13) Independent assortment of a result of chromosomes is random a.pdf
•
0 likes•8 views
13) Independent assortment of a result of chromosomes is random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes A) the B) lines the metaphase plate during shared by chromosomes. the relatively small degree of homology the x and Y random nature of the fertilization of ova by sperm. during random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells C) D) the anaphase II. E) All of the above 14) ich of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n-16? A) The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell B) The species has 16 of chromosomes per cell. sets C) Each diploid cell has eight pairs of chromosomes. D) A gamete from this species has four chromosomes. 15) A plant has a unique photosynthetic pigment. The leaves of this plant appear to be reddish yellow. What wavelengths of visible light are not being absorbed by this pigment? violet D) green, blue, and A) green and yellow E) red and yellow B) blue, green, and red C) blue and violet 16) The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event? A) the citric acid cycle B) the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA C) the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP transport chain D) accepting electrons at the end of the electron E) glycolysis Solution 1.when two or more characteristics are inherited, individual hereditary factors assort independently during gamete production, giving different traits an equal opportunity of occurring together. Independent Assortment occurs in metaphase I. So answer is A 2.Only the body cells will be having 8 homologous chromosomes not each cell, if it does than gamate cell won\'t be haploid. So its only the body cell that will be having 8 homologous chromosomes. So answer is C 4..The electron transport chain in the mitochondrion is the site of oxidative phosphorylation in eukaryotes. So answer is D 3. The set of wavelengths that a pigment doesn\'t absorb are reflected, and the reflected light is what we see as color. So answer is C.
Report
Share
Report
Share
Download to read offline
Recommended
Gate life sciences 2010
The document discusses various biology concepts. It provides answers to 22 multiple choice questions related to topics like nucleolus function, T cell receptor engagement, amino acid roles in protein glycosylation, neurotransmitters, translation product molecular weight, protein separation techniques, membrane protein structure, epigenetics, plant hormones, genetic variation, primary production, electron microscope resolution, gene mapping, enzyme function, Mendel's experiments, speciation modes, niche competition, and vaccine success factors.
8- How many times does interphase occur during meiosis- A) 0 D) 3 B) 1.docx
Interphase occurs once during meiosis. S phase is when sister chromatids are replicated. The correct order of events in Prophase I is: chromosomes condense, recombine, and then synapse. The cell described is most likely a somatic cell of a male. During Metaphase I, homologues segregate from each other. During Metaphase II, chromosomes migrate to the middle of the cell. During Anaphase II, sister chromatids segregate from each other.
MULTIPLE CHOICE1. In science, a hypothesis must be A) a kno.docx
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In science, a hypothesis must be
A) a known fact B) testable C) derived from a theory D) able to be proven absolutely true
2. Which of the following includes all the others?
A) population B) cell C) organism D) atom
3. A sodium atom has 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 11 electrons. The atomic number of
sodium isA) 11 B) 12 C) 23 D) 34
4. If you place the probe of a pH meter in an unknown liquid and it reads
pH 10, the liquid is A) an acid B) neutral C) a base
5. A carbon atom of mass number 12 and a carbon atom of mass number 14 are
A) covalent B) compounds C) isotopes D) ions
6. This polysaccharide forms fibers that are a major component of plant cell walls:
A) glucose B) starch C) cellulose D) glycogen
7. Glycerol is a building block of A) starch B) enzymes C) vegetable oil D) DNA
8. Which of these types of molecules contain nitrogen?
A) polysaccharides B) phospholipids C) proteins
9. Prokaryotic cells, with no nucleus or membranous organelles, are found in
A) animals B) bacteria C) fungi D) plants
10. The main function of a ribosome is to
A) extract energy from glucose B) synthesize glucose C) store food in the form of fat
D) synthesize proteins
11. Mitochondria
A) package proteins for secretion from cell B) contain chromosomes
C) are sites of oxidation of glucose to generate ATP D) synthesize proteins
12. The plasma membrane consists of
A) a single layer of phospholipid molecules
B) a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which proteins are embedded
C) several layers of protein and carbohydrate molecules
D) a triple layer of phospholipids and carbohydrates
13. The movement of molecules from a region of low concentration across a membrane
to a region of high concentration by use of ATP energy is
A) active transport B)diffusion C) passive transport D) osmosis
14. The oxygen in our atmosphere is produced by
A) greenhouse effect B) cellular respiration C) photosynthesis D) volcanic eruptions
15. Yeast cells break down glucose anaerobically into
A) ethanol and CO2 B) lactic acid and CO2
C) lactic acid and H2O D) ethanol and H2O
16. The net energy gain from complete cellular respiration is
A) 2 ATP B) 4 ATP C) 8 ATP D) 36-38 ATP
17. Carbon dioxide is released in A) the light-dependent phase of photosynthesis
B) the Krebs cycle C) glycolysis D) the Calvin cycle
18. If the concentration of glucose in the water outside of a cell is higher than the
concentration inside,
A) water will tend to enter the cell by osmosisB) water will tend to leave the cell by osmosis C) glucose will tend to enter the cell by osmosis D) glucose will tend to leave the cell by osmosis
19. What happens if a red blood cell is placed in a hypotonic solution?
A) the cel.
Biology_paper_1__HL.pdf
This document is a 40 question biology exam consisting of multiple choice questions testing concepts related to biology. It provides instructions to candidates to answer all questions by choosing the best answer and indicating their choice on the provided answer sheet. The exam is 1 hour long and covers topics such as molecular biology, genetics, evolution, and physiology.
Chapter 2 problems.1. (Problem 1) Of the following, whi.pdf
Chapter 2 problems.
1. (Problem 1) Of the following, which is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic
cells?
A. Eukaryotic cells have a nuclear envelope surrounding the genetic material, whereas
prokaryotes have no nucleus.
B. Prokaryotic cells have multiple paired chromosomes, but eukaryotic cells have only
one.
C. Prokaryotic cells have linear DNA, whereas eukaryotes have circular DNA.
D. Eukaryotes have histone proteins, whereas prokaryotes do not.
E. Plasmids contain some genes for eukaryotes, whereas organelles contain some
genes for prokaryotes.
2. (Problem 3) Which of the following are fundamental events that must take place in cell
reproduction?
A. A cell\'s genetic information must be copied.
B. The copies of the genetic information must be separated from one another.
C. The cell must divide.
D. All of the above are fundamental events that must take place in cell reproduction.
3. (Problem 4 part 1): What are three essential structural elements of a functional
eukaryotic chromosome?
A. Histone proteins, spindle fibers, and a pair of telomeres
B. Origins of replication, chromatids, and kinetochores
C. A centromere, a pair of telomeres, and origins of replication
D. A centromere, chromatids, and kinetochores
E. Spindle fibers, kinetochores, and chromatids
4. (Problem 4 part 2 ) The chromosomal structures that serve as the attachment point for
spindle fibers are the _____________________.
A. telomeres
B. origins of replication
C. centromeres
D. kinetochore proteins
E. histone proteins
5. (Problem 4 part 3) The natural ends of eukaryotic chromosomes that serve to stabilize
the ends of the chromosomes are the ______________________.
A. telomeres
B. origins of replication
C. centromeres
D. kinetochore proteins
E. histone proteins
6. (Problem 6, part 1) _______________ is the part of interphase within the cell cycle
where the cell growth and protein synthesis necessary for cell division and DNA replication take
place.
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. M
E. Telophase
15. (Problem 10) Why are the two cells produced by the cell cycle genetically identical?
A. An exact copy of each DNA molecule was created in S phase giving rise to the two
identical sister chromatids.
B. Chromosomal replication in prophase ensures two identical copies of each
chromosome for the two cells.
C. Mitosis ensures that each cell receives one copy of the two identical sister
chromatids created during S phase.
D. Both A and B are reasons that the two cells produced by the cell cycle are identical.
E. Both A and C are reasons that the two cells produced by the cell cycle are identical.
16. (Problem 11, part 1) For the stages of meiosis I below, which is incorrectly matched to a
major event that takes place during that stage?
A. Prophase I—synapsis
B. Metaphase I—homologous pairs of chromosomes line up on the equatorial plane of
the metaphase plate
C. Anaphase I—separation of sister chromatids
D. Telophase I—separated chromosomes reach spindle poles at opposite ends of the
cell
.
3rd 6 wk_exam
The document contains a 28 question unit test covering topics in biology including DNA, RNA, cellular respiration, protein synthesis, and gel electrophoresis. Questions cover the basic structure of DNA and RNA, the process of DNA replication, the genetic code, transcription and translation, cellular respiration, gel electrophoresis and analyzing DNA fragments to compare genetic variation. The test assesses understanding of key concepts and processes in molecular biology, genetics and biochemistry.
1. Of the following, which is a difference between prokaryotic and e.pdf
1. Of the following, which is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
A. Eukaryotic cells have a nuclear envelope surrounding the genetic material, whereas
prokaryotes have no nucleus.
B. Prokaryotic cells have multiple paired chromosomes, but eukaryotic cells have
only one.
C. Prokaryotic cells have linear DNA, whereas eukaryotes have circular DNA.
D. Eukaryotes have histone proteins, whereas prokaryotes do not.
E. Plasmids contain some genes for eukaryotes, whereas organelles contain some
genes for prokaryotes.
2. Which of the following are fundamental events that must take place in cell reproduction?
A. A cell\'s genetic information must be copied.
B. The copies of the genetic information must be separated from one another.
C. The cell must divide.
D. All of the above are fundamental events that must take place in cell
reproduction.
3. What are three essential structural elements of a functional eukaryotic chromosome?
A. Histone proteins, spindle fibers, and a pair of telomeres
B. Origins of replication, chromatids, and kinetochores
C. A centromere, a pair of telomeres, and origins of replication
D. A centromere, chromatids, and kinetochores
E. Spindle fibers, kinetochores, and chromatids
4. The chromosomal structures that serve as the attachment point for spindle fibers are the
_____________________.
A. telomeres
B. origins of replication
C. centromeres
D. kinetochore proteins
E. histone proteins
5. The natural ends of eukaryotic chromosomes that serve to stabilize the ends of the
chromosomes are the ______________________.
A. telomeres
B. origins of replication
C. centromeres
D. kinetochore proteins
E. histone proteins
6. _______________ is the part of interphase within the cell cycle where the cell growth and
protein synthesis necessary for cell division and DNA replication take place.
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. M
E. Telophase
7. __________________ is the part of interphase within the cell cycle where additional
biochemical reactions take place preparing the cell for mitosis.
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. M
E. Telophase
8. __________________ is the part of interphase within the cell cycle where DNA replication
takes place.
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. M
E. Telophase
9. What are checkpoints?
A. Key transition points in the cell cycle that lead to cancer
B. Periods during the cell cycle that ensure all cellular components are in good
working order
C. Transition points during the process of replication that allow DNA repair
D. The last process that occurs before a cell divides
E. Critical points that ensure correct and complete cytokinesis
10. What is the stage in mitosis when sister chromatids separate at the centromere and move to
opposite poles of the cell.
A. Prophase
B. Prometaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase
11. What is the stage of mitosis where the chromosomes are arranged on the equatorial plane of
the cell.
A. prophase
B. prometaphase
C. metaphase
D. anaphase
E. telophase
12. What is the stage of mitosis where the chromosomes ini.
BIOL 101 EXAM The following general directions apply to thi.docx
BIOL 101 EXAM
The following general directions apply to this exam: This exam is worth a total of 125 points. Multiple choice questions #1-50 are worth 1 point each. Multiple choice questions #51-57 are worth 2 points each. Choose 6 of 7 essay questions #58-64, which are worth 10 points each. Please provide answers on the answer sheets provided at the end of the exam. I recommend that you print out the exam, answer the questions, then copy the answers onto the answer sheets. Please submit only the answer sheets into your assignment folder
GOOD LUCK! Thanks for taking the course,
********************************************************************** MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS – 1 POINT EACH – 50 POINTS TOTAL: On the answer sheet, indicate the letter that represents the best answer to each of the multiple choice questions below.
1. In science, a hypothesis must be A) a known fact B) testable C) derived from a theory
D) able to be proven absolutely true
2. Which of the following includes all the others?
A) atom B) cell C) organism D) ecosystem
3. A carbon atom of mass number 12 and a carbon atom of mass number 14 are
A) covalent B) compounds C) ions D) isotopes
4. A chlorine atom has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 17 electrons. The atomic number of
chlorine isA) 8 B) 17 C) 35 D) 52
5. If you place the probe of a pH meter in lye or sodium hydroxide (NaOH), it will read
pH 14. Sodium hydroxide is A) an acid B) neutralC) a base
6. This polysaccharide forms fibers that are a major component of plant cell walls:
A) glucose B) starch C) cellulose D) glycogen
7. Glycerol is a building block of A) starch B) enzymes C) vegetable oil D) DNA
8. Which of these types of molecules contain nitrogen?
A) polysaccharides B) proteins C) steroids
9. Prokaryotic cells, with no nucleus or membranous organelles, are found in
A) animals B) bacteria C) fungi D) plants
10. The main function of a ribosome is to A) extract energy from glucose
B) synthesize glucose C) store food in the form of fat
D) synthesize proteins
11. Mitochondria A) package proteins for secretion from cell B) contain chromosomes
C) are sites of oxidation of glucose to generate ATP D) synthesize proteins
12. The plasma membrane consists of A) a single layer of phospholipid molecules
B) a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which proteins are embedded
C) several layers of protein and carbohydrate molecules
D) a triple layer of phospholipids and carbohydrates
13. The movement of molecules from a region of low concentration across a membrane
to a region of high concentration by use of ATP energy is A) active transport
B)diffusion C) passive transport D) osmosis
14. The oxygen in our atmosphere is produced by A) greenhouse effect
B) cellular respiration C) photosynthesis D) volcanic ...
Recommended
Gate life sciences 2010
The document discusses various biology concepts. It provides answers to 22 multiple choice questions related to topics like nucleolus function, T cell receptor engagement, amino acid roles in protein glycosylation, neurotransmitters, translation product molecular weight, protein separation techniques, membrane protein structure, epigenetics, plant hormones, genetic variation, primary production, electron microscope resolution, gene mapping, enzyme function, Mendel's experiments, speciation modes, niche competition, and vaccine success factors.
8- How many times does interphase occur during meiosis- A) 0 D) 3 B) 1.docx
Interphase occurs once during meiosis. S phase is when sister chromatids are replicated. The correct order of events in Prophase I is: chromosomes condense, recombine, and then synapse. The cell described is most likely a somatic cell of a male. During Metaphase I, homologues segregate from each other. During Metaphase II, chromosomes migrate to the middle of the cell. During Anaphase II, sister chromatids segregate from each other.
