This document contains an exam practice test in English for university entrance in 2013. It includes multiple choice questions testing vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension and includes passages about optimism and the history of music accompanying silent films. The test aims to prepare students for the exam format and content.
This document contains an English exam for graduating high school students in Vietnam. The exam includes a reading passage about the benefits of reading, questions testing grammar and vocabulary, and a short story about Cinderella. It tests a variety of English skills through multiple choice questions regarding parts of speech, tense, pronouns, word stress and meaning based on context. The document also provides the answers to the exam questions.
The document appears to be an English proficiency test containing 99 multiple choice questions assessing grammar and language usage. The test is intended to diagnose an individual's current language needs and will be used by the "Bridge of Education and Development" NGO for determining course enrollment.
[123doc.vn] tai-lieu-1600-cau-trac-nghiem-on-thi-hsg-8-part-13-docLinh Tun
This document contains 100 multiple choice questions in Vietnamese about grammar, vocabulary, and comprehension. The questions cover a range of topics including directions, past tense verbs, occupations, hobbies, transportation, food, family, and daily activities. For each question, the reader must choose the most appropriate answer among 4 options to complete the sentence or determine what is being asked.
This document provides 100 multiple choice questions testing verb forms. For each question, the correct answer is indicated as the verb form that best completes the sentence based on English grammar rules. The questions cover a wide range of common English verbs and verb tenses including the present simple, present continuous, past simple, future, modals and more.
This document provides instructions for the listening section of an English test. It has three parts. Part I contains 9 questions about short dialogues that will be played twice. Test takers must choose the best answer from four options. Part II has 6 questions about monologues that will also be played twice. Part III has no questions and signals the end of the listening section.
Here are the missing words:
75. Australia
76. Switzerland
David was born in Sydney, Australia but his family migrated to Switzerland in 1999. When he finished his high school in Geneva, his new home city, he would like to further his study in Europe.
The document is a reading comprehension test containing 35 multiple choice questions about several short passages of text. The questions test understanding of topics like characters in the passages, implied meanings, grammatical concepts, and rearranging scrambled words into proper sentences. Overall, the summary assesses the test-taker's ability to comprehend various elements of written English texts.
Yes, we offer a 10% discount for cash payment.
So it will be 1,800 baht.
Customer: Okay, I'll take it.
4. a. styles b. colors c. sizes d. prices
5. a. follow me b. come with me c. go with me d. accompany me
6. a. Here are some high heels b. Here are the high heels
c. Here is some high heels d. Here is the high heels
7. a. I'll take it b. I'll buy it c. I want this d. I like this
8. a. Is there any discount? b. How much is the price? c. Can you reduce
This document contains an English exam for graduating high school students in Vietnam. The exam includes a reading passage about the benefits of reading, questions testing grammar and vocabulary, and a short story about Cinderella. It tests a variety of English skills through multiple choice questions regarding parts of speech, tense, pronouns, word stress and meaning based on context. The document also provides the answers to the exam questions.
The document appears to be an English proficiency test containing 99 multiple choice questions assessing grammar and language usage. The test is intended to diagnose an individual's current language needs and will be used by the "Bridge of Education and Development" NGO for determining course enrollment.
[123doc.vn] tai-lieu-1600-cau-trac-nghiem-on-thi-hsg-8-part-13-docLinh Tun
This document contains 100 multiple choice questions in Vietnamese about grammar, vocabulary, and comprehension. The questions cover a range of topics including directions, past tense verbs, occupations, hobbies, transportation, food, family, and daily activities. For each question, the reader must choose the most appropriate answer among 4 options to complete the sentence or determine what is being asked.
This document provides 100 multiple choice questions testing verb forms. For each question, the correct answer is indicated as the verb form that best completes the sentence based on English grammar rules. The questions cover a wide range of common English verbs and verb tenses including the present simple, present continuous, past simple, future, modals and more.
This document provides instructions for the listening section of an English test. It has three parts. Part I contains 9 questions about short dialogues that will be played twice. Test takers must choose the best answer from four options. Part II has 6 questions about monologues that will also be played twice. Part III has no questions and signals the end of the listening section.
Here are the missing words:
75. Australia
76. Switzerland
David was born in Sydney, Australia but his family migrated to Switzerland in 1999. When he finished his high school in Geneva, his new home city, he would like to further his study in Europe.
The document is a reading comprehension test containing 35 multiple choice questions about several short passages of text. The questions test understanding of topics like characters in the passages, implied meanings, grammatical concepts, and rearranging scrambled words into proper sentences. Overall, the summary assesses the test-taker's ability to comprehend various elements of written English texts.
Yes, we offer a 10% discount for cash payment.
So it will be 1,800 baht.
Customer: Okay, I'll take it.
