Test Bank PHC216 - 2023-88 (1).pdf

ABRAR & THAMER. M 88
PHC 216 Test Bank - 2023
Book 1: Medical Ethics Today: The BMA's Handbook of Ethics and Law
Book 2: Code of Ethics for Healthcare Practitioners in KSA
Book 3: Greco-Arab and Islamic Herbal Medicine
1- What does the term "GMC" stand for?
a. General Medical Council.
b. General Medical Collaboration.
c. Graduate Medical College.
2- When a person lacks or is indifferent to moral standards, he or she is considered to be:
a. Amoral.
3- ——— are rules or actions prescribed by an authority that have a legal binding force.
a. Laws.
Essay:
1- Medical ethics: Book1: p.1
• is one subset of the broader disciplines of ‘healthcare ethics’ and ‘bioethics’. It overlaps with both but focuses on
the duties of doctors.
2- Principles of ethics: OR What are the 4 Pillars of Medical Ethics? Book1: p.11
1. Autonomy: This principle acknowledges the right of patients to make their own decisions about their healthcare,
including the right to refuse or accept medical treatment.
2. Beneficence: This principle requires healthcare professionals to act in the best interests of their patients and to do
no harm.
3. Non-maleficence: This principle requires healthcare professionals to avoid causing harm to their patients or
others involved in their care.
4. Justice: This principle requires that medical resources and treatments be distributed fairly and equitably, without
discrimination or bias.
Book 1: Chapter 02 & 03: Consent, Choice and Refusal: Adults with Capacity & Treating
Adults who Lack Capacity
1- Under which of the following circumstances, law does not allow compulsory treatment? OR Law does not allow
compulsory treatment under:
a. Mental disorder.
b. Normal Conditions.
c. Some forensic purposes.
d. Some investigation under public health legislations.
2- In which of the following circumstances doctor is allowed to give medical treatment to save patients life
without obtaining consent?
a. In clinic.
b. In emergency.
c. On request of patient’s proxy/relatives.
d. Patient with capacity refuses medical treatment.

3- In which of the following circumstances families and those close to the adult are allowed to consent on
behalf of an incapacitated adult? OR In which of the following cases families and those close to the adult are
allowed to consent on behalf of an incapacitated adult?
a. If they have been appointed as family member.
b. If they have been appointed as managers.
c. If they have been appointed as patient's proxy decision maker.
d. If they have been working in health care.
4- Families and those close to the adult are allowed to consent only if they have been appointed as:
a. Family member.
b. Working in health care.
c. Managers.
d. Patient's proxy decision maker.
5- Which of the following is the ethical purpose of consent? OR The Ethical purpose of consent is:
a. Consent is trigger that allows treatment
b. Patients’ views should be respected.
c. Some interventions can be harmful
d. Some interventions could be considered assault or battery.
6- The legal purpose of consent is:
a. Patients' views should be respected.
b. Health Care is a partnership between doctor and patient.
c. Consent is trigger that allows treatment.
d. Adult patients with capacity have the right to choose what happens to their bodies.
7- Which of the following is the legal purpose of consent?
a. adult patient with capacity in any circumstances can choose treatment.
b. consent is a trigger that allows treatment or examination to take place.
c. healthcare is a partnership between doctor and the patient and the family.
d. patient’s views should be jotted down separately respected.
8- A patient's consent is very important?
a. To explain the procedure.
b. To allows the treatment OR To provide the treatment.
c. To give the patient unrealistic expectations.
d. To form a bond with the patient.
9- What is the purpose of seeking consent from patients?
a. to allow the treatment or exam to take place. OR To allow the treatment to take place.
b. to explain the procedure.
c. to form a bond with the patient.
d. to give the patient unrealistic expectations.
10- Which health professional in hospital facility has full responsibility for prescribing for inpatients and for
specific treatments administered in hospital outpatient clinics?
a. Healthcare attendant.
b. Hospital consultant.
c. Nurse in charge.
d. Pharmacist.

11- Which of the following is central to the partnership between doctor and patient, with each having a
role in decisions about treatment or care?
a. Capacity
b. Consent
c. Confidentiality
d. Competence.
12- Without appointed legal proxies, responsibility will usually fall to:
a. Patient.
b. Doctor.
c. Family.
d. Friends.
13- Who is responsible for the overall charge of a patient's care in the absence of an appointed patient's proxy
decision?
a. The patient's relatives.
b. The court.
c. The person who came with the patient.
d. The doctor.
14- How long is consent valid?
a. As long as it applies to the treatment in question.
b. For a lifetime after the consent is given.
c. For 6 months after the consent.
d. Only when the patient is conscious.
15- A patient can definitively lack capacity, when:
a. he/she give expected or apparently rational decision
b. he/she has physical disability
c. he/she can't communicate in the same language
d. he/she is unconscious.
16- When is a signed consent form is required?
a. After seeing the doctor.
b. After talking the paramedics.
c. Before any office visit.
d. For surgery.
17- When is a signed consent form required?
a. After seeing the doctor
b. After talking to the paramedics
c. Before any office visit
d. Before surgery.
18- The careful assessment of an individual's capacity is central to?
a. To complete patient record documentation
b. To explain the procedure
c. To following medical advice
d. The protection of patients' rights and interests

19- Who should seek consent?
a. Doctor
b. Patient
c. Healthcare Administrator
d. Head Nurse.
20- Should have an individual right to refuse consent, surgical and medical procedure:
a. Minors (16 yrs below).
b. Adults (16 yrs above).
c. Female patient.
d. Psychiatric patient.
21- A patient gives consent when he or she?
a. Has capacity.
b. Unconscious.
c. Unable to understand.
d. Under 16 years old.
22- Which the medical procedure is required consent from patient or parents?
a. Recordings or organ functions.
b. Surgical procedure.
c. Ultrasound images.
d. Images of pathology slides.
23- Adult patients with capacity have the right to refuse any medical treatment, except?
a. If its compulsory treatment authorized under mental health legislation.
b. if it is an optional...
c. If is result ... or death.
d. If it results ... fetus.
24- When does law allow compulsory treatment? OR When does law allow compulsory treatment?
a. Some teaching purposes.
b. Individual's choice.
c. Some forensic purposes.
d. Doctor's choice.
25- Adult patient with capacity have the right to refuse any medical treatment, with the exception of compulsory
treatment authorized under which of the following Legislations?
a. Cardiac Health.
b. Mental Health.
c. General Health.
d. Physical Health.
26- Which of the following statement refers to the term capacity?
a. Improper knowledge of the work
b. Information about the best benefits of the treatment
c. Knowledge of the medical advice given to the parents
d. The ability to make decisions that influence one's life. OR The ability to make decisions that influence their life.

27- Which of the following refers to the everyday ability that individuals possess to make decisions or to
take actions that influence their life?
a. Consent.
b. Capacity.
c. Power.
d. Inability.
28- When a person lacks capacity, which one of the following must be issued?
a. certificate of capacity.
b. certificate of incapacity.
c. certificate of treatment knowledge.
d. certificate of withholding.
29- Other than in emergency, when a person lacks capacity, which one of the following must be issued in order to
provide treatment?
a. Certificate of capacity.
b. Certificate of incapacity.
c. Certificate of sickness.
d. Certificate of treatment knowledge.
30- When consent cannot be obtained in an emergency doctor should provide treatment.
a. Invasive.
b. Cosmetic.
c. Immediately necessary to preserve life.
d. None of the above.
31- Which kind of treatment can be provided in case consent cannot be obtained in an emergency situation? OR
Which of the following treatments can be provided in case consent cannot be obtained in an emergency situation?
a. Cosmetic treatment to maintain beauty.
b. Immediately necessary treatment to preserve life.
c. Invasive treatment with no use.
d. Radiation in unnecessary circumstances.
32- In an emergency situation, when doctors should take whatever steps are necessary to prevent deterioration of
the patient’s condition?
a. When a patient refuses treatment and there is doubt about his or her capacity to do so validly.
b. When there is no doubt in the capacity of patient but the patient asks for emergency treatment.
c. When the patient has full capacity to take decision and wants the emergency treatment.
d. When the patient has full capacity and is with the close friends without parents in an emergency.
33- How can a person’s best interest be determined, who lacks capacity?
a. Comparing patients with same doctor who consulted earlier
b. Considering all patients with the same underline condition
c. Excluding patients participation from the treatment process
d. Through analyzing the circumstances of each individual case.
34- How can we determine the best interests of patients who lack capacity?
a. Analyzing the circumstances of each individual case.
b. Comparing patients with the same doctor who consulted earlier.
c. Considering all patients with the same underline condition.
d. Excluding patients participation from the treatment process.

35- What types of information should patients be given before consenting to treatment? Book1: p.66
a. A discussion about the advance directive.
b. Any uncertainties about the diagnosis or prognosis.
c. Financial and administrative information.
d. Options for treating or managing pre-existing conditions.
36- Which of the following refers to a written statement that lets other people know about any specific treatments
that you do not want to have in certain situations?
a. Advance Decision Refusing Treatment.
b. Advance Disclosure of Patient Information.
c. Advance Planning Document.
d. Advance Patient Advocacy.
37- In which one of the following cases an adult patient with capacity is unable to refuse medical treatment?
a. If it is a compulsory treatment authorized under mental health legislation.
b. If it is an optional treatment authorized under healthcare legislation.
c. If it results in permanent physical injury or death.
d. If it results in permanent physical injury or death of a viable fetus.
38- In which of the following conditions the relatives have right to give consent to the treatment of adult patient?
a. Appointed as legal proxy.
b. Appointed as patient friend.
c. Appointed as patient nurse.
d. Only the guardian.
39- In which of the following circumstances could informed consent be waived?
a. When a patient is above age 18 and able to give proper consent in normal circumstances.
b. When a patient is found to be competent enough to give proper consent.
c. When immediate treatment is necessary to prevent death or permanent impairment.
d. When the patient is unhappy with the results and wants to understand the process again.
40- When do patients have the right to refuse any medical treatment?
a. If they are adults with capacity.
b. If a minor has parental approval.
c. If they are a minor without capacity.
d. If they believe the treatment will physically hurt.
41- Where should refusal of medical treatment be documented?
a. Criminal record.
b. Court data.
c. Health records.
d. Insurance company.
42. Which of the following is the opportunity to consent to treatment is counter balanced by:
a. Right to accept it.
b. Right to decide.
c. Right to refuse it.
d. doctor's decision.
e. parent's decision.

