1. STRAYER CIS 333 Week 11 Final Exam Set 1 NEW
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Question 1 SIP is a ___________ protocol used to support real-time
communications.
Question 2 What name is given to a U.S. federal law that
requires U.S. government agencies to protect citizens’ private
data and have proper security controls in place?
Question 3 This security appliance examines IP data streams
for common attack and malicious intent patterns.
Question 4 What name is given to an exterior network that acts
as a buffer zone between the public Internet and an
organization’s IT infrastructure (i.e., LAN-to-WAN Domain)?
Question 5 ____________ is the amount of time it takes to recover
and make a system, application, and data available for use after
an outage.
Question 6 The requirement to keep information private or
secret is the definition of __________.
Question 7 The physical part of the LAN Domain includes a
__________, which is an interface between the computer and the
LAN physical media.
2. Question 8 The _________ Domain connects remote users to the
organization’s IT infrastructure.
Question 9 The world needs people who understand computer-
systems ________ and who can protect computers and networks
from criminals and terrorists.
Question 10 With wireless LANs (WLANs), radio transceivers
are used to transmit IP packets from a WLAN NIC to a
_____________.
Question 11 As users upgrade LANs to GigE or 10GigE, switches
must support ________ and data IP traffic.
Question 12 Voice and unified communications are ________
applications that use 64-byte IP packets.
Question 13 The ________ in analog communications is one error
for every 1,000 bits sent; in digital communications, the
__________ is one error for every 1,000,000 bits sent.
Question 14 What term is used to describe streamlining
processes with automation or simplified steps?
Question 15 What is meant by application convergence?
Question 16 If VoIP traffic needs to traverse through a WAN
with congestion, you need ___________.
Question 17 What term is used to describe a packet-based
WAN service capable of supporting one-to-many and many-to-
many WAN connections?
Question 18 The total number of errors divided by the total
number of bits transmitted is the definition of __________.
3. Question 19 What is meant by DS0?
Question 20 ________ is the basis for unified communications
and is the protocol used by real-time applications such as IM
chat, conferencing, and collaboration.
Question 21 Prior to VoIP, attackers would use wardialers to
________.
Question 22 Which of the following is the definition of netcat?
Question 23 In a ________, the attacker sends a large number of
packets requesting connections to the victim computer.
Question 24 Malicious software can be hidden in a ________.
Question 25 A software program that collects information
about Internet usage and uses it to present targeted
advertisements to users is the definition of ________.
Question 26 ________ is a type of attack in which the attacker
takes control of a session between two machines and
masquerades as one of them.
Question 27 A ___________ is a software program that performs
one of two functions: brute-force password attack to gain
unauthorized access to a system, or recovery of passwords
stored in a computer system.
Question 28 A protocol analyzer or ____________ is a software
program that enables a computer to monitor and capture
network traffic.
Question 29 What is meant by promiscuous mode?
4. Question 30 A _________ has a hostile intent, possesses
sophisticated skills, and may be interested in financial gain.
They represent the greatest threat to networks and
information resources.
Question 31 __________ tests interrupt the primary data center
and transfer processing capability to an alternate site.
Question 32 How often should an organization perform a risk
management plan?
Question 33 __________ is rapidly becoming an increasingly
important aspect of enterprise computing.
Question 34 When you accept a __________, you take no further
steps to resolve.
Question 35 What name is given to a risk-analysis method that
uses relative ranking to provide further definition of the
identified risks in order to determine responses to them?
Question 36 What name is given to a comparison of security
controls in place and the controls that are needed to address all
identified threats?
Question 37 The process of managing risks starts by identifying
__________.
Question 38 Which of the following is the definition of business
drivers?
Question 39 A ___________ will help identify not only which
functions are critical, but also how quickly essential business
functions must return to full operation following a major
interruption.
5. Question 40 What is meant by risk register?
Question 41 The ____________ is the central part of a computing
environment’s hardware, software, and firmware that enforces
access control for computer systems.
Question 42 What is meant by physically constrained user
interface?
Question 43 Biometrics is another ________ method for
identifying subjects.
Question 44 _____________is the process of dividing a task into a
series of unique activities performed by different people, each
of whom is allowed to execute only one part of the overall task.
