. A. generosity error C. logical error B. severity error D. central tendency error 69. What error committed by the rater if he overate the performance of the student/s? A. generosity error C. logical error B. severity error D. central tendency error 70. Which of the following assessment techniques best assess the objective” Plans and designs an experiment to be performed”. A. Paper and pencil test C. Checklist B. Rating scale D. Essay 71. Teacher Gina is talking about “grading on the curve” in a teacher’s assembly. This means that she’s referring to what type of grading system? A. Cumulative method of grading B. Norm-reference grading C. Criterion-reference grading D. Combination of B and C 72. The computed value of r= 0.95 in Mathematics and English. What does this imply? A. Mathematics score is not related to English score. B. English score is moderately related to Mathematics score. C. Mathematics score is highly positive related to English score. D. English score is not anyway related to Mathematics score. 73. Teacher Jean will conducted a test “to measure her student’s ability to organize thoughts and present original ideas”. Which type of test is most appropriate? A. Modified true-false test item B. Completion type test C. Short answer test D. Essay test 74. Which characteristic best descirbes the given score distribution? The scores are: 22, 23, 24, 24, 24, 25, 26, 26, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 39, 39, 40, 40, 45. A. Multi-modal C. Normally distributed B. Bimodal D. Skewed to the left 75. Which of the following statements refers to criterion-reference interpretation? A. Ritz got the highest score in Mathematics. B. Luis completed the problem solving faster than his classmates. C. Vinci set up his laboratory equipments in 2 minutes. D. Lovely’s test score higher than 95% of the class. 76. Which of the following is an example of norm-referenced interpretation?
  • 100.
    A. Lord’s testscore is higher than 89% of the class. B. Vinci set up his laboratory equipments in 2 minutes. C. Harold must spell 25 words correctly out of 30 words. D. Mark solv 5 problems correctly in 30 minutes. 77. What is the main advantage of using table of specification (TOS) when constructing periodic test? A. It increases the reliability of the test results. B. It reduces the scoring time. C. It makes test construction easier. D. It improves the sampling of content areas 78. The main objective of testing in teaching is _____________. A. to assess the students learning and the effectiveness of instruction. B. to assess the effectiveness of teaching method used. C. to evaluate the instructional materilas used. D. to evaluate the performance of the teacher in that particular lesson. 79. Which of the following statement is the main reason why should negative words be avoided in constructing multiple-choice test? A. Increase the difficulty of the test item. B. More difficult to construct options. C. Might be overlooked. D. Stems tends to be longer. 80. Obtaining a dependable ranking of students is a major concern when using. A. teacher-made diagnostic test. B. norm-reference assessment test. C. criterion-reference assessment test D. mastery achievement test 81. When a test is lengthened, the reliability is likely to ____________? A. increase C. not determined B. decrease D. both A and B 82. Which of the following statements describes performance based assessment? I. Evaluate complex learning outcomes and skills. II. Encourages the application of learning to “real life” situation. III. Measure broad range of contents. A. I only C. III only B. I and II D. I, II and III 83. Teacher Adrian conducted iitem analysis and he found out that more from the lower group got the test item numbers 6 correctly. This means that the test item ___________. A. has a low reliability B. has a high validity C. has a positive discriminating power D. has a negative discriminating power 84. Which is implied by a positively skewed score distribution? A. Most of the scores are below the mean value. B. Most of the scores are above the mean value. C. The mean is less than the median. D. The mean, the median and the mode are equal 85. Most of the students who took the examination got scores above the mean. What is the graphical repsentation of the score distribution? A. Skewed to the left B. Skewed to the right C. Socres are normally distributed D. Positively skewed 86. Which statement best describes a negatively skewed score distribution? A. The value of mean and median are equal. B. Most examinees got scores above the mean C. The value of mode corresponds to a low score D. The value of median is higher than the value of mode 87. In a normal distribution a T-score of 80 is _____________________. A. two SD’s below the mean B. two SD’s above the mean
  • 101.