43- Which of the following should be told to the patient in the informed consent?
a. Diagnosis of the other patients.
b. Doctor's personal opinion about the patient.
c. Doctor's salary and her/his social status.
d. Uncertainties about the diagnosis or prognosis.
44- Who can give consent for incapacitated adults?
a. Patient's children.
b. The patient themselves.
c. Patient's proxy decision maker.
d. Patient's family who is not pointed as decision maker.
Essay:
1- Which condition law allows for compulsory treatment.? Write any two
The law allows:
• mental disorder
• Some forensic purposes
• Some investigations under public health legislation
2- Write any 2 points in which the consent will be valid as per patient.
• Have capacity.
• Be offered sufficient information to make an informed decision.
• Be acting voluntarily and free from undue pressure.
• Be aware that he or she can refuse.
3- Explain How should capacity be assessed? OR Based on what patient’s capacity should be assessed:
Person regarded as unable to make a decision if at the time the decision needs to be made, he or she is unable:
o To understand the information relevant to the decision.
o To retain the information relevant to the decision.
o To use or weigh the information.
o To communicate the decision (by any means).
4- Without appointed legal proxies responsibility will usually fall to the doctor in overall charge of the patient's
care.
Decides on the basis of:
o The area’s legal requirements.
o An assessment of the patient's best interests.
5- What is the nature and purpose of consent legally? (Give any two)
o Consent is trigger that allows treatment.
o Some interventions can be harmful (side effects, etc).
o Some interventions could be considered assault or battery.
6- What is the nature and purpose of consent Ethically?
o Patients’ views should be respected.
o Health Care is a partnership between doctor and patient.
o Adult patients with capacity have the right to choose what happens to their bodies.

7- Informed Consent (Type of information to be given). To be informed, the patient must be told in plain
language: OR What must be told to the patient to get her or his consent?
o Purpose of a proposed investigation or treatment and what it will involve.
o Diagnosis and prognosis.
o Uncertainties about the diagnosis or prognosis.
o Conflicts of interest that the doctor may have.
o Likelihood of success for each option.
o Potential benefits, risks and burdens.
o Purpose of a proposed investigation or treatment and what it will involve.
o Options for further investigations.
o Other options for treating or managing the condition.
Book 1: Chapter 04: Children and Young People
1- Young person's competency can fluctuate because of which of the following?
a. Their decision
b. Their history
c. Their medical condition.
d. Their needs.
2- Which one of the following can influence a young person's competency?
a. Age.
b. Medical condition OR Medication.
c. Parents mood.
d. Social condition.
3- When children must not be discharged from hospital without a full examination?
a. If the condition of the child is not serious.
b. If the diagnostic is very difficult to make.
c. If the parents, ask for it.
d. If there are concerns about the wellbeing of the child.
4- When an agreement on treatment cannot be reached in a reasonable period of time, who should get involved in
decision-making?
a. Courts.
b. Hospital.
c. Parents.
d. Police.
5- When do the courts need to be involved in decisions?
a. If the patient is not competent.
b. In an emergency.
c. When agreement on treatment cannot be reached in a reasonable period.
d. For any surgery.
6- What should be done when a child refuses care and/or competency of child is in doubt?
a. Courts must get involves.
b. Parents should be warned.
c. Patient must be dismissed.
d. Treatment must be withdrawn.

7- When the doctor has legally liable to court:
a. Paid services at private.
b. Working private.
c. Working government.
d. Child refuses care and treatment.
8- Who gives the consent for minors?
a. Parents.
b. Maternal uncles.
c. Other relatives.
d. Friends.
9- What is the "Medical Consent" form?
a. It is an understanding of the proposed procedure's risks and side effects.
b. It is a compensation form for patient.
c. It is an assurance form from doctor medical procedure to patient.
d. It is an assurance form from doctor medical procedure to patient parents.
10- What is the expression of consent?
a. Express only consequences of risks have been made clear.
b. Express only consequences of positives have been made clear.
c. Express only consequences of side effects have been made clear.
d. Express all consequences of risk, side effects and other positives have been made clear.
11- When are children and young people competent to give consent to medical treatment?
a. They are able to understand the nature and the purpose of treatment.
b. They don’t involve their parents in making decisions for the treatment.
c. They follow doctors' decision that may conflict with their wishes.
d. They reach 21 years old or above with mental disability problems.
12- When are children and young people eligible to give consent to their medical treatment?
a. When they cannot understand the nature of the proposed treatment.
b. When they’re incapable to retain the information.
c. When they understand the purpose of the proposed treatment.
13- When are the children and young people competent to give consent to medical treatment?
a. If the children have mental illness.
b. If they understand the nature of the proposed treatment.
c. If the children Almost cries and refuse hospitalization.
d. If the children's age is less than 16 years and their cognitive abilities not suitable.
14- What are physician responsibilities when a child at risk is discharged from the hospital?
a. Creating a documented plan for the future care.
b. Have on responsibilities with child at risk.
c. Only the family has all responsibilities.
d. Pathological case should be considerate last.
15- Which of the following terms refers to people who are probably mature enough to make important decisions
for themselves?
a. Legal proxies
b. Parents
c. Children
d. Young people.

16- Which of the following terms refers to people who are probably not mature enough to make
important decisions for themselves?
a. Children.
b. Parents.
c. Young people.
d. Legal proxies.
17- Who is entitled to give consent to medical treatment on behalf of their child?
a. Neighbours.
b. Child's friends.
c. First relatives.
d. People with parental responsibility
18- A young patient who is competent to make his or her own decisions may nevertheless choose to allow parents
to make decisions on his or her behalf" which of the following concept above statement demonstrate?
a. Ability to choose.
b. Inability to choose.
c. Ability to respect.
d. Ability to disrespect.
19- Which of the following considers one of the assessment tools to measure children's competence to take a
specific decision?
a. Social factors.
b. Cognitive development.
c. Age.
d. Environmental factors.
20- Which of the following processes is necessary before the child at risk is discharged from the hospital?
a. child must be given a discharge report.
b. child must be registered at an identified general practitioner (GP).
c. child must receive a thorough examination within 48 hours.
d. child must seek a second medical opinion.
21- When a child at risk is to be discharged from hospital?
a. A documented plan for the future care of the child must not be drawn up.
b. being registered at an identified GP.
22- Which of the following should children & young people obtain to access to their medical information?
a. Age.
b. Gender.
c. Mental abilities.
d. Physical abilities.
23- A young person's competency may fluctuate due to which of the following reasons?
a. Medication.
b. Emergency situation.
c. Mental disorder.
d. Referral services.

24- Ali is 14 years old. He came for medical consultation about his backache. He shows capability to
understand fully what is proposed. He is intelligent. The doctor explain all relevant information and alternatives.
In term of consent competency, which of the following are expected?
a. He can be considered competent even if under 16 years of age.
b. He is too young under 16 years to be considered as competent.
c. It is unethical to consent this child.
d. The doctor should seek legal advice.
25- Who should seek legal advice if a competent young person refuses essential medical treatment?
a. Doctors.
b. Hospital Mangers.
c. Lawyers.
d. Technicians.
26- When should doctors seek legal advice?
a. If a competent young person refuses essential medical and life-saving treatment.
b. If the young child's acceptance of treatment is determinative.
c. If young people may give valid consent to medical treatment.
d. If young person's acceptance of medication is not determinative.
27- Which one of the following situation needs doctors to seek legal advice while dealing with young people?
a. Doctors want to give up responsibility.
b. The young patient accepts essential medical treatment.
c. The young patient refuses essential medical treatment.
d. There is more than one option to provide treatment.
28- Which of the following is considered as a reason that doctors should seek legal advice for a competent young
person?
a. He is 16 years old.
b. He shown cognitive development.
c. In case of high emergency treatment.
d. Refuses essential medical treatment.
29- What should a doctor do if a competent young person refuses essential medical treatment?
a. Doctors should seek legal advice.
b. Doctors must accept the young person's decision.
c. Doctors must neglect the young person decision.
d. Doctors must delay the treatment.
30- When does young people considered as competent and can give consent in normal conditions?
a. Children less than 5 years.
b. Infant between 1-2 years.
c. People aged over 16 years.
d. Young children under 10 years.
31- Which of the following points considered when doctor caring for conjoined twins and considering their
separation?
a. Conjoined Twins have no moral and legal right.
b. Doctor don’t consider twins best interest.
c. Doctor do not consider parents views.
d. The legal and moral rights of both twins.

32- What is the responsibility with respect to children protection when dealing with them in healthcare?
a. Explaining the procedure to family.
b. Fulfilling the wishes of the child.
c. Making the parents comfortable.
d. The well-being of the child patient.
33- Which features should doctors give particular consideration when communicating with children and young
people?
a. Culture level.
b. Financial interest.
c. Honesty and confidentiality.
d. Social status.
34- If a young person refuses life-saving treatment, what should doctors do?
a. Enforce the patient to accept.
b. Respect patient’s decision.
c. Involve the court.
d. Involve the family.
35- For the consent of any young person to be valid it must be based on which of the following?
a. Communication.
b. Competence.
c. Inability.
d. Physical development.
36- In which of the following situation, court must get involved?
a. Child consent, and competency of child is not in doubt
b. Child refuses care, and competency of child is in doubt.
c. If an agreement can be reached about treatment.
d. When parents sign a consent.
37- What are doctors' responsibilities with respect to child protection?
a. Performing the wishes of the child.
b. Explaining the treatment to the parents.
c. The well-being of the child or children concerned.
38- Which of the following is highly needed to support children when participating in decisions regarding their
healthcare. Book1: p.151
a. Information.
b. Empathy.
c. Encouragement.
d. Support.
39- In cases of parental disagreement, which of the following parties should be responsible for making the
decisions?
a. Clinician.
b. Court.
c. Parents.
d. Relatives.