MULTIPLE CHOICE1. In science, a hypothesis must be A) a kno.docx
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In science, a hypothesis must be
A) a known fact B) testable C) derived from a theory D) able to be proven absolutely true
2. Which of the following includes all the others?
A) population B) cell C) organism D) atom
3. A sodium atom has 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 11 electrons. The atomic number of
sodium isA) 11 B) 12 C) 23 D) 34
4. If you place the probe of a pH meter in an unknown liquid and it reads
pH 10, the liquid is A) an acid B) neutral C) a base
5. A carbon atom of mass number 12 and a carbon atom of mass number 14 are
A) covalent B) compounds C) isotopes D) ions
6. This polysaccharide forms fibers that are a major component of plant cell walls:
A) glucose B) starch C) cellulose D) glycogen
7. Glycerol is a building block of A) starch B) enzymes C) vegetable oil D) DNA
8. Which of these types of molecules contain nitrogen?
A) polysaccharides B) phospholipids C) proteins
9. Prokaryotic cells, with no nucleus or membranous organelles, are found in
A) animals B) bacteria C) fungi D) plants
10. The main function of a ribosome is to
A) extract energy from glucose B) synthesize glucose C) store food in the form of fat
D) synthesize proteins
11. Mitochondria
A) package proteins for secretion from cell B) contain chromosomes
C) are sites of oxidation of glucose to generate ATP D) synthesize proteins
12. The plasma membrane consists of
A) a single layer of phospholipid molecules
B) a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which proteins are embedded
C) several layers of protein and carbohydrate molecules
D) a triple layer of phospholipids and carbohydrates
13. The movement of molecules from a region of low concentration across a membrane
to a region of high concentration by use of ATP energy is
A) active transport B)diffusion C) passive transport D) osmosis
14. The oxygen in our atmosphere is produced by
A) greenhouse effect B) cellular respiration C) photosynthesis D) volcanic eruptions
15. Yeast cells break down glucose anaerobically into
A) ethanol and CO2 B) lactic acid and CO2
C) lactic acid and H2O D) ethanol and H2O
16. The net energy gain from complete cellular respiration is
A) 2 ATP B) 4 ATP C) 8 ATP D) 36-38 ATP
17. Carbon dioxide is released in A) the light-dependent phase of photosynthesis
B) the Krebs cycle C) glycolysis D) the Calvin cycle
18. If the concentration of glucose in the water outside of a cell is higher than the
concentration inside,
A) water will tend to enter the cell by osmosisB) water will tend to leave the cell by osmosis C) glucose will tend to enter the cell by osmosis D) glucose will tend to leave the cell by osmosis
19. What happens if a red blood cell is placed in a hypotonic solution?
A) the cel.
Biology_paper_1__HL.pdf
This document is a 40 question biology exam consisting of multiple choice questions testing concepts related to biology. It provides instructions to candidates to answer all questions by choosing the best answer and indicating their choice on the provided answer sheet. The exam is 1 hour long and covers topics such as molecular biology, genetics, evolution, and physiology.
Chapter 2 problems.1. (Problem 1) Of the following, whi.pdf
Chapter 2 problems.
1. (Problem 1) Of the following, which is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic
cells?
A. Eukaryotic cells have a nuclear envelope surrounding the genetic material, whereas
prokaryotes have no nucleus.
B. Prokaryotic cells have multiple paired chromosomes, but eukaryotic cells have only
one.
C. Prokaryotic cells have linear DNA, whereas eukaryotes have circular DNA.
D. Eukaryotes have histone proteins, whereas prokaryotes do not.
E. Plasmids contain some genes for eukaryotes, whereas organelles contain some
genes for prokaryotes.
2. (Problem 3) Which of the following are fundamental events that must take place in cell
reproduction?
A. A cell\'s genetic information must be copied.
B. The copies of the genetic information must be separated from one another.
C. The cell must divide.
D. All of the above are fundamental events that must take place in cell reproduction.
3. (Problem 4 part 1): What are three essential structural elements of a functional
eukaryotic chromosome?
A. Histone proteins, spindle fibers, and a pair of telomeres
B. Origins of replication, chromatids, and kinetochores
C. A centromere, a pair of telomeres, and origins of replication
D. A centromere, chromatids, and kinetochores
E. Spindle fibers, kinetochores, and chromatids
4. (Problem 4 part 2 ) The chromosomal structures that serve as the attachment point for
spindle fibers are the _____________________.
A. telomeres
B. origins of replication
C. centromeres
D. kinetochore proteins
E. histone proteins
5. (Problem 4 part 3) The natural ends of eukaryotic chromosomes that serve to stabilize
the ends of the chromosomes are the ______________________.
A. telomeres
B. origins of replication
C. centromeres
D. kinetochore proteins
E. histone proteins
6. (Problem 6, part 1) _______________ is the part of interphase within the cell cycle
where the cell growth and protein synthesis necessary for cell division and DNA replication take
place.
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. M
E. Telophase
15. (Problem 10) Why are the two cells produced by the cell cycle genetically identical?
A. An exact copy of each DNA molecule was created in S phase giving rise to the two
identical sister chromatids.
B. Chromosomal replication in prophase ensures two identical copies of each
chromosome for the two cells.
C. Mitosis ensures that each cell receives one copy of the two identical sister
chromatids created during S phase.
D. Both A and B are reasons that the two cells produced by the cell cycle are identical.
E. Both A and C are reasons that the two cells produced by the cell cycle are identical.
16. (Problem 11, part 1) For the stages of meiosis I below, which is incorrectly matched to a
major event that takes place during that stage?
A. Prophase I—synapsis
B. Metaphase I—homologous pairs of chromosomes line up on the equatorial plane of
the metaphase plate
C. Anaphase I—separation of sister chromatids
D. Telophase I—separated chromosomes reach spindle poles at opposite ends of the
cell
.
3rd 6 wk_exam
The document contains a 28 question unit test covering topics in biology including DNA, RNA, cellular respiration, protein synthesis, and gel electrophoresis. Questions cover the basic structure of DNA and RNA, the process of DNA replication, the genetic code, transcription and translation, cellular respiration, gel electrophoresis and analyzing DNA fragments to compare genetic variation. The test assesses understanding of key concepts and processes in molecular biology, genetics and biochemistry.
1. Of the following, which is a difference between prokaryotic and e.pdf
1. Of the following, which is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
A. Eukaryotic cells have a nuclear envelope surrounding the genetic material, whereas
prokaryotes have no nucleus.
B. Prokaryotic cells have multiple paired chromosomes, but eukaryotic cells have
only one.
C. Prokaryotic cells have linear DNA, whereas eukaryotes have circular DNA.
D. Eukaryotes have histone proteins, whereas prokaryotes do not.
E. Plasmids contain some genes for eukaryotes, whereas organelles contain some
genes for prokaryotes.
2. Which of the following are fundamental events that must take place in cell reproduction?
A. A cell\'s genetic information must be copied.
B. The copies of the genetic information must be separated from one another.
C. The cell must divide.
D. All of the above are fundamental events that must take place in cell
reproduction.
3. What are three essential structural elements of a functional eukaryotic chromosome?
A. Histone proteins, spindle fibers, and a pair of telomeres
B. Origins of replication, chromatids, and kinetochores
C. A centromere, a pair of telomeres, and origins of replication
D. A centromere, chromatids, and kinetochores
E. Spindle fibers, kinetochores, and chromatids
4. The chromosomal structures that serve as the attachment point for spindle fibers are the
_____________________.
A. telomeres
B. origins of replication
C. centromeres
D. kinetochore proteins
E. histone proteins
5. The natural ends of eukaryotic chromosomes that serve to stabilize the ends of the
chromosomes are the ______________________.
A. telomeres
B. origins of replication
C. centromeres
D. kinetochore proteins
E. histone proteins
6. _______________ is the part of interphase within the cell cycle where the cell growth and
protein synthesis necessary for cell division and DNA replication take place.
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. M
E. Telophase
7. __________________ is the part of interphase within the cell cycle where additional
biochemical reactions take place preparing the cell for mitosis.
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. M
E. Telophase
8. __________________ is the part of interphase within the cell cycle where DNA replication
takes place.
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. M
E. Telophase
9. What are checkpoints?
A. Key transition points in the cell cycle that lead to cancer
B. Periods during the cell cycle that ensure all cellular components are in good
working order
C. Transition points during the process of replication that allow DNA repair
D. The last process that occurs before a cell divides
E. Critical points that ensure correct and complete cytokinesis
10. What is the stage in mitosis when sister chromatids separate at the centromere and move to
opposite poles of the cell.
A. Prophase
B. Prometaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase
11. What is the stage of mitosis where the chromosomes are arranged on the equatorial plane of
the cell.
A. prophase
B. prometaphase
C. metaphase
D. anaphase
E. telophase
12. What is the stage of mitosis where the chromosomes ini.
BIOL 101 EXAM The following general directions apply to thi.docx
BIOL 101 EXAM
The following general directions apply to this exam: This exam is worth a total of 125 points. Multiple choice questions #1-50 are worth 1 point each. Multiple choice questions #51-57 are worth 2 points each. Choose 6 of 7 essay questions #58-64, which are worth 10 points each. Please provide answers on the answer sheets provided at the end of the exam. I recommend that you print out the exam, answer the questions, then copy the answers onto the answer sheets. Please submit only the answer sheets into your assignment folder
GOOD LUCK! Thanks for taking the course,
********************************************************************** MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS – 1 POINT EACH – 50 POINTS TOTAL: On the answer sheet, indicate the letter that represents the best answer to each of the multiple choice questions below.
1. In science, a hypothesis must be A) a known fact B) testable C) derived from a theory
D) able to be proven absolutely true
2. Which of the following includes all the others?
A) atom B) cell C) organism D) ecosystem
3. A carbon atom of mass number 12 and a carbon atom of mass number 14 are
A) covalent B) compounds C) ions D) isotopes
4. A chlorine atom has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 17 electrons. The atomic number of
chlorine isA) 8 B) 17 C) 35 D) 52
5. If you place the probe of a pH meter in lye or sodium hydroxide (NaOH), it will read
pH 14. Sodium hydroxide is A) an acid B) neutralC) a base
6. This polysaccharide forms fibers that are a major component of plant cell walls:
A) glucose B) starch C) cellulose D) glycogen
7. Glycerol is a building block of A) starch B) enzymes C) vegetable oil D) DNA
8. Which of these types of molecules contain nitrogen?
A) polysaccharides B) proteins C) steroids
9. Prokaryotic cells, with no nucleus or membranous organelles, are found in
A) animals B) bacteria C) fungi D) plants
10. The main function of a ribosome is to A) extract energy from glucose
B) synthesize glucose C) store food in the form of fat
D) synthesize proteins
11. Mitochondria A) package proteins for secretion from cell B) contain chromosomes
C) are sites of oxidation of glucose to generate ATP D) synthesize proteins
12. The plasma membrane consists of A) a single layer of phospholipid molecules
B) a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which proteins are embedded
C) several layers of protein and carbohydrate molecules
D) a triple layer of phospholipids and carbohydrates
13. The movement of molecules from a region of low concentration across a membrane
to a region of high concentration by use of ATP energy is A) active transport
B)diffusion C) passive transport D) osmosis
14. The oxygen in our atmosphere is produced by A) greenhouse effect
B) cellular respiration C) photosynthesis D) volcanic ...
Lehninger principles of biochemistry 7th edition nelson test bank
This document provides a test bank with 50 multiple choice questions related to Lehninger Principles of Biochemistry 7th Edition by Nelson. It can be purchased from the efilespro website for instant download. Contact information and links are provided to purchase the test bank or get support from the company.
cell cycle mcq.pdf
1. The centromere is the region where chromatids remain attached to one another until anaphase.
2. Multiple choice questions assess key concepts about the cell cycle such as the stages of mitosis, number of chromosomes after cell division, and effects of drugs that disrupt spindle formation.
3. Diagrams are used to illustrate chromosome content and arrangements during different phases of the cell cycle.
Semester pre bio spring 2011 with answers
This document contains a multiple choice quiz with questions about patterns of inheritance and Mendelian genetics. There are 33 questions that cover topics like Mendel's experiments, monohybrid and dihybrid crosses, genotypes and phenotypes, inheritance of traits, sex determination, and independent assortment. The questions require recall of genetic concepts and principles as well as the ability to apply this knowledge to analyze inheritance patterns and genetic crosses.
Karyotype1 1f What is the picture to the left called I.pdf
JRL's financial statements, contains the following information:
Cash $400,000
Marketable securities $115,000
Accounts receivable $800,000
Inventory $950,000
Accounts payable $575,000
Accrued expenses, $180,000
Long-term debit $900,000
Cost of good sold $1 million
Assume the accounts payable balance is all trade payables an opening and closing balances are
the same. Round your answer to two decimal places.
what is its current ratio?
what is it's quick ratio?
What is its cash ratio?
What is the trade payable turnover ratio?
Discuss JRL's liquidity using these ratios.
JRL's current ratio depends on how liquid JRL's ______ are. If the ______ is slow moving, then
the quick ratio maybe better indicator of liquidity. If accounts receivable may be difficult to collect,
the _______ is the best indicator of liquidity.
Cash $400,000
Marketable securities $115,000
Accounts receivable $800,000
Inventory $950,000
Accounts payable $575,000
Accrued expenses, $180,000
Long-term debit $900,000
Cost of good sold $1 million
Assume the accounts payable balance is all trade payables an opening and closing balances are
the same. Round your answer to two decimal places.
what is its current ratio?
what is it's quick ratio?
What is its cash ratio?
What is the trade payable turnover ratio?
Discuss JRL's liquidity using these ratios.
JRL's current ratio depends on how liquid JRL's ______ are. If the ______ is slow moving, then
the quick ratio maybe better indicator of liquidity. If accounts receivable may be difficult to collect,
the _______ is the best indicator of liquidity..
BIO101 Midterm - Sacramento Valley Campus- June 2014TEST MName.docx
BIO101 Midterm - Sacramento Valley Campus- June 2014
TEST M
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Homologous chromosomes ______.
A) include only the autosomes
B) separate during interphase
C) include only the sex chromosomes
D) are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parent
E) carry the same genes
1)
2) Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example,
the sperm are changing ______.
A) kinetic energy into chemical energy
B) chemical energy into potential energy
C) kinetic energy into potential energy
D) chemical energy into kinetic energy
E) none of the above
2)
3) Examine the genetic code table, shown below. The codon AGC codes for the amino acid ______. 3)
1
A) serine
B) alanine
C) glycine
D) threonine
E) arginine
4) Hypophosphatemia (vitamin D-resistant rickets) is inherited as an sex-linked dominant trait.
The relevant gene is found on the X chromosome. What is the expected outcome of a cross
between a homozygous recessive woman and a man with hypophosphatemia?
