LET REVIEWER

1. PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION
ASSESSMENT OF LEARNING
LET Review
Mr. AngeloA. Unay

2. How does measurement differ from
evaluation?
1
A. Measurement is assigning a numerical value to a
given trait while evaluation is giving meaning to
the numerical value of the trait.
B. Measurement is the process of quantifying data
while evaluation is the process of organizing
data.
C. Measurement is a pre-requisite of assessment
while evaluation is the pre-requisite of testing.
D. Measurement is gathering data while assessment
is quantifying the data gathered.

3. Miss del Sol rated her students in terms of
appropriate and effective use of some
laboratory equipment and measurement
tools and if they are able to follow specified
procedures. What mode of assessment
should Miss del Sol use?
2
A. Portfolio Assessment
B. Journal Assessment
C. Traditional Assessment
D. Performance-Based Assessment

4. A. Ms. Olivares, who asked questions when the
discussion was going on to know who among her
students understood what she was trying to stress.
B. Mr. Borromeo, who gave a short quiz after
discussing thoroughly the lesson to determine the
outcome of instruction.
C. Ms. Berces, who gave a 10-item test to find out the
specific lessons which the students failed to
understand.
D. Mrs. Corpuz, who administered a readiness test to
the incoming grade one pupils.
Who among the teachers below performed
a formative evaluation?
3

5. St. Andrews School gave a standardized
achievement test instead of giving a teacher-made
test to the graduating elementary pupils. Which
could have been the reason why this was the kind
of test given?
4
A. Standardized test has items of average level of
difficulty while teacher-made test has varying levels of
difficulty.
B. Standardized test uses multiple-choice format while
teacher-made test uses the essay test format.
C. Standardized test is used for mastery while teacher-
made test is used for survey.
D. Standardized test is valid while teacher-made test is
just reliable.

6. Which test format is best to use if the
purpose of the test is to relate inventors and
their inventions?
5
A. Short-Answer
B. True-False
C. MatchingType
D. Multiple Choice

7. In the parlance of index of test construction,
what doesTOS mean?
6
A. Table of Specifics
B. Terms of Specifications
C. Table of Scopes
D. Table of Specifications

8. Here is an item:
“From the data presented in the table, form
generalizations that are supported by the data.”
Under what type of question does this item fall?
7
A. Convergent
B. Evaluative
C. Application
D. Divergent

9. The following are synonymous to
performance objectives EXCEPT:
8
A. Learner’s objective
B. Instructional objective
C. Teacher’s objective
D. Behavioral objective

10. Which is (are) a norm-referenced statement?
9
A. Danny performed better in spelling than
60% of his classmates.
B. Danny was able to spell 90% of the words
correctly.
C. Danny was able to spell 90% of the words
correctly and spelled 35 words out of 50
correctly.
D. Danny spelled 35 words out of 50 correctly.

11. Which guideline in test construction is NOT
observed in this test item?
EDGAR ALLAN POEWROTE __________.
10
A. The length of the blank suggests the
answer.
B. The central problem is not packed in the
stem.
C. It is open to more than one correct answer.
D. The blank is at the end of the question.

12. Which does NOT belong to the group?
11
A. Completion
B. Matching
C. Multiple Choice
D. Alternate Response

13. A test is considered reliable if:
12
A. it is easy to score.
B. it served the purpose for which it is
constructed.
C. it is consistent and stable.
D. it is easy to administer.

14. Which is claimed to be the overall advantage
of criterion-referenced over norm-referenced
interpretation?
13
A. An individual’s score is compared with the set
mastery level.
B. An individual’s score is compared with that of his
peers.
C. An individual’s score is compared with the average
scores.
D. An individual’s score does not need to be
compared with any measure.

15. Teacher Liza does norm-referenced
interpretation of scores. Which of the
following does she do?
14
A. She uses a specified content as its frame of
reference.
B. She describes group performance in relation
to a set mastery level.
C. She compares every individual student score
with others’ scores.
D. She describes what should be their
performance.

16. All examinees obtained scores below the
mean. A graphic representation of the score
distribution will be __________.
15
A. Negatively skewed
B. Perfect normal curve
C. Leptokurtic
D. Positively skewed

17. In a normal distribution curve, aT-score of 70 is:
16
A. Two SDs below the mean
B. Two SDs above the mean
C. One SD below the mean
D. One SD above the mean

18. Which type of test measures higher-order
thinking skills?
17
A. Enumeration
B. Matching
C. Completion
D. Analogy

19. Who is the best admired for outstanding
contribution to world peace?
A. Kissinger C. Kennedy
B. Clinton D. MotherTeresa
What isWRONG with this item?
18
A. Item is overly specific.
B. Content is trivial.
C. Test item is opinion-based.
D. There is a cue to the right answer.