40- The ability to understand that there is a choice:
a. Is required for consent.
b. Is not required for consent.
c. Is only required for refusal.
d. Is only required for elderly patients.
41- Describe the adult patient permission for treatment? ‫كامله‬ ‫مو‬ ‫والاختيارات‬ ‫السؤال‬ ‫نص‬
a. Consent.
b. Competency.
42- What is the action required when a child at risk is discharged from hospital?
a. A documented plan for care of the child mustn’t be drawn up.
b. No need for follow-up care.
c. No need for full examination.
d. Register at an identified GP.
Essay:
1- The welfare of children and young people is the paramount consideration in decisions about their care. List Two
of the general principles that have been established regarding this manner.
• Be kept as fully informed as possible about their care and treatment.
• Be able to expect health professionals to act as their advocates.
• Have their views and wishes sought and taken into account as part of promoting their welfare in the widest sense.
• Be able to consent to treatment when they have sufficient 'understanding and intelligence'.
• Be encouraged to take decisions in collaboration with other family members, especially parents, if this is feasible.
2- Why a young people can competency fluctuate? Give any two conditions.
A young people's competency can fluctuate because of:
• Their medical condition.
• Medication.
• Time of day.
• Their mood.
3- Children and young people are competent to give consent to medical treatment if they are able to:
• Understand the nature of the proposed treatment.
• Understand the purpose of the proposed treatment.
• Retain the information.
• Weigh it in the balance to arrive at a decision.
4- List any two cases in which the court must be involved for care plan of children and young people? OR List two
cases in which the court must be involved in young children's cases.
Courts Must Get Involved When:
• Child refuses care, and competency of child is in doubt.
• Doctors are concerned about the willingness of parents to provide essential care following invasive procedures.
• If an agreement cannot be reached, the courts may become involved and make a decision about treatment.
• The courts cannot require doctors to provide contrary to their professional treatment judgement.
5- Doctors’ Responsibilities: ‫تحفظو‬ ‫يكفي‬
4
‫منهم‬
• Never delay taking emergency action.
• Where concerns about deliberate harm to young people have been raised, doctors must keep clear,
comprehensive, accurate, and contemporaneous notes.
• All doctors working with children, parents and other adults in contact with children must be familiar with relevant
local child protection procedures.
• If a child is at risk of serious harm, the interests of the child override those of parents or caregivers.

• All doctors working directly with children should ensure that safeguarding and promoting their welfare is
an integral part of all stages of the care they offer.
• When a doctor sees a child who may be at risk, he or she must ensure that systems are in place to ensure follow-
up care.
• All doctors working with children, parents and other adults in contact with children should be able to recognise
and know how to act upon signs that a child may be at risk of abuse or neglect in any living environment.
• Document the circumstances of a child at risk with as much detail as possible.
• Any doctor seeing a child who raises concerns must ensure follow-on care; children must not be discharged from
hospital without a full examination if there are concerns.
• When a child at risk is to be discharged from hospital, a documented plan for the future care of the child must be
drawn up.
• Whenever possible, the involvement and support of those who have parental responsibility for, or regular care of,
a child should be encouraged, as far as this is in keeping with promoting the best interests of the child or children
concerned. They may have their own views about parental involvement.
• When a child is admitted to hospital, a named consultant must be given overall responsibility for the child
protection aspects of the case.
• Any child admitted to hospital about whom there are concerns about deliberate harm must receive a thorough
examination within 24 hours unless it would compromise the child's care or well-being.
• Include children and young people in decisions that closely affect them. Listen to and respect the views and
wishes of children according to their competence and the level of their understanding. In some cases translation
services suitable for young people may be needed.
• A child at risk should not be discharged from hospital without being registered at an identified GP.
• All professionals must be clear about their own responsibilities, and which professional has overall responsibility
for the child protection aspects of a child's care.
Book 1: Chapter 05: Confidentiality
1- Which of the following is an example of a disclosure in public interest?
a. Chronic disease prevention
b. Emergency case
c. General health
d. Infectious disease.
2- A patient comes to a healthcare physician with fever. The physician prescribes the medication and initiates the
treatment considering that consent has been given by the patient. What kind of consent has the patient given?
a. Anonymised.
b. Disclosure.
c. Express.
d. Implied
3- A physician shares confidential information about a patient with a family member or friend. This is an example
of which of the following?
a. Breach of confidentiality.
b. Implied consent.
c. Negligence.
d. Public interest disclosure.

4- The information such as name, address, full postcode, identification numbers, or any other detail that
may identify the patients is known as which of the following? OR The information such as name, address, full
postcode, identification numbers, or any other detail from which individuals can be identified is known as:
a. Anonymised information.
b. Disclosure.
c. Identifiable information.
d. Personal information.
5- Which of the following refers to the provision of access to information about a patient, regardless of the
purpose? OR We usually refer to the provision of access to information about a patient, regardless of the purpose
as: OR __________ is the provision of access to information about a patient, regardless of the purpose:
a. Enclosure.
b. Consent.
c. Disclosure.
d. Confidentiality.
6- Which of the following statement refers to the term disclosure?
a. Agreement to an action based on knowledge of what that action involves and its likely consequences.
b. Information about people that doctors learn in a professional capacity and from which individuals can be
identified.
c. Information from which individuals cannot reasonably be identified.
d. The provision of access to information about a patient, regardless of the purpose.
7- Which of the following refer to patient agreement, either orally or in writing, to the use or disclosure of
information?
b. Disclosure.
c. Express consent.
d. Implied consent.
8- A researcher wants to study the effect of physical therapy on the quality of life of geriatric patients admitted in
the hospital during 2019. The hospital should make sure that the researcher is provided with which of the
following?
b. Disclosure
c. Identifiable information
9- A researcher wants to study the effect of physiotherapy on the quality of life of geriatric patients admitted in
the hospital during 2014. The hospital should make sure that the researcher is provided with:
b. Disclosure.
c. Identifiable information.
10- What is Anonymised information?
a. Information from which individuals cannot identified.
b. Information protected with a password or safeguard.
c. Information from which individuals can be identified.
d. Information from unknown source.

11- Which of the following is anonymized information? OR Which one of the following statements
describing the Anonymised information?
a. Information from which individuals can reasonably be identified.
b. Medical information from patients.
c. Health information about deceased.
d. Information from which individuals cannot reasonably be identified.
12- all information collected in the context of healthcare are:
a. Confidential.
b. Identifiable.
c. Secure.
d. anonymized.
13- In which of the following cases health information may be disclosed?
a. Requested by journalists.
b. Requested by courts, tribunals, and regulatory bodies.
c. Requested by the employer of the patient.
d. Requested by the family members.
14- The confidentiality is a fundamental requirement for the preservation of trust between patients and health
professionals and is subject to:
a. Family history and Personal behaviors.
b. Legal and ethical safeguards.
c. Economic and Professional relations.
d. No confidentiality between patients and heal professionals.
15- Who will provide clinical services, administrative and other cares for a patient?
a. Ward boys.
b. Healthcare Team.
c. Nurses.
d. Doctors.
16- Which of the identifiable information could support to identify a patient, even an address not included?
a. Colour
b. Height
c. Weight
d. Postal code.
17- Which of the following statements is most accurate when considering disclosing patient information to
protect the public interest? OR When considering disclosing information to protect the public interest, doctors
must:
a. Reveal all the information necessary to achieve the objective.
b. Reveal only the minimum information necessary to achieve the objective.
c. Reveal the high- level information necessary to achieve the purpose.
d. Reveal the medium level information necessary to achieve the purpose.
18- When considering disclosing information to protect the public interest, doctors must?
a. Consider how the benefits of making the disclosure balance against the harm.
19- Which of the following refers to a valid consent given in writing or orally for disclosure of information?
a. Express consent.
b. Implied consent.
c. Inferred consent.
d. Legal consent.

20- Why the patient information must be properly protected?
a. To prevent it from the patient's reach.
b. To prevent malicious, thoughtless or inadvertent breaches of confidentiality.
c. To prevent the patient from the necessary treatment provided in the clinic.
d. To prevent the patient from getting benefit from the healthcare team.
21- Which one of the following is a principal of confidentiality?
a. Health care team is the only one who have the data and patient should respect
b. information must be available to patient and explained how their data will be shared.
c. information would not be available because it is secure ....
d. patient have no right to discuss their situation...
22- Information about individuals that cannot be identified by the recipient, but which enables the linking of this
information to patient profiles is known as which of the following?
a. anonymized information
b. De- identified information
c. identifiable information
d. pseudonymized information.
23- Which of the following is an information from which individuals cannot be identified by the recipient, but
which enables information about different patients to be distinguished?
a. Personal information.
b. Pseudonymized information.
c. Anonymized information.
d. Identifiable information.
24- Which one of the following statements meaning the exceptional circumstances that justify overriding the right
of an individual to confidentiality in order to serve a broader social interest?
a. confidential health service.
b. express consent for treatment.
c. implied consent for treatment.
d. public interest disclosure.
25- Which of the following scenario is the patient's information is no longer confidential and may be used more
freely?
a. When the information is protected
b. When the information is validated
c. When the information is outdated
d. When the information is anonymized.
26- Which of the following situation that patient information can be used more freely? Book1:P.185
a. If it is effectively anonymized.
b. If it is X-ray.
c. If it is an image.
d. If it is family information.
27- Which one of the following is a principle of confidentiality?
a. Patients have no right to discuss their situation with the doctor or with the team providing care to them.
b. The information would not be available because it is secure, even it should not be available for the patients.
c. Health care tears are the only one who has the data and patients should respect this procedure.
d. The information must be available to patients and explain how their data will be shared within the
healthcare team.