4. a. styles b. colors c. sizes d. prices
5. a. follow me b. come with me c. go with me d. accompany me
6. a. Here are some high heels b. Here are the high heels
c. Here is some high heels d. Here is the high heels
7. a. I'll take it b. I'll buy it c. I want this d. I like this
8. a. Is there any discount? b. How much is the price? c. Can you reduce
This document appears to be an English evaluation from a school in Indonesia. It contains multiple choice questions testing grammar concepts, exercises to practice positive and negative responses and changing sentences between active and passive voice. It also includes questions to practice using possessive adjectives and pronouns. The evaluation is signed by the teacher, Miss Laili, and instructs students to be honest, not cheat, do their best, and wishes them good luck.
The document appears to be an exam for an Islamic high school in Ponorogo, Indonesia. It contains 37 multiple choice questions testing comprehension of passages about various dialogues and situations. The questions cover topics like interpreting conversations, drawing conclusions, identifying synonyms and antonyms, and understanding memos, notices and job advertisements. The passages and questions are in Indonesian and test a variety of English language skills.
The passage discusses checking job references for potential employees. It suggests asking intelligent questions of references to learn important details about a candidate's past performance and qualifications. Questions should be specific rather than vague to obtain meaningful answers from references. While references may limit what they share to avoid legal issues, asking the right questions can still help an employer make informed hiring decisions.
This document appears to be an English midterm exam from a school in Thailand. It contains 3 parts - if-clause questions, question tag questions, and multiple choice questions about the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN). The exam tests students' knowledge of English grammar structures like conditional sentences and question tags, as well as factual information about ASEAN member countries, their leaders, capitals, and flags. It will be graded by the teacher, Mrs. Kitaya Sriri.
Kiểm tra 1 tiết lần 2 hki tiếng anh lớp 11Hoa Phượng
This document appears to be an English exam for high school students. It contains multiple choice questions testing vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension and other English language skills. The exam is divided into several sections. Section I contains questions about pronunciation of underlined parts of words. Section II contains sentence completion questions. Section III contains questions identifying errors. Section IV asks students to rewrite sentences using provided words. Section V is a short reading comprehension passage with blank items to be filled in. The exam tests a variety of fundamental English skills.
DINAS PENDIDIKAN KAB. WONOGIRI
MUSYAWARAH KERJA KEPALA SEKOLAH (MKKS)
SMK KABUPATEN WONOGIRI
ULANGAN UMUM SEMESTER GENAP
TAHUN PELAJARAN 2014/2015
LEMBAR SOAL
Mata Pelajaran : Bahasa Inggris
Satuan Pendidikan : Sekolah Menengah Kejuruan ( SMK )
Kelompok : BM & TI
Prog. Studi / Keahlian : Semua Program Keahlian
Kelas : XI ( Sebelas )
Hari / Tanggal : Selasa, 1 Desember 2015
Waktu : Pukul 07.30 – 09.30 WIB (120 menit)
- The document is a test for English subject given to grade 10 students at vocational schools in Wonogiri Regency, Central Java, Indonesia.
- It provides instructions for taking the test, including writing one's test number and answering questions on provided sheets using a ballpoint pen.
- The test contains multiple choice and essay questions testing grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension and writing skills.
- It provides an answer key for the multiple choice and essay questions at the end.
This document contains a test of 50 English language questions in multiple choice format. The questions cover a range of English grammar topics including verbs, pronouns, prepositions, conjunctions, passive voice, and word combinations. For each question, the correct answer is provided along with a brief explanation of the grammatical rules tested in that question. The test and answers are intended to help students practice and learn English grammar.
50 soal latihan grammar untuk mahasiswa semester awal.Yanthika January
The document contains a 50 question English grammar mid-semester exam with multiple choice answers. The questions cover a range of English grammar topics including verbs, nouns, pronouns, adjectives, prepositions, and tenses. The exam is designed to test students' understanding of fundamental grammar rules in English. It provides the answer key to an exam taken by English language learners to evaluate their progress at the midpoint of a course.
This document provides a grammar and vocabulary practice test with multiple choice and fill-in-the-blank questions. It covers topics such as verb tenses, infinitives, gerunds, and passive voice. The test contains over 30 grammar questions and over 15 vocabulary and pronunciation questions to assess English skills.
This document appears to be instructions and a practice test for an English exam consisting of 50 multiple choice questions. The instructions state that students should choose the correct answer from options A, B, C, or D and mark their answer sheets accordingly. The questions cover a range of basic English grammar and vocabulary topics including greetings, personal information, parts of the body, places, occupations, and prepositions of place.
