Top of Form Page 1 Question 1.1. (TCO 2) Select any actions that increase the cash account. Select all that apply: (Points : 3)         payment is received on a receivable          An interest payment on a notes payable is made          A payment due is received from a client          An old machine is sold for cash  Question 2.2. (TCO 2)  Which one of the following actions will decrease the operating cycle? (Points : 3)        eliminating all inventory items that are slow sellers        delaying payments to suppliers        paying suppliers faster        increasing the amount of inventory on the shelves        granting customers more time to pay for their credit purchases Question 3.3. (TCO 2) Assume Green Leaf Nursery anticipated sales of $500 in the first quarter. Accounts receivable at the beginning of the year was $300. Assuming a collection period of 30 days, which is the approximate beginning balance for the second quarter? (Points : 3)        $550        $630        $250        $170        None of the above  Question 4.4. (TCO 2) Which one of the following practices will reduce a firm's collection float? (Points : 3)        utilizing zero-balance accounts        depositing checks weekly rather than daily        requiring all customers pay by check rather than with cash        installing a lockbox system        paying all bills five days sooner Question 5.5. (TCO 2) Which of the following statements is false? Select all that apply: (Points : 3)         The optimal credit policy minimizes the total cost of granting credit.          Firms should avoid offering credit at all cost.          An increase in a firm's average collection period generally indicates that an increased number of customers are taking advantage of the cash discount.          The costs of the credit application process and the costs expended in the collection process are carrying costs of granting credit.          Character refers to the ability of a firm to meet its credit obligations out its operating cash flows.  Question 6.6. (TCO 2) You place an order for 100 units of inventory Part A at a unit price of $522. The supplier offers terms of 3/25, net 40. How much should you remit if you take the discount? (Points : 3)        $52,200        $50,634        $51,678        None of the above Question 7.7. (TCO 2) Auto Parts sells 1,600 electric parts per month and then reorders another 1,600 parts. If the relevant carrying cost per electric part is $4 and the fixed order cost is $650, what is the total carrying cost and the restocking cost, respectively? (Points : 3)        $6,400 and $33,800        $3,200 and $33,800        $6,400 and $7,800        $3,200 and $7,800        None of the above Question 8.8. (TCO 2) Company ABC has expected sales of 75,000 units this year, an ordering cost of $8 per order and carrying costs of $1.20 per unit. What is the EOQ? (Points : 3)        900 units        1000 units        100 units         500 units        None of th ...

1. Top of Form
Page 1
Question 1.1. (TCO 2) Select any actions that increase the cash
account. Select all that apply: (Points : 3)
payment is received on a receivable
An interest payment on a notes payable is made
A payment due is received from a client
An old machine is sold for cash
Question 2.2. (TCO 2) Which one of the following actions will
decrease the operating cycle? (Points : 3)
eliminating all inventory items that are slow sellers
delaying payments to suppliers
paying suppliers faster
increasing the amount of inventory on the shelves
granting customers more time to pay for their credit
purchases
Question 3.3. (TCO 2) Assume Green Leaf Nursery anticipated
sales of $500 in the first quarter. Accounts receivable at the
beginning of the year was $300. Assuming a collection period
of 30 days, which is the approximate beginning balance for the
second quarter? (Points : 3)
$550
$630
$250
$170
None of the above

2. Question 4.4. (TCO 2) Which one of the following practices
will reduce a firm's collection float? (Points : 3)
utilizing zero-balance accounts
depositing checks weekly rather than daily
requiring all customers pay by check rather than with cash
installing a lockbox system
paying all bills five days sooner
Question 5.5. (TCO 2) Which of the following statements is
false? Select all that apply: (Points : 3)
The optimal credit policy minimizes the total cost of
granting credit.
Firms should avoid offering credit at all cost.
An increase in a firm's average collection period generally
indicates that an increased number of customers are taking
advantage of the cash discount.
The costs of the credit application process and the costs
expended in the collection process are carrying costs of granting
credit.
Character refers to the ability of a firm to meet its credit
obligations out its operating cash flows.
Question 6.6. (TCO 2) You place an order for 100 units of
inventory Part A at a unit price of $522. The supplier offers
terms of 3/25, net 40. How much should you remit if you take
the discount? (Points : 3)
$52,200
$50,634
$51,678
None of the above
Question 7.7. (TCO 2) Auto Parts sells 1,600 electric parts per