28- Which one of the following examples best fits in the case of "Disclosure in Public Interest"?
a. Informing the partner of an HIV+ patient.
b. Declaring patients' illness information in society.
c. C Informing the patient's relatives about her abortion.
d. Sharing patients' addictive behaviour with his/her neighbours.
29- When can doctors consider disclosing patient information?
a. If it’s only personal information personal.
b. If the disclosure is essential to prevent a harm to the public.
c. If the patient is deceased.
d. If the patient is young adult.
30- What does this definition mean Information must be readily available to patients explaining how their data
will be shared within the healthcare team?
a. Confidentiality.
b. Consent.
31- Which prevent healthcare practitioner from disclosing patient information?
a. Confidentiality.
b. Consent.
32- Which of the following is a consent that can be inferred if the patient has been informed that information is to
be disclosed, the purpose and extent of the disclosure, and that they have a right to object, but have not objected?
a. Implied consent.
b. Explicit consent.
c. Implied consent.
d. Writing consent.
33- Consent that is expressed orally or in writing; also known as explicit consent. An articulation of patient
agreement for the disclosure of information is key term of which of the following?
a. Express consent.
b. Consent.
c. Implied consent.
d. Oral consent.
35- Which of the following consent is given orally, in writing, or via other means of communication available to
the patient?
a. Express consent.
b. Capacity consent.
c. Implicit consent.
d. Immediate consent.
36- Which of the following is a reason to disclose the patient confidential information?
a. When patients die.
b. When patients change the hospital.
c. When a patient gets in jail.
d. When patients criticize hospital in the press.
37- ___________ are information about people that doctors learn in a professional capacity and from which
individuals can be identified?
c. personal information.
38- When health information may be disclosed for purposes other than the provision of car?
a. if the disclosure is essential to prevent a serious threat to the public.

39- A picture, X-ray, photograph of the patient is?
a. Confidential data.
40- Disclosure is a?
a. The provision of access to information about a patient.
41- The Disclosures of data in the public interest include?
a. Gunshot and knife wounds.
42- Consent is a?
a. Agreement to an action.
43- What types of information in health records considered to be confidential?
a. all identifiable patient's information.
44- Which of the following term refers to the removal of name, address, full postcode, identification numbers or
any other detail that might lead to identify the patient?
a. Anonymized information
45- Which of the following can be part of health records?
a. Patient’s behavior.
b. Patient’s non-medical bills.
c. Patients' expectations and wishes.
d. Patient’s achievement history.
46- When the health professional’s view about patients’ behavior should be included in their health records?
a. If this is written in the advance directive of the patient.
b. If the patient’s behavior disrupts the health care process.
c. If the patient is one of the health professional’s relative.
d. If the patient is mentally fit.
Essay:
1. What is Consent? OR What does consent mean? OR what does consent mean in medical ethics?
o Agreement to an action based on knowledge of what that action involves and its likely consequences.
2. Disclosure?
o The provision of access to information about a patient, regardless of the purpose.
3. Difference between Express consent AND Implied consent?
• Express consent : Consent that is expressed orally or in writing. Also known as explicit consent. Express consent is
generally preferable because it is unambiguous
• Implied consent: is acceptable for uses or disclosures of information that directly contribute to the diagnosis, care
or treatment of a patient, and to the quality assurance of that care, unless the patient objects.
4. What is Anonymised information?
o Information from which individuals cannot reasonably be identified. Requires the removal of name, address, full
postcode, identification numbers or any other detail or combination of details that might support identification.
5. Identifiable information:
o Information from which a patient can be identified. Name, address and full postcode will identify a patient;
combinations of information may also support identification, even if the name and address are not included.

6. Implied consent:
o is acceptable for uses or disclosures of information that directly contribute to the diagnosis, care or treatment of a
patient, and to the quality assurance of that care, unless the patient objects.
7. Health records should be regarded as confidential. This might include: OR Confidential Data Include: OR give
any two of Confidential Data. OR Two information include patient confidential data? OR What information should
be confidential in health records?
• Any clinical information about an individual's diagnosis or treatment.
• A picture, X-ray, photograph, video, audiotape or other images of the patient.
• Who the patient's doctor is: Which clinics the patient attends and when.
• Any social information that a doctor may learn about. Example: information about family life.
• Anything else that may be used to identify a patient directly or indirectly.
8. List three Disclosures patients' information for Purposes Other Than Health Care: OR What are the main
purposes of disclosures other than health care?
1. Disclosure to courts, tribunals, regulatory bodies, solicitors (lawyers), police, social services and partner
organisations.
2. Disclosures in the public interest:
❖ Health.
❖ Public safety.
❖ Serious crime and national security.
❖ Gunshot and knife wounds.
❖ Safety in the workplace.
❖ Abuse and domestic violence.
❖ Informing sexual contacts of patients with a serious communicable disease.
3. Spiritual care.
4. Disclosure to the media.
5. Responding to criticism in the press.
6. Employment, insurance, and other affairs.
Book 1: Chapter 06: Health Records
1- What should be included in health records? OR Which of the following should be included in health records? OR
Which of the following patient health record should include?
a. CEO opinion about the patient.
b. Health professionals' personal views about a patient's behavior.
c. Reasons for seeking healthcare OR Presenting symptoms of disease.
d. The nurse personal views about a patient's behavior.
2- Must be included in health care record?
a. Patient's signature.
b. Patient's Social and family.
c. Making the information refused to reveal 3rd party.
d. physician Opinion and Concern about patient behavior.
3- Patients' request for information not to be shared with their GP must be:
a. Respected.
b. Ignored.
c. Discussed.
d. Reported to justice.

4- For patients' X-rays:
a. No consent is required at all.
b. Consent to make them has to be explicit and written.
c. Consent to make them is implicit and does not need to be obtained separately.
d. Consent to make them is implicit however it does need to be obtained separately.
5- Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding consent process for recordings such as images of
internal organs, laparoscopic and endoscopic images?
a. Consent as a concept does not apply for these recordings.
b. Consent is implicit and does not need to be obtained separately.
c. Consent is only needed when repeating the same recording.
d. Consent must be explicit and required to be obtained separately.
6- Which of the following is one of the Six categories of recordings for which consent to make the recordings is
implicit and does not need to be obtained separately?
a. Images of internal organs or structures.
b. Images of patient face.
c. Handwriting paper of the patient's wishes.
d. Patient's financial status.
7- What measure healthcare professional has to take when disclosing patient photographs or videos for a
secondary purpose?
a. Anonymize the photo or video.
b. Disclose patient information.
c. It can undisclosed with medical students.
d. Present it without coding.
8- Which of the following is required for documentation of medical information?
a. The photo of a patient's grandfather.
b. The patient's plate car number.
c. X-ray, photograph, and video.
d. The name of the patient's university.
9- When it comes to EHR which statement from below is true:
a. Electronic records are not subject to the same duty of confidentiality common to paper-based records.
b. Patients must be aware of how their data are shared and stored or have information readily available to them
explaining the potential sharing of their health record.
c. Access to clinical information should be available to all staff working in the organization.
d. Patients must be informed about any upload of their clinical data to a national database but does not have the
option to opt out.
10- How records must be stated?
a. Clear & Accurate.
b. Illegible.
c. Not dated accurately.
d. Unclear.

11- Which of the following is correct about health records? OR Which of the following is most accurate
about health records?
a. Records must be clear.
b. Records must be without date.
c. Records must be short.
d. Records do not need to be accurate.
e. Records must be ambiguous.
12- Health records must be:
a. Unchangeable.
b. Inaccurate.
c. Outdated.
d. Accurate.
13- In the context of ethics and regulations in healthcare, how can we best designate the health records?
a. Accurate, clear, factual and legible.
b. Clear, short, realistic and factual.
c. Legal, accurate, electronic and downsized.
d. Legible, contemporaneous, ethical and electronic.
14- Which is the following should not include in Health Record? OR Generally, Health records should not include:
a. Health professional of diagnosis reports.
b. Health professionals' personal views about a patient's behavior.
c. Treatment outcomes.
d. Patient Clinical Symptom.
15- Which of the following consider to that sometime patients would request to removal/deletes of information in
the health record, which they feel is not relevant information to their health?
a. Nurse can delete.
b. Patient's parents can delete.
c. Patients can delete.
d. If both parties agree (doctor and patient) can delete.
16- The Health Record could deliberate to:
a. Economic status.
b. Family status.
c. Relevant clinical findings.
d. Social status.
17- Which of the following considered as Patients' right to Access Their Own Records?
a. Parents with parental responsibility cannot access to their child's records
b. Patients cannot authorize a third party
c. Patients and their representatives are entitled to have access to their records and to have copies of them.
18- Which health records are subject to the duty of confidentiality?
a. Both electronic record and paper records.
b. only electronic records information.
c. only paper records with irrelevant information.
d. only private information about life- threatening conditions.

19- What doctors should do if their patients ask to remove information that they think is not clinically
relevant to their health?
a. Doctors should consult the court to appropriately justify the cause of deletion of the records.
b. Doctors should consult administrative staff while deleting or adding the financial information.
c. Doctors should delete that information if both parties agree and that deletion would not cause any significant
changes.
d. Doctors should delete that information because any alteration to the medical record would cause a significant
change.
20- What is the main action to be done before disclosing health records for a secondary purpose?
a. Send all relevant information as soon as possible.
b. Anonymize or code the recordings.
c. Identify the patient accurately.
d. Get a court order.
21- Patients sometimes ask their doctor not to make a note of some clinical fact. What is the doctor expected
response if the patient requests the removal of information from his/her health records?
a. Explain why the information should be included.
b. Remove the information as patient's wish.
c. Patient has no right to this request.
d. Refuse this request.
22- What is the primary purpose of health records?
a. Support Doctor's Diagnosis.
b. Strengthen the doctor-patient relationship.
c. Register Medical Data.
d. Support Patient Care.
23- In regard to health records, which one of the following is considered as "use of data for secondary purposes"?
a. Social media medical advertising
b. Public health, audit, teaching
c. Support political views
d. Personal view about the patient's behavior.
24- Which of the following secondary uses of patient information as a disclosure for purposes not associated with
providing healthcare?
a. Complaints. (associated with providing care)
b. Employment.
c. Public health. (associated with providing care)
d. Teaching. (associated with providing care)
25- What are the limits on patients' rights to access to their health records?
a. If a patient has a mental health condition.
b. Patients can access records at their doctors' discretion.
c. Patients have a statutory right of access to information about themselves.
d. Patients must be 18 or older to get the right of access of the financial information.
26- Which of the following can be considered as a clear benefit of having health records that are appropriately
dated?
a. Able to summarize accurately after deletion.
b. Avoiding possible allegations of tampering.
c. Convincing the patient to consent to the disclosure.
d. Increasing the time needed for the patients.