A) Seventy-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
B) Twenty-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
C) Fifty percent of their daughters and fifty percent of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
D) All of their daughters and none of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
E) All of their sons and none of their daughters exhibit hypophosphatemia.
4)
Please read the following paragraph and answer the following question(s).
Amanda's parents realized that her body was not developing properly about the time she was 12 years old. She was
shorter than most of her friends and was not going through changes normally associated with female puberty. They took
her to a doctor who initially diagnosed Amanda with Turner Syndrome because of her physical features. He ordered a
karyotype that confirmed his diagnosis. Amanda was born with only one X chromosome. Although there is no specific
cure, the doctor was able to treat her and correct some of the problems associated with the condition. For example, she
received growth hormone to improve her growth and estrogen to help her develop the physical changes of puberty.
5) Amanda's abnormal number of sex chromosomes resulted from ______.
A) random fertilization
B) independent assortment of chromosomes
C) cytokinesis
D) nondisjunction
E) crossing over
5)
6) Speciation requires ______.
A) long periods of time
B) geographic isolation
C) periods of rapid evolutionary change
D) a mass extinction so that new environmental opportunities will be available to the
survivors
E) genetic isolation
6)
7) The ability to tolerate lactose throughout life is most likely to be seen in ______.
A) Native Americans
B) East Asian populations
C) populations that live in cold climates
D) cultures that keep dairy herds
E) populations that live in wet climates
7)
2
8) Which of the foll ...
1. An exergonic reaction ____________ . a. has the same amount of .pdf
1. An exergonic reaction ____________ .
a. has the same amount of energy in the reactants and the product
b. has reactants that contain more energy than the product
c. requires the input of energy
d. releases energy
2. Which of these is an example of a phenotype?
a. Bb
b. heterozygote
c. brown hair
d. answers a and c are both correct
3. Polar bodies are ____________ .
a. cells found in the arctic
b. formed during meiosis when sperm are made
c. formed during meiosis when eggs are made
d. an inactive X chromosome
4. True or false: living things are the only things that possess metabolism.
a. True b. False
5. Sister chromatids are produced (not when you can see them) during _____ .
a. Telophase
b. Anaphase
c. Interphase
d. Prophase
6. Trisomy 21 or \"Down\'s Syndrome\" is an example of nondisjunction. This means ___ .
a. chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
b. chromosomes failed to separate during mitosis
c. two genes overlapped at more than one junction
d. two genes failed to overlap at more than one junction
7.____is an example of Homeostasis.
a. a bird\'s ability to fly (remain in the air against gravity)
b. a mammal\'s ability to regulate glucose levels in the blood
c. a fish\'s ability to stay in one place in water without moving it\'s fins
d. a bee\'s ability to return to it\'s hive after a long flight
8. In a monohybrid cross (with 2 heterozygous parents), we always get a _____ratio of
phenotypes.
a. 3:1 b. 9:3:3:1 c. 1:1 d. 1:2:1
9. Which characteristic is not a characteristic of the kingdom Fungi
a. nonmotile
b. photosynthetic
C. multicellular
d. eukaryotic
10. During diffusion ions will ___________without adding energy.
a. move in both directions
b. move from high concentration
c. move from high concentration to low concentration
d. not move
11. \"P\" in ATP represents the element _______.
a. phosphorus b. sodium c. calcium d. potassium
12. In mitosis during anaphase _____.
a. chromosomes line up at the (equator)
b. DNA unwinds into chromatin and a nuclear membrane forms.
c. sister chromatids separate and migrate to opposite poles
d. DNA winds up into chromosomes and becomes visible under a microscope
13. In humans the first 22 pairs of chromosomes are called ___chromosomes.
a. sex b. lethal c. short d. autosomal
14. These three things are required for photosynthesis to occur
a. sugar, light, carbon dioxide
b. sugar, light, water
c. light, oxygen, carbon dioxide
d. light, carbon dioxide, water
15. Which is true of a \"theory\" in science?
a. it is a best guess
b. It is a statement of facts observed
c. It is a fact that science has been unable to disprove
d. All of the above are correct
16. The process of producing a protein from mRNA is __________.
a. mitosis b. transition c. translation d. transcription
Solution
Answer 1
An exergonic reaction: (d) releases energy
exergonic reaction releases energy, it is exothermic , the reactants lose energy to form the
product, the reaction is spontaneous.\'
2) Which of these is an example .
Chapter2...22. (Problem 3) Which of the following are.pdf
Chapter2...>2>
2. (Problem 3) Which of the following are fundamental events that must take place in cell
reproduction?
A. A cell\'s genetic information must be copied.
B. The copies of the genetic information must be separated from one another.
C. The cell must divide.
D. All of the above are fundamental events that must take place in cell reproduction.
3. (Problem 4 part 1): What are three essential structural elements of a functional
eukaryotic chromosome?
A. Histone proteins, spindle fibers, and a pair of telomeres
B. Origins of replication, chromatids, and kinetochores
C. A centromere, a pair of telomeres, and origins of replication
D. A centromere, chromatids, and kinetochores
E. Spindle fibers, kinetochores, and chromatids
4. (Problem 4 part 2 ) The chromosomal structures that serve as the attachment point for
spindle fibers are the _____________________.
A. telomeres
B. origins of replication
C. centromeres
D. kinetochore proteins
E. histone proteins
5. (Problem 4 part 3) The natural ends of eukaryotic chromosomes that serve to stabilize
the ends of the chromosomes are the ______________________.
A. telomeres
B. origins of replication
C. centromeres
D. kinetochore proteins
E. histone proteins
6. (Problem 6, part 1) _______________ is the part of interphase within the cell cycle
where the cell growth and protein synthesis necessary for cell division and DNA replication take
place.
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. M
E. Telophase
15. (Problem 10) Why are the two cells produced by the cell cycle genetically identical?
A. An exact copy of each DNA molecule was created in S phase giving rise to the two
identical sister chromatids.
B. Chromosomal replication in prophase ensures two identical copies of each
chromosome for the two cells.
C. Mitosis ensures that each cell receives one copy of the two identical sister
chromatids created during S phase.
D. Both A and B are reasons that the two cells produced by the cell cycle are identical.
E. Both A and C are reasons that the two cells produced by the cell cycle are identical.
16. (Problem 11, part 1) For the stages of meiosis I below, which is incorrectly matched to a
major event that takes place during that stage?
A. Prophase I—synapsis
B. Metaphase I—homologous pairs of chromosomes line up on the equatorial plane of
the metaphase plate
C. Anaphase I—separation of sister chromatids
D. Telophase I—separated chromosomes reach spindle poles at opposite ends of the
cell
E. Prophase I—genetic recombination through crossing over
17. (Problem 11, part 2) For the stages of meiosis II below, which is incorrectly matched to
the major event that takes place during that stage?
A. Prophase II—spindle fibers form
B. Metaphase II—homologous pairs of chromosomes line up along the equatorial
plane of the metaphase II plate
C. Anaphase II—sister chromatids separate
D. Telophase II—spindle fibers breakdown
E. Prophase II—nuclear envelope breaks down
18. (Problem 12) What are the major results of meiosis?
A. Production of hapl.
Abatzoglou U6a2
The document provides instructions for a genetics trivia game with 15 multiple choice questions about genetic engineering concepts. It explains that students can play individually or in pairs to answer questions of increasing difficulty about topics like DNA structure, RNA, transcription, translation and more. The winner is the student/pair that answers all 15 questions correctly.
1 In 1953 the structure of arganisms Was determined as we.pdf
1) In 1953 the structure of arganisms: Was determined, as well as is role as the hereditary
material for various a) Amino acids (b) DNA c) Protein d) Carbotydrates e) Lipids 2) Which of the
following individuals are credited with the discovery of the itnucture of DNA? a) Jumes Watson and
Arthur Komberg b) Francis Crick and Arthur Komberg s) Paul Erlich and James Watson (d) James
Watson and Francis Crick e) Francis Crick and Paul Erlich 3) Which of the following is not a
nitrogenous base found in DNA? a) Cytosine b) Adenine c) Guanine (c) Uracit D) Thymine 4)
Different forms of the same gene are known as: a) Peptides b) Amino acids c) Proteina (d) Alleles
e) Ciene differencen 5) Nucleic acids are composed of a series of a) Amino acids 4 (6)
Nucleotides c) Nucleic chromosomes e d) Peptide chains x e) Sugars & 6) Which of the following
correctly describes the structure of DNA as deternined in 1953? 1. A phosphate backbone with
sugars linked together by nitrogenous base bonds. IX 2. A nugar-phosphate backbone with
nitrogenous bases linked together by weak bonds t3. A nitrogenous base backcoone wite nuevars
linked together by phodphate bonds. c) 37 it ean direct the function and behtvior of an orgaikm 8)
By analycing patiernt of haheritance, geneticists can localize genes to specific cliromosomies and
a) Chrothes localize genes to specilio positions within chectiose genes to specifie caromes. Thits
is known as: (b) Chromosome counting b) Chiromosome mopping d) Cenome and positioning. e)
Proteone analy ans 9) The collection of DNA molecules that is eherticteristie of an orginism is
known as itst a) Allelic makeup b) Genome.) c) Phenotype d) DNa array. c) None of these 10)
Which of the following beur describes the flow of informetion in a blological system? De Proin 11)
The longent phase during the evkaryotic celi eycle generaily is: i) Gi b) G2 d) M - e) none of these
12) When a prokaryotic cell reproduces by mitosis, mhat as the end tesult? (a) produces
genetically identical daughter celis b) prodaces haploid oftispring c) results in gametes for
fartilizition d) none of these c) all of these 13) Which of the follosing is a method fos analyzing a
eross involving fwo genes? a) Purinctt Square Method b) Forked-t ine Method c) Probability
Metbod (d) All of the above o) None of the altave14) Identify the cancet iaryopge of an individal
wht Turner Syndeome and the chromoaemal canes of the a) 450, barkI gene duplicafioe b) 47XX.
CFIR genc aptication B 4.45KO, not-disyunctioa at melosis. d) 46XY, point mutatbon at MBI. 2
pene , o) 45XO, low penetrance of UCCL gene 15) In atgal and plact ceils, entrig can be produced
in: (a) mitochondris and chloroplsats b) mitocberdtria c) chromosomes d) Eibosones e)
endoplasmie retseulum 16) Which of the following struchures would you not espect to see in zal
eukaryotic ocils? a) lipid membranes. b) miscihondris (9) chloreplats d) membeane bound
organelles e) all of these are found in all cukaryotic cells 17) Why was Men.
Molecular mechanism of recombination, post meiotic segregation
This document discusses different types of recombination mechanisms in living organisms:
1) Homologous recombination occurs between similar DNA sequences like homologous chromosomes and uses common enzymatic pathways.
2) Illegitimate recombination occurs between dissimilar sequences but shares short regions of similarity.
3) Site-specific recombination requires specific enzymes and occurs between short, particular sequences.
4) Meiotic recombination involves pairing and crossover between maternal and paternal chromatids, forming heteroduplex DNA with strands from each parent. Studies in fungi provide insights into post-meiotic segregation of strands from this heteroduplex.
12). Choose the letter designation that represent homozygous recessi.pdf
12). Choose the letter designation that represent homozygous recessive genotypte?
c. ee
As there are always two letters in the genotype because one code for the trait come from materal
and other code for the trait comes from paternal oraganism, so every organism has two codes (
letters ). The two lowercase letters in the genotype referred as homozygous recessive genotype(
ee). The term pure may also used in place of homozygous.
13). Daughter nuclei form from each parent cell during
a. Telophase I and telophase II
In both at each pole, a daughter nucleus with nuclear membrane( from ER) and nucleolus( from
SAT chromosome) is formedand also there is disappearance of astral rays and spindle fibres.
14). The diploid human cell has _ chromosomes.
- 46
The diploid number is abbreviated as 2n because of the presence of twice the amount of
chromosomes as a haploid cell. The haploid cell has a total of 23 chromosomes while the diploid
cell has 46 chromosomes.
15). Choose all that are true about genes
- genes are located on chromosomes
- genes are units of inheritence about heritable trait
- genes are arranged in a linear sequence on a chromosome
- each gene has its own location,in one type of chromosome
16).Mendal theory of independent assortment states that
a. genes for different traits are randomly distributed to gametes during meiosis.
17). Pairs of homologus chromosomes exist
a. during meiosis I
It is a special type of division in which chromosomes duplicate only once, but cell divides twice.
So one parental cell produces 4 daughter cells.
18). Alternate forms of genes are called_
- alleles
19). The physical appearance of an individual is referrred to as its
b. Phenotype
20). The genetic make- up of an individual is referred to as its
a.Genotype
21). Why the sexual reproduction benefit for the organism?
all of these are true.
22). The various forms of particular gene are called
b. alleles
Solution
12). Choose the letter designation that represent homozygous recessive genotypte?
c. ee
As there are always two letters in the genotype because one code for the trait come from materal
and other code for the trait comes from paternal oraganism, so every organism has two codes (
letters ). The two lowercase letters in the genotype referred as homozygous recessive genotype(
ee). The term pure may also used in place of homozygous.
13). Daughter nuclei form from each parent cell during
a. Telophase I and telophase II
In both at each pole, a daughter nucleus with nuclear membrane( from ER) and nucleolus( from
SAT chromosome) is formedand also there is disappearance of astral rays and spindle fibres.
14). The diploid human cell has _ chromosomes.
- 46
The diploid number is abbreviated as 2n because of the presence of twice the amount of
chromosomes as a haploid cell. The haploid cell has a total of 23 chromosomes while the diploid
cell has 46 chromosomes.
15). Choose all that are true about genes
- genes are located on chromosomes
- genes are units of inheriten.
Basics of dna
DNA is contained in the nucleus of cells and is made up of a double helix of sugar-phosphate backbones connected by base pairs. It can be extracted from cells using enzymes and detergents. DNA replicates before cell division using DNA polymerase. Mutations can occur through insertion, deletion, substitution or inversion of bases. Genes are sections of DNA that code for amino acids and traits. Meiosis and mitosis are cell division processes that involve DNA replication and segregation.
13- What law did Mendel devise after his experiment with two traits- a.pdf
13. What law did Mendel devise after his experiment with two traits? a. The Law of Phenotypes
b. The Law of Segregation c. The Law of Genotypes d. The Law of Independent Assortment 14.