3. month and then reorders another 1,600 parts. If the relevant
carrying cost per electric part is $4 and the fixed order cost is
$650, what is the total carrying cost and the restocking cost,
respectively? (Points : 3)
$6,400 and $33,800
$3,200 and $33,800
$6,400 and $7,800
$3,200 and $7,800
None of the above
Question 8.8. (TCO 2) Company ABC has expected sales of
75,000 units this year, an ordering cost of $8 per order and
carrying costs of $1.20 per unit. What is the EOQ? (Points : 3)
900 units
1000 units
100 units
500 units
None of the above
Question 9.9. (TCO 2) The _________ is the time it takes to
acquire and sell inventory. (Points : 3)
cash cycle
operating cycle
inventory period
accounts receivable period
accounts payable period
Question 10.10. (TCO 2) List three ways in which the firm can
expedite payments and accounts receivables. (Points : 3)

4. Bottom of Form
Name: _______________________________________
Page 1 of 8
Final Exam – CE 2633: Environmental Engineering
Due December 11 noon, 2009
NO DISCUSSION, NO TEAM WORK
Multiple Choice (50 points – 5 points per question, circle all
that apply)
1. Which of the following statements are true concerning the
Safe Drinking Water
Act secondary standards?
a. They are enforceable.
b. They are for compounds which make drinking water
aesthetically pleasing
to consumers.
c. They enable drinking water to be potable.
d. They enable drinking water to be palatable.
e. All of the above.

5. 2. A pollutant which degrades according to the equation dC/dt =
-kC is said to react
according to?
a. Zero order kinetics.
b. First order kinetics.
c. Second order kinetics.
d. None of above.
e. All of the above.
3. Recarbonation is necessary in drinking water treatment
because:
a. The chemicals added during water treatment reduce the pH.
b. The chemicals added during water treatment increase the pH.
c. The chemicals added during water treatment consume carbon
dioxide.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
4. If the current mineral reserve of iron is 65,400 Tg, the
annual demand is 1060 Tg
and we assume the demand increases 1.2% annually, how long
will the reserve
last?
a. 62 years
b. 73 years
c. 55 years
d. 46 years
e. None of the above

6. 5. A solution that has a [OH-] concentration of 10-3 M has a pH
of
a. 11
b. 7
c. 3
d. 10
e. -3
f. 12
Name: _______________________________________
Page 2 of 8
6. A dual media rapid sand filter used what two types of porous
media for screening
of small-sized particulate matter
a. Anthracite coal
b. Garnet
c. Gravel
d. Sand
e. Clay
7. The unit process that is used primarily for the removal of
settleable solids such as
coffee grinds and sand is:
a. Comminutor
b. Primary settling tank
c. Grit chamber
d. Secondary clarifier

7. e. Bar screen
8. The hardness of water is most commonly due to the presence
of
a. CO3
2-
b. HCO3
-
c. Ca2+
d. Mg2+
e. Cl-
f. All of above
g. None of the above
9. The single-most important purpose of secondary treatment is
a. Removal of suspended solids
b. Removal of suspended BOD
c. Removal of soluble BOD
d. Denitrification
e. Nitrification
f. All of above
10. The purpose of disinfection in drinking water treatment
is/are concentration of 10-
a. Kill pathogens
b. Keep residual chlorine to the end point of the consumer
c. More palatable water
d. Prevent disinfection by-products