The document appears to be an English exam with multiple choice questions testing grammar and vocabulary. It includes questions about subjects like time, occupations, daily activities, foods, and prepositions. The questions require choosing the correct word or phrase to complete sentences.
This document appears to be a practice test for students. It contains multiple choice questions testing vocabulary, grammar, and reading comprehension. The test has five sections. Section I contains word pronunciation questions. Section II contains grammar and sentence completion questions. Section III contains questions requiring candidates to fill in blanks in a short passage. Section IV asks candidates to identify and correct errors in sample sentences. Section V instructs candidates to rewrite sample sentences. The test aims to evaluate students' English language skills.
This document contains an English practice exam for graduating high school students in Vietnam. The exam tests students on various English skills including phonics, vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension and writing. It consists of 50 questions across these categories to evaluate students' English language proficiency. The answers to the exam are provided at the end.
Ulangan harian (uh) B.Inggris kelas 8 semester 1 (Ganjil)Raima Amari
1) The document contains an English exam for 8th grade students in the first semester consisting of reading comprehension questions, filling in dialogue blanks, and daily quizzes.
2) The quizzes cover topics like daily conversations, describing pets, grammar questions about verbs and plural nouns.
3) The questions are designed to assess students' English language skills in areas like speaking, reading, writing, and grammar.
This document contains an English proficiency test with multiple choice questions covering grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension and sentence rewriting. The test has 7 sections with a total of 80 questions. It provides the instructions, questions and multiple choice answers for an English proficiency exam for university admission in Vietnam.
This document contains a 50-question English proficiency test with multiple choice answers. The test covers topics like greetings, locations, conversations, grammar, vocabulary and comprehension of short passages. Each question is numbered and includes 4 multiple choice answer options. The full test is presented in the document for review purposes.
The document provides vocabulary and questions about the post office. It covers terms related to postal services like registering mail, subscribing to services, and courteous and well-trained staff. There are 75 multiple choice questions testing vocabulary, grammar and comprehension related to the post office and sending mail.
This document contains an English exam practice test covering pronunciation, vocabulary, grammar, writing, and reading comprehension. The test includes 50 questions across these sections to assess proficiency in key areas of the English language. It provides students with an opportunity to practice and evaluate their skills.
Sri Lanka should continue to encourage women to work abroad as housemaids due to the significant economic and social benefits it provides. It generates over $200 billion annually in foreign income with no capital expenditure or major outflows. It also employs over 12% of the labor force and helps alleviate poverty levels by improving incomes for lower-income households. Working abroad as housemaids lifts social standards by increasing average household incomes from less than $10,000 to around $35,000. It develops industries like banking, airlines, and manpower agencies while increasing self-employment and small businesses. Coordinating efforts through the Foreign Employment Bureau and strengthening laws can help this sector grow further.
Gender disparities in expenditure of income from tobacco in urambo district, ...Alexander Decker
This document summarizes a study on gender disparities in the expenditure of income from tobacco farming households in Tanzania. The study found that men spent a significantly higher proportion (35.2%) of household tobacco income on themselves compared to what women (12.1%) and children (10%) spent. This indicates inequitable spending of tobacco income between men and other household members. The researchers applied Adams' equity theory to analyze inputs (labor contribution) and outputs (income expenditure) between men and women. Key factors found to contribute to the disparity included patriarchal norms, women's humility, and fear of divorce if they challenged men's control over income. The results support providing more gender education and financial management training to promote
El documento describe las principales regiones naturales del mundo, incluyendo el desierto, selva, bosque, marítimo, y tundra. Cada región se caracteriza por su clima único, flora y fauna distintiva. La selva se describe como un lugar cálido y húmedo con una gran variedad de plantas y árboles enormes que albergan especies como pumas, cocodrilos y guacamayas.
This document appears to be an English evaluation from a school in Indonesia. It contains multiple choice questions testing grammar concepts, exercises to practice positive and negative responses and changing sentences between active and passive voice. It also includes questions to practice using possessive adjectives and pronouns. The evaluation is signed by the teacher, Miss Laili, and instructs students to be honest, not cheat, do their best, and wishes them good luck.
The document appears to be an exam for an Islamic high school in Ponorogo, Indonesia. It contains 37 multiple choice questions testing comprehension of passages about various dialogues and situations. The questions cover topics like interpreting conversations, drawing conclusions, identifying synonyms and antonyms, and understanding memos, notices and job advertisements. The passages and questions are in Indonesian and test a variety of English language skills.
The passage discusses checking job references for potential employees. It suggests asking intelligent questions of references to learn important details about a candidate's past performance and qualifications. Questions should be specific rather than vague to obtain meaningful answers from references. While references may limit what they share to avoid legal issues, asking the right questions can still help an employer make informed hiring decisions.