Why were the traits of pod color and shape transmitted independently? a. they were on the same
gene b. they were on the same chromosome c. they were on different chromosomes d. they were
both recessive 15. What was William Sutton's contribution to genetics? a. that chromosomes are
made up of many genes b. that chromosomes divide c. that chromosomes copied themselves d.
that chromosomes were one molecule 16. What determines the sex of an individual? a. two genes
on a chromosome b. two alleles on a chromosome c. the tenth gene on a chromosome d. the X
and Y chromosomes 17. Which flies had white eyes in the F2 generation of Morgan's
experiments? a. only females b. half females and half males c. only males d. 25% males and 75%
females 18. How is eye color in fruit flies related to the sex of the organism? a. the gene for eye
color is on the X chromosome b. the gene for eye color is heterozygous c. the gene for eye color
is on the Y chromosome d. the gene for eye color is recessive 19. What process allows
chromosomes to exchange sections of DNA? a. chiasmata b. cross-linking c. meiosis d. crossing-
over 6. In Mendel's Figeneration, the flowers were a. all white b. all purple c. some purple and
some white d. lavender 7. What was belleved to be the makeup of the F 1 alleles? a. both purple
b. both whito c. one purple and one white d. three purple 8. The F F 2 generation can be
demonstrated by using this kind of diagram? a. The Punnett squaro b. Pi chart c. family tree d.
bar graph 9. Individuals with two identical alleles for a trait are a. heterozygous b. identical c.
genotypes d. homozygous 10. In this Punnett square. what does the PP refer to? a. two dominant
alleles b. one dominant, one recessive alleles c. two recessive alleles d. two lavender alleles 11.
In the Punnett square above, what is the probability of white flowers? a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d.
100% 12. Which one of Mendel's plants produced white flowers? a. the plant with two recessive
p alleles b. the plant with two dominant P alleles c. from a mixture of the two alleles P and p d.
from a different plant.
Meiosis
Meiosis produces haploid gametes from diploid cells for sexual reproduction. It involves two nuclear divisions and results in four haploid daughter cells, each with half the number of chromosomes as the original parent cell. This ensures genetic variation between offspring, which is the raw material for evolution. During meiosis I, homologous chromosomes pair and may exchange genetic material through crossing over. The homologous chromosomes then separate, followed by the second meiotic division where sister chromatids separate, resulting in four haploid cells each with a unique combination of genes.
Aipmt 2007
This document contains a biology exam with 44 multiple choice questions covering topics like biological organization, elements that make up living organisms, cell structures, plant and animal classification, evolution, and plant physiology. The questions test fundamental concepts in these subject areas and each question is followed by the correct multiple choice answer.
Genetics ib
Chromosomes contain DNA and proteins. Eukaryotic chromosomes are made of DNA and histone proteins. Genes are segments of DNA that control traits, and alleles are variant forms of genes. Mutations, such as base substitutions, can cause genetic disorders like sickle cell anemia. Meiosis produces gametes through two cell divisions, resulting in genetic variation. Non-disjunction during meiosis can cause aneuploidies like Down syndrome. Mendel's experiments on pea plants established the laws of inheritance and showed dominant and recessive traits.
Genetics ib
Chromosomes contain DNA and proteins. Eukaryotic chromosomes are made of DNA and histone proteins. Genes are segments of DNA that control traits, and alleles are variant forms of genes. Mutations, such as base substitutions, can cause genetic disorders like sickle cell anemia. Meiosis produces gametes through two cell divisions, resulting in genetic variation. Non-disjunction during meiosis can cause aneuploidies like Down syndrome. Mendel's experiments on pea plants established the laws of inheritance and showed dominant and recessive traits.
photosynthesis objective
The document contains 15 multiple choice questions about photosynthesis. It tests knowledge about the light dependent and light independent reactions, including the roles of chlorophyll, the Calvin cycle, and photosystems. It also contains questions about the action spectrum of photosynthesis, fluorescence of chlorophyll, C3 and C4 plants, and the historical rise in oxygen levels due to cyanobacteria.
Gene Expression and Control1sugar–phosphat.docx
Gene Expression and Control
1
sugar–
phosphate backbone
base pair
nucleotide base
DNA
gene
Figure 7.2 Animated! Comparing DNA
and RNA.
2
sugar–
phosphate backbone
nucleotide base
RNA
Figure 7.2 Animated! Comparing DNA
and RNA.
3
Gene Expression = Protein Synthesis
DNA = TACACCCACGTTGTGACT
RNA = AUGUGGGUGCAACACUGA
(aa)s = met - trp - val - gln - his - stop
DNA RNA mRNA tRNA rRNA
Transcription
ribosome subunits
RNA transport
tRNA
Convergence of RNAs
mRNA
Translation
polypeptide
4
3
2
1
Gene Expression = Protein Synthesis
Figure 7.10 Animated! Translation in eukaryotes.
1 In eukaryotic cells, RNA is transcribed in the nucleus.
2 Finished RNA moves into the cytoplasm through
nuclear pores.
3 Ribosomal subunits and tRNA converge on an mRNA.
4 A polypeptide chain forms as the ribosome moves
along the mRNA, linking amino acids together in the
order dictated by the mRNA codons.
5
gene
promoter
exon
intron
exon
intron
exon
DNA
transcription
newly transcribed
RNA
exon
intron
exon
intron
exon
exon
exon
exon
poly-A tail
finished mRNA
Gene Control
Figure 7.5 Animated! Post-transcriptional
modification of RNA. Introns are removed and
exons spliced together. Messenger RNAs also get
a poly-A tail.
6
Hemoglobin
Gene Control
Figure 7.11 Animated! Examples of mutations.
7
Gene Control
A base-pair substitution = Sickle-cell anemia
Figure 7.11 Animated! Examples of mutations.
8
Gene Control
A deletion of one nucleotide = beta thalassemia
Figure 7.11 Animated! Examples of mutations.
9
Gene Control
An insertion of one nucleotide = beta thalassemia
Figure 7.11 Animated! Examples of mutations.
10
Gene Control
Master genes
A transcription factor
Figure 7.13 An example of gene control.
11
Gene Control
Eyes form wherever the eyeless gene is expressed in fly embryos.
In humans, PAX6 mutations result in missing irises, a condition called aniridia.
Barr bodies – inactivated X chromosome
Gene Control
Sex Chromosome Genes
Figure 7.15 Examples of gene controls associated
with sex chromosomes.
13
Gene Control
SRY gene expressed
no SRY present
penis
vaginal opening
birth approaching
SRY gene expression determines whether male reproductive organs develop.
Sex Chromosome Genes
Figure 7.15 Examples of gene controls associated
with sex chromosomes.
14
Gene Control
Epigenetics
Figure 7.16 A methyl group (red ) attached to
a nucleotide in DNA.
15
Chromosomes
centromere
chromatid
chromatid
Figure 6.2 Animated! Chromosome structure.
1 The DNA molecule itself has two strands twisted
into a double helix.
2 At regular intervals, the DNA molecule (blue) wraps
around a core of histone proteins (purple).
3 The DNA and proteins associated with it twist
tightly into a fiber.
4 The fiber coils and then coils again to form a hollow
cylinder.
5 At its most condensed, a duplicated chromosome
has an X shape.
2
Chro ...
#1 castro mitosis meiosis and genetics
The document provides an overview of key concepts in biology related to genetics and cellular reproduction. It defines the laws of segregation and independent assortment. It also describes dominant and recessive traits, multiple alleles, polygenic traits, mitosis, meiosis, the cell cycle, and compares the key differences between mitosis and meiosis.
What part of the brain is used in sympathetic arousal (ANS)Solu.pdf
What part of the brain is used in sympathetic arousal (ANS)?
Solution
Answer:
During danger or frightening situations, the body responds by increasing the heart rate and
raising the respiration rate. These are arousal responses which sets one ready to fight or flee.
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the arousal responses and prepares the body
to respond to such situations. This system works in coordination with the parasympathetic
nervous system which calms the body during arousal.
The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system together forms the autonomic nervous
system..
What type of cell-surface characteristic helps an epithelial tissue h.pdf
What type of cell-surface characteristic helps an epithelial tissue helps the tissue to expand?
Which type of epithelial tissue is found forming the walls of the air sacs in the lungs? What is
the function of this tissue there? Which type of epithelial tissue is found forming the Walls of
many of the kidneys tubules, as well as glands? What is the function of this tissue there? Which
type of epithelial tissue if found lining many of the airways of the respiratory tract? What type
of cell surface characterizes this epithelial tissue? What is the function of this tissue there?
Which type of epithelial tissue if found in the small intestine? What type of cell surface
characterizes this epithelial tissue? What is the function of this tissue there? Which type of
epithelial tissue if found forming the outer layers of skin? What type of cell surface
characterizes this epithelial tissue? What is the function of this tissue there? Which type of
epithelial tissue if found lining the urinary bladder? What type of cell surface characterizes this
epithelial tissue? What is the function of this tissue there?
Solution
Answers:
Types of epithelial tissues:
1. (a) Simple sqaumous epithelium lines the air sacs or alveoli of the lungs.
(b) Simple squamous epithelium in the alveoli allow oxygen from the air to enter the blood in the
capillaries of the lungs. carbon dioxide is also eliminated from the body through the simple
squamous epethelial cells of the lung air sacs.
2. (a) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(b) The cells perform secretion and absorption in the kidney tubules and glandular ducts.
3. (a) Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium are found in the airways of the respiratory
tract.
(b) They are characterized by the presence of cilia and secretion of mucous which collect foreign
materials and help to cough or sneeze them out.
(c) It helps to moisten and protect the airways by acting as a protective barrier pathogens and
foreign antigens through mucociliatory action.
4. (a) Intestinal epithelium forms the lining of both small and large intestines. It is composed of
simple columnar epithelial cells.
(b) These cells are characterized by the presence of circular and transverse folds, villi and
microvilli.
(c) It acts as a protective barrier to foreign antigens and toxins and also acts as a selectivity filter
to facilitate the uptake of dietary nutrients.
5. (a) Stratified squamous epithelium is found on the surface of skin.
(b) They may be keratinized or non keratinized.
(c) Its main function is protection from wear and tear.
6. (a) Transitional epithelium
(b) They may be cuboidal or columnar. When the tissue compressed, the cells become stretched.
During such conditions, they appear to be irregular and squamous.
(c) They can stretch and allow for the accommodation and storage of fluid in the urinary bladder.
It also acts as a barrier between the lumen and the blood stream..
More Related Content
Similar to 13) Independent assortment of a result of chromosomes is random a.pdf
Lehninger principles of biochemistry 7th edition nelson test bank
This document provides a test bank with 50 multiple choice questions related to Lehninger Principles of Biochemistry 7th Edition by Nelson. It can be purchased from the efilespro website for instant download. Contact information and links are provided to purchase the test bank or get support from the company.
cell cycle mcq.pdf
1. The centromere is the region where chromatids remain attached to one another until anaphase.
2. Multiple choice questions assess key concepts about the cell cycle such as the stages of mitosis, number of chromosomes after cell division, and effects of drugs that disrupt spindle formation.
3. Diagrams are used to illustrate chromosome content and arrangements during different phases of the cell cycle.
Semester pre bio spring 2011 with answers
This document contains a multiple choice quiz with questions about patterns of inheritance and Mendelian genetics. There are 33 questions that cover topics like Mendel's experiments, monohybrid and dihybrid crosses, genotypes and phenotypes, inheritance of traits, sex determination, and independent assortment. The questions require recall of genetic concepts and principles as well as the ability to apply this knowledge to analyze inheritance patterns and genetic crosses.
Karyotype1 1f What is the picture to the left called I.pdf
JRL's financial statements, contains the following information:
Cash $400,000
Marketable securities $115,000
Accounts receivable $800,000
Inventory $950,000
Accounts payable $575,000
Accrued expenses, $180,000
Long-term debit $900,000
Cost of good sold $1 million
Assume the accounts payable balance is all trade payables an opening and closing balances are
the same. Round your answer to two decimal places.
what is its current ratio?
what is it's quick ratio?
What is its cash ratio?
What is the trade payable turnover ratio?
Discuss JRL's liquidity using these ratios.
JRL's current ratio depends on how liquid JRL's ______ are. If the ______ is slow moving, then
the quick ratio maybe better indicator of liquidity. If accounts receivable may be difficult to collect,
the _______ is the best indicator of liquidity.
Cash $400,000
Marketable securities $115,000
Accounts receivable $800,000
Inventory $950,000
Accounts payable $575,000
Accrued expenses, $180,000
Long-term debit $900,000
Cost of good sold $1 million
Assume the accounts payable balance is all trade payables an opening and closing balances are
the same. Round your answer to two decimal places.
what is its current ratio?
what is it's quick ratio?
What is its cash ratio?
What is the trade payable turnover ratio?
Discuss JRL's liquidity using these ratios.
JRL's current ratio depends on how liquid JRL's ______ are. If the ______ is slow moving, then
the quick ratio maybe better indicator of liquidity. If accounts receivable may be difficult to collect,
the _______ is the best indicator of liquidity..
BIO101 Midterm - Sacramento Valley Campus- June 2014TEST MName.docx
BIO101 Midterm - Sacramento Valley Campus- June 2014
TEST M
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Homologous chromosomes ______.
A) include only the autosomes
B) separate during interphase
C) include only the sex chromosomes
D) are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parent
E) carry the same genes
1)
2) Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example,
the sperm are changing ______.
A) kinetic energy into chemical energy
B) chemical energy into potential energy
C) kinetic energy into potential energy
D) chemical energy into kinetic energy
E) none of the above
2)
3) Examine the genetic code table, shown below. The codon AGC codes for the amino acid ______. 3)
1
A) serine
B) alanine
C) glycine
D) threonine
E) arginine
4) Hypophosphatemia (vitamin D-resistant rickets) is inherited as an sex-linked dominant trait.
The relevant gene is found on the X chromosome. What is the expected outcome of a cross
between a homozygous recessive woman and a man with hypophosphatemia?
A) Seventy-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
B) Twenty-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
C) Fifty percent of their daughters and fifty percent of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
D) All of their daughters and none of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
E) All of their sons and none of their daughters exhibit hypophosphatemia.
4)
Please read the following paragraph and answer the following question(s).
Amanda's parents realized that her body was not developing properly about the time she was 12 years old. She was
shorter than most of her friends and was not going through changes normally associated with female puberty. They took
her to a doctor who initially diagnosed Amanda with Turner Syndrome because of her physical features. He ordered a
karyotype that confirmed his diagnosis. Amanda was born with only one X chromosome. Although there is no specific
cure, the doctor was able to treat her and correct some of the problems associated with the condition. For example, she
received growth hormone to improve her growth and estrogen to help her develop the physical changes of puberty.
5) Amanda's abnormal number of sex chromosomes resulted from ______.
A) random fertilization
B) independent assortment of chromosomes
C) cytokinesis
D) nondisjunction
E) crossing over
5)
6) Speciation requires ______.
A) long periods of time
B) geographic isolation
C) periods of rapid evolutionary change
D) a mass extinction so that new environmental opportunities will be available to the
survivors
E) genetic isolation
6)
7) The ability to tolerate lactose throughout life is most likely to be seen in ______.