27- Why the health records must be appropriately dated?
a. To avoid possible allegations of tampering.
b. To avoid the anonymization of the health records.
c. To check the content of records.
d. To hide the information.
28- When healthcare professionals upload patients’ clinical data to a national database, what are the rights of
those patients?
a. Patients can be informed if the doctors think it is useful to inform them.
b. Patients should be informed and have the opportunity to opt out of the database.
c. Patients should be informed but cannot opt out of the database.
d. Patients should not be informed at all.
29- Which one of the following is an example of patient care delivery usage of medical record?
a. Communication between caregivers.
b. Developing of practice guidelines.
c. Getting patients involved in their own health.
d. Reimbursement for patient care.
30- Which one of the following statement are subjected to the duty of confidentiality as paper-based records?
a. Electronic records.
31- What's the primary purpose of a health record?
a. Determine the cost of medical services given to the patients.
b. Provide medical history of the patients, and medical providers who treated these patients.
c. Remind physicians of the medical conditions of their patients to avoid making mistakes when giving treatment.
d. Support continuous patient care and improve communication and quality assurance of the care and services
delivered.
32- When can physicians make recording of a patient?
a. When patients parents give permission to make the recording.
b. When physicians want to use it for education purpose.
c. When physicians want it to use it for research purpose.
d. When there is appropriate consent or other valid authority for doing so.
33- How long must records be kept? OR How long records must be kept? Table 6.(1,2,3)
a. It depends on the type of record (i.e., GP, maternity, mental health, etc.).
b. Few days.
c. For 5 months.
d. Until the discharge of patient.
34- What kind of access do patients have to their medical record? Book1:P.256
a. Patients have constitutional right to access their full health information.
b. Patients have full access to their health information about themselves except mental health issues.
c. Patients have full access to their health information when they change their medical provider or seeking second
opinion about their medical condition.
d. Patients have full access to their health information when they get permission from their caregivers.
35- Which of the following statements represents the patients' rights to access their health records?
a. A mentally ill patient has no right to access his health record.
b. Patients must be adults to access their financial information.
c. Patients have a statutory right to access their health records.
d. Patients can access records at their doctors' discretion.

36- Which of the following must be included in the health care records?
a. Marking of the information the patient refused to reveal to third parties.
b. Patient’s social and family relationships and number of family members.
c. Patient’s signature.
d. Physician opinion and concern about patient’s behavior.
Essay:
1- The GMS identifies Six categories of recordings for which consent to make the recordings is implicit in the
consent given to the investigation or treatment, and does not need to be obtained separately, List them down OR
Give 2 types of recordings for which consent to make the recordings is implicit.
• Images of internal organs or structures.
• Images of pathology slides.
• Laparoscopic and endoscopic images.
• Recordings or organ functions.
• Ultrasound images.
• X-rays.
2- What is the key information that is recorded? OR What is the main information that should be included in the
health record? (Give 2 kinds of information)
➢ Presenting symptoms.
➢ Reasons for seeking healthcare.
➢ Relevant clinical findings.
➢ Diagnosis.
➢ Options for care and treatment discussed with the patient.
❖ Risks and benefits of care and treatment options, as explained to the patient.
➢ Decisions about and care treatment.
❖ Evidence of the patient's agreement.
➢ Action taken.
➢ Outcomes.
➢ Subsequent additions or amendments to information and the reasons for the changes.
OR
• presenting symptoms and reasons for seeking healthcare.
• relevant clinical findings and diagnosis.
• options for care and treatment discussed with the patient.
• risks and benefits of care and treatment options, as explained to the patient.
• decisions about care and treatment, including evidence of the patient's agreement.
• action taken and outcomes.
4- What is the information that should not be included in the health record?
Records should not include:
➢ Health professionals' personal views about a patient's behaviour.
➢ Exception: include if they have bearing on healthcare.
5- Health records should be?
• Clear.
• Accurate.
• Factual.
• Legible.
• Contemporaneous.
• Appropriately dated.

6- Removing information from health records:
• When making decisions about care and treatment it is important to have a complete record.
• Circumstances where it might be appropriate to completely remove information from a paper record are
extremely rare.
• Information should not be changed or removed without a clear explanation being recorded in a way that makes it
clear why it has been altered.
• Electronic records keep an automatic audit trail which will always maintain a complete record.
7. Access to health records:
• Patients and their representatives are entitled to have access to their records and to have copies of them.
• Patients may authorise a third party, such as a lawyer, to access records on their behalf.
• Parents with parental responsibility may have access to their child’s records if this is in the child’s best interests
and, when the child is competent, if he or she gives consent.
• People appointed to manage the affairs of mentally incapacitated patients may have access to information
necessary to fulfil their function.
• Information may be withheld if revealing it may cause serious physical or mental harm to the patient or, in certain
circumstances, it relates to a third party who is not a health professional who has cared for the patient.
• Doctors should facilitate information access by patients, and be willing to show them the contents of their records.
8- When making or using recordings the GMC states that doctors must:
• Give patients information about purpose of the recording.
• Make recordings only where there is appropriate consent or other valid authority for doing so.
• Ensure that patients are under no pressure to give their consent for the recording to be made.
• Where practicable, stop the recording if the patient requests or if it is having an adverse effect on the consultation
or treatment.
• Anonymise or code the recordings before using or disclosing them for a secondary purpose.
Book 1: Chapter 10: Caring for patients at the end of life (End-of-Life Care)
1- According to General Medical Council, what is the definition of end of life?
a. When patient is likely to die within 12 months.
b. When patient is likely to die after 12 months.
c. When patient is likely to die in between 15 to 20 months.
d. When patient is likely to die in between 21 to 30 months.
2- What factors should be considered when deciding whether to withhold or withdraw life-prolonging treatment?
Book1: p.443
a. Patient's age.
b. Patient's family.
c. Patient's wishes.
d. Patient's gender.
3- What factors must considered when deciding whether to withhold or withdraw life prolonging treatment?
a. Family best interest.
b. patient age.
c. patient family.
d. patient's known wishes.
4- When do the difficult decisions to withhold or withdraw life-prolonging treatment arise?
a. If the family of a patient with capacity decides on its own to stop it.
b. If the healthcare organization doesn’t have the necessary resources.
c. If the treatment can no longer provide sustained benefit to the patient.
d. If the treatment is considered to be very expensive.

5- What factors should be considered when deciding whether to withhold or withdraw life-prolonging
treatment? Book1: p.443
a. Patient's age.
b. Patient's family wishes about the end of like.
c. Clinical judgment about the effectiveness of the proposed treatment.
d. Patient capacity.
6- Which of the following conditions are focused on goals of end-of-life care?
a. Compassion, sensitivity and honest communication.
b. Ineffective communication within the health team.
c. It is unimportant to recognize when death is approaching.
d. Health professionals should be sensitive to patients' financial status.
7- How the mixed messages are avoided with the health team?
a. By conflict.
b. By Effective communication.
c. By Ineffective communication.
d. By lack of communication.
8- Which of the following parties is responsible for deciding what treatment to offer for patients at the end of life
care?
a. Clinician in charge for patients' care.
b. Patient's family.
c. Patient him/herself.
d. Palliative care specialist.
9- Who is responsible for deciding what treatment to offer at the end of life? OR The responsibility for deciding
what treatment to offer at the end of life stage rests with:
a. Clinician in charge of patients care.
b. court must involve.
c. family has the right to take decisions.
d. palliative care specialists.
10- Patients given care at the end of his life in:
a. Palliative care house.
b. Shelter house.
c. Orphan house.
d. Hospice care.
11- Prior to withdrawing or withholding treatment of patients:
a. A senior clinician should talk to the patient.
b. Giving patients the opportunity to plan aspects of their care
c. The family of patient give consent to the doctor
12- The goal of end-of-life care to Patients is providing:
a. A Dignity and privacy.
b. Routine care.
c. A Special care.
d. Prevent patient complication.

13- Oral nutrition and hydration should be maintained in which conditions during end of life?
a. As long as the patient can pay for it.
b. As long as we can force feed the patient.
c. As long as the patient is willing and able to tolerate it.
d. As long as it is cheaper than Intravenous nutrition.
14- Which of the following is the most accurate approach about oral nutrition and hydration for end of life
patients? OR What is the right approach about oral nutrition and hydration for end of life patients?
a. Oral nutrition and hydration should be forced on patients who resist or refuse to take it to survive.
b. Oral nutrition and hydration should be maintained as long as the patient is willing and able to tolerate it.
c. Oral nutrition and hydration should be replaced in all cases by intravenous nutrition to maintain hydration.
d. Oral nutrition cannot be forced but we can force hydration at any stage of the treatment.
15- Health professionals should be:
a. Disregarding patients cultural and religious backgrounds.
b. Sensitive to patients cultural and religious backgrounds.
c. Paying no attention at all to patients cultural and religious backgrounds.
d. Trying to influence patients cultural and religious backgrounds.
16- Decisions for incapacitated patients are made on the base of which of the following? OR On the basis of which
of the following the decisions for incapacitated patients should be made?
a. Their best interest.
b. Their family wishes.
c. Their age and physical aptitude.
d. Their financial status.
17- Which of the following health professional must take care provided to whom dying patients other than health
care?
a. Keep the patient alone.
b. Keep the relation away to dying patient.
c. Keep the relationship close to patient on terms with the situation.
d. Stop interaction and speaks to the patient to their nominee.
18- Which is the essential consideration of future patient treatment?
a. Patient economical capacity.
b. Patient family capacity.
c. Patient mental and physical capacity.
d. Patient social capacity.
19- When could the health professional stop providing treatment to the patient?
a. Based on hospital management opinion.
b. The patient provided valid refusal.
c. Based on patient other relation opinion.
d. Based on race and religions.
20- Treatment cannot be provided to patients at the end-of-life if:
a. Patients have made a valid refusal.
b. His family have mad refusal.
c. The health team have made refusal.
d. The doctor refusal.
21- When does treatment cannot be provided?
a. If patients have made a valid refusal.