    C. three SD’sbelow the mean D. three SD’s above the mean 88. The distribution of a class with academically poor students is most likely ______________. A. Normally distributed C. Skewed to the right B. Skewed to the left D. Leptokurtic 89. Teacher Paul conducted item analysis and he found out that significantly greater number form the upper group of the class got test item number 10 correctly. This means that the test item ______________. A. has a negative discriminating power B. has a positive discriminating power C. has low reliability D. has high validity 90. Mary Anne obtained a NAT percentile rank of 93. This imply that _____________. A. she surpassed in performance 7% of her group. B. she got a score of 93 C. she answered 93 items correctly. D. she surpassed in performance 93% of her fellow examinees 91. Based from the two sets of scores below, which statement correctly applies to the two sets of data? Set A: 10, 13, 15, 16, 20, 25 Set B: 13, 14, 17, 18, 23, 25 A. The range of Set B is 15. B. The range of Set A is 11. C. An scores in Set A are more scattered than those in Set B. D. An scores in Set B are more scattered than those in Set A. 92. Which of the following statements best describes the incorrect options in item analysis? A. Determining the percentage equivalent of the cut off score. B. Determining the highest score C. Determining the attractiveness of distracters D. Determining the cut off scores 93. Teacher Kristy gave a chapter test, in which competency did her students find greatest difficulty? In the item with a difficulty index of ______. A. 0.25 B. 0.15 C. 0.75 D. 1.00 94. Fifty students took 40 items in English, below are their scores. (Items 94-95) Scores Number of students 11 – 15 7 16 – 20 10 21 – 25 7 26 – 30 20 31 – 35 6 In which interval the median value lies? A. In the interval 16 – 20 B. In the interval 26 – 30 C. Between the interval 16 – 20 and 21 – 25 D. In the interval 21 – 25 95. Based on the data on item number 94, how many percent of the scores lower than 21? A. 14% C. 20% B. 17% D. 34%
  • 102.
    96. Teacher Lawrencegave a test in Mathematics. The facility index of item No. 10 is 75%. The best way to described item no. 10 is ________. A. very easy item B. easy item C. average item D. difficult item 97. At the end of the school year, all third year students presented their portfolio in English subject. Students, teachers, and other stakeholders were asked to view and give their comments regarding what was viewed. Which authentic assessment was organized? A. Exhibits B. Program C. Conference D. Seminar 98. Joseph’s score in Science is 1.5 standard deviation above the mean of his group and 2 standard deviation above Mathematics. What does this mean? A. He excels both in Science and in Mathematics B. He is better in Mathematics than in Science C. He is better in Science than in Mathematics D. He does not excel in both subjects 99. The criterion of success in Teacher Jenny objective is that “the students must be able to get 80% of the test items correctly”. Luis and 24 other students in the class answered only out 20 out of 25 items correctly. This means that teacher Jenny ___________________. A. attained her lesson objective because of her effective problem solving drills. B. did not attain her lesson objective because her students lack of attention. C. attained her lesson objective. D. did not attain her lesson objective as far as the 25 students are concerned. 100. The grading system of Department of Education is averaging. What is the average final grade of Andie in English for four grading periods? 1st Grading 2nd Grading 3rd Grading 4th Grading Final Rating 90 88 93 95 ?s A. 91.75 C. 94.00 B. 92.25 D. 95.00 101. The grading method which gives weight to the present grade and the previous grade of the student such as = 1/3 (TGG) + 2/3 (FGG) Final Grade is called _________. A. Averaging C. Norm referenced B. Criterion-referenced D. Cumulative 102. To increase the difficulty of a multiple-choice test item, which of the following should be done? A. Make the stem short and clear. B. Make the options homogeneous. C. Make it grammatically correct. D. Make the option equal in length. Situation C. (Item number 104-110) Given the table on item analysis for non-attractiveness and non-plausibility of distracters based on the results of a try-out test in English. The letter mark with an asterisk is the correct answer. Item No. 10 A* B C D Upper 27% 3 3 10 1 Lower 27% 6 6 8 2 104. Based on the table, which group got more correct answer? A. Lower group B. Upper group C. Can’t be determined D. Either lower group or upper group 105. Based on the table in Situation C, which is the most effective distracter?
  • 103.