This document appears to be an English midterm exam from a school in Thailand. It contains 3 parts - if-clause questions, question tag questions, and multiple choice questions about the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN). The exam tests students' knowledge of English grammar structures like conditional sentences and question tags, as well as factual information about ASEAN member countries, their leaders, capitals, and flags. It will be graded by the teacher, Mrs. Kitaya Sriri.
Kiểm tra 1 tiết lần 2 hki tiếng anh lớp 11Hoa Phượng
This document appears to be an English exam for high school students. It contains multiple choice questions testing vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension and other English language skills. The exam is divided into several sections. Section I contains questions about pronunciation of underlined parts of words. Section II contains sentence completion questions. Section III contains questions identifying errors. Section IV asks students to rewrite sentences using provided words. Section V is a short reading comprehension passage with blank items to be filled in. The exam tests a variety of fundamental English skills.
DINAS PENDIDIKAN KAB. WONOGIRI
MUSYAWARAH KERJA KEPALA SEKOLAH (MKKS)
SMK KABUPATEN WONOGIRI
ULANGAN UMUM SEMESTER GENAP
TAHUN PELAJARAN 2014/2015
LEMBAR SOAL
Mata Pelajaran : Bahasa Inggris
Satuan Pendidikan : Sekolah Menengah Kejuruan ( SMK )
Kelompok : BM & TI
Prog. Studi / Keahlian : Semua Program Keahlian
Kelas : XI ( Sebelas )
Hari / Tanggal : Selasa, 1 Desember 2015
Waktu : Pukul 07.30 – 09.30 WIB (120 menit)
- The document is a test for English subject given to grade 10 students at vocational schools in Wonogiri Regency, Central Java, Indonesia.
- It provides instructions for taking the test, including writing one's test number and answering questions on provided sheets using a ballpoint pen.
- The test contains multiple choice and essay questions testing grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension and writing skills.
- It provides an answer key for the multiple choice and essay questions at the end.
This document contains a test of 50 English language questions in multiple choice format. The questions cover a range of English grammar topics including verbs, pronouns, prepositions, conjunctions, passive voice, and word combinations. For each question, the correct answer is provided along with a brief explanation of the grammatical rules tested in that question. The test and answers are intended to help students practice and learn English grammar.
50 soal latihan grammar untuk mahasiswa semester awal.Yanthika January
The document contains a 50 question English grammar mid-semester exam with multiple choice answers. The questions cover a range of English grammar topics including verbs, nouns, pronouns, adjectives, prepositions, and tenses. The exam is designed to test students' understanding of fundamental grammar rules in English. It provides the answer key to an exam taken by English language learners to evaluate their progress at the midpoint of a course.
This document provides a grammar and vocabulary practice test with multiple choice and fill-in-the-blank questions. It covers topics such as verb tenses, infinitives, gerunds, and passive voice. The test contains over 30 grammar questions and over 15 vocabulary and pronunciation questions to assess English skills.
This document appears to be instructions and a practice test for an English exam consisting of 50 multiple choice questions. The instructions state that students should choose the correct answer from options A, B, C, or D and mark their answer sheets accordingly. The questions cover a range of basic English grammar and vocabulary topics including greetings, personal information, parts of the body, places, occupations, and prepositions of place.
The document appears to be an English exam with multiple choice questions testing grammar and vocabulary. It includes questions about subjects like time, occupations, daily activities, foods, and prepositions. The questions require choosing the correct word or phrase to complete sentences.
This document appears to be a practice test for students. It contains multiple choice questions testing vocabulary, grammar, and reading comprehension. The test has five sections. Section I contains word pronunciation questions. Section II contains grammar and sentence completion questions. Section III contains questions requiring candidates to fill in blanks in a short passage. Section IV asks candidates to identify and correct errors in sample sentences. Section V instructs candidates to rewrite sample sentences. The test aims to evaluate students' English language skills.
This document contains an English practice exam for graduating high school students in Vietnam. The exam tests students on various English skills including phonics, vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension and writing. It consists of 50 questions across these categories to evaluate students' English language proficiency. The answers to the exam are provided at the end.
Ulangan harian (uh) B.Inggris kelas 8 semester 1 (Ganjil)Raima Amari
1) The document contains an English exam for 8th grade students in the first semester consisting of reading comprehension questions, filling in dialogue blanks, and daily quizzes.
2) The quizzes cover topics like daily conversations, describing pets, grammar questions about verbs and plural nouns.
3) The questions are designed to assess students' English language skills in areas like speaking, reading, writing, and grammar.
This document contains an English proficiency test with multiple choice questions covering grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension and sentence rewriting. The test has 7 sections with a total of 80 questions. It provides the instructions, questions and multiple choice answers for an English proficiency exam for university admission in Vietnam.