8. e. Reduce the turbidity
Name ____________________________Student No.
____________________________
Page 3 of 8
Short Answers (10 points – 10 points per question)
1) Below (in problems I-VII) are listed the abbreviations for
several of the major
regulations discussed in CE 2633 and the major topics covered
by these regulations.
Match the regulation with its description.
___I. SARA A) established primary regulations for the
protection of public
health and secondary regulations related to the esthetic
properties of drinking water
___II. RCRA B) provides for liability, compensation, cleanup
and emergency
response for hazardous substances released into the
environment and for the cleanup of inactive hazardous waste
disposal sites
___III. HSWA C) control of waterborne toxic substances and
formation of
NPDES permits

9. ___IV. CAA D) directed the US EPA to establish hazardous
waste regulations
which define, classify and regulate the generation and disposal
of hazardous wastes
___V. SDWA E) created, in part, in response to concerns that
existing methods
of hazardous waste disposal were not safe; sets restrictions on
the land disposal of specific wastes (commonly referred to as
the “Land Ban”)
___VI. CERCLA F) reaffirmed previously enacted legislation;
clearly a preference
for remediation technologies that rendered a waste
nonhazardous (rather than just transferring it from one disposal
site to another or simple containment on site)
___VII. CWA G) established the NAAQS, required states to
submit SIPs that
would show how they would meet these standards; required
NSPS to be established which would limit emissions from
certain types of industrial facilities.
2) Define the following terms
a) Steady state condition
b) Conservative pollutant

10. Name ____________________________Student No.
____________________________
Page 4 of 8
3) Draw a schematic of a typical secondary wastewater
treatment plant using activated
sludge treatment. Indicate where sludge are produced and
where gases are added

11. 4) What is “purple pipe”? (Guest speaker lecture)
5) What is nitrification and denitrification? (List chemical
reactions too)
Name ____________________________Student No.
____________________________
Page 5 of 8
6) List five of six major air pollutants for which the US EPA
has designated air quality
standards.

12. 7) Identify the water treatment process (from the list below)
that is most likely to be
used to (hint: you only need to pick 4 out of 12 choices):
i) protect the general public from dental caries _____
ii) remove turbidity _____
iii) protect the general public from waterborne diseases ____
iv) reduce the pH following softening ____
A) softening
B) flocculation/ coagulation
C) alkali addition
D) recarbonation
E) disinfection
F) bar screens
G) low-lift pumps
H) high lift pumps
I) fluoridation
J) distribution
K) filtration
L) activated sludge
8) There are two sludge treatment processes, one use sludge
retention time of 3 days
(θc=3 days), they other use sludge retention time of 10 days
(θc=10 days), which
process cost more for sludge proposal? And why?

13. Name ____________________________Student No.
____________________________
Page 6 of 8
9) If a hazard index is 0.001 (HI=0.001), what does this number
mean to you as an
environmental engineer? (For example, is there any potential
healthy effect?)
10) Among alpha, beta, gamma and x-ray, what are the most
dangerous internal radiation
hazards? Why?

14. Name ____________________________Student No.
____________________________
Page 7 of 8
Part III – Problems
Problem 1 – Alkalinity (40 points)
A water has a pH of 5.66 and the concentration of HCO3
- is 0.658 mg/L. What is the
exact alkalinity of the water in units of mg/L as CaCO3?

16. Name ____________________________Student No.
____________________________
Page 8 of 8
Problem 2 – Water quality in river (60 points)
Using the data given below:
a) calculate the DO deficit just after mixing of the plant waste
water with the water
in the river.
b) calculate the time (days) required for the deficit to reach its
maximum value
Deadly Chemical Plant Babbling Run
(upstream from outfall)
Flow, m3/s 0.33 5.67
ult-BOD at 20 oC, mg/L 450 1.05
DO, mg/L 0.0 8.3
kd, at 20
oC, day-1 N/A 0.22
kr, at 20
oC, day-1 N/A 0.78
speed, m/s N/A 0.55
T, oC 20 20
DOsat, mg/L, 20

17. oC N/A 9.17
N/A = not applicable