20. The strongest disadvantage of the alternate-
response type of test is:
19
A. the demand for critical thinking
B. the absence of analysis
C. the encouragement of rote memory
D. the high possibility of guessing

21. A class is composed of academically poor
students.The distribution will most likely to be:
20
A. leptokurtic
B. skewed to the right
C. skewed to the left
D. symmetrical

22. Of the following types of tests, which is the
most subjective in scoring?
21
A. Enumeration
B. MatchingType
C. Essay
D. Multiple Choice

23. Tom’s raw score in the Filipino class is 23 which is
equal to the 70th percentile. What does this
imply?
22
A. 70% of Tom’s classmates got a score
lower than 23.
B. Tom’s score is higher than 23% of his
classmates.
C. 70% of Tom’s classmates got a score
above 23.
D. Tom’s score is higher than 23 of his
classmates.

24. Test norms are established in order to have a
basis for:
23
A. establishing learning objectives
B. identifying pupil’s difficulties
C. planning effective instructional devices
D. comparing test scores

25. The score distribution follows a normal curve.
What does this mean?
24
A. Most of the scores are on the -2SD.
B. Most of the scores are on the +2SD.
C. The scores coincide with the mean.
D. Most of the scores pile up between -1SD
and +1SD.

26. In her conduct of item analysis, Teacher Cristy
found out that a significantly greater number
from the upper group of the class got test item
#5 correctly.This means that the test item:
25
A. Has a negative discriminating power
B. Is valid
C. Is easy
D. Has a positive discriminating power

27. Mr. Reyes tasked his students to play
volleyball. What learning target is he
assessing?
26
A. Knowledge
B. Skill
C. Products
D. Reasoning

28. Martina obtained an NSAT percentile rank of 80.
This indicates that:
27
A. She surpassed in performance 80% of her
fellow examinees.
B. She got a score of 80.
C. She surpassed in performance 20% of her
fellow examinees.
D. She answered 80 items correctly.

29. Which term refers to the collection of students’
products and accomplishments for a period for
evaluation purposes?
28
A. Anecdotal Records
B. Portfolio
C. Observation Report
D. Diary

30. Which form of assessment is consistent with the
saying “The proof of the pudding is in the
eating?”
29
A. Contrived
B. Authentic
C. Traditional
D. Indirect

31. Which error do teachers commit when they tend
to overrate the achievement of students
identified by aptitude tests as gifted because
they expect achievement and giftedness to go
together?
30
A. Generosity Error
B. CentralTendency Error
C. Severity Error
D. Logical Error

32. Under which assumption is portfolio assessment
based?
31
A. Portfolio assessment is dynamic assessment.
B. Assessment should stress the reproduction
of knowledge.
C. An individual learner is inadequately
characterized by a test score.
D. An individual learner is adequately
characterized by a test score.

33. Which is a valid assessment tool if I want to find
out how well my students can speak
extemporaneously?
32
A. Writing speeches
B. Written quiz on how to deliver
extemporaneous speech
C. Performance test in extemporaneous
speaking
D. Display of speeches delivered

34. Teacher J discovered that her pupils are weak in
comprehension. To further determine which
particular skill(s) her pupils are weak in, which
test shouldTeacher J give?
33
A. Standardized test
B. Placement
C. Diagnostic
D. Aptitude test

35. “Group the following items according to
phylum” is a thought test item on __________.
34
A. Inferring
B. Classifying
C. Generalizing
D. Comparing

36. In a multiple choice test, keeping the options
brief indicates________.
35
A. Inclusion in the item irrelevant clues such as
the use in the correct answer
B. Non-inclusion of option that mean the same
C. Plausibility & attractiveness of the item
D. Inclusion in the item any word that must
otherwise repeated in each response

37. Which will be the most authentic assessment
tool for an instructional objective on working
with and relating to people?
36
A. Writing articles on working and relating
to people
B. Organizing a community project
C. Home visitation
D. Conducting a mock election

38. While she is in the process of teaching, Teacher J
finds out if her students understand what she is
teaching.What isTeacher J engaged in?
37
A. Criterion-referenced evaluation
B. Summative evaluation
C. Formative evaluation
D. Norm-referenced evaluation

