For discrete random variables define the probability mass function a.pdf

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For discrete random variables define the probability mass function and the cumulative distribution function. Solution Probability mass function specifies the probabilities at each discrete point. It is defined as f(x) = P(X=x) for all x in range of X Cumulative distribution function is defined as F(x) = P(X <= x) for all values in range of X.

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Complete this table: Solution Transport mechanism concentration gradient Energy requirement Selectivity Osmosis Along the concentration gradient No energy required Only solvent molecules Facilitated diffusion Along the concentration gradient No energy required Solutes including mineral ions Active transport Against the concentration gradient Energy required Solutes, mineral ions, small organic molecules.

Complete this table Solution Transport mechanism concent.pdf

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Can someone please explain the whole life cycle of listeria Mococytogenes? Solution Morphology and culturing. The small Gram-positive rods feature peritrichous flagellation. They show greater motility at 20 8C than at 37 8C. Culturing is most successful under aerobic conditions on blood agar. Following incubation for 18 hours, small gray colonies surrounded by inconspicuous hemolytic zones appear. The zones are caused by listeriolysin O. listeriae can also reproduce at 5–10oC, which fact can be used in their selective enrichment (“cold enrichment”). Adherence. To phagocytic cells (e.g., macrophages) and nonphagocytic cells (e.g., enterocytes). Invasion. Endocytosis, induced by the protein internalin on the surface of the listeriae. Formation of the endosome. Destruction of the endosome. The virulence factor listeriolysin forms pores in the endosomal membrane, releasing the listeriae into the cytoplasm. Replication of the listeriae in the cytoplasm of infected cells. Local intercellular dissemination. Polymerization of the actin of infected cells at one pole of the listeriae to form so-called actin tails that move the listeriae toward the membrane. Formation of long membrane protuberances (known as listeriopods) containing listeriae. Neighboring cells engulf the listeriopods, whereupon the process of listeria release by means of endosome destruction is repeated. Dissemination is generally by means of hematogenous spread..

Can someone please explain the whole life cycle of listeria Mococyto.pdf

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Briefly describe the four IEEE 802.11i phases of operation? Solution The main thing we have to do is correct tap on the system status notice symbol and open the Network and Sharing Center from the setting menu. At that point tap on the Change connector settings hyperlink on the left-hand side of the Network and Sharing Center. Presently right-tap on the system connector you wish to change the DNS settings for and select properties from the setting menu. At the point when the properties for your system connector open, you should choose Internet Protocol Version 4 (TCP/IPv4) from the rundown, then snap properties. Our illustration will have opened the IPv4 settings for your system connector. You will find in the base portion of the discourse that your PC is set to get its DNS settings \"consequently\". You should change that with the goal that we can physically determine the DNS servers we need to utilize. Presently basically pick an administration underneath and enter the DNS server addresses. Google DNS Favored: 8.8.8.8 Interchange: 8.8.4.4 OpenDNS Favored: 208.67.222.222 Interchange: 208.67.220.220 We selected to run with Google DNS for the time being — while they could utilize this information to track your perusing propensities, by and by we\'re not that stressed over.