Question 45 An organization’s facilities manager might give
you a security card programmed with your employee ID
number, also known as a ________.
Question 46 Which of the following is not a type of
authentication?
Question 47 Two-factor __________ should be the minimum
requirement for valuable resources as it provides a higher level
of security than using only one.
Question 48 A mechanism that limits access to computer
systems and network resources is ________,
Question 49 What term is used to describe a device used as a
logon authenticator for remote users of a network?
Question 50 The Bell-La Padula access control model focuses
primarily on ________.
6. Question 51 The process of managing the baseline settings of a
system device is called ________
Question 52 Which of the following is the definition of system
owner?
Question 53 ___________ are the benchmarks that help make sure
a minimum level of security exists across multiple applications
of systems and across different products.
Question 54 Which of the following is the definition of
guideline?
Question 55 A security awareness program includes ________.
Question 56 One of the most popular types of attacks on
computer systems involves ___________. These attacks deceive or
use people to get around security controls. The best way to
avoid this risk is to ensure that employees know how to handle
such attacks.
Question 57 The ___________ team’s responsibilities include
handling events that affect your computers and networks and
ultimately can respond rapidly and effectively to any event
Question 58 ________ states that users must never leave sensitive
information in plain view on an unattended desk or
workstation.
Question 59 What name is given to a method of developing
software that is based on small project iterations, or sprints,
instead of long project schedules?
Question 60 The primary task of an organization’s __________
team is to control access to systems or resources.
7. Question 61 As your organization evolves and as threats
mature, it is important to make sure your __________ still meet(s)
the risks you face today.
Question 62 Security audits help ensure that your rules and
__________ are up to date, documented, and subject to change
control procedures.
Question 63 _________ was developed for organizations such as
insurance and medical claims processors, telecommunication
service providers, managed services providers, and credit card
transaction processing companies.
Question 64 SOC 2 and SOC 3 reports both address primarily
________-related controls.
Question 65 A method of security testing that isn’t based
directly on knowledge of a program’s architecture is the
definition of ________.
Question 66 The ___________ framework defines the scope and
contents of three levels of audit reports.
Question 67 ________ provides information on what is happening
as it happens.
Question 68 The primary difference between SOC 2 and SOC 3
reports is ________.
Question 69 Which of the following is the definition of
hardened configuration?
Question 70 What term is used to describe a reconnaissance
technique that enables an attacker to use port mapping to learn
which operating system and version are running on a
computer?
8. Question 71 It is necessary to create and/or maintain a plan
that makes sure your company continues to operate in the face
of disaster. This is known as a ________.
Question 72 Forensics and incident response are examples of
___________ controls.
Question 73 ___________ is the likelihood that a particular threat
exposes a vulnerability that could damage your organization.
Question 74 An intrusion detection system (IDS) is an example
of ___________ controls.
Question 75 What term is used to describe something built in
or used in a system to address gaps or weaknesses in the
controls that could otherwise lead to an exploit?
Question 76 A(n) ________ is a measurable occurrence that has an
impact on the business.
Question 77 A company can discontinue or decide not to enter a
line of business if the risk level is too high. This is categorized
as ________.
Question 78 A threat source can be a situation or method that
might accidentally trigger a(n) ____________.
Question 79 An organization knows that a risk exists and has
decided that the cost of reducing it is higher than the loss would
be. This can include self-insuring or using a deductible. This is
categorized as ________.
Question 80 A _________ determines the extent of the impact that
a particular incident would have on business operations over
time.
9. Question 81 In a ________, the cryptanalyst possesses certain
pieces of information before and after encryption.
Question 82 A ________ is an encryption key used to encrypt other
keys before transmitting them.
Question 83 What term is used to describe an encryption
algorithm that has no corresponding decryption algorithm?
Question 84 What name is given to an object that uses
asymmetric encryption to bind a message or data to a specific
entity?
Question 85 _______________ enables you to prevent a party from
denying a previous statement or action.
Question 86 What name is given to random characters that you
can combine with an actual input key to create the encryption
key?
Question 87 What is meant by key distribution?
Question 88 What name is given to an encryption cipher that is
a product cipher with a 56-bit key consisting of 16 iterations of
substitution and transformation?