39. With types of test in mind, which does NOT
belong to the group?
38
A. Restricted response essay
B. Completion
C. Multiple choice
D. Short answer

40. Which tests determine whether the students
accept responsibility for their own behavior or
pass on responsibility for their own behavior to
other people?
39
A. Thematic tests
B. SentenceCompletion tests
C. Stylistic tests
D. Locus-of-control tests

41. When writing performance objectives, which
word is NOT acceptable?
40
A. Manipulate
B. Delineate
C. Comprehend
D. Integrate

42. Here is a test item:
__________ is an example of a mammal.
What is defective with the test item?
41
A. It is very elementary.
B. The blank is at the beginning of the
sentence.
C. It is a very short question.
D. It is an insignificant test item.

43. “By observing unity, coherence, emphasis, and
variety, write a short paragraph on taking
examinations.”
This is an item that test the students’ skill to
__________.
42
A. Evaluate
B. Comprehend
C. Synthesize
D. Recall

44. Teacher A constructed a matching type of test.
In her columns of items are a combination of
events, peoples, and circumstances. Which of
the following guidelines in constructing
matching type of test did he violate?
43
A. List options in an alphabetical order.
B. Make list of items homogeneous.
C. Make list of items heterogeneous.
D. Provide three or more options.

45. A number of items in a test are said to be non-
discriminating,What conclusion/s can be drawn?
I. Teaching or learning was very good.
II. The item is so easy that anyone could get it
right.
III. The item is so difficult that nobody could get
it.
45
A. I only
B. I and III
C. II only
D. II and III

46. Measuring the work done by a gravitational
force is a learning task. At what level of
cognition is it?
46
A. Comprehension
B. Application
C. Evaluation
D. Analysis

47. Which improvement/s should be done in this
completion test item:
An example of a mammal is __________.
47
A. The blank should be longer to accommodate
all possible answers.
B. The blank should be at the beginning of the
sentence.
C. The question should have only one
acceptable answer.
D. The item should give more clues.

48. Here isTeacher D’s lesson objective:
“To trace the causes of Alzheimer’s Disease.”
Which is a valid test for this particular objective?
48
A. Can Alzheimer’s Disease be traced to old
age? Explain.
B. To what factors can Alzheimer’s Disease be
traced? Explain.
C. What is Alzheimer’s Disease?
D. Do young people get attacked by
Alzheimer’s Disease? Support your answer.

49. What characteristic of a good test will pupils be
assured of when a teacher constructs a table of
specifications for test construction purposes?
49
A. Reliability
B. ContentValidity
C. ConstructValidity
D. Scorability

50. A test is valid when __________.
a. it measures what purports to measure
b. covers a broad scope of subject matter
c. reliability of scores
d. easy to administer
How can you improve this test item?
50
A. Make the length of the options uniform.
B. Pack the question in the stem.
C. Make the options parallel.
D. Construct the options in such a way that the
grammar of the sentence remains correct.

51. In taking a test, one examinee approached the
proctor for clarification on what to do. This
implies a problem on which characteristic of a
good test?
51
A. Objectivity
B. Administrability
C. Scorability
D. Economy

52. Teacher Jane wants to determine if her students’
scores in the second grading is reliable.
However, she has only one test and her students
are already on their semestral break. What test
of reliability can she use?
52
A. Test-Retest
B. Split-half
C. Equivalent forms
D. Test-Retest with equivalent forms

53. Mrs. Cruz has only one form of test and she
administered her test only once. What test of
reliability can she do?
53
A. Test of stability
B. Test of equivalence
C. Test of correlation
D. Test of internal consistency

54. What is the lower limit of the class with highest
frequency?
54
Class Limits Frequency
50 – 54 9
45 – 49 12
40 – 44 16
35 – 39 8
30 – 34 5
A. 39.5
B. 40
C. 44
D. 44.5

55. What is the crude mode?
55
Class Limits Frequency
50 – 54 9
45 – 49 12
40 – 44 16
35 – 39 8
30 – 34 5
A. 40
B. 42
C. 42.5
D. 44

56. About what percent of the cases falls between
+1 and -1 SD in a normal curve?
56
A. 43.1%
B. 95.4%
C. 99.8%
D. 68.3%

57. Study this group of test which was administered to
a class to whom Peter belongs, then answer the
question:
In which subject(s) did Peter perform most poorly in
relation to the group’s mean performance?
57
SUBJECT MEAN SD PETER’S SCORE
Math 56 10 43
Physics 41 9 31
English 80 16 109
A. English
B. Physics
C. English and Physics
D. Math