This document contains a 50-question English proficiency test with multiple choice answers. The test covers topics like greetings, locations, conversations, grammar, vocabulary and comprehension of short passages. Each question is numbered and includes 4 multiple choice answer options. The full test is presented in the document for review purposes.
The document provides vocabulary and questions about the post office. It covers terms related to postal services like registering mail, subscribing to services, and courteous and well-trained staff. There are 75 multiple choice questions testing vocabulary, grammar and comprehension related to the post office and sending mail.
This document contains an English exam practice test covering pronunciation, vocabulary, grammar, writing, and reading comprehension. The test includes 50 questions across these sections to assess proficiency in key areas of the English language. It provides students with an opportunity to practice and evaluate their skills.
Sri Lanka should continue to encourage women to work abroad as housemaids due to the significant economic and social benefits it provides. It generates over $200 billion annually in foreign income with no capital expenditure or major outflows. It also employs over 12% of the labor force and helps alleviate poverty levels by improving incomes for lower-income households. Working abroad as housemaids lifts social standards by increasing average household incomes from less than $10,000 to around $35,000. It develops industries like banking, airlines, and manpower agencies while increasing self-employment and small businesses. Coordinating efforts through the Foreign Employment Bureau and strengthening laws can help this sector grow further.
Gender disparities in expenditure of income from tobacco in urambo district, ...Alexander Decker
This document summarizes a study on gender disparities in the expenditure of income from tobacco farming households in Tanzania. The study found that men spent a significantly higher proportion (35.2%) of household tobacco income on themselves compared to what women (12.1%) and children (10%) spent. This indicates inequitable spending of tobacco income between men and other household members. The researchers applied Adams' equity theory to analyze inputs (labor contribution) and outputs (income expenditure) between men and women. Key factors found to contribute to the disparity included patriarchal norms, women's humility, and fear of divorce if they challenged men's control over income. The results support providing more gender education and financial management training to promote
El documento describe las principales regiones naturales del mundo, incluyendo el desierto, selva, bosque, marítimo, y tundra. Cada región se caracteriza por su clima único, flora y fauna distintiva. La selva se describe como un lugar cálido y húmedo con una gran variedad de plantas y árboles enormes que albergan especies como pumas, cocodrilos y guacamayas.
Crespi d'Adda UNESCO - Progetto Festival dell'utopiaSilvia Faccio
Progetto proposto ai tavoli di lavoro tematici 2015
#CrespiFORUM
http://www.crespiforum.crespidaddaunesco.org
In una fase economica come quella attuale, caratterizzata da forte crisi e aziende che delocalizzano abdicando con disinvoltura alla loro responsabilità sociale di impresa, è difficile pensare che sia replicabile il modello Crespi - quello, per intenderci, noto a tutti per essere esempio di una cultura illuminata del lavoro, in cui legittimo profitto e qualità della vita nel lavoro convivono felicemente.
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Eppure, nonostante la crisi (anzi forse proprio grazie alla crisi), alcuni elementi positivi che fanno di Crespi un modello replicabile ci sono.
Qui ne cito tre:
1. E’ proprio in tempi di crisi che si fa sempre più forte l’esigenza di progettare nuovi modelli di economia che mettano al centro l’uomo e la qualità della sua vita.
2. Un degno erede del modello di filantropia aziendale come quello di Crespi esiste già oggi: è il borgo di Solomeo, recuperato e valorizzato dall’imprenditore Cuccinelli.
3. Sempre più spesso di sente parlare di umanesimo dell’era digitale, ciò a significare che i semi della filantropia e dell’umanesimo attecchiscono e germogliano meglio proprio in contesti innovativi e tecnologici.
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A quest’ultimo proposito, il contesto bergamasco sembra avere le carte in regola, in quanto vi operano diversi attori di rilievo che offrono tecnologia e innovazione. Penso ad esempio al Kilometro Rosso, all’evento BergamoScienza, al corso di ingegneria tessile di Dalmine, per citarne solo alcuni.
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Fatta questa premessa, la mia proposta è dunque fare di Crespi per qualche giorno all'anno la sede del Festival dell’Utopia.
Questo Festival NON vuole essere affatto un’occasione per vagheggiare di mondi impossibili o fare filosofia, ma vuole essere un CONCRETO cantiere di idee, una rassegna di realistiche BEST PRACTICE, cioè buone pratiche già sperimentate, che attendono di essere replicate e moltiplicate.
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In particolare, propongo Crespi come sede di laboratori e convegni per l’ideazione o presentazione di progetti focalizzati alla conciliazione di due valori che non possono più procedere disgiunti: il benessere dei lavoratori e il profitto aziendale.