22- What is the sensitivity relation between the health professional and patient?
a. Culture and Religious.
b. Nationality
c. Race of Black and White
d. Relation to Management.
23- What is the main role of palliative care when it is recognized that the patient’s condition is incurable?
a. it helps to prevent future major health problems.
b. it offers relief from pain and distressing symptoms.
c. it prevents the overlapping of therapies in the same time.
d. it proposes an alternative approach to treat the patient.
24- What is Palliative care?
a. Communicated to key people involved in his or her care.
b. An approach that improves the quality of life of patients and their families facing the problems associated with
life-threatening illness, through the prevention and treatment of pain and other problems, physical, psychosocial,
and spiritual. **
c. A process of discussion between an individual and their care providers irrespective of discipline. If the individual
may be included.
d. Understanding about his or her illness and prognosis and particular preferences for types of care or treatment.
25- What type of communication is crucial when patients are approaching death?
a. A By Effective communication.
b. B. By conflict.
c. C. By Lack of communication.
d. D. By Ineffective communication.
26- Who is responsible to discuss withdrawing or withholding treatment, nutrition, and hydration?
a. A teacher
b. A parent
c. A lawyer
d. A senior clinician.
27- In the context of the End-of-Life Care, why effective communication within the health team is vital? OR Why
effective communication within the health team is vital in the context of the End of Life Care?
a. To avoid mixed messages.
b. To ensure higher levels of benefits.
c. To give hope to the patient at the end.
d. To improve the health of the attendant.
28- What is the care provided to dying patients should include?
a. Helping people close to dying patients to deal with the situation.
29- Which one is the provision of care for patients at the end of life?
a. Do not apply confidentially in the case of end of life care for dying patients.
b. Dying patients should have opportunities to discuss matters such as where they want to die. OR Effective
communication within the health team.
c. Effective communications are not compulsory when dealing with the patient.
d. Physicians should not explain the situation clearly.

30- Which of the following does provision of care for patients the end of life include?
a. Care provided to dying patients excludes helping people close to them.
b. Effective communication within the health team.
c. Health professionals should be insensitive to patients cultural and religious backgrounds.
d. Patients should not have opportunities to maintain control over as many aspects of their care as possible.
31- Which one of the following is a complex response occurring in those who are well aware of the facts but wish
to protect the patient or one another by not acknowledging or discussing them?
a. Collusion.
b. Denial.
c. Depression.
d. Supportive care.
32- Which one of the following is included in the Law of Practicing Healthcare Professions?
a. Coerce the patient to obtain additional money.
b. It is prohibited to take or give financial or otherwise commissions by the healthcare practitioner when referring a
patient.
c. It is permissible to achieve material or moral benefit.
d. To receive fee for treatment that is above what have been paid to a similar doctor with similar qualifications in the
same conditions.
33- When dealing with end of Life care, compassion and sensitivity are particularly important. While recognizing
that people's desire for information can vary at different stages of their illness, what other behavior is also
essential?
a. Motivational speeches.
b. Very frequent communication.
c. Honest communication
d. Excessive kindness.
34- Which of the following care planning is defined as “A process of discussion between an individual and their
care providers irrespective of discipline”?
a. Advance care planning.
b. Emergency care for patients.
c. First Aid treatment.
d. Primary care process.
35- Giving patients the opportunity to plan aspects of their care can have which of the following effects?
a. A negative psychological effect.
b. An improved communication between the healthcare team members.
c. A positive psychological effect.
d. Mixed and confusing communication.
36- What are the rules of confidentiality that must be applied during the end of life care?
a. No confidentiality rules apply in such cases
b. Special less restrictive confidentiality rules apply
c. Special more restrictive confidentiality rules apply
d. The usual and regular rules of confidentiality in healthcare settings apply
37- When dealing with end of life care, health professionals should be especially sensitive to which of the
following?
a. Patients' cultural and religious backgrounds OR Religious and cultural backgrounds of the patients.
b. Patients’ families decision regardless of patients wishes.
c. Patients’ socio-economic status.
d. Financial status of the patient under treatment.

38- Which of the following is TRUE, if patients request treatment that is not clinically indicated?
a. Doctors are not obliged to provide it.
b. Doctors are obliged to provide it.
c. Doctors need to take a permission from family member.
d. Doctors raise the issue to the court.
39- Which of the following is TRUE, if the patients have capacity?
a. Information should not be shared with relatives without patient consent.
b. Information should be shared with third without their consent.
c. Information should be shared with relatives only.
d. Information should be shared with relatives without their consent.
40- Which of the following must be offered to the patients?
a. Dignity and Privacy.
b. Disrespect.
c. Publicity.
d. Ignorance.
41- Which of the following is TRUE about Oral nutrition and hydration?
a. Should be maintained as long as the patient is willing and able to tolerate it.
b. Doctors should be refused even the patient is willing and able to tolerate it.
c. Should be forced on patients who resist or refuse.
d. Decisions should be made on a blanket fashion.
Essay:
1- Defining 'end of life':
The GMC says that patients are:
• approaching the end of life when they are likely to die within the next 12 months. This includes:
o those patients whose death is expected within hours or days;
o those who have advanced, progressive incurable conditions;
o those with general frailty and co-existing conditions that mean they are expected to die within 12 months;
o those at risk of dying from a sudden acute crisis in an existing condition;
o and those with life-threatening acute conditions caused by sudden catastrophic events.
- The term 'approaching the end of life' can also apply to extremely premature neonates whose prospects for
survival are known to be very poor, and patients who are diagnosed as being in a persistent vegetative state (PVS)
for whom a decision to withdraw treatment and care may lead to their death.
2- What is end-of-life treatment? << ‫إذا‬ ‫متأكده‬ ‫مو‬
‫لا‬ ‫أو‬ ‫المطلوب‬ ‫الحل‬ ‫هو‬ ‫هذا‬
The general principles regarding provision of care for patients at the end of life include the following.
• It is important to recognise when death is approaching and to help people to prepare for it.
• Compassion and sensitivity are particularly important but honest communication is also essential, while
recognising that people’s desire for information can vary at different stages of their illness.
• Effective communication within the health team is vital so that mixed messages are avoided.
• patients must be afforded dignity and privacy: the usual rules of confidentiality apply.
• Patients should have opportunities to maintain control over as many aspects of their care as possible, including by
advance planning if they wish.
• Health professionals should be sensitive to patients’ cultural and religious backgrounds.
• Care provided to dying patients includes helping people close to them to come to terms with the situation and to
cope with their bereavement.

OR << ‫النت‬ ‫من‬ ‫مختصر‬ ‫مفهوم‬
o End-of-life treatment refers to medical care and procedures provided to patients who are nearing the end of
their lives, often due to a terminal illness or irreversible medical condition.
o This type of treatment is focused on providing comfort, pain management, and symptom control rather than on
curing the underlying disease.
o Examples of end-of-life treatment may include hospice care, palliative care, pain management, and other
supportive measures aimed at improving the patient's quality of life in their remaining days, weeks, or months.
o The decision to provide end-of-life treatment is typically made in consultation with the patient, their family
members, and their healthcare provider.
Book 2: Chapter 06: Healthcare Practitioner's Duties Towards His/Her Profession
1- Earning extra financial benefits outside of the established legal means is considered to be:
a. Possible but not encouraged
b. Acceptable sometimes for certain cases
c. Encouraged all the time
d. Unacceptable
2- The healthcare practitioners should strive to provide scientific and practical contributions to the development
of the profession, through;
a. Funding projects.
b. Reading specialized literature.
c. Research, writing articles and continuous education.
d. Buying medical magazines.
3- The healthcare practitioner should recognize:
a. The irrelevance of their role.
b. Their superiority to other professionals.
c. The impracticality of ethics in healthcare.
d. The social value of their profession and protect its nobility.
4- For healthcare professionals, complete devotion to the profession and excelling in their work by mastering
skills:
a. Unexpected traits.
b. Optional behaviors.
c. Unwanted traits.
d. Expected and wanted traits.
5- Which of the following the scientific and practical attitude that could prove the development of medical
profession?
a. Medical and Surgical fees increase.
b. Research and Studies.
c. Salaries and Incentives decrease.
d. Treatment cost and Income.
6- Which is the following leads (or could lead) to insulting the profession or demeaning the status of a healthcare
practitioner?
a. Working as maltreatment and Lying.
b. Working day and Night.
c. Working in Govt.
d. Working in NGO'S.