58. Study this group of test which was administered to
a class to whom Peter belongs, then answer the
question:
In which subject(s) were the scores most
widespread?
58
SUBJECT MEAN SD PETER’S SCORE
Math 56 10 43
Physics 41 9 31
English 80 16 109
A. Math
B. Physics
C. Cannot be determined
D. English

59. A mathematics test was given to all Grade V
pupils to determine the contestants for the
Math Quiz Bee. Which statistical measure should
be used to identify the top 15?
59
A. Mean Percentage Score
B. Quartile Deviation
C. Percentile Rank
D. Percentage Score

60. A test item has a difficulty index of .89 and a
discrimination index of -0.44. What should the
teacher do?
60
A. Make it a bonus item.
B. Reject the item.
C. Retain the item.
D. Make it a bonus and reject it.

61. What is/are important to state when explaining
percentile-ranked tests to parents?
I. What group took the test
II. That the scores show how students
performed in relation to other students
III. That the scores show how students
performed in relation to an absolute measure
61
A. II only
B. I and III
C. I and II
D. III only

62. Which of the following reasons for measuring
student achievement is NOT valid?
62
A. To prepare feedback on the
effectiveness of the learning process
B. To certify the students have attained a
level of competence in a subject area
C. To discourage students from cheating
during test and getting high scores
D. To motivate students to learn and
master the materials they think will be
covered by the achievement test

63. The computed r for English and Math scores is
-0.75.What does this mean?
63
A. The higher the scores in English, the
higher the scores in Math.
B. The scores in Math and English do not
have any relationship.
C. The higher the scores in Math, the
lower the scores in English.
D. The lower the scores in English, the
lower the scores in Math.

64. Which statement holdsTRUE to grades?
Grades __________.
64
A. Are exact measurements of intelligence
and achievement
B. Are necessarily a measure of a student’s
intelligence
C. Are intrinsic motivators for learning
D. Are a measure of achievement

65. What is the advantage of using computers in
processing test results?
65
A. Test results can easily be assessed.
B. Its statistical computation is accurate.
C. Its processing takes a shorter period of
time.
D. All of the above

66. Which of the following steps should be completed
first in planning an achievement test?
1
A. Set-up a table of specifications.
B. Go back to the instructional objectives.
C. Determine the length of the test.
D. Select the type of test items to use.

67. __________________ is an example of a leafy vegetable.
Why is this test item poor?
I. The test item does not pose a problem to the
examinee.
II. There is a variety of possible correct answers to this
item.
III. The language used in the question is not precise.
IV. The blank is near the beginning of a sentence.
2
A. I and III
B. II and IV
C. I and IV
D. I and II

68. On the first day of class after introductions, the
teacher administered a Misconception/
Preconception Check. She explained that she
wanted to know what the class as a whole already
knew about the Philippines before the Spaniards
came. The Misconception/Preconception Check is
a form of a
3
A. diagnostic test
B. placement test
C. criterion-referenced test
D. achievement test

69. A test item has a difficulty index of .81 and a
discrimination index of .13. What should the
test constructor do?
4
A. Retain the item.
B. Make it a bonus item.
C. Revise the item.
D. Reject the item.

70. If a teacher wants to measure her students’
ability to discriminate, which of these is an
appropriate type of test item as implied by
the direction?
5
A. “Outline the chapter on The Cell”.
B. “Summarize the lesson yesterday.”
C. “Group the following items according
to shape.”
D. “State a set of principles that can
explain the following events.”

71. A. the test item could not discriminate
between the lower and upper groups.
B. more from the upper group got the item
correctly.
C. more from the lower group got the item
correctly.
D. the test item has low reliability.
A positive discrimination index means that 6

72. A. Portfolio Assessment
B. Performance Assessment
C. Journal Entry
D. Pen-and-Paper test
Teacher Ria discovered that her pupils are
very good in dramatizing. Which tool must
have helped her discover her pupils’ strength?
7

73. A. To contract a muscle
B. To run a 100-meter dash
C. To distinguish distant and close sounds
D. To dance the basic steps of the waltz
Which among the following objectives in the
psychomotor domain is highest in level?
8

74. A. Concurrent
B. Construct
C. Content
D. Predictive
If your LET items sample adequately the
competencies listed in education courses
syllabi, it can be said that LET possesses
__________ validity.
9

75. A. It is not easy to administer.
B. It puts the non-linguistically intelligent
at a disadvantage.
C. It utilizes so much time.
D. It lacks reliability.
In the context on the theory on multiple
intelligences, what is one weakness of the
pen-and-paper test?
10

76. A. ObjectiveTest
B. Short AnswerTest
C. Essay
D. ProblemType
Which test has broad sampling of topics as
strength?
11

77. Quiz is to formative as periodic is to ________?
12
A. criterion-referenced
B. summative test
C. norm-referenced
D. diagnostic test

78. What does a negatively skewed score
distribution imply?
13
A. The score congregate on the left side of
the normal distribution curve.
B. The scores are widespread.
C. The students must be academically
poor.
D. The scores congregate on the right side
of the normal distribution.