Briefly describe the four IEEE 802.11i phases of operationSolut.pdf

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B) Based on the allele frequency for this trait in the population, what assumptions would you make about the genotype of each outsider in this family tree if you were expecting it to be a recessive trait? Explain your reasoning. C) You collect phenotypic data from the living family member and determine that the following family members have tooth agenesis Affected member of this family are: II2, II4, II7, II8, III2, III4, III5, III7, III8, IV1, IV2 Which, if any, modes of inheritance may be ruled out for this family? Briefly explain your reasoning for each mode you rule out (use table below). D) Are the two sets of twins in this family identical or fraternal twins? What is the basis of your answer? E) If III-2 and III-7 married and had a child, what is the probability that their child would have tooth agenesis? State the mode of inheritance that you think is most likely for this tree. Show your calculations based on that mode of inheritance. Mode of Inheritance: Probability:Rule out? (Yes or No)Rationaleautosomal dominantautosomal recessiveX-linked dominantX-linked recessive Solution A) The outsiders of the family tree are II-1, II-5, II-6, II-9, III-1 B) The genotype of outsiders are as under II-1, a carrier, because one of the offspring is affected (III-2). II-5, affected, because both of its offsprings are affected (III-4, III-5). II-6, normal, also not a carrier, because its offspring is normal (III-6). II-9, affected, because both of its offsprings are affected (III-7, III-8) III-1, affected, because both of its offsprings are affected (IV-1, IV-2). C) The mode of inheritance is not autosomal dominant, because the offspring of the affected parent (II-7) is normal. The mode of inheritance is outosomal recessive. Because the parents I-1, I-2 are carriers and offspring of the affected parent (II-7) is normal. The inheitance is not X-linked dominant nor X-linked recessive, because both male and female are affected. D) The two sets of twins in this family- one set is identical and other is fraternal twins Twins (II-1, II-2) are fraternal twins, because one is affeted (II-2) and other is unaffected (II-1). Twins (II-7, II-8) are identical twins, because both the twins are affected. E) If III-2 and III-7 married, their 100% probability that the child would have tooth agenesis. Because the inheritance is autosomal recessive and both are affected..

B) Based on the allele frequency for this trait in the population, w.pdf

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Art labeling Activity. Organs of the Abdominopelvic Cavity (1 of 2, Cato Gallbladder Ascending colon Ileocecal sphincter Mesentery Pancreas ileum urinary bladder Duodenum Right lateral lobe of liver Solution In first picture 1st Top most label is for lobe under liver is for Gall bladder. 2nd label is for right lateral lobe of liver. 3rd label is for Duodenum 4th label is for Pancreas 5th label is for Ascending colon 6th label is for Ileocecal sphincter/junction 7th label is for Cecum 8th label is for ileum 9th label is for Urinary bladder 10th label in the right side is for Mesentery In second picture 1st Top most label is for Falciform ligament. 2nd label is for Location of pyloric sphincter. 3rd label is for Jejunum 4th label is for Descending colon 1st Top most label in the right side is for Left medial lobe of Liver. 2nd label in the right side is for Left lateral lobe of Liver. 3rd label in the right side is for Lesser omentum 4th label in the right side is for stomach 5th label in the right side is for Greater Omentum (retracted) 6th label in the right side is for Spleen.

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Altitudinal zonation of vegetation on a mountain often resembles latitudinal distribution of vegetation. Why is this? Where on a mountain would you expect to find alpine tundra? Solution Altitudinal zonation of vegetation on a mountain often resembles the latitudinal distribution of vegetation because with the increase in altitude the temperature drops. The change in climate with increasing altitude mimic the change in climate with changing latitude from tropics to the poles. Due to the change in the climate, the vegetation also resembles the corresponding zones in the latitudes. Alpine tundra are expected on the top of the mountains at 11,500 -14750 feet above the sea level..

Altitudinal zonation of vegetation on a mountain often resembles lat.pdf

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A Type I error occurs when we Do not reject the null hypothesis when it is actually false Reject the null hypothesis when it is actually false Do not reject the null hypothesis when it is actually true Reject the null hypothesis when it is actually true Solution Type I error is the probability of rejecting the true null hypothesis. So option: \"Reject the null hypothesis when it is actually true. \".

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An org^+ cys^+ his^+ met pro bacterial strain is known to be lysogenic for a newly discovered phage that undergoes specialized transduction. The bacterial chromosome map is... The lysogenic strain is used as a source of the phage, and the phages are added to a bacterial strain of genotype org cys his met pro. After a brief incubation, samples of these phage-exposed bacteria are plated on five different types of minimal media (1-5), with the supplementations as indicated in the following table. A plus sign means the minimal media contained that particular supplement (indicated at the top of each column), a minus sign means the media was missing that supplement. Based on this information, tell me whether or not you\'d find colonics (growth) on each of the five media if specialized transduction occurred. OK cool. Why would those media have grown colonies? Solution a)Growth on each of the five media are: 1) N 2) C 3) N 4) C 5) N N= no colonies are formed,C = colonies are formed b)The media have grown colonies because these selected for cys+ or met+ transductants and indicate that the prophage is located in cys-met region..