    A. Option A B.Option B C. Option C D. Option D 106. Based on the table in Situation C, which distracters should be revised? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D 107. What is the level of difficulty of item 6 in Situation C? A. Very easy C. Moderately difficult B. Easy D. Difficult 108. What is the discriminating index of item number 6 in situation C? A. 3% C. 7% B. 6% d. 50% 109. Which statement about performance-based assessment is FALSE? A. They stress on process as well as product. B. They also stress on doing, not only knowing C. Essay tests are example of performance-based assessments. D. They emphasize merely on process. 110. A Z-scores provide information about the location of the raw scores ____________. A. below the mean in units of the range of the distribution. B. above the mean in units of the standard deviation of the distribution. C. above and below the mean in units of the range of the distribution. D. above and below the mean in standard deviation units from the mean. 111. Assessment is sadi to be authentic when the teacher ______________. A. considers students’ suggestions in testing B. gives valid and reliable paper-and-pencil test C. gives students real-life tasksto accomplish D. includes parents in the determination of assessment procedures. 112. If teacher Jerick Ivan want to test his students’ synthesizing skills. Which of the following has the highest diagnostic value? A. Completion test C. Essay test B. Performance test D. Multiple choice test 113. Which of the following statement about making on a normative basis? A. the normal distribution curve should be followed. B. most of the students get low scores. C. most of the students get high scores. D. the grading about should based from the given criteria. 114. The discriminating index of item number 15 is 0.44. This means that ______________. A. more students from the upper group the item correctly. B. more students from the lower group the item correctly. C. equal number of students got the correct answer from the upper and lower group. D. the test item is very easy. 115. The difficulty index of item 20 is 0.55 and the discrimination index is 0.15. What should teacher do with this item? A. Reject the item C. Revise the item B. Retain the item D. Make the item bonus 116. The discriminating index of item number 1 is -0.15. This means that ____________. A. More students from the upper group got the item correctly. B. More students from the lower group got the item correctly. C. Equal number of students got the correct answer from the upper and lower group. D. The test item is very difficult.
  • 104.
    117. Suppose thata certain aptitude test administered to a randomly selected group of college students had a mean of 80 and standard deviation of 5. If BJ got a z-scores of 3, what is the value of his raw score? A. 80 C. 90 B. 85 D. 95 118. About how many percent of the cases fall between -1SD and +1SD in the normal curve? A. 99.72 C. 68.26 B. 95.44 D. 34.13 119. In research, t-test is appropriate to test the significant difference between: A. frequencies B. median C. two means only D. three or more means 120. Skewed score distribution means: A. The scores are normally distributed. B. The mean and the median are equal. C. The mode, the mean, and the median are equal. D. The scores are concentrated more at one end or the other end. 121. Teacher Anne gives achievement test to her 30 students. The test consists of the 25 items. She wants to compare her students’ performance based on the test result. What is the appropriate measure for this position? A. Percentage B. Percentile rank C. z-score D. Standard nine 122. Student J was asked to report to the Guidance Office. Student J and his classmates at once remarked: “What’s wrong?” What does this mean? A. Reporting to a Guidance Office is often associated with misbehavior. B. The parents of student J must be of the delinquent type. C. Student J is a “problem” student. D. Guidance counselors are perceived to be “almighty and omniscient”. 123. Which of the following statements is one of the strength of an autobiography as a technique for personally appraisal? A. It can replace data obtained from other data gathering technique. B. It may be read by unauthorized people. C. It gives complete data about the author. D. It makes possible presentation of intimate experiences. 124. The counselee revealed that she will commit suicide on weekend. Can the counselor reveal the secret to the parents? A. Yes, it is mandatory that in cases involving suicide that confidentially is superseded. B. No, the counselor has no right. C. Yes as long as he tells the parents that he is not the source. D. No, it is unethical. 125. This is the pre-planned collection of sample of student works, assessed results and other output by the students. A. Diary B. Observation report C. Portfolio D. Anecdotal records
  • 105.
    KEY TO CORRECTION Assessmentof Learning 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. C 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. D 16. C 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. D 21. A 22. C 23. D 24. C 25. D 26. A 27. C 28. A 29. A 30. B 31. D 32. A 33. B 34. B 35. B 36. B 37. D 38. C 39. A 40. B 41. A 42. B 43. C 44. B 45. A 46. C 47. C 48. C 49. A 50. D 51. D 52. D 53. C 54. D 55. B 56. A 57. D 58. B 59. A 60. D 61. B 62. B 63. A 64. D 65. B 66. A 67. B 68. D 69. A 70. C 71. B 72. C 73. D 74. B 75. C 76. A 77. D 78. A 79. C 80. B 81. A 82. B 83. D 84. A 85. A 86. B 87. D 88. C 89. B 90. D 91. C 92. C 93. B 94. B 95. D 96. B 97. C 98. B 99. C 100. D 101. D 102. B 103. B 104. A 105. B 106. C 107. C 108. C 109. D 110. D 111. C 112. C 113. A 114. A 115. C 116. B 117. B 118. C 119. C 120. D 121. C 122. A 123. D 124. A 125. C