79. The criterion of success in Teacher Lyn’s
objective is that “the pupils must be able
to spell 90% of the words correctly”. Ana
and 19 others correctly spelled 40 words
only out of 50. This means that Teacher
Lyn:
14
A. attained her objective because of her
effective spelling drill
B. attained her lesson objective
C. failed to attain her lesson objective as
far as the twenty pupils are concerned
D. did not attain her lesson objective
because of the pupil’s lack of attention

80. In group norming, percentile rank of the
examinee is:
15
A. dependent on his batch of examinees.
B. independent on his batch of
examinees.
C. unaffected by skewed distribution.
D. affected by skewed distribution.

81. When a significantly greater number from the
lower group gets a test item correctly, this
implies that the test item:
16
A. is very valid
B. is not very valid
C. is not highly reliable
D. is highly reliable

82. Which applies when there are extreme scores?
17
A. The median will not be a very reliable
measure of central tendency.
B. The mode will be the most reliable
measure of central tendency.
C. There is no reliable measure for central
tendency.
D. The mean will not be a very reliable
measure of central tendency.

83. Which statement about performance-based
assessment is FALSE?
18
A. They emphasize merely process.
B. They stress on doing, not only
knowing.
C. Essay tests are examples of
performance-based assessments.
D. They accentuate on process as well as
product.

84. If the scores of your test follow a negatively
skewed distribution, what should you do?
Find out_________________.
19
A. Why your items were easy
B. Why most of the scores are high
C. Why most of the scores are low
D. Why some pupils scored high

85. Median is to point as standard deviation is
to __________.
20
A. Area
B. Volume
C. Distance
D. Square

86. Referring to assessment of learning, which
statement on the normal curve is FALSE?
21
A. The normal curve may not necessarily apply
to homogeneous class.
B. When all pupils achieve as expected of their
learning, curve may deviate from the normal
curve.
C. The normal curve is sacred. Teachers must
adhere to it no matter what.
D. The normal curve may not be achieved when
every pupil acquires targeted competencies.

87. Aura Vivian is one-half standard deviation
above the mean of his group in arithmetic
and one standard deviation above in
spelling.What does this imply?
22
A. She excels both is arithmetic and spelling.
B. She is better in arithmetic than in spelling.
C. She does not excel in spelling nor in
arithmetic.
D. She is better in spelling than in arithmetic.

88. You give a 100-point test, three students
make scores of 95, 91, and 91, respectively,
while the other 22 students in the class
make scores ranging from 33 to 67. The
measure of central tendency which is apt
to best describe this group of 25 is:
23
A. the mean
B. the mode
C. an average of the median and mode
D. the median

89. NSAT and NEAT results are interpreted
against a set of mastery level. This means that
NSAT and NEAT fall under:
24
A. Criterion-referenced test
B. Achievement test
C. Aptitude test
D. Norm-referenced test

90. Which of the following is the MOST important
purpose for using achievement test? To
measure the_______.
25
A. Quality & quantity of previous learning
B. Quality & quantity of previous teaching
C. Educational & vocational aptitude
D. It emphasizes learning not objectivity of
scoring.

91. What should be AVOIDED in arranging the
items of the final form of the test?
26
A. Space the items so they can be read easily.
B. Follow a definite response pattern for the
correct answers to ensure ease of scoring.
C. Arrange the sections such that they
progress from the very simple to very
complex.
D. Keep all the items and options together on
the same page.

92. What is an advantage of point system of
grading?
27
A. It does away with establishing clear
distinctions among students.
B. It is precise.
C. It is qualitative.
D. It emphasizes learning not objectivity of
scoring.

93. Which statement on test result interpretation
is CORRECT?
28
A. A raw score by itself is meaningful.
B. A student’s score is a final indication of
his ability.
C. The use of statistical technique gives
meaning to pupil’s scores.
D. Test scores do not in any way reflect
teacher’s effectiveness.