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8. A cytologist needs to test if a virus replicates in the cytoplasm or the nucleus of the live host cells. The cytologist should use a _______ for the examination. A. A SEM B. A TEM C. A darkfield LM D. A high-end STED LM E. A confocal microscope Solution Answer: (D). A high-end STED LM STED LM or stimulated emission depletion light microscopy is used to visualize the replication process of virus in live host cells. It is a newly invented light imaging technique with super lateral resolution and aids in observing sub-cellular compartments which are not possible with other microscopy techniques. Hence a cytologist can use high-end STED LM to observe whether viruses are replicating in the cytoplasm or nucleus of host cell..

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15. If the goal is to make an inference about a population from a sample, and each member of the population has an equally likely chance of being chosen for the sample, we say the sample has been ____________ chosen. (Points : 10) Solution randomly is the answer. When each member has an equal chance, then there is absolutely no bias and the selection of one or a group follows strictly a random process..

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1) In the summer of 1998, after extrely hot, dry weather, the Georgia corn harvest was expected to be reduced by at least 25%. Using your knowledge of the dual functions of guard cells relative to water retention and gasexchange, explain the reduction in photosynthetic productivity. 2) Plant cells have cell walls and animal cells do not. How does this difference relate to differences in plant andanimal function? 3) Table 20.2 – Structure and Function of Plant CellsCell TypeStructureFunctionPlantEpidermisGuard CellsParenchymaCollenchymaSclerenchymaTracheidsVesselsSieve TubesEndodermisPrimary MeristemsVascular CambiumPericyclePeridermRay Parenchyma Solution 1). Plants draw water through roots, Cuticle is the outer covering o plants, which is a waxy substance and it prevents the entry of water to and from stem and leaves. Cuticle contains specialized pores called stomata, which allow the passage of o2 and co2 through it. The Stomata contain two guard cells, they swell and shrink when water moves into and out of them and this controls the loss of water from the leaf while allowing the passage of gases. During summer, the guard cells remain closed for most of the time to avoid water loss at an expense of reduced gaseous exchange. Means, less carbon dioxide (CO2) is available for photosynthesis, which reduces the rate of photosynthesis in summer in corn plants..

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Why are two phases of meiosis necessary? In order to maximize variation in the next generation In order to both reduce the chromosome number and separate sister chromatics. In order to produce two daughter cells. In order to produce 4 gametes. All of these. Solution Answer - To Produce 4 gametes Meiosis consist of two phases of cell division - Meiosis I and Meiosis II Meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes by half, and is thus known as reductional form of cell division. This process is necessary for the formation of gametes for fertilization. The number of daughter cells formed are four..

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Which plants produce multiple sporangia? (Select all that apply.) a.Gametophytes of bryophytes b.Gametophytes of seedless vascular plants c.Sporophytes of bryophytes d.Sporophytes of seedless vascular plants e.None of the above a.Gametophytes of bryophytes b.Gametophytes of seedless vascular plants c.Sporophytes of bryophytes d.Sporophytes of seedless vascular plants e.None of the above Solution answer is d. except sporophytes of bryophytes rest produce multiple sporangia. In bryophytes such as hornworts, mosses and liverworts, an unbranched sporophyte gives rise only to a single sporangium whereas in other embryophytes, the land plants the sporophytes can produce multiple sporangia. Gametophytes give rise from the spores of sporagium. two different kinds of spores are produced in hetreosporous plants giving rise to microspore (male gametophyte) and megapsores (female gametophytes). homosporous produce single kind of spores by meiosis..

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What role does a Domain Name Service perform in a network?, what is the criticality of ensuring it is well maintained. Solution dns is a process for naming computers and network services roles of dns is 1)support for active directory domain services 2)stub zones 3)integration with other network services 4)support for zone transfer between servers 5)conditional forward what is the criticality of ensuring it is well maintained. 1)make sure that your email address is correct in the soa 2)make sure of that your not running any recursive name servers 3)ensuring of local host is forward and reverse mapped.

What role does a Domain Name Service perform in a network, what is .pdf

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What is the role of the external anal sphincter? What is the role of the external anal sphincter? Solution Answer: The external anal sphincter is skeletal muscle that can be consciously controlled, and is innervated by somatic efferent neurons. The external anal sphincter control evacuation of feces from the anus. If sufficient volume of feaces is deposited in the rectum, the increased pressure will stimulate a reflexive contraction in the sigmoid colon and rectum. Then it helps in defecation by its contraction..