A COMARX atua hoje no mercado como distribuidora, instaladora e assistência Técnica autorizada das principais marcas de bombas nacionais e importadas, sistemas de pressurização, equipamentos para piscinas, spas, espelhos d'água e especialista na instalação em piscinas públicas.
http://www.comarx.com.br
Factors affecting job satisfaction level of academic staff in pakistanAlexander Decker
This document summarizes a study that analyzed factors affecting job satisfaction levels of academic staff at the Islamia University of Bahawalpur in Pakistan. It investigated the impact of pay, job security, coworkers, and promotion opportunities on satisfaction. The study found that pay had the largest impact on satisfaction, followed by job security, promotion opportunities, and coworkers had the smallest impact. The document provides background on job satisfaction and reviews literature on factors that can influence satisfaction, such as salary, job security, working conditions, relationships with coworkers, and promotion opportunities.
The document discusses plans for a regional magazine focused on wildlife in Hampshire, England. Plan A involves creating a magazine called "Wildlife" that describes animals and conservation efforts in the New Forest area. Constraints include limited transportation to access the New Forest, a need for photography equipment, and targeting a specific wildlife-interested audience. The document outlines timing, locations and experts to interview for the magazine, as well as solutions to overcome constraints like using online photos if travel is not possible.
Este documento proporciona instrucciones para un examen de práctica para una olimpiada nacional. Explica que el examen contiene 12 preguntas divididas en 4 temas, y que los resultados no afectarán las fases siguientes. También indica cómo enviar las respuestas y cuándo estarán disponibles las soluciones.
Kolegov tkachenko-Non-Invasive Elimination of Logical Access Control Vulnerab...Positive Hack Days
This document discusses non-invasive approaches to implementing access control policies in web applications without modifying source code. It begins by introducing the authors and their backgrounds. It then provides an overview of access control concepts, typical web application architectures, and causes of access control vulnerabilities. The document discusses how access control can be implemented at the database management system (DBMS) layer and web server layer in a non-invasive manner using proxies and reverse proxies. It proposes identifying users and resources to enable enforcing customized access control policies without changing application or DBMS code. The agenda outlines discussing access control policies, models, and implementing a proof of concept to validate the approach.
Aaron Wolowiec, MSA, CAE, CMP, CTA delivered this presentation during the VSAE Fall Educational Symposium & Expo on Thursday, Oct. 2, 2014, at the Greater Richmond Convention Center in Richmond, VA.
This document analyzes 1,749 GI product advertisements from two magazines over 20 years (1989-2008) using a tailored content analysis methodology. The study assessed trends in marketing message elements like picture-text ratio, headline and image relevance, and color depth. It found that pictures dominated texts more in later years, and headline messages increasingly described products directly. Photorealistic images were most common. The study revealed trends in advertised GI products and predicted future advertising trends.
El documento resume la historia del Señor de los Milagros. En el siglo XVII, un esclavo angolano llamado Benito pintó una imagen de Cristo crucificado en una pared en Lima, Perú. En 1655, durante un terremoto, la pared con la imagen se mantuvo en pie, lo que fue visto como un milagro. Desde entonces, la imagen adquirió fama de curar enfermedades y conceder favores, aumentando el número de devotos a través de los años en todo el Virreinato del Perú. Entre 1766 y
Um blog permite o registo cronológico de opiniões e conteúdo escolhido pelo autor. Embora os sites tradicionais sejam mais formais, os blogs expressam apenas a opinião do autor e permitem comentários e discussões. Os blogs surgiram na educação como uma ferramenta para professores compartilharem recursos.
1) Baobab seed oil was extracted and biodegraded using the fungus Aspergillus niger over 49 days. The pH decreased and viscosity increased gradually as biodegradation progressed.
2) Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy showed shifts in the absorption bands of functional groups like carbonyl and hydroxyl groups, indicating biodegradation.
3) Gas chromatography-mass spectrometry analysis identified the esterification of unsaturated carboxylic acid to 9-octadecanoic acid and formation of 2-hydroxy-1,3-propanediyl ester, showing biodegradation occurred within 35 days.
Fractional conformal spin of pseudo differential operators and kp hierarchyAlexander Decker
This document discusses fractional pseudo differential operators and their application to the fractional KP hierarchy. It begins by introducing pseudo differential operators and their importance in physics. It then presents the algebraic structure of fractional pseudo differential operators, which extends the standard pseudo differential operators to include fractional order integral operators. Various extensions involving half-order, 1/3-order, and general 1/N-order integrals are described. Finally, it gives an application to the fractional KP hierarchy by extending the KP Lax operator to include half-order integrals.