A) Native Americans
B) East Asian populations
C) populations that live in cold climates
D) cultures that keep dairy herds
E) populations that live in wet climates
7)
2
8) Which of the foll ...
1. An exergonic reaction ____________ . a. has the same amount of .pdf
1. An exergonic reaction ____________ .
a. has the same amount of energy in the reactants and the product
b. has reactants that contain more energy than the product
c. requires the input of energy
d. releases energy
2. Which of these is an example of a phenotype?
a. Bb
b. heterozygote
c. brown hair
d. answers a and c are both correct
3. Polar bodies are ____________ .
a. cells found in the arctic
b. formed during meiosis when sperm are made
c. formed during meiosis when eggs are made
d. an inactive X chromosome
4. True or false: living things are the only things that possess metabolism.
a. True b. False
5. Sister chromatids are produced (not when you can see them) during _____ .
a. Telophase
b. Anaphase
c. Interphase
d. Prophase
6. Trisomy 21 or \"Down\'s Syndrome\" is an example of nondisjunction. This means ___ .
a. chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
b. chromosomes failed to separate during mitosis
c. two genes overlapped at more than one junction
d. two genes failed to overlap at more than one junction
7.____is an example of Homeostasis.
a. a bird\'s ability to fly (remain in the air against gravity)
b. a mammal\'s ability to regulate glucose levels in the blood
c. a fish\'s ability to stay in one place in water without moving it\'s fins
d. a bee\'s ability to return to it\'s hive after a long flight
8. In a monohybrid cross (with 2 heterozygous parents), we always get a _____ratio of
phenotypes.
a. 3:1 b. 9:3:3:1 c. 1:1 d. 1:2:1
9. Which characteristic is not a characteristic of the kingdom Fungi
a. nonmotile
b. photosynthetic
C. multicellular
d. eukaryotic
10. During diffusion ions will ___________without adding energy.
a. move in both directions
b. move from high concentration
c. move from high concentration to low concentration
d. not move
11. \"P\" in ATP represents the element _______.
a. phosphorus b. sodium c. calcium d. potassium
12. In mitosis during anaphase _____.
a. chromosomes line up at the (equator)
b. DNA unwinds into chromatin and a nuclear membrane forms.
c. sister chromatids separate and migrate to opposite poles
d. DNA winds up into chromosomes and becomes visible under a microscope
13. In humans the first 22 pairs of chromosomes are called ___chromosomes.
a. sex b. lethal c. short d. autosomal
14. These three things are required for photosynthesis to occur
a. sugar, light, carbon dioxide
b. sugar, light, water
c. light, oxygen, carbon dioxide
d. light, carbon dioxide, water
15. Which is true of a \"theory\" in science?
a. it is a best guess
b. It is a statement of facts observed
c. It is a fact that science has been unable to disprove
d. All of the above are correct
16. The process of producing a protein from mRNA is __________.
a. mitosis b. transition c. translation d. transcription
Solution
Answer 1
An exergonic reaction: (d) releases energy
exergonic reaction releases energy, it is exothermic , the reactants lose energy to form the
product, the reaction is spontaneous.\'
2) Which of these is an example .
Chapter2...22. (Problem 3) Which of the following are.pdf
Chapter2...>2>
2. (Problem 3) Which of the following are fundamental events that must take place in cell
reproduction?
A. A cell\'s genetic information must be copied.
B. The copies of the genetic information must be separated from one another.
C. The cell must divide.
D. All of the above are fundamental events that must take place in cell reproduction.
3. (Problem 4 part 1): What are three essential structural elements of a functional
eukaryotic chromosome?
A. Histone proteins, spindle fibers, and a pair of telomeres
B. Origins of replication, chromatids, and kinetochores
C. A centromere, a pair of telomeres, and origins of replication
D. A centromere, chromatids, and kinetochores
E. Spindle fibers, kinetochores, and chromatids
4. (Problem 4 part 2 ) The chromosomal structures that serve as the attachment point for
spindle fibers are the _____________________.
A. telomeres
B. origins of replication
C. centromeres
D. kinetochore proteins
E. histone proteins
5. (Problem 4 part 3) The natural ends of eukaryotic chromosomes that serve to stabilize
the ends of the chromosomes are the ______________________.
A. telomeres
B. origins of replication
C. centromeres
D. kinetochore proteins
E. histone proteins
6. (Problem 6, part 1) _______________ is the part of interphase within the cell cycle
where the cell growth and protein synthesis necessary for cell division and DNA replication take
place.
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. M
E. Telophase
15. (Problem 10) Why are the two cells produced by the cell cycle genetically identical?
A. An exact copy of each DNA molecule was created in S phase giving rise to the two
identical sister chromatids.
B. Chromosomal replication in prophase ensures two identical copies of each
chromosome for the two cells.
C. Mitosis ensures that each cell receives one copy of the two identical sister
chromatids created during S phase.
D. Both A and B are reasons that the two cells produced by the cell cycle are identical.
E. Both A and C are reasons that the two cells produced by the cell cycle are identical.
16. (Problem 11, part 1) For the stages of meiosis I below, which is incorrectly matched to a
major event that takes place during that stage?
A. Prophase I—synapsis
B. Metaphase I—homologous pairs of chromosomes line up on the equatorial plane of
the metaphase plate
C. Anaphase I—separation of sister chromatids
D. Telophase I—separated chromosomes reach spindle poles at opposite ends of the
cell
E. Prophase I—genetic recombination through crossing over
17. (Problem 11, part 2) For the stages of meiosis II below, which is incorrectly matched to
the major event that takes place during that stage?
A. Prophase II—spindle fibers form
B. Metaphase II—homologous pairs of chromosomes line up along the equatorial
plane of the metaphase II plate
C. Anaphase II—sister chromatids separate
D. Telophase II—spindle fibers breakdown
E. Prophase II—nuclear envelope breaks down
18. (Problem 12) What are the major results of meiosis?
A. Production of hapl.
Abatzoglou U6a2
The document provides instructions for a genetics trivia game with 15 multiple choice questions about genetic engineering concepts. It explains that students can play individually or in pairs to answer questions of increasing difficulty about topics like DNA structure, RNA, transcription, translation and more. The winner is the student/pair that answers all 15 questions correctly.
1 In 1953 the structure of arganisms Was determined as we.pdf
1) In 1953 the structure of arganisms: Was determined, as well as is role as the hereditary
material for various a) Amino acids (b) DNA c) Protein d) Carbotydrates e) Lipids 2) Which of the
following individuals are credited with the discovery of the itnucture of DNA? a) Jumes Watson and
Arthur Komberg b) Francis Crick and Arthur Komberg s) Paul Erlich and James Watson (d) James
Watson and Francis Crick e) Francis Crick and Paul Erlich 3) Which of the following is not a
nitrogenous base found in DNA? a) Cytosine b) Adenine c) Guanine (c) Uracit D) Thymine 4)
Different forms of the same gene are known as: a) Peptides b) Amino acids c) Proteina (d) Alleles
e) Ciene differencen 5) Nucleic acids are composed of a series of a) Amino acids 4 (6)
Nucleotides c) Nucleic chromosomes e d) Peptide chains x e) Sugars & 6) Which of the following
correctly describes the structure of DNA as deternined in 1953? 1. A phosphate backbone with
sugars linked together by nitrogenous base bonds. IX 2. A nugar-phosphate backbone with
nitrogenous bases linked together by weak bonds t3. A nitrogenous base backcoone wite nuevars
linked together by phodphate bonds. c) 37 it ean direct the function and behtvior of an orgaikm 8)
By analycing patiernt of haheritance, geneticists can localize genes to specific cliromosomies and
a) Chrothes localize genes to specilio positions within chectiose genes to specifie caromes. Thits
is known as: (b) Chromosome counting b) Chiromosome mopping d) Cenome and positioning. e)
Proteone analy ans 9) The collection of DNA molecules that is eherticteristie of an orginism is
known as itst a) Allelic makeup b) Genome.) c) Phenotype d) DNa array. c) None of these 10)
Which of the following beur describes the flow of informetion in a blological system? De Proin 11)
The longent phase during the evkaryotic celi eycle generaily is: i) Gi b) G2 d) M - e) none of these
12) When a prokaryotic cell reproduces by mitosis, mhat as the end tesult? (a) produces
genetically identical daughter celis b) prodaces haploid oftispring c) results in gametes for
fartilizition d) none of these c) all of these 13) Which of the follosing is a method fos analyzing a
eross involving fwo genes? a) Purinctt Square Method b) Forked-t ine Method c) Probability
Metbod (d) All of the above o) None of the altave14) Identify the cancet iaryopge of an individal
wht Turner Syndeome and the chromoaemal canes of the a) 450, barkI gene duplicafioe b) 47XX.
CFIR genc aptication B 4.45KO, not-disyunctioa at melosis. d) 46XY, point mutatbon at MBI. 2
pene , o) 45XO, low penetrance of UCCL gene 15) In atgal and plact ceils, entrig can be produced
in: (a) mitochondris and chloroplsats b) mitocberdtria c) chromosomes d) Eibosones e)
endoplasmie retseulum 16) Which of the following struchures would you not espect to see in zal
eukaryotic ocils? a) lipid membranes. b) miscihondris (9) chloreplats d) membeane bound
organelles e) all of these are found in all cukaryotic cells 17) Why was Men.
Molecular mechanism of recombination, post meiotic segregation
This document discusses different types of recombination mechanisms in living organisms:
1) Homologous recombination occurs between similar DNA sequences like homologous chromosomes and uses common enzymatic pathways.
2) Illegitimate recombination occurs between dissimilar sequences but shares short regions of similarity.
3) Site-specific recombination requires specific enzymes and occurs between short, particular sequences.
4) Meiotic recombination involves pairing and crossover between maternal and paternal chromatids, forming heteroduplex DNA with strands from each parent. Studies in fungi provide insights into post-meiotic segregation of strands from this heteroduplex.
12). Choose the letter designation that represent homozygous recessi.pdf
12). Choose the letter designation that represent homozygous recessive genotypte?
c. ee
As there are always two letters in the genotype because one code for the trait come from materal
and other code for the trait comes from paternal oraganism, so every organism has two codes (
letters ). The two lowercase letters in the genotype referred as homozygous recessive genotype(
ee). The term pure may also used in place of homozygous.
13). Daughter nuclei form from each parent cell during
a. Telophase I and telophase II
In both at each pole, a daughter nucleus with nuclear membrane( from ER) and nucleolus( from
SAT chromosome) is formedand also there is disappearance of astral rays and spindle fibres.
14). The diploid human cell has _ chromosomes.
- 46
The diploid number is abbreviated as 2n because of the presence of twice the amount of
chromosomes as a haploid cell. The haploid cell has a total of 23 chromosomes while the diploid
cell has 46 chromosomes.
15). Choose all that are true about genes
- genes are located on chromosomes
- genes are units of inheritence about heritable trait
- genes are arranged in a linear sequence on a chromosome
- each gene has its own location,in one type of chromosome
16).Mendal theory of independent assortment states that
a. genes for different traits are randomly distributed to gametes during meiosis.
17). Pairs of homologus chromosomes exist
a. during meiosis I
It is a special type of division in which chromosomes duplicate only once, but cell divides twice.
So one parental cell produces 4 daughter cells.
18). Alternate forms of genes are called_
- alleles
19). The physical appearance of an individual is referrred to as its
b. Phenotype
20). The genetic make- up of an individual is referred to as its
a.Genotype
21). Why the sexual reproduction benefit for the organism?
all of these are true.
22). The various forms of particular gene are called
b. alleles
Solution
12). Choose the letter designation that represent homozygous recessive genotypte?
c. ee
As there are always two letters in the genotype because one code for the trait come from materal
and other code for the trait comes from paternal oraganism, so every organism has two codes (
letters ). The two lowercase letters in the genotype referred as homozygous recessive genotype(
ee). The term pure may also used in place of homozygous.
13). Daughter nuclei form from each parent cell during
a. Telophase I and telophase II
In both at each pole, a daughter nucleus with nuclear membrane( from ER) and nucleolus( from
SAT chromosome) is formedand also there is disappearance of astral rays and spindle fibres.
14). The diploid human cell has _ chromosomes.
- 46
The diploid number is abbreviated as 2n because of the presence of twice the amount of
chromosomes as a haploid cell. The haploid cell has a total of 23 chromosomes while the diploid
cell has 46 chromosomes.
15). Choose all that are true about genes
- genes are located on chromosomes
- genes are units of inheriten.
Basics of dna
DNA is contained in the nucleus of cells and is made up of a double helix of sugar-phosphate backbones connected by base pairs. It can be extracted from cells using enzymes and detergents. DNA replicates before cell division using DNA polymerase. Mutations can occur through insertion, deletion, substitution or inversion of bases. Genes are sections of DNA that code for amino acids and traits. Meiosis and mitosis are cell division processes that involve DNA replication and segregation.
13- What law did Mendel devise after his experiment with two traits- a.pdf
13. What law did Mendel devise after his experiment with two traits? a. The Law of Phenotypes
b. The Law of Segregation c. The Law of Genotypes d. The Law of Independent Assortment 14.
Why were the traits of pod color and shape transmitted independently? a. they were on the same
gene b. they were on the same chromosome c. they were on different chromosomes d. they were
both recessive 15. What was William Sutton's contribution to genetics? a. that chromosomes are
made up of many genes b. that chromosomes divide c. that chromosomes copied themselves d.
that chromosomes were one molecule 16. What determines the sex of an individual? a. two genes
on a chromosome b. two alleles on a chromosome c. the tenth gene on a chromosome d. the X
and Y chromosomes 17. Which flies had white eyes in the F2 generation of Morgan's
experiments? a. only females b. half females and half males c. only males d. 25% males and 75%
females 18. How is eye color in fruit flies related to the sex of the organism? a. the gene for eye
color is on the X chromosome b. the gene for eye color is heterozygous c. the gene for eye color
is on the Y chromosome d. the gene for eye color is recessive 19. What process allows
chromosomes to exchange sections of DNA? a. chiasmata b. cross-linking c. meiosis d. crossing-
over 6. In Mendel's Figeneration, the flowers were a. all white b. all purple c. some purple and
some white d. lavender 7. What was belleved to be the makeup of the F 1 alleles? a. both purple
b. both whito c. one purple and one white d. three purple 8. The F F 2 generation can be
demonstrated by using this kind of diagram? a. The Punnett squaro b. Pi chart c. family tree d.
bar graph 9. Individuals with two identical alleles for a trait are a. heterozygous b. identical c.
genotypes d. homozygous 10. In this Punnett square. what does the PP refer to? a. two dominant
alleles b. one dominant, one recessive alleles c. two recessive alleles d. two lavender alleles 11.