94. Below is a list of methods used to establish the
reliability of the instrument. Which method is
questioned for its reliability due to practice
and familiarity?
29
A. Split-half
B. Equivalent Forms
C. Test-Retest
D. Kuder-Richardson Formula 20

95. Q3 is to 75th percentile as median is to:
30
A. 40th percentile
B. 25th percentile
C. 50th percentile
D. 49th percentile

96. What type of test is this?
Knee is to leg as elbow is to __________.
A. Hand B. Fingers C. Arm D.Wrist
31
A. Analogy
B. Rearrangement type
C. Short answer type
D. Problem type

97. Which statement about standard deviation is
CORRECT?
32
A. The lower the SD, the more spread the
scores are.
B. The higher the SD, the less spread the
scores are.
C. The higher the SD, the more spread the
scores are.
D. It is a measure of central tendency.

98. Which test items do NOT affect variability of
test scores?
33
A. Test items that are a bit easy.
B. Test items that are moderate in difficulty.
C. Test items that are a bit difficult.
D. Test items that every examinee gets
correctly.

99. Teacher B wants to diagnose in which vowel
sound(s) her students have difficulty. Which
tool is most appropriate?
34
A. Portfolio Assessment
B. Journal Entry
C. PerformanceTest
D. Paper-and-pencilTest

100. The index of difficulty of a particular test is
0.10. What does this mean? My students
__________.
35
A. Gained mastery over the item.
B. Performed very well against expectation.
C. Found that the test item was either easy
nor difficult.
D. Find the test item difficult.

101. Study this group of test which was administered
with the following results, then answer the question
that follows:
In which subject(s) did Ronnel perform best in
relation to the group’s mean performance?
36
SUBJECT MEAN SD RONNEL’S SCORE
Math 56 10 43
Physics 41 9 31
English 80 16 109
A. Physics and Math
B. English
C. Math
D. Physics

102. Which applies when the distribution is
concentrated on the left side of the curve?
37
A. Bell curve
B. Positively skewed
C. Leptokurtic
D. Negatively skewed

103. Standard deviation is to variability as
_________ is to central tendency.
38
A. quartile
B. mode
C. range
D. Pearson r

104. Danny takes an IQ test thrice and each time
earns a similar score. The test is said to
possess __________.
39
A. Objectivity
B. Reliability
C. Validity
D. Scorability

105. The test item has a discrimination index of -0.38
and a difficulty index of 1.0. What does this imply
to test construction?Teacher must __________.
40
A. recast the item
B. shelve the item for future use
C. reject the item
D. retain the item

106. Here is a sampleTRUE-FALSE test item:
All women have a longer life-span than men.
What is wrong with the test item?
41
A. The test item is quoted verbatim from a
textbook.
B. The test item contains trivial detail.
C. A specific determiner was used in the
statement.
D. The test item was vague.

107. In which competency do my students find
greatest difficulty? In the item with the
difficulty index of:
42
A. 1.0
B. .50
C. .90
D. .10

108. “Describe the reasoning errors in the following
paragraph” is a sample thought question on
__________.
43
A. synthesizing
B. applying
C. analyzing
D. summarizing

109. In a one hundred-item test, what does Ryan’s
raw score of 70 mean?
44
A. He surpassed 70 of his classmates in
terms of score.
B. He surpassed 30 of his classmates in
terms of score.
C. He got a score above the mean.
D. He got 70 items correct.

110. Study the table on item analysis for non-
attractiveness and non-plausibility of distractors
based on the results of a multiple choice tryout test
in math. The letter marked with an asterisk in the
correct answer.
Based on the table, which is the most effective
distracter?
45
A* B C D
Upper 27% 10 4 1 1
Lower 27% 6 6 2 0
A. Option A
B. Option C
C. Option B
D. Option D

111. Here is a score distribution: 98, 93, 93, 93, 90, 88,
87, 85, 85, 85, 70, 51, 34, 34, 34, 20, 18, 15, 12, 9,
8, 6, 3, 1.
Which is a characteristic of the score
distribution?
46
A. Bi-modal
B. Tri-modal
C. Skewed to the right
D. No discernible pattern

112. Which measure(s) of central tendency is (are)
most appropriate when the score distribution is
badly skewed?
47
A. Mode
B. Mean and mode
C. Median
D. Mean

113. Is it wise to practice to orient our students and
parents on our grading system?
48
A. No, this will court a lot of complaints later.
B. Yes, but orientation must be only for our
immediate customers, the students.
C. Yes, so that from the very start, students
and their parents know how grades are
derived.
D. No, grades and how they are derived are
highly confidential.