Getting relational database from legacy data mdre approachAlexander Decker
This document summarizes a research paper that proposes a model-driven reverse engineering (MDRE) approach to extract data from legacy COBOL systems and transform it into a normalized relational database. The approach includes four phases: 1) Extraction of data structure models from COBOL source code, 2) Merging of extracted models, 3) Transformation of the merged model into a domain class diagram and refinement by adding integrity constraints and normal forms, 4) Generation of a relational database schema from the domain class diagram. A CASE tool called CETL is developed to support the extraction and merging phases. The paper argues that this MDRE approach provides benefits over traditional reverse engineering like improved abstraction, inclusion of data integrity rules,
La Generación del 98 fue un grupo de escritores españoles afectados por la derrota en la guerra hispano-estadounidense de 1898 que renovó los géneros literarios. Criticaron la España oficial y valoraron la Castilla rural. Rompieron moldes clásicos creando nuevas formas narrativas, teatrales y líricas. Adoptaron un lenguaje más cercano al pueblo e introdujeron corrientes filosóficas europeas como el irracionalismo. Compartieron un pesimismo y actitud crítica que reflejaron
This document contains a 50 question English practice test for the Vietnamese high school graduation exam. The test covers topics like pronunciation, vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension and sentence structure. It aims to help students prepare for the exam through sample questions and explanations of answers. Conservation of natural resources is one reading passage topic, discussing how governments have implemented programs to prevent waste of essentials like trees, soil, water and minerals.
This document contains a test with questions about phonetic patterns, vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension and writing. The phonetic section contains 5 questions about words with different stress patterns. The vocabulary and grammar section contains 20 multiple choice questions testing parts of speech, tenses and other grammar rules. The reading comprehension section contains a passage and 30 questions about it. The writing section contains tasks like completing sentences in a letter. The test contains answers to check responses.
This document contains a test with questions about phonetic patterns, vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension and writing. The phonetic section contains 5 questions about words with different stress patterns. The vocabulary and grammar section contains 20 multiple choice questions testing parts of speech, tenses and other grammar rules. The reading comprehension section contains a passage and 30 questions about it. The writing section contains tasks like completing sentences in a letter. The test contains an answer key at the end.
This document contains an English proficiency test with multiple choice questions testing grammar, vocabulary, and reading comprehension. It also includes sample passages and questions about the history and spread of American cuisine and the origins of jeans as clothing. The test is likely being used to practice for an English exam in Vietnam.
đáP án đề thi thử đại học môn tiếng anh 2013adminseo
This document contains an English practice test for the Vietnamese high school graduation exam. It includes 35 multiple choice questions testing English grammar, vocabulary, and reading comprehension. It also includes two reading comprehension passages with blanks to be filled in and questions to answer about the passages. The document provides English exam practice for Vietnamese students preparing to take their high school graduation exam.
The document is a practice test for a Vietnamese high school graduation exam in English. It contains 50 multiple choice questions testing grammar, vocabulary, and reading comprehension. The reading comprehension passage is about David Hempleman Adams, an explorer who in 1984 was the first person to walk alone to the North Pole, traveling 400 km over 22 days without a dog sled team.
This document appears to be an English proficiency test containing 50 multiple choice questions testing grammar, vocabulary, pronunciation and reading comprehension. Some of the questions are incomplete sentences that require choosing the correct word or phrase to complete the sentence. Others involve identifying mistakes, stressed syllables, synonyms or choosing the best response to short dialogues or passages. The test covers a wide range of English language skills and concepts.
Đề thi Đại Học môn Tiếng Anh khối A1 năm 2013tuituhoc
This document is a standardized test for university admission in Vietnam in 2013. It contains 80 multiple choice questions testing English language skills, including vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension, and identifying word meanings based on context. The test is divided into 6 pages and candidates are given 90 minutes to complete it.
De thi-dai-hoc-mon-tieng-anh-khoi-a1-2013-ma-de-951Linh Nguyễn
This document is a standardized test for university admission in Vietnam. It contains 80 multiple choice questions testing English language skills such as vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension. The test covers topics like opposites, pronunciation, meaning, grammar, and reading passages about physics principles and technology/poverty. It is a typical standardized test containing different question types to evaluate English proficiency.
Tailieu.vncty.com tai lieu tieng anh bTrần Đức Anh
This document is a study guide for an English exam that contains the following sections: vocabulary, reading comprehension, fill in the blank questions, error correction, transformations of sentences, and written topics. It provides sample questions to help students practice and prepare for the exam.
This document contains a practice English test with 57 multiple choice questions testing grammar and vocabulary. It also contains short reading passages with blanks to be filled in and questions to be answered. The test covers a range of English topics including parts of speech, sentence structure, tenses, vocabulary in context, and reading comprehension.