In the Punnett square above, what is the probability of white flowers? a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d.
100% 12. Which one of Mendel's plants produced white flowers? a. the plant with two recessive
p alleles b. the plant with two dominant P alleles c. from a mixture of the two alleles P and p d.
from a different plant.
Meiosis
Meiosis produces haploid gametes from diploid cells for sexual reproduction. It involves two nuclear divisions and results in four haploid daughter cells, each with half the number of chromosomes as the original parent cell. This ensures genetic variation between offspring, which is the raw material for evolution. During meiosis I, homologous chromosomes pair and may exchange genetic material through crossing over. The homologous chromosomes then separate, followed by the second meiotic division where sister chromatids separate, resulting in four haploid cells each with a unique combination of genes.
Aipmt 2007
This document contains a biology exam with 44 multiple choice questions covering topics like biological organization, elements that make up living organisms, cell structures, plant and animal classification, evolution, and plant physiology. The questions test fundamental concepts in these subject areas and each question is followed by the correct multiple choice answer.
Genetics ib
Chromosomes contain DNA and proteins. Eukaryotic chromosomes are made of DNA and histone proteins. Genes are segments of DNA that control traits, and alleles are variant forms of genes. Mutations, such as base substitutions, can cause genetic disorders like sickle cell anemia. Meiosis produces gametes through two cell divisions, resulting in genetic variation. Non-disjunction during meiosis can cause aneuploidies like Down syndrome. Mendel's experiments on pea plants established the laws of inheritance and showed dominant and recessive traits.
Genetics ib
Chromosomes contain DNA and proteins. Eukaryotic chromosomes are made of DNA and histone proteins. Genes are segments of DNA that control traits, and alleles are variant forms of genes. Mutations, such as base substitutions, can cause genetic disorders like sickle cell anemia. Meiosis produces gametes through two cell divisions, resulting in genetic variation. Non-disjunction during meiosis can cause aneuploidies like Down syndrome. Mendel's experiments on pea plants established the laws of inheritance and showed dominant and recessive traits.
photosynthesis objective
The document contains 15 multiple choice questions about photosynthesis. It tests knowledge about the light dependent and light independent reactions, including the roles of chlorophyll, the Calvin cycle, and photosystems. It also contains questions about the action spectrum of photosynthesis, fluorescence of chlorophyll, C3 and C4 plants, and the historical rise in oxygen levels due to cyanobacteria.
Gene Expression and Control1sugar–phosphat.docx
Gene Expression and Control
1
sugar–
phosphate backbone
base pair
nucleotide base
DNA
gene
Figure 7.2 Animated! Comparing DNA
and RNA.
2
sugar–
phosphate backbone
nucleotide base
RNA
Figure 7.2 Animated! Comparing DNA
and RNA.
3
Gene Expression = Protein Synthesis
DNA = TACACCCACGTTGTGACT
RNA = AUGUGGGUGCAACACUGA
(aa)s = met - trp - val - gln - his - stop
DNA RNA mRNA tRNA rRNA
Transcription
ribosome subunits
RNA transport
tRNA
Convergence of RNAs
mRNA
Translation
polypeptide
4
3
2
1
Gene Expression = Protein Synthesis
Figure 7.10 Animated! Translation in eukaryotes.
1 In eukaryotic cells, RNA is transcribed in the nucleus.
2 Finished RNA moves into the cytoplasm through
nuclear pores.
3 Ribosomal subunits and tRNA converge on an mRNA.
4 A polypeptide chain forms as the ribosome moves
along the mRNA, linking amino acids together in the
order dictated by the mRNA codons.
5
gene
promoter
exon
intron
exon
intron
exon
DNA
transcription
newly transcribed
RNA
exon
intron
exon
intron
exon
exon
exon
exon
poly-A tail
finished mRNA
Gene Control
Figure 7.5 Animated! Post-transcriptional
modification of RNA. Introns are removed and
exons spliced together. Messenger RNAs also get
a poly-A tail.
6
Hemoglobin
Gene Control
Figure 7.11 Animated! Examples of mutations.
7
Gene Control
A base-pair substitution = Sickle-cell anemia
Figure 7.11 Animated! Examples of mutations.
8
Gene Control
A deletion of one nucleotide = beta thalassemia
Figure 7.11 Animated! Examples of mutations.
9
Gene Control
An insertion of one nucleotide = beta thalassemia
Figure 7.11 Animated! Examples of mutations.
10
Gene Control
Master genes
A transcription factor
Figure 7.13 An example of gene control.
11
Gene Control
Eyes form wherever the eyeless gene is expressed in fly embryos.
In humans, PAX6 mutations result in missing irises, a condition called aniridia.
Barr bodies – inactivated X chromosome
Gene Control
Sex Chromosome Genes
Figure 7.15 Examples of gene controls associated
with sex chromosomes.
13
Gene Control
SRY gene expressed
no SRY present
penis
vaginal opening
birth approaching
SRY gene expression determines whether male reproductive organs develop.
Sex Chromosome Genes
Figure 7.15 Examples of gene controls associated
with sex chromosomes.
14
Gene Control
Epigenetics
Figure 7.16 A methyl group (red ) attached to
a nucleotide in DNA.
15
Chromosomes
centromere
chromatid
chromatid
Figure 6.2 Animated! Chromosome structure.
1 The DNA molecule itself has two strands twisted
into a double helix.
2 At regular intervals, the DNA molecule (blue) wraps
around a core of histone proteins (purple).
3 The DNA and proteins associated with it twist
tightly into a fiber.
4 The fiber coils and then coils again to form a hollow
cylinder.
5 At its most condensed, a duplicated chromosome
has an X shape.
2
Chro ...
#1 castro mitosis meiosis and genetics
The document provides an overview of key concepts in biology related to genetics and cellular reproduction. It defines the laws of segregation and independent assortment. It also describes dominant and recessive traits, multiple alleles, polygenic traits, mitosis, meiosis, the cell cycle, and compares the key differences between mitosis and meiosis.
Similar to 13) Independent assortment of a result of chromosomes is random a.pdf (20)
Lehninger principles of biochemistry 7th edition nelson test bank
Lehninger principles of biochemistry 7th edition nelson test bank
Karyotype1 1f What is the picture to the left called I.pdf
Karyotype1 1f What is the picture to the left called I.pdf
BIO101 Midterm - Sacramento Valley Campus- June 2014TEST MName.docx
BIO101 Midterm - Sacramento Valley Campus- June 2014TEST MName.docx
1. An exergonic reaction ____________ . a. has the same amount of .pdf
1. An exergonic reaction ____________ . a. has the same amount of .pdf
Chapter2...22. (Problem 3) Which of the following are.pdf
Chapter2...22. (Problem 3) Which of the following are.pdf
1 In 1953 the structure of arganisms Was determined as we.pdf
1 In 1953 the structure of arganisms Was determined as we.pdf
Molecular mechanism of recombination, post meiotic segregation
Molecular mechanism of recombination, post meiotic segregation
12). Choose the letter designation that represent homozygous recessi.pdf
12). Choose the letter designation that represent homozygous recessi.pdf
13- What law did Mendel devise after his experiment with two traits- a.pdf
13- What law did Mendel devise after his experiment with two traits- a.pdf
More from jibinsh
What part of the brain is used in sympathetic arousal (ANS)Solu.pdf
What part of the brain is used in sympathetic arousal (ANS)?
Solution
Answer:
During danger or frightening situations, the body responds by increasing the heart rate and
raising the respiration rate. These are arousal responses which sets one ready to fight or flee.
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the arousal responses and prepares the body
to respond to such situations. This system works in coordination with the parasympathetic
nervous system which calms the body during arousal.
The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system together forms the autonomic nervous
system..
What type of cell-surface characteristic helps an epithelial tissue h.pdf
What type of cell-surface characteristic helps an epithelial tissue helps the tissue to expand?
Which type of epithelial tissue is found forming the walls of the air sacs in the lungs? What is
the function of this tissue there? Which type of epithelial tissue is found forming the Walls of
many of the kidneys tubules, as well as glands? What is the function of this tissue there? Which
type of epithelial tissue if found lining many of the airways of the respiratory tract? What type
of cell surface characterizes this epithelial tissue? What is the function of this tissue there?
Which type of epithelial tissue if found in the small intestine? What type of cell surface
characterizes this epithelial tissue? What is the function of this tissue there? Which type of
epithelial tissue if found forming the outer layers of skin? What type of cell surface
characterizes this epithelial tissue? What is the function of this tissue there? Which type of
epithelial tissue if found lining the urinary bladder? What type of cell surface characterizes this
epithelial tissue? What is the function of this tissue there?
Solution
Answers:
Types of epithelial tissues:
1. (a) Simple sqaumous epithelium lines the air sacs or alveoli of the lungs.
(b) Simple squamous epithelium in the alveoli allow oxygen from the air to enter the blood in the
capillaries of the lungs. carbon dioxide is also eliminated from the body through the simple
squamous epethelial cells of the lung air sacs.
2. (a) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(b) The cells perform secretion and absorption in the kidney tubules and glandular ducts.
3. (a) Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium are found in the airways of the respiratory
tract.
(b) They are characterized by the presence of cilia and secretion of mucous which collect foreign
materials and help to cough or sneeze them out.
(c) It helps to moisten and protect the airways by acting as a protective barrier pathogens and
foreign antigens through mucociliatory action.
4. (a) Intestinal epithelium forms the lining of both small and large intestines. It is composed of
simple columnar epithelial cells.
(b) These cells are characterized by the presence of circular and transverse folds, villi and
microvilli.
(c) It acts as a protective barrier to foreign antigens and toxins and also acts as a selectivity filter
to facilitate the uptake of dietary nutrients.
5. (a) Stratified squamous epithelium is found on the surface of skin.
(b) They may be keratinized or non keratinized.
(c) Its main function is protection from wear and tear.
6. (a) Transitional epithelium
(b) They may be cuboidal or columnar. When the tissue compressed, the cells become stretched.
During such conditions, they appear to be irregular and squamous.
(c) They can stretch and allow for the accommodation and storage of fluid in the urinary bladder.
It also acts as a barrier between the lumen and the blood stream..
Which bond would be most polar whySolutionstarting with .pdf
Which bond would be most polar why
Solution
starting with F that is the most polar element, we should start analising this. N-F and C-F have
the same polarity because the polarity of C and N is the same according with the periodic table.
So analising F-B and getting that B have more polarity that C and N result that the bond with
most polar in the answers is F-B. Remember how to find the polar according the table..
What is NOT a requirement for evolution by natural selection to.pdf
What is NOT a requirement for evolution by natural selection to occur?
a) Traits must be inherited
b) Traits must influence reproductive success
c) Inherited traits must have variation within the population
d) Characteristics that are favored (fitness) relate to the immediate environment
e) Variations will appear that will allow the survival of the species in future, unforeseen,
circumstances.
Charles Darwin...
a) ... arrived at the idea of natural selection in the Galápagos Islands.
b) ... was the first scientist to suggest evolution.
c) ... claimed that only aggressive and strong individuals would survive and reproduce.
d) ... with Alfred Wallace, published a mechanism for adaptive change, natural selection, and
proposed a \"tree of life\".
e) ... argued that chimpanzees and gorillas were progressively evolving into human beings.
What is NOT a requirement for evolution by natural selection to occur?
a) Traits must be inherited
b) Traits must influence reproductive success
c) Inherited traits must have variation within the population
d) Characteristics that are favored (fitness) relate to the immediate environment
e) Variations will appear that will allow the survival of the species in future, unforeseen,
circumstances.
Charles Darwin...
a) ... arrived at the idea of natural selection in the Galápagos Islands.
b) ... was the first scientist to suggest evolution.
c) ... claimed that only aggressive and strong individuals would survive and reproduce.
d) ... with Alfred Wallace, published a mechanism for adaptive change, natural selection, and
proposed a \"tree of life\".
e) ... argued that chimpanzees and gorillas were progressively evolving into human beings.
What is NOT a requirement for evolution by natural selection to occur?
a) Traits must be inherited
b) Traits must influence reproductive success
c) Inherited traits must have variation within the population
d) Characteristics that are favored (fitness) relate to the immediate environment
e) Variations will appear that will allow the survival of the species in future, unforeseen,
circumstances.
Charles Darwin...
a) ... arrived at the idea of natural selection in the Galápagos Islands.
b) ... was the first scientist to suggest evolution.
c) ... claimed that only aggressive and strong individuals would survive and reproduce.
d) ... with Alfred Wallace, published a mechanism for adaptive change, natural selection, and
proposed a \"tree of life\".
e) ... argued that chimpanzees and gorillas were progressively evolving into human beings.
a) Traits must be inherited
b) Traits must influence reproductive success
c) Inherited traits must have variation within the population
d) Characteristics that are favored (fitness) relate to the immediate environment
e) Variations will appear that will allow the survival of the species in future, unforeseen,
circumstances.
Charles Darwin...
a) ... arrived at the idea of natural selection in the Galápagos Islands.
b) ... was the first scientist to suggest evol.
What is James Wilsons leadership style and traits What made him dif.pdf
What is James Wilsons leadership style and traits? What made him different from other founding
fathers?
Was he a change agent? If so, how did he help their followers through change?
What type of power did james wilson possess?
Did he demonstrate ethics and values, if so, how?
What risks did he take?
Solution
James Wilson was a democratic leader. This can be cnfirmed by the decisions taken by James
Wilson during the American Revolution. During the revolution Mr. Wilson advocated for the
independence of colonies in America from the British empire. When the time for voting for
independence from the British empire came Mr. James Wilson proposed that he must consult and
take the views of public in his constituent before taking any decision. This process delayed the
independence of the Philadelphia constituency. Ultimately the people of his constituency agreed
to get independence and they voted in favour of independence. Thus, the leadership style adopted
by Mr. James Wilson has a democratic leadership style.
The democratic style adopted by Mr. James Wilson made him a different leader as compared to
other founding fathers.
Yes, he was a change agent. He argued for independence of his constituen from the Bristish
empire and advocated furiosly for their independence. He asked the people of his constituent for
their opinion about getting independence from the British empire but the people of his
constituent resisted independence. He waited and explained to them about the benefits of getting
independence. Eventually the people of his constituent decided to get independence from the
British empire and hence Mr. James Wilson voted in favour of independence.
James Wilson possessed great debating and advocating skills with strong emphasis on giving
logical reasoning in the debate..
This project calls for the modification of the DollarFormat clas.pdf
The document describes modifying the TruncatedDollarFormat class to truncate amounts to two decimal places when output. It provides the code for the TruncatedDollarFormat and TruncatedBankAccount classes, with the latter using the former to output balances compounded annually, monthly, and daily over 10 years. The output is shown as a sample run at the end.