7- Which one of the following could lead to insulting the profession or demeaning the status of a
healthcare practitioner? OR Which of these behaviors could lead to insulting the healthcare profession or
demeaning the status of a healthcare practitioner?
a. Maltreatment.
b. Mastering skills.
c. Observance of patients' right.
d. Devotion to the profession.
8- Which one of the following is an example of the proper standards for personal behavior and public morality
that must be followed by Healthcare Practitioners?
a. avoiding honesty of profession.
b. have violent behavior on work.
c. keeping away from unworthy behavior.
d. use alcohol or drugs at the healthcare facility.
9- Poor behavior of healthcare practitioners like lack of commitment to appointments could cause which one of
the following direct consequences?
a. Achieving higher levels of trustworthiness and honesty of practitioners.
b. Achieving higher levels of economic levels of profit.
c. Insulting the profession and demeaning the status of healthcare practitioners.
d. Protecting the nobleness of the profession.
10- Why it’s a requirement for Healthcare Practitioners to attend continuous medical education (CME) activities,
and conduct research?
a. To adhere to the standard of practice.
b. To provide a role model for his colleagues and patient.
c. To respect the honor of the profession.
d. To the development of the profession.
11- How should a healthcare professional deal with the medical professional standards?
a. Disregard the medical professional standards as they are not important anyway.
b. Maintain the medical professional standards and work to improve them.
c. Maintain the medical professional standards without trying to improve them.
d. Start by developing their own specie medical professional standards.
12- Which of the following conditions focuses expected conduct of health professionals in KSA?
a. Maintain the medical professional standards and work to improve them.
13- Which of the following traits corresponds to protecting the nobleness of the healthcare profession?
a. Having an inappropriate relationship with the patient or one of his/her family members
b. Seeking fame on account of the basics and ethics of the profession.
c. Excelling in his/her work by mastering skills.
d. Avoid being sensitive to patient's cultural and religious backgrounds.
14- Which of these behaviors protect the nobleness of the profession of a healthcare practitioner?
a. Limiting patient autonomy.
b. falsification
c. Maltreatment.
d. Maintaining good manners.

15- Which one of the following can protect the nobleness of the profession?
a. Intake of alcohol.
b. Mastering skills.
c. Unworthy behavior.
d. Violent behavior.
16- Who those hold any traits that are the inappropriate medical professional's behavior, they could punish under
which section?
a. Article 23.
b. Article 34.
c. Civil code.
d. Criminal code. << ‫الصح‬ ‫انها‬ ‫هالإجابة‬ ‫حاطين‬ ‫كانو‬
e. Article 26 << ‫الخيارات‬ ‫ضمن‬ ‫من‬ ‫مذكورة‬ ‫ماكانت‬ ‫لكن‬ ‫الصحيحة‬ ‫الإجابة‬ ‫هذي‬
17- Which is the healthcare practitioner profession's second response to protect the ethical value of a patient:
a. Economy values.
b. Family values.
c. Race values.
d. Social values.
18- Which one of the following should be avoided to prevent the insult to the nobel health profession?
a. Compassion for the patients.
b. Maintaining dignity of profession.
c. Obnoxious behavior for the patient.
d. Respect the rights of the patient.
19- How can healthcare professionals contribute to the scientific and practical development of the profession?
a. Contributing and participating in the increase of the financial profits of their organizations.
b. Contributing and participating in research, studies, writing articles, and continuous education.
c. Having good relationships with the colleagues to gain more financial benefits in future.
d. Having a good relationships with the patients to improve the contacts and professional network.
20- How can we label achieving privileges, material or moral benefits, apart from those granted through the
system and professional customs?
a. Abuse and exploitation of the professional status.
b. Contribution to the financial growth of the healthcare organization.
c. Ethical benefits and advantages for the career.
d. Normal behavior to increase personal and organizational profits.
21- Which one of the following best describes an inappropriate relationship with the patient?
a. A honesty breach.
b. An encouraged behavior.
c. A personal choice pertaining to personal freedom.
d. A professional medical behavior.
22- What is the main purpose of the healthcare practitioner while being careful about how they look and behave?
a. Increase their income.
b. Protect the nobleness of the profession.
c. Reflect the brand and the image of the organization they represent.
d. Show that they are wealthy.
23- Which of the following Acts health practitioners should avoid it?
a. Avoiding any dishonest or violent behavior.

24- Which one of the following is considered abuse of professional status?
a. Avoiding alcohol or illicit drugs << ‫تجنب‬ ‫وليس‬ ‫استخدام‬ ‫تكون‬ ‫المفترض‬
25- How to strive to provide scientific and practical contributions to the development of the profession?
a. Cheating.
b. Falsification.
c. Fraud.
d. Writing articles.
26- Which of the following is considered a practical contribution of the healthcare practitioner towards their
profession as stated in the code of ethics for healthcare practitioners by the Saudi Commission for Health
Specialties?
a. Seeking fame.
b. Conducting research.
c. Achieving privileges.
d. Taking risks.
Essay:
1- What are the scientific and practical contributions that could develop the profession of a healthcare
practitioner? Give any two.
Should strive to provide scientific and practical contributions to the development of the profession, through;
o Research.
o Studies.
o Writing articles and.
o Continuous education.
Book 1: Chapter 11: Euthanasia and Physician Assisted Suicide
Essay:
1- Consider yourself a healthcare provider, what would you do if you suspected that a patient or that person's
relatives intend to carry out assisted dying.
o I need to try to discourage that attempt.
o I should explore whether additional support could be provided to improve the patient’s quality of life.
2- Within a society where personal autonomy carries considerable weight, responses to the concept of assisted
dying are often divided. Explain the concerns to medically accessing medically assisted dying? how assisted dying
raises contradict society's values and the purpose of medicine? (Give 1 kind of information)
o The value of life.
o The qualities that make it valuable.
o The scope and limits of individual autonomy.
o The balancing of benefit for one patient with the possibility of disadvantaging another.

Book 1: Chapter 13: Prescribing and Administering Medication
1- In which type of treatment doctors can prescribe unlicensed medicines and drugs to be used outside the terms
of their license but take on greater responsibilities when doing so?
a. Innovative treatment.
b. Maltreatment.
c. Symptomatic treatment.
d. Systemic treatment.
2- For which of the following cases, doctors must resist pressure from patients while prescribing drugs?
a. For explaining the doses.
b. For prescribing accurate doses.
c. For prescribing larger doses.
d. For prescribing the proper treatment.
3- Who is ultimately responsible for prescribing decisions?
a. Doctors.
b. Family members.
c. Healthcare team.
d. Patient.
4- Which of the following is ultimately responsible for prescribing decisions?
a. Family members.
b. Healthcare team.
c. Patient.
d. Prescribing doctor.
5- Who accepts clinical and legal responsibility for the decision after signing a prescription to the patient?
a. Caretaker.
b. Doctor.
c. Hospital.
d. Patients.
6- Who is responsible for shared prescribing decisions?
a. Doctors.
b. Nurses.
c. Patients.
d. Pharmacists.
7- Who is legally responsible for prescribing medicines?
e. The doctor who signs a prescription.
f. The front office manager who attend the patient.
g. The pharmacist who dispenses medicines.
h. The registered nurse who administers patient care.
8- Who typically has full responsibility for prescribing medicines for inpatients and outpatients clinics?
a. Consultant.
b. Physiotherapist.
c. Pharmacist.
d. Registered nurse.

9- In which of the following conditions lifestyle drugs could be prescribed?
a. Doctor considers them clinically appropriate for the patient.
b. Doctor considers them clinically inappropriate for the patient.
c. Patient requests for the specific lifestyle drugs for the relatives.
d. Patient requests for the specific lifestyle drugs repeatedly.
10- When should doctors prescribe lifestyle drugs?
a. When the drugs are not in the best interests of the patient.
b. When the drugs are not approved by Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
c. When doctors need to form business connections with companies.
d. When the doctors consider them clinically appropriate for the patient.
11- Lifestyle drugs for examples the drugs used for weight loss and birth control, should be prescribed only when?
Book1:P.549
a. When the doctor considers them clinically inappropriate for the patient.
b. When the doctor considers them clinically appropriate for the patient.
c. Not perceived, benefits outweigh any risks.
d. Patients request.
12- For the minimum how many days drugs should be prescribed and dispensed by hospital pharmacy to
outpatient?
a. 3 days
b. 5 days
c. 7 days. << for Inpatient
d. 14 days. << for Outpatient
13- For how many days drug supplies should be prescribed and dispensed for outpatients?
a. Approximately one week.
b. Between 7 and 14 days.
c. Maximum 7 days.
d. Minimum 14 days.
14. For minimum how many days’ drugs should be prescribed and dispended by the hospital pharmacy to
outpatients?
a. days.
b. 5 days.
c. 7 days.
d. 14 days.
15- For minimum how many days’ drugs should be prescribed and dispended to discharging patients by the
hospital pharmacy?
e. days.
f. 5 days.
g. 7 days.
h. 14 days.
16- How long should sufficient drugs be prescribed and dispensed by the hospital pharmacy when an inpatient is
discharged from hospital?
a. 4 days.
b. 7 days.
c. 10 days.
d. 14 days.

17- Placebos are commonly referred to as: OR Which one of the following is commonly known as
Placebos?
a. Dummy pills.
b. Funny pills.
c. Smart pills.
d. Test pills.
18- Common prescribing errors include: Book1 p.538
a. A failure to warn about or recognize drug side effects.
b. Errors in prescribing the cheapest drug in the market.
c. Failure to write the patient’s requested drug.
d. Incorrect name on prescription with wrong font.
19- If the prescribing doctor is not the patient's GP, why he/she should communicate with the patient's GP? OR
Why should the prescribing doctor communicate with the patient's GP?
a. To avoid any conflict with existing treatment.
b. To ensure the patient's financial status.
c. To improve the relationship between them.
d. To keep patient information confidentiality.
20- Which of the following is the synonym to ‘off label’ drugs?
a. Expired drugs.
b. Licensed drugs.
c. Unexpired drugs.
d. Unlicensed drugs.
21- Which of the following best describes off-label drugs?
a. Factually unlicensed medicines and lack a body of evidence to support their use.
b. They are licensed medicines supported by a body of evidence for legal use.
c. They are new drugs that have not been used before in clinical practice for patients.
d. They are substitute medicines that meet the patients’ needs after the request.
22- Which of the following is a main concern when using off-label drugs?
a. The drugs are too expensive and patients cannot afford them.
b. The drugs have not been studied fully for the condition.
c. The drugs are dispensing only from the hospital pharmacy.
d. The drugs have been discovered by pharmaceutical companies.
23- When should prescribing of off-label only be done?
a. When recommended by authoritative guidance bodies.
24- Which one of the following held the responsibility of prescribing if the drugs are included in a hospital-based
trial?
a. Hospital consultant.
b. Patient.
c. Patient’s family.
d. Patient’s GP.