114. With the current emphasis on self-assessment
and performance assessment, which is
indispensable?
49
A. Numerical grading
B. Paper-and-PencilTest
C. TransmutationTable
D. Scoring Rubric

115. “In the light of the facts presented, what is most
likely to happen when…?” is a sample thought
question on __________.
50
A. inferring
B. generalizing
C. synthesizing
D. justifying

116. With grading practice in mind, what is meant by
teacher’s severity error?
A teacher __________.
51
A. Tends to look down on students’ answers
B. Uses tests and quizzes as punitive
measures
C. Tends to give extremely low grades
D. Gives unannounced quizzes

117. Ms. Ramos gave a test to find out how the
students feel toward their subject Science. Her
first item was stated as
“Science is an interesting _ _ _ _ _ boring subject.
What kind of instrument was given?
52
A. Rubric
B. Likert-scale
C. Rating Scale
D. Semantic Differential Scale

118. Which holds true to standardized tests?
53
A. They are used for comparative purposes.
B. They are administered differently.
C. They are scored according to different
standards.
D. They are used for assigning grades.

119. What is simple frequency distribution? A graphic
representation of:
54
A. means
B. standard deviation
C. raw scores
D. lowest and highest scores

120. When points in a scattergram are spread evenly
in all directions this means that:
55
A. The correlation between two variables is
positive.
B. The correlation between two variables is
low.
C. The correlation between two variables is
high.
D. There is no correlation between two
variables.

121. Which applies when skewness is 0?
56
A. Mean is greater than the median.
B. Median is greater than the mean.
C. Scores have 3 modes.
D. Scores are normally distributed.

122. Which process enhances the comparability of
grades?
57
A. Determining the level of difficulty of the test
B. Constructing departmentalized examinations
for each subject area
C. Using table of specifications
D. Giving more high-level questions

123. In a grade distribution, what does the normal
curve mean?
58
A. All students having average grades.
B. A large number of students with high grades
and very few with low grades.
C. A large number of more or less average
students and very few students receiving low
and high grades
D. A large number of students receiving low
grades and very few students with high
grades

124. For professional growth, which is a source of
teacher performance?
59
A. Self-evaluation
B. Supervisory evaluation
C. Student’s evaluation
D. Peer evaluation

125. The following are trends in marking and
reporting system, EXCEPT:
60
A. indicating strong points as well as those
needing improvement
B. conducting parent-teacher conferences
as often as needed
C. raising the passing grade from 75 to 80
D. supplementing subject grade with
checklist on traits

126. “Diligence is the mother of good fortune.
And idleness, its opposite, never brought a
man to the goal of any of his best wishes.”
- Miguel de Cervantes

127. Contact Details
 E-mail address:
jrppalattao88@gmail.com

128. Which goes with the spirit of “assessment for
learning?”
1
A. Stress on summative tests
B. Absence of formative tests.
C. Emphasis on self-assessment
D. Emphasis on grades and honors

129. Which must go with self-assessment for it to be
effective?
2
A. Public display of results of self-
evaluation
B. Scoring rubric
C. Consensus of evaluation results from
teacher and student
D. External monitor

130. The main purpose in administering a pretest and
a posttest to students is to_________.
3
A. accustom the students to frequent
testing
B. measure the value of the material
taught
C. measure gains in learning
D. keep adequate records

131. If I favor “assessment for learning”, which will I
do more most likely?
4
I. Conduct a pre-test; formative and
summative tests.
II. Teach based on pre-test results.
III. Give specific feedback to students
IV. Conduct peer tutoring for students in need
of help.
A. II, III and IV C. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and III D. I, II and IV

132. A teacher would use a standardized test
___________.
5
A. to engage in easy scoring
B. to serve as a final examination
C. to compare her students to national
norms
D. to serve as a unit test

133. Other than finding out how well the course
competencies were met, Teacher K also wants to
know his students’ performance when compared
with other students in the country. What is
Teacher K interested to do?
6
A. Formative evaluation
B. Authentic evaluation
C. Norm-referenced evaluation
D. Criterion-referenced evaluation

134. If all of your students in your class passed the
pretest, what should you do?
7
A. Go through the lesson quickly in order
not to skip any.
B. Go through the unit as usual because it
is part of the syllabus.
C. Administer the posttest.
D. Go on to the next unit.