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What do we mean by basic kinematic analysis? The velocity/acceleration difference equation relates the velocities/accelerations of two points: On the same link (rigid body) at same location On two different links at different locations On the same link at different locations On two different links at same location The apparent velocity/acceleration equation relates the velocities/accelerations of two points: On the same link (rigid body) at same location On two different links at different locations On the same link at different locations On two different links at same location Solution Q1:Kinematic analysis is the analysis is describes the motion of the points/bodies/objects or the system of the objects without consideration of the cause of the motion.So we only have position, displacement,velocity and acceleration without forces.torques which created them Q2:b Q3:b.

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Using Eclipse Please make sure it works before you post because I\'ve gotten incorrect answers twice already Implement the temperature class depicted by the following UML representation. Your main program should look similar to this: Solution #include #include void main() { clrscr(); float cel, fah,kel; cout<<”Enter the Temperature in FAH”<>fah; CEL= (fah-32.0)/1.800; cout<<”Temperature in cel is “<.

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To help ensure safe flights, air traffic controllers enforce a minimum time interval between takeoffs. Explain why this time interval between takeoffs can be shortened if the wind has a cross-runway component ( as opposed to blowing directly down the runway)? Solution Answer : Use different types of air traffic pattern. Procedures in the pattern[edit] Aircraft are expected to join and leave the pattern, following the pattern already in use. Sometimes this will be at the discretion of the pilot, while at other times the pilot will be directed by air traffic control. There are conventions for joining the pattern, used in different jurisdictions. Similarly, there are conventions for departing the pattern. There is also a procedure known as an \"orbit\", where an aircraft flies a 360° loop either clockwise or anticlockwise. This is usually to allow greater separation with other traffic ahead in the pattern. This can be the result of a controller\'s instruction. If at the pilot\'s initiative, the pilot will report e.g. \"(tail number or flight number) making one left-hand orbit, will advise complete\". To practice take off and landing, a pilot would often fly many patterns, one after another, from the same runway. Upon each landing, depending on the runway distance remaining, aircraft and pilot capabilities, noise abatement procedures in effect, and air traffic control clearance, the pilot will perform either a full stop landing (taxi to the runway beginning for subsequent take-off), a touch-and-go (stabilize in the landing roll, reconfigure the aircraft for take-off, and take-off without ever stopping the aircraft), or a stop-and-go (decelerate to a stop, then take-off from the remaining runway). In the U.S., when operating in a controlled airport a pilot can be cleared for the option, allowing any of the landing options above, or a rejected landing, at pilot\'s discretion. Time interval importance in radar system. Radar coverage Since centers control a large airspace area, they will typically use long range radar that has the capability, at higher altitudes, to see aircraft within 200 nautical miles (370 km) of the radar antenna. They may also use TRACON radar data to control when it provides a better \"picture\" of the traffic or when it can fill in a portion of the area not covered by the long range radar. In the U.S. system, at higher altitudes, over 90% of the U.S. airspace is covered by radar and often by multiple radar systems; however, coverage may be inconsistent at lower altitudes used by unpressurized aircraft due to high terrain or distance from radar facilities. A center may require numerous radar systems to cover the airspace assigned to them, and may also rely on pilot position reports from aircraft flying below the floor of radar coverage. This results in a large amount of data being available to the controller. To address this, automation systems have been designed that consolidate the radar data for the controller. This consolid.

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The lizards inside and around the White Sands area were once considered a single species. Scientists think that the group of lizards in White Sands and the groups on the rocks surrounding this area are undergoing speciation. What needs to happen in order for the lizards to form two species? Explain your answer. Solution For speciation to occur, the two groups of lizards have to be separated and should not be allowed to mate for many generations. Therefore if there is a barrier to the movement of the individulas of two species to mingle and meet with one another, then they cannot reproduce. Then, the two groups of lizards will be foced to reproduce within their own populations. As they are now occupying two different ecosystems, given enough time, if the barrier remains intact, the two groups of lizards may evolve into two different species..

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