The method FRET ALEX is a more precise way to determine the number o.pdf
The method FRET ALEX is a more precise way to determine the number of interacting
molecules and the orientation of the fluorophores. In this method, both donor and acceptor
fluorescent molecules are excited and emission light is measured. The donor molecule is excited
then the acceptor molecule is excited in an alternating pattern with lasers. The light is measured
within a very small space - so small only one set of molecules can fit. They can tell if donor and
acceptor are together or separate even though they may not be close enough for FRET alone or
the fluorophores are facing away from each other. What result would lead to the conclusion that
sigma subunit remained associated with the elongation complexes? The answer has to do with
fluorescence.
Solution
While using this method the distance between the Sigma subunit and the protien complex
molecule is measured using the Forster Resonance Energy Transfer (FRET) which utilises the
distance-dependent interaction of two fluorophores to detect proximity or/and changes in the
fluorophore interactions. It has been found that during the biochemical process of protien
enlongation this distance does not change significantly thus providing evidence that the subunit
remains associated with the elongation (Protien ) Complex..
The initial velocity is How do you solve the initial velocity.pdf
The initial velocity is :
How do you solve the initial velocity step by step? I thought that the Vo would be 0 because at
time t=0 the ball wouldnt be moving...
Solution
Ball must have some initial speed to move in projectile motion
so that vi must not be zero
Ball will move in projectile motion
the time of flight
t=2visin/g
sin=1
t*g/2=vi
(-6)(-32)/2=vi
96ft/sec=vi.
The following expression was simplified incorrectly. In which line er.pdf
The following expression was simplified incorrectly. In which line error first made when
simplifying the identity shown below? 1 + sec(-theta)/sin(-theta) + tan(-theta) = 1 - sec theta/sin
theta - tan theta = 1 - sec theta/sin theta [1 - (1/cos theta)] = 1 - sec theta/sin theta (1 - sec theta) =
1/sin theta = csc theta
Solution
we know that sin(-theta) = -sin (theta )
hence the mistake was first identified in the line 1.
The energy used in the CaMn cycle for the production of carbohydrate .pdf
The energy used in the CaMn cycle for the production of carbohydrate molecules comes from
A. ATP B. NADPH C. H2O D. A & B E. A, B, and C During photosynthesis, photons raise
electrons to higher energy levels. These excited electrons are obtained from what compound?
CO2 Glucose ATP Chlorophyll H2O CAM plants keep stomata closed in daytime, thus
reducing loss of water. They can do this because they They use Photosystems at night They fix
CO2 Into sugars in bundle-sheath cells They use phosphofructokinase, which outcompetes for
rubisco for CO2\" They fix CO2 Into organic adds at night They fix Co2 into pyruvate
Solution
Question 4
Correct option- A) ATP
Explanation: If we study the role of the compounds then the answer will be cleared.
ATP- It acts as energy source by losing one energy rich phosphate. ATP provides energy for the
regeneration of RuBP.
NADPH- Though it is a high energy rich compound but during Calvin cycle it acts as a reducing
agent. NADPH provides a hydrogen ion for the reduction of 3-phospho-glycerate into
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
H2O- Calvin Cycle Synthesizes Hexoses from Carbon Dioxide and Water.
Question 5
Correct option- H2O
Explanation- If we study the electron transport chain of photosynthesis then the route of electron
will be cleared.
The main process that generates electron is known as water splitting. Oxygen evolving complex
is a protein which split water and it is associated with photosystem II . By splitting of water ½
O2 and 2H+ are generated. And 2electron is liberated. Electrons are then passed to reaction
centre of chlorophyll..
The CAN-SPAM Acta. applies to virtually all promotional e-mails,.pdf
The CAN-SPAM Act
a. applies to virtually all promotional e-mails, whether or not the sender has a pre-existing
relationship with the recipient.
b. requires senders of promotional e-mails to provide a valid return address, which may be a
post office box or a specific physical location.
c. requires recipients of unsolicited, pornographic e-mails to notify the Justice Department.
d. requires senders of promotional e-mails to offer an opt-in system to recipients.
The Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986 is a federal statute that regulates email.
True
False
The amendments to the U.S. Constitution protect the people from the power of state and federal
governments.
True
False
Solution
The CAN-SPAM act sets national standards for sending commercial e-mails. In this question the
answer is option \"b\" - equires senders of promotional e-mails to provide a valid return address,
which may be a post office box or a specific physical location.
The CAN SPAM act has to adher to content compliance ans as per it a legitimate physical
address of the publisher and/or advertiser is present. PO Box addresses are acceptable in
compliance with 16 C.F.R. 316.2(p) and if the email is sent by a third party, the legitimate
physical address of the entity, whose products or services are promoted through the email should
be visible.
The Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986 was formed to protect all communications
and consumer records and includes the following types of electronic communications - transfer
of signs, signals, writing, images, sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole
or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectronic or photooptical system.
The answer is \"false\" as the act looks not only at e-mails and regulates them but also radio,
phone messages etc.
The tenth amendment to the U.S. Constitution states that the federal government possesses only
those powers delegated to it by the Constitution. All remaining powers are reserved for the states
or the people. So the answer is \"true\"..
SensesFor each of the special senses, understand how a stimulus is.pdf
Senses
For each of the special senses, understand how a stimulus is received and then transmitted to the
brain
Solution
Special senses are the senses that have specialised organs devoted to them like vision (eye),
hearing and balance (ear) , smell( nose) , taste( tongue). Information from special senses is
carried in special somatic afferents and special visceral afferents.
Taste sensation: Chemoreceptors located in the taste buds of the tongue;
a. they detect chemicals present in food and in saliva
b. Sweet, sour, bitter and salty are four basic tastes
c. Pathways; Facial and Glossopharyngeal nerves in temporal and parietal lobes
4. Smell sensation: Chemoreceptors in the upper nasal cavities detect volatile (vaporized)
chemicals
a. Pathways: Olfactory nerves to olfactory bulbs connected to olfactory areas in the temporal
lobe
b. Smell and taste sensations are synergistic.
Recent Presidential debates have brought about a series of polls.pdf
Recent Presidential debates have brought about a series of polls analyzing public opinion.
Program3 will present a software design (your choice) of the results of a public opinion poll.
Program Specifications and requirements:
Your program must use the array templated class library for storing the following:
· presidential candidate names in a one-dimensional array of strings
· four areas of national concern such as “security”, “education”, etc. in a one-dimensional array
of strings
· two-dimensional array of integers for storing a count of the total votes of 10000 people for who
did better in the debate
For instance, the following could represent the votes for each candidate for 4 areas of national
concern:
5460 4540
3999 6001
2000 8000
7000 3000
Assume the first row represents the first area of concern, such as “security”, the second row
could represent “education”, etc.
The first column could represent the first presidential candidate, John Brown, and the second
column could be for Jim Smith. The particular national concerns and the names of the candidates
as well as the votes will come from the keyboard. Do not hardcode any of the data for the arrays.
The arrays will be empty to begin with. The data must come from the keyboard. Be sure your
keyboard prompts are meaningful and clear to any user. You MUST NOT use any global
variables.
The output of your program will be the following:
Display the name of the national concern, the candidate and the percentage of 10000 each
candidate received in a nicely formatted table. You will need to use the io manipulators.
Display the name of the candidate that won the debate (highest total of all votes).
You must use at least three meaningful functions in addition to main.
Recent Presidential debates have brought about a series of polls analyzing public opinion.
Program3 will present a software design (your choice) of the results of a public opinion poll.
Program Specifications and requirements:
Your program must use the array templated class library for storing the following:
· presidential candidate names in a one-dimensional array of strings
· four areas of national concern such as “security”, “education”, etc. in a one-dimensional array
of strings
· two-dimensional array of integers for storing a count of the total votes of 10000 people for who
did better in the debate
For instance, the following could represent the votes for each candidate for 4 areas of national
concern:
5460 4540
3999 6001
2000 8000
7000 3000
Assume the first row represents the first area of concern, such as “security”, the second row
could represent “education”, etc.
The first column could represent the first presidential candidate, John Brown, and the second
column could be for Jim Smith. The particular national concerns and the names of the candidates
as well as the votes will come from the keyboard. Do not hardcode any of the data for the arrays.
The arrays will be empty to begin with. The data must come from the keyboard. Be.
Quality function deployment (QFD) is a structures approach for integ.pdf
Quality function deployment (QFD) is a structures approach for integrating the “voice of the
consumer” into the product development process. The purpose is to ensure that customer
requirements are factored into every aspect of the process from product planning to the
production floor. Listening to and understanding the customer is the central feature of QFD. True
or false
Solution
TRUE:
Company or organization have to satisfy the customer then they have to use the tool of Quality
function deployment..
please send edited code. I have posted this a few times with lots of.pdf
The document requests edited code for a Java program that generates random data points and calculates their center. The response provides the code for a Data class with static and member variables and functions to: 1) track the number of points and their running average center, 2) draw individual points and the center, and 3) generate random points and call the drawing functions.
Please give me a custom example code of a complex PovRay Program tha.pdf
Please give me a custom example code of a complex PovRay Program that creates complex
images
Solution
// This is a realistic 3-D graphic image
// The following are some simple include files for predefined items
#include \"colors.inc\"
#include \"shapes.inc\"
#include \"textures.inc\"
// A. First Essential Feature: The CAMERA to take the picture
camera {
location <3, 12, -17> // Camera location: x,y,x coordinates in three-space
look_at <0, 5, -2> // Direction of view in three-space
}
// B. Second Essential Feature: The LIGHT SOURCE
light_source {
<-50,50,-30> // Location is behind the viewer, high, and to the left
color rgb <1.5, 1.5, 1.5> // This is a BRIGHT white light
}
// C. Third Essential Feature - The OBJECTS in three-space
// Object #1 - A checkerboard floor or plane
plane {
y, 0 // along the x-z plane (y is the normal vector)
pigment { checker color Black color White } // checkered pattern
finish {
ambient 0.2 // How much light is scattered from nearby objects
diffuse 0.8 // How much light comes from the direct source
}
scale 2 // Enlarge the basic checker pattern by a factor of two
}
// Object #2 - A shiny red sphere
sphere {
<1.0, 6.0, 3.7>, 5 // The of the sphere and it\'s radius
pigment {
color rgbf <1, 0, 0, 0> // Red, Green, Blue and Filter (transparency)
}
finish {
phong 0.8 // The shiny highlight
reflection 0.8 // How much light bounces off the object
}
}
// Objetct #3 - A moderatley shiny yellow box
box {
<-1, 0, -3> <-5, 8, -7> // Two corners of the box
texture{
pigment {
marble
color_map {
[0.0 color rgbf <1, 1, 0.2, 0.0>]
[1.0 color rgbf <1, 1, 0.8, 0.0>]
}
turbulence 1.5 lambda 1.5 omega 0.75 octaves 8
}
normal {bumps 0.2 scale 0.2}
finish {
phong 0.8
reflection 0.2
ambient 0.15
diffuse 0.75
}
}
}
// Object #4 - A transparent blue torus (A torus is defined about the origin)
torus {2.5, 0.8 // Major radius (basic size) and minor radius (cross section)
pigment {color rgbf <0.2, 0.2, 1.0, 0.8>}// Strong blue and transparent
finish {
phong 1.0 // Highlight
reflection 0.5 // Shiny surface
refraction 1.2 // Properties of light passing through object
ior 1.8 // Index of refraction
}
translate <-1.2, 5.5, -6.8> // Move the torus away from the origin
}
// Object #5 - A cone with a portion removed
difference{
cone { < -9, 0, 2>, 4, // Center of base and radius
<-9, 11, 2>, 0 // Center of top and radius
}
sphere {<-9.1, 8, 1.4>, 1.2} // This sphere is removed from the cone
pigment {color rgbf <0.0, 0.6, 0.0, 0.0>} // Dark green
finish {
phong 1.0
reflection 0.2
}
}
//Object #6 - A blob
blob {
threshold 0.1 // Factor relating to how spheres merge
component 1.0, 1.8, < 5, 5, -4> // Sphere #1 strength, radius, and location
component 1.0, 1.0, <6.5, 5.5, -3> // Smaller sphere #2
component 1.0, 1.0, <6.5, 5.5, -5> // Smaller sphere #3
pigment {
image_map{ // Wrap an image around object instead of color
gif \"azalea3.gif\" // Targa file and name
map_type 0 // Typr of wrapping
interpolate 2 // Boundary type between colors
}
// turbulence 0.
Networking Question What are the key differences between forwarding.pdf
Networking Question: What are the key differences between forwarding and routing functions
performed in the network layer?
Solution
Routing answers the question of what next Hop ip to send a packet based on the destination
prefix and its determining which way the packet will use to reach its destination easily.
forwarding functions determines which exit interface to use to send the packet to its next hop is
nothing but termed as forwarding function..
Most children with cystic fibrosis have frequent lung infections and.pdf
Most children with cystic fibrosis have frequent lung infections and digestive difficulties. Some
people have mild cases, with onset of minor respiratory problems in adulthood. Some men with
cystic fibrosis only exhibit the symptom of infertility. Which exception to Mendelian laws of
inheritance best explains these symptoms?
1.) incomplete dominance
2.) pleiotropy
3.) epistasis
4.) codominance
5.) overdominance
Solution
2. Pleiotropy.
Some genes influence not only the triats generally associated with them but also many other
triats. The multiple effect of a gene is called pleiotropy and gene having multiple phenotypic
effects is called pleiotropic gene.
Pleiotropic genes may not have equal influecne on all triats they control and these genes may
cause a very evident expression of its specific triat (major effect) and less evident effects of its
other triat (secondsry effect).
A)abductionB)deductive reasoningc) inductive reasoningd)a wild.pdf
A)abduction
B)deductive reasoning
c) inductive reasoning
d)a wild guess Dr. Neil Shubin, a paleontologist discovered one of the most famous
sarcopterygian fish fossils, Tiktaalik, a fish that has several tetrapod characteristics. In
determining where to hunt for this fossil, he knew that he was looking for rock from the
Devonian period that would have been near the equator 375 million years ago. He also knew
about plate tectonics and that the continents have shifted since that time. He concluded that one
of the places to hunt for this fossil was the Canadian Arctic, and indeed, that\'s where he found
this fascinating fossil. This form of reasoning, knowing where to hunt for this fossil, is known as
.
Solution
Answer;
\"Dr. Neil Shubin............................................This form of reasoning, knowing wheretp hunt for
ths fossil, is known as deductive reasoning.