135. Assessment is said to be authentic when the
teacher ____________.
8
A. considers students’ suggestions in
testing
B. gives valid and reliable paper-and pencil
test
C. gives students real-life tasks to
accomplish
D. includes parents in the determination of
assessment procedures

136. Teacher Bing wanted to teach the pupils the skill
of cross-stitching. Her check-up quiz was a
written test on the steps of cross stitching. What
characteristics of a good test does it lack?
9
A. Objectivity
B. Predictive validity
C. Content validity
D. Reliability

137. In the parlance index of a test construction, what
doesTOS mean?
10
A. Team of Specifications
B. Terms of Specifications
C. Table of Specifications
D. Table of Specifics

138. The difficulty index of a test item is 1. This means
that ____________.
11
A. the test item is quality item
B. the test is very easy
C. nobody got the item correctly
D. the test is very difficult

139. Students’ scores on a test were 72, 72, 73, 74, 76,
78, 81, 83, 85.The score 76 is the __________.
12
A. Mean
B. Cutoff score
C. Median
D. Average

140. Which isTRUE of a bimodal score distribution?
13
A. The scores are high.
B. The scores are low.
C. The group tested has two different
groups.
D. The scores are neither high nor low

141. Which group of scores is most varied?
The group with __________.
14
A. .10 SD
B. .75 SD
C. .90 SD
D. .50 SD

142. A number of test items in a test are said to be
non-discriminating. What conclusion/s can be
drawn?
15
I. Teaching or learning was very good.
II. The item is so easy that anyone could get it
right.
III. The item is so difficult that nobody could
get it.
A. III only C. II only
B. I and II D. II and III

143. An examinee whose score is within X + 1 SD
belongs to which of the following groups?
16
A. Needs improvement
B. Average
C. Above average
D. Below average

144. What can be said of student performance in a
positively skewed score distribution?
17
A. Almost all students had average
performance.
B. Most students performed poorly.
C. A few students performed excellently.
D. Most students performed well.

145. What does a percentile rank of 62 mean?
18
A. Sixty-two percent (62%) of those who took
the test scored higher than the individual.
B. The student answered sixty-two percent
(62%) of the items correctly.
C. It is the student’s score in the test.
D. The student’s scores is higher than 62
percent of all students who took the test.

146. In an entrance examination, student A’s
Percentile is 25 (P25). Based on this percentile
rank, which is likely to happen?
19
A. Student A has 50-50 percent chance to be
admitted.
B. Student A will not be admitted.
C. Student A has a 75-percent chance to be
admitted.
D. Student A will be admitted.

147. What is the mean of this score distribution: 40,
42, 45, 48, 50, 52, 54, 68, 68?
20
A. 50.88
B. 50
C. 51.88
D. 68

148. What does a skewed score distribution mean?
21
A. The scores are normally distributed.
B. Most of the scores are on the lower end of
the curve.
C. Most of the scores are on the upper end of
the curve.
D. The scores are concentrated more at one
end or the other end of the normal curve.

149. Suppose that in the April 2008 LET the mean in
the professional education test for the
elementary group was 44.3. What does this
mean?
21
A. 44.3 is the best single value that represents the
performance of the elementary teacher
examinees as a whole.
B. Most of the elementary teacher examines
obtained a score of 44.3.
C. 50% of the elementary teacher examinees got a
score of at least 44.
D. None of the elementary teacher examines got a
score below 44.

150. In a 50-item test where the mean is 20 and the
standard deviation is 8, Soc obtained a score of
16. What descriptive rating should his teacher
give him?
22
A. Average
B. Below Average
C. Poor
D. Above Average

151. The score distribution of Set A and Set B have
equal mean but with different SDs. Set A has an
SD of 1.7 while Set B has an SD of 3.2. Which
statement isTRUE of the score distributions?
23
A. The scores of Set B has less variability than
the scores in SetA.
B. Scores in Set A are more widely scattered.
C. Majority of the scores in Set A are clustered
around the mean.
D. Majority of the scores in Set are clustered
around the mean.

152. Principal A is talking about “grading on the
curve” in a faculty meeting. What does this
expression refer to?
24
A. A student mark compares his achievement to
his effort.
B. A student grade or mark depends on how his
achievement compares with the achievement
of other students in a class.
C. A student grade determines whether or not a
student attains a defined standard of
achievement.
D. A student mark tells how closely he is
achieving to his potential.

153. “A man is like a fraction whose
numerator is what he is and whose
denominator is what he thinks of
himself. The larger the
denominator, the smaller the
fraction.”

154. Contact Details
 E-mail address:
unaygelo@gmail.com