25- How should doctor respond to patient’s requests to prescribe drugs for relatives in another country?
a. Doctors are obliged to comply and should do so even if they are not satisfied that the treatment requested is the
appropriate option for the patient’s relatives.
b. Doctors are obliged to comply and should do so only if the drugs are recommended by their relatives.
c. Doctors are not obliged to comply with requests from patients to prescribe drugs for relatives in another country.
d. Doctors are obliged to comply with requests from patients to prescribe drugs for relatives in another country
because for the best interest of patient.
26- With regard to relationship with the pharmaceutical companies, which of the following must be considered by
the health practitioner? OR Regarding relationships with the pharmaceutical companies, which of the following
must be considered by the health practitioner?
a. Act in the interest of patients and should not prescribe medication for financial benefit from the pharma
companies.
b. Health practitioner must strive to attend all academic activities such lecture and symposium provided by the
pharma companies at holiday resorts.
c. Health practitioner should regularly seek assistance for holidays abroad from the pharma companies.
d. Meeting with pharmaceutical representatives and prescribe medication for financial benefit from the pharma
companies.
27- Legal responsibility of a prescription lies with which of the following?
a. The patient and the doctor.
b. The doctor who signs it.
c. The doctor and his team.
d. No one holds any legal responsibility.
28- Which of the following considers as serious safety risk of prescribing in cases where the patient is unknown to
the doctor?
a. Inability to access the patient’s medical record.
b. Inability to pay the doctor’s fees.
c. No opportunities for examination and follow up are limited.
d. Time zone difference.
29- Which of the following is a reason for prescribing medicines from a distance?
a. Doctors have sole responsibility for a patient.
b. Doctors does not have the authority to access patient medical record.
c. Doctors are working on behalf of another doctor who does not have knowledge of patient’s condition.
d. Treatment is not necessary to save life or alleviate uncontrollable pain.
30- Which of the following gifts Doctors must not ask for or accept from pharmaceutical companies?
a. Scientific papers.
b. Inducement.
c. Promote.
d. Vacations.
31- What should be specified when a new or rarely prescribed medicine is being recommended?
a. The consulting doctor's name.
b. The patient's name.
c. The clinic's address.
d. The dosage and administration.

32- When should doctors prescribe medication?
a. Whenever the patient requests it.
b. Only when they have sufficient knowledge and experience.
c. Whenever there is a new medication available.
d. Only when it is economically feasible
33- Doctors have an ethical duty to use the most economic and efficacious?
a. patient is receiving treatment within the NHS.
34- Who holds the clinical and legal responsibility for a prescription?
a. The patient's GP.
b. The patient.
c. The doctor who signs the prescription.
d. The pharmacist.
35- When should prescribing off-label be done?
a. Only when alternative licensed medication exists.
b. When recommended by authoritative guidance bodies.
c. Only when economic reasons justify it.
d. It should occur on every prescription.
36- What is the ethical duty of doctors when the patient is receiving treatment within the NHS?
a. To use the most expensive treatment available.
b. To use the most economic and efficacious treatment available.
c. To use the most popular treatment available.
d. To use the most innovative treatment available.
Essay:
1- What do patient group directions allow?
• For certain named health professionals to supply medicines to patients but without the need for an individual
prescription.
2- Type error prescribing: OR Common prescribing Errors:
• A failure to warn about or recognize drug side effects.
• Errors in medication or prescribing.
• A problem associated with an injection.
• Incorrect or inappropriate medication.
3- Write any 2 general principles applied by doctors while prescribing medicines.
• The doctor who signs a prescription accepts clinical and legal responsibility for the decision.
• Doctors should prescribe medication only when they have sufficient knowledge and experience to be satisfied that
it is appropriate for the patient.
• It is generally unwise for doctors who prescribe to form business connections with companies that produce,
market or promote pharmaceutical products.
• Unless the patient objects, if the prescribing doctor is not the patient's GP, he or she should communicate with the
GP in order to avoid any conflict with existing treatment.
• Doctors must not ask for or accept any inducement, gift or hospitality from pharmaceutical companies or others
that may affect, or be seen to affect, their judgement.
• Doctors can prescribe unlicensed medicines and drugs to be used outside the terms of their license but take on
greater responsibilities when doing so. This is particularly true when a course of treatment is innovative or there is
little evidence to support its use.

4- When is it appropriate to prescribe lifestyle drugs?
• Lifestyle drugs should be prescribed only when the doctor considers them clinically appropriate for the patient
and where the actual, or perceived, benefits outweigh any risks.
5- What is a Life Drug Subscription?
• A pharmaceutical product characterised as improving quality of life rather than alleviating or curing disease.
• ‘Lifestyle drugs’ should be prescribed only when the doctor considers them clinically appropriate for the patient
and where the actual, or perceived, benefits outweigh any risks.
6- What should doctor of lf they receive request from patient to prescribe drugs for relatives in another country?
• They must be aware of the possibility of liability arising and should seek information from the patient's own
doctor whenever possible in order to verify the information provided (clinical report of the condition and
recommendations for medication, as well as confirming that the medication is necessary and unobtainable by
other means). They also need to give consideration to the practicalities of the arrangement.
Book 1: Chapter 14 & 15: Research Innovative Treatment & Emergency Situations
1- Who must give consent for non-therapeutic circumcision, in the best interest of child?
a. Doctor.
b. Incompetent child.
c. Parents.
d. Nurse.
2- Which one from below refers to "A pre-determined course of action set out in protocol with which researcher
have to comply until defined endpoint"? OR Which one of these follows a predetermined course of action set out
in a protocol with which researchers have to comply until a defined endpoint is reached?
a. Experimental therapy.
b. Innovative Treatment.
c. Research.
d. Clinical Treatment.
3- Which of the following aims to acquire knowledge rather than to benefit participants?
a. Consent.
b. Experimental therapy.
c. Innovative treatment.
d. Research.
4- Which one of the following aims to produce new knowledge, not to benefit participants?
a. Research.
b. Surgery.
c. Medical care.
d. Treatment.
5- Which one of the following aims to increase the understanding of the biology of diseases so that preventive as
well as diagnostic and therapeutic interventions, can be developed?
a. Anatomy.
b. Innovative treatment.
c. Pharmacology.
d. Research.

6- What is the aim of a research?
a. To teach students.
b. To achieve the best outcome for the individual patient when standard treatment options have no, or only limited,
success.
c. To understand the chemistry of diseases.
d. An increased understanding of the biology of diseases so that preventive as well as diagnostic and therapeutic
interventions can be developed.
7- In how many categories research is divided from the 1960s to 2000?
a. One.
b. Two. (Therapeutic & Clinical "non-therapeutic")
c. Three.
d. Four.
8- What are the primary considerations to be taken for the individual participants, while conducting research and
innovative treatment? OR What are the primary considerations to be given to individual participants when
conducting research and innovative treatment?
a. Assessment methods.
b. Diagnostic procedure.
c. Financial and other incentives.
d. Safety and welfare.
9- Which of the following criteria for research participants must be a primary concern? OR Which one of the
following of the research participant must be a primary concern? OR The ___________ of the research participant
must be a primary concern.
a. Age.
b. Religion.
c. Weight.
d. Welfare.
10- Which of the following aims to achieve the best outcome for the individual patients when standard treatment
options have no, or only limited success? OR Which one of the following aims to achieve best outcome for
individual patient when the standard treatment gives no or limited success?
a. Consent.
b. Innovative treatment.
c. Research.
d. Systemic treatment.
11- What is the aim of innovation treatment?
a. Achieve best outcome for individual patients when standard treatment options have no, or only limited success.
b. Acquire knowledge rather than to benefit participants.
c. Discuss the risks.
d. Increase understanding of the biology or disease.

12- What is the main purpose of innovative treatment? OR What is the aim of innovative treatment?
a. To increase understanding of the biology of diseases so that preventive as well as diagnostic and therapeutic
interventions can be developed.
b. To follow a predetermined course of action set out in a protocol with which researchers have to comply until a
defined endpoint is reached.
c. To derive generalizable new knowledge by addressing clearly defined questions using systematic and rigorous
methods.
d. To achieve the best outcome for the individual patient when standard treatment options have limited or no
success.
13- Which of the following is a key concept in research and innovative treatment?
a. Consent.
b. Hospital.
c. Patient.
d. Safety.
14- Which one of the following may be influenced by various factors, including financial or other incentives to
participate in research?
a. Confidentiality.
b. Consent.
b. Health record.
a. Privacy.
15- What are the two kinds of Research Ethics Committees (RECs)?
a. Local and Multi-Centre Research Ethics Committees.
b. Local and General Research Ethics Committee.
c. National and International Research Ethics Committees.
d. State and Federal Ethics Research Committees.
16- What are the two types of Research Ethics Committee?
a. Local Research Ethics Committees; and Multi-centre Research Ethics Committees.
b. Single Research Committees; and Local Research Ethics Committees.
c. Single Research Ethics Committees: National Research Ethics Committees.
d. Global Research Ethics Committees; National Research Ethics Committees.
17- Which of the following pieces of information need to be discussed with the patient undergoing research and
innovative treatment when obtaining informed consent?
a. Financial benefits.
b. Participants Information.
c. Participation constraints.
d. Risks of harm.
18- What is the Core Ethical Issues of Emergency Care of patients?
a. Enquire about type of health insurance.
b. Informs the patient all the expenses.
c. Keep the confidentiality, privacy and dignity of the patient.
d. Research about the patient history.

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