Question 89 The most scrutinized cipher in history is the
________.
Question 90 ________ is a one-way calculation of information that
yields a result usually much smaller than the original message.
Question 91 Which of the following is the definition of network
address translation (NAT)?
10. Question 92 A firewall that examines each packet it receives
and compares the packet to a list of rules configured by the
network administrator is the definition of ________.
Question 93 Which OSI Reference Model layer creates,
maintains, and disconnects communications that take place
between processes over the network?
Question 94 What term is used to describe the current
encryption standard for wireless networks?
Question 95 Which OSI Reference Model layer uses Media
Access Control (MAC) addresses? Device manufacturers assign
each hardware device a unique MAC address.
Question 96 What name is given to a protocol to implement a
VPN connection between two computers?
Question 97 Which OSI Reference Model layer includes all
programs on a computer that interact with the network?
Question 98 A method to restrict access to a network based on
identity or other rules is the definition of ________.
Question 99 A method to restrict access to a network based on
identity or other rules is the definition of ________.
Question 100 What term is used to describe a method of IP
address assignment that uses an alternate, public IP address to
hide a system’s real IP address?
Question 101 Malicious code attacks all three information
security properties. Malware can modify database records
either immediately or over a period of time. This property is
________.
11. Question 102 Malicious code attacks all three information
security properties. Malware can erase or overwrite files or
inflict considerable damage to storage media. This property is
________.
Question 103 ________ counter the ability of antivirus programs
to detect changes in infected files.
Question 104 Another way that malicious code can threaten
businesses is by using mass bulk e-mail (spam), spyware,
persistence cookies, and the like, consuming computing
resources and reducing user productivity. These are known as
________.
Question 105 One of the ways that malicious code can threaten
businesses is by causing economic damage or loss due to the
theft, destruction, or unauthorized manipulation of sensitive
data. These are known as ________.
Question 106 Which of the following describes the Internet
Engineering Task Force (IETF)?
Question 107 The ________________ is a subcommittee of the IETF
that serves as an advisory body to the Internet Society (ISOC). It
is composed of independent researchers and professionals who
have a technical interest in the well-being of the Internet.
Question 108 The ________ is the main United Nations agency
responsible for managing and promoting information and
technology issues.
Question 109 The __________ is a national program that empowers
and encourages excellence among U.S. organizations, including
manufacturers, service organizations, educational institutions,
health care providers, and nonprofit organizations.
12. Question 110 The ________ is a U.S. standards organization whose
goal is to empower its members and constituents to strengthen
the U.S. marketplace position in the global economy, while
helping to ensure the safety and health of consumers and the
protection of the environment.
Question 111 The four main areas in NIST SP 800-50 are
awareness, training, education, and __________________.
Question 112 With university doctoral programs, completing
the degree requirements takes ________.
Question 113 What name is given to educational institutions
that meet specific federal information assurance educational
guidelines?
Question 114 Obtaining the coveted CAE/IAE or CAE/R
designation means the curriculum and research institutions
meet or exceed the standards defined by the _______.
Question 115 One type of degree that many institutions offer is
the associate’s degree. This degree is the most accessible
because it generally represents a _________ program.
Question 116 The ____________ concentration from (ISC)2 is the
road map for incorporating security into projects, applications,
business processes, and all information systems.
Question 117 The four main credentials of the ________ are
Systems Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP®), Certified
Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP®), Certified
Authorization Professional (CAP®), and Certified Secure
Software Lifecycle Professional (CSSLP®).
Question 118 Which is the highest level of Check Point
certification for network security?
13. Question 119 CompTIA’s Security+ certification provides
________.
Question 120 (ISC)2 offers the ________________ credential, which is
one of the few credentials that address developing secure
software. It evaluates professionals for the knowledge and
skills necessary to develop and deploy secure applications.
Question 121 ____________ creates standards that federal agencies
use to classify their data and IT systems.
Question 122 Under HIPAA, an organization that performs a
health care activity on behalf of a covered entity is known as
a(n) ________.
Question 123 Tier C violations under the HITECH Act are
________.
Question 124 The regulating agency for the Federal
Information Systems Management Act is the ________.
Question 125 What is meant by protected health information
(PHI)?