Explanation:
Deductive reasoning is a valid reasoning process (a top to down logic) for making deductive
inference which is largely based on theory) as opposed to inductive inference (which is largely
based on observations). The logical process of detuctive reasoning starts from a general
statement (as in the present case) and examines the possibilities to reach a specific and logical
conclusion (as in the given case, possible place to hunt for the fossil of interest is determined
with the help of available knowledge and data). Thus with deductive reasoning process, the
paleontologist could build a theory and based on it he could make a prediction of its
consequences. In such a case, if the predicted theory is correct, the observations are also correct..
Lipid rafts are associated with which of the following activities re.pdf
Lipid rafts are associated with which of the following activities? responding to extracellular
signals transport of cholera toxin into cells transport of nutrients across cell membranes immune
responses All of the above are correct
Solution
All of the above are correct
Lipid rafts are involved in the initiation and propagation of the signal transduction cascade
associated with lymphocyte activation.They are also membrane protein trafficking, and
regulating neurotransmission and receptor trafficking..
More from jibinsh (20)
What part of the brain is used in sympathetic arousal (ANS)Solu.pdf
What part of the brain is used in sympathetic arousal (ANS)Solu.pdf
What type of cell-surface characteristic helps an epithelial tissue h.pdf
What type of cell-surface characteristic helps an epithelial tissue h.pdf
Which bond would be most polar whySolutionstarting with .pdf
Which bond would be most polar whySolutionstarting with .pdf
What is NOT a requirement for evolution by natural selection to.pdf
What is NOT a requirement for evolution by natural selection to.pdf
What is James Wilsons leadership style and traits What made him dif.pdf
What is James Wilsons leadership style and traits What made him dif.pdf
This project calls for the modification of the DollarFormat clas.pdf
This project calls for the modification of the DollarFormat clas.pdf
The method FRET ALEX is a more precise way to determine the number o.pdf
The method FRET ALEX is a more precise way to determine the number o.pdf
The initial velocity is How do you solve the initial velocity.pdf
The initial velocity is How do you solve the initial velocity.pdf
The following expression was simplified incorrectly. In which line er.pdf
The following expression was simplified incorrectly. In which line er.pdf
The energy used in the CaMn cycle for the production of carbohydrate .pdf
The energy used in the CaMn cycle for the production of carbohydrate .pdf
The CAN-SPAM Acta. applies to virtually all promotional e-mails,.pdf
The CAN-SPAM Acta. applies to virtually all promotional e-mails,.pdf
SensesFor each of the special senses, understand how a stimulus is.pdf
SensesFor each of the special senses, understand how a stimulus is.pdf
Recent Presidential debates have brought about a series of polls.pdf
Recent Presidential debates have brought about a series of polls.pdf
Quality function deployment (QFD) is a structures approach for integ.pdf
Quality function deployment (QFD) is a structures approach for integ.pdf
please send edited code. I have posted this a few times with lots of.pdf
please send edited code. I have posted this a few times with lots of.pdf
Please give me a custom example code of a complex PovRay Program tha.pdf
Please give me a custom example code of a complex PovRay Program tha.pdf
Networking Question What are the key differences between forwarding.pdf
Networking Question What are the key differences between forwarding.pdf
Most children with cystic fibrosis have frequent lung infections and.pdf
Most children with cystic fibrosis have frequent lung infections and.pdf
A)abductionB)deductive reasoningc) inductive reasoningd)a wild.pdf
A)abductionB)deductive reasoningc) inductive reasoningd)a wild.pdf
Lipid rafts are associated with which of the following activities re.pdf
Lipid rafts are associated with which of the following activities re.pdf
Recently uploaded
LAND USE LAND COVER AND NDVI OF MIRZAPUR DISTRICT, UP
This Dissertation explores the particular circumstances of Mirzapur, a region located in the
core of India. Mirzapur, with its varied terrains and abundant biodiversity, offers an optimal
environment for investigating the changes in vegetation cover dynamics. Our study utilizes
advanced technologies such as GIS (Geographic Information Systems) and Remote sensing to
analyze the transformations that have taken place over the course of a decade.
The complex relationship between human activities and the environment has been the focus
of extensive research and worry. As the global community grapples with swift urbanization,
population expansion, and economic progress, the effects on natural ecosystems are becoming
more evident. A crucial element of this impact is the alteration of vegetation cover, which plays a
significant role in maintaining the ecological equilibrium of our planet.Land serves as the foundation for all human activities and provides the necessary materials for
these activities. As the most crucial natural resource, its utilization by humans results in different
'Land uses,' which are determined by both human activities and the physical characteristics of the
land.
The utilization of land is impacted by human needs and environmental factors. In countries
like India, rapid population growth and the emphasis on extensive resource exploitation can lead
to significant land degradation, adversely affecting the region's land cover.
Therefore, human intervention has significantly influenced land use patterns over many
centuries, evolving its structure over time and space. In the present era, these changes have
accelerated due to factors such as agriculture and urbanization. Information regarding land use and
cover is essential for various planning and management tasks related to the Earth's surface,
providing crucial environmental data for scientific, resource management, policy purposes, and
diverse human activities.
Accurate understanding of land use and cover is imperative for the development planning
of any area. Consequently, a wide range of professionals, including earth system scientists, land
and water managers, and urban planners, are interested in obtaining data on land use and cover
changes, conversion trends, and other related patterns. The spatial dimensions of land use and
cover support policymakers and scientists in making well-informed decisions, as alterations in
these patterns indicate shifts in economic and social conditions. Monitoring such changes with the
help of Advanced technologies like Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems is
crucial for coordinated efforts across different administrative levels. Advanced technologies like
Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems
9
Changes in vegetation cover refer to variations in the distribution, composition, and overall
structure of plant communities across different temporal and spatial scales. These changes can
occur natural.
Pengantar Penggunaan Flutter - Dart programming language1.pptx
Pengantar Penggunaan Flutter - Dart programming language1.pptx
বাংলাদেশ অর্থনৈতিক সমীক্ষা (Economic Review) ২০২৪ UJS App.pdf
বাংলাদেশের অর্থনৈতিক সমীক্ষা ২০২৪ [Bangladesh Economic Review 2024 Bangla.pdf] কম্পিউটার , ট্যাব ও স্মার্ট ফোন ভার্সন সহ সম্পূর্ণ বাংলা ই-বুক বা pdf বই " সুচিপত্র ...বুকমার্ক মেনু 🔖 ও হাইপার লিংক মেনু 📝👆 যুক্ত ..
আমাদের সবার জন্য খুব খুব গুরুত্বপূর্ণ একটি বই ..বিসিএস, ব্যাংক, ইউনিভার্সিটি ভর্তি ও যে কোন প্রতিযোগিতা মূলক পরীক্ষার জন্য এর খুব ইম্পরট্যান্ট একটি বিষয় ...তাছাড়া বাংলাদেশের সাম্প্রতিক যে কোন ডাটা বা তথ্য এই বইতে পাবেন ...
তাই একজন নাগরিক হিসাবে এই তথ্য গুলো আপনার জানা প্রয়োজন ...।
বিসিএস ও ব্যাংক এর লিখিত পরীক্ষা ...+এছাড়া মাধ্যমিক ও উচ্চমাধ্যমিকের স্টুডেন্টদের জন্য অনেক কাজে আসবে ...
Azure Interview Questions and Answers PDF By ScholarHat
Azure Interview Questions and Answers PDF By ScholarHat
How to Setup Warehouse & Location in Odoo 17 Inventory
In this slide, we'll explore how to set up warehouses and locations in Odoo 17 Inventory. This will help us manage our stock effectively, track inventory levels, and streamline warehouse operations.
Walmart Business+ and Spark Good for Nonprofits.pdf
"Learn about all the ways Walmart supports nonprofit organizations.
You will hear from Liz Willett, the Head of Nonprofits, and hear about what Walmart is doing to help nonprofits, including Walmart Business and Spark Good. Walmart Business+ is a new offer for nonprofits that offers discounts and also streamlines nonprofits order and expense tracking, saving time and money.
The webinar may also give some examples on how nonprofits can best leverage Walmart Business+.
The event will cover the following::
Walmart Business + (https://business.walmart.com/plus) is a new shopping experience for nonprofits, schools, and local business customers that connects an exclusive online shopping experience to stores. Benefits include free delivery and shipping, a 'Spend Analytics” feature, special discounts, deals and tax-exempt shopping.
Special TechSoup offer for a free 180 days membership, and up to $150 in discounts on eligible orders.
Spark Good (walmart.com/sparkgood) is a charitable platform that enables nonprofits to receive donations directly from customers and associates.
Answers about how you can do more with Walmart!"
How to Manage Your Lost Opportunities in Odoo 17 CRM
Odoo 17 CRM allows us to track why we lose sales opportunities with "Lost Reasons." This helps analyze our sales process and identify areas for improvement. Here's how to configure lost reasons in Odoo 17 CRM
South African Journal of Science: Writing with integrity workshop (2024)
South African Journal of Science: Writing with integrity workshop (2024)Academy of Science of South Africa
A workshop hosted by the South African Journal of Science aimed at postgraduate students and early career researchers with little or no experience in writing and publishing journal articles.Digital Artifact 1 - 10VCD Environments Unit
Digital Artifact 1 - 10VCD Environments Unit - NGV Pavilion Concept Design
The History of Stoke Newington Street Names
Presented at the Stoke Newington Literary Festival on 9th June 2024
www.StokeNewingtonHistory.com
Your Skill Boost Masterclass: Strategies for Effective Upskilling
Your Skill Boost Masterclass: Strategies for Effective UpskillingExcellence Foundation for South Sudan
Strategies for Effective Upskilling is a presentation by Chinwendu Peace in a Your Skill Boost Masterclass organisation by the Excellence Foundation for South Sudan on 08th and 09th June 2024 from 1 PM to 3 PM on each day.RPMS TEMPLATE FOR SCHOOL YEAR 2023-2024 FOR TEACHER 1 TO TEACHER 3
RPMS Template 2023-2024 by: Irene S. Rueco
DRUGS AND ITS classification slide share
Any substance (other than food) that is used to prevent, diagnose, treat, or relieve symptoms of a
disease or abnormal condition
ANATOMY AND BIOMECHANICS OF HIP JOINT.pdf
it describes the bony anatomy including the femoral head , acetabulum, labrum . also discusses the capsule , ligaments . muscle that act on the hip joint and the range of motion are outlined. factors affecting hip joint stability and weight transmission through the joint are summarized.
What is Digital Literacy? A guest blog from Andy McLaughlin, University of Ab...
What is Digital Literacy? A guest blog from Andy McLaughlin, University of Aberdeen
Chapter 4 - Islamic Financial Institutions in Malaysia.pptx
Chapter 4 - Islamic Financial Institutions in Malaysia.pptxMohd Adib Abd Muin, Senior Lecturer at Universiti Utara Malaysia
This slide is special for master students (MIBS & MIFB) in UUM. Also useful for readers who are interested in the topic of contemporary Islamic banking.
Exploiting Artificial Intelligence for Empowering Researchers and Faculty, In...
Exploiting Artificial Intelligence for Empowering Researchers and Faculty, In...Dr. Vinod Kumar Kanvaria
Exploiting Artificial Intelligence for Empowering Researchers and Faculty,
International FDP on Fundamentals of Research in Social Sciences
at Integral University, Lucknow, 06.06.2024
By Dr. Vinod Kumar KanvariaRecently uploaded (20)
LAND USE LAND COVER AND NDVI OF MIRZAPUR DISTRICT, UP
LAND USE LAND COVER AND NDVI OF MIRZAPUR DISTRICT, UP
Pengantar Penggunaan Flutter - Dart programming language1.pptx
Pengantar Penggunaan Flutter - Dart programming language1.pptx
বাংলাদেশ অর্থনৈতিক সমীক্ষা (Economic Review) ২০২৪ UJS App.pdf
বাংলাদেশ অর্থনৈতিক সমীক্ষা (Economic Review) ২০২৪ UJS App.pdf
Azure Interview Questions and Answers PDF By ScholarHat
Azure Interview Questions and Answers PDF By ScholarHat
How to Setup Warehouse & Location in Odoo 17 Inventory
How to Setup Warehouse & Location in Odoo 17 Inventory
Walmart Business+ and Spark Good for Nonprofits.pdf
Walmart Business+ and Spark Good for Nonprofits.pdf
How to Manage Your Lost Opportunities in Odoo 17 CRM
How to Manage Your Lost Opportunities in Odoo 17 CRM
South African Journal of Science: Writing with integrity workshop (2024)
South African Journal of Science: Writing with integrity workshop (2024)
Your Skill Boost Masterclass: Strategies for Effective Upskilling
Your Skill Boost Masterclass: Strategies for Effective Upskilling
RPMS TEMPLATE FOR SCHOOL YEAR 2023-2024 FOR TEACHER 1 TO TEACHER 3
RPMS TEMPLATE FOR SCHOOL YEAR 2023-2024 FOR TEACHER 1 TO TEACHER 3
What is Digital Literacy? A guest blog from Andy McLaughlin, University of Ab...
What is Digital Literacy? A guest blog from Andy McLaughlin, University of Ab...
Chapter 4 - Islamic Financial Institutions in Malaysia.pptx
Chapter 4 - Islamic Financial Institutions in Malaysia.pptx
Exploiting Artificial Intelligence for Empowering Researchers and Faculty, In...
Exploiting Artificial Intelligence for Empowering Researchers and Faculty, In...
13) Independent assortment of a result of chromosomes is random a.pdf
- 1. 13) Independent assortment of a result of chromosomes is random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes A) the B) lines the metaphase plate during shared by chromosomes. the relatively small degree of homology the x and Y random nature of the fertilization of ova by sperm. during random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells C) D) the anaphase II. E) All of the above 14) ich of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n-16? A) The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell B) The species has 16 of chromosomes per cell. sets C) Each diploid cell has eight pairs of chromosomes. D) A gamete from this species has four chromosomes. 15) A plant has a unique photosynthetic pigment. The leaves of this plant appear to be reddish yellow. What wavelengths of visible light are not being absorbed by this pigment? violet D) green, blue, and A) green and yellow E) red and yellow B) blue, green, and red C) blue and violet 16) The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event? A) the citric acid cycle B) the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA C) the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP transport chain D) accepting electrons at the end of the electron E) glycolysis Solution 1.when two or more characteristics are inherited, individual hereditary factors assort independently during gamete production, giving different traits an equal opportunity of occurring together. Independent Assortment occurs in metaphase I. So answer is A 2.Only the body cells will be having 8 homologous chromosomes not each cell, if it does than gamate cell won't be haploid. So its only the body cell that will be having 8 homologous chromosomes. So answer is C 4..The electron transport chain in the mitochondrion is the site of oxidative phosphorylation in eukaryotes. So answer is D 3. The set of wavelengths that a pigment doesn't absorb are reflected, and the reflected light is what we see as color.
- 2. So answer is C