This document contains an English exam with multiple choice questions testing pronunciation, grammar, vocabulary and reading comprehension. It covers topics such as choosing the differently pronounced word, correcting grammatical errors, completing sentences, answering questions about a passage on Tet traditions, and rewriting sentences with the same meaning. The exam tests a wide range of English language skills.
The listening test is approximately 45 minutes long and has multiple parts. In Part I, test takers will hear 4 statements about an image and must choose the best description. Part II involves choosing the best response to a question or statement from 3 options. Part III contains short conversations followed by questions. Part IV presents talks with 2 questions each. The test also includes a reading section with various question types.
This document contains an English proficiency test with questions on phonetic, grammar, reading comprehension, and writing. It consists of 50 multiple choice questions assessing vocabulary, grammar structures, inference of main ideas from passages, and identifying equivalent meanings between sentences. The test appears to evaluate English language skills required for graduation from high school in Vietnam.
This document contains a reading comprehension test in English for students. It consists of 38 multiple choice questions based on passages about a shepherd boy who plays a trick on villagers by falsely claiming there is a wolf, as well as questions about vocabulary, grammar, and pictures. The test is designed to take one hour and students are instructed to circle the correct answers. It was prepared by an English teacher, reviewed by another teacher, and approved by the head of the English language department at a school in Johor, Malaysia.
This document contains a mid-semester exam for grade 8 students studying English at MTs. N Batang Toru for the 2011-2012 academic year. The exam contains 50 questions testing grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension and the ability to complete dialogues and short passages. The questions cover topics such as daily conversations, short stories, recipes and instructions.
The document is a practice test for a university entrance exam in Vietnam. It contains 50 questions testing English language skills, including identifying word stress patterns, correcting grammatical errors, choosing the best answer to complete sentences, and answering comprehension questions about two passages. The test covers a wide range of fundamental English concepts to evaluate candidates' language proficiency.
This document appears to be a practice test for a Vietnamese university entrance exam. It contains 7 sections testing English language skills like vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension and sentence rewriting. Section 1 asks test takers to identify words with different stress patterns. Section 2 focuses on pronunciation of underlined parts of words. Sections 3-5 contain multiple choice questions testing vocabulary, grammar and reading comprehension. Sections 6-7 involve rewriting sentences and completing sentences with given words. The test aims to evaluate a candidate's English proficiency in various areas important for university study.
This document contains a multiple choice English exam with questions testing grammar, vocabulary, and reading comprehension. There are 41 questions in total, testing a variety of English language skills. The questions cover topics like pronunciation, parts of speech, sentence structure, implied meaning, and understanding details from passages.
The document contains a series of questions and passages related to sports matches, weather conditions, mountain climbing, cooking, and other everyday topics. It also includes short conversations between individuals. The questions assess reading comprehension and require matching answers based on the provided information.
Similar to đề Thi thử đại học môn tiếng anh 2013 (20)
This document contains an English exam with multiple choice questions. It begins with sections on vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension, and other topics. The exam contains questions about stress patterns in words, grammar rules, meanings of sentences, and comprehending passages. It aims to test students' English language skills across a variety of areas.
In the rapidly evolving landscape of technologies, XML continues to play a vital role in structuring, storing, and transporting data across diverse systems. The recent advancements in artificial intelligence (AI) present new methodologies for enhancing XML development workflows, introducing efficiency, automation, and intelligent capabilities. This presentation will outline the scope and perspective of utilizing AI in XML development. The potential benefits and the possible pitfalls will be highlighted, providing a balanced view of the subject.
We will explore the capabilities of AI in understanding XML markup languages and autonomously creating structured XML content. Additionally, we will examine the capacity of AI to enrich plain text with appropriate XML markup. Practical examples and methodological guidelines will be provided to elucidate how AI can be effectively prompted to interpret and generate accurate XML markup.
Further emphasis will be placed on the role of AI in developing XSLT, or schemas such as XSD and Schematron. We will address the techniques and strategies adopted to create prompts for generating code, explaining code, or refactoring the code, and the results achieved.
The discussion will extend to how AI can be used to transform XML content. In particular, the focus will be on the use of AI XPath extension functions in XSLT, Schematron, Schematron Quick Fixes, or for XML content refactoring.
The presentation aims to deliver a comprehensive overview of AI usage in XML development, providing attendees with the necessary knowledge to make informed decisions. Whether you’re at the early stages of adopting AI or considering integrating it in advanced XML development, this presentation will cover all levels of expertise.
By highlighting the potential advantages and challenges of integrating AI with XML development tools and languages, the presentation seeks to inspire thoughtful conversation around the future of XML development. We’ll not only delve into the technical aspects of AI-powered XML development but also discuss practical implications and possible future directions.
For the full video of this presentation, please visit: https://www.edge-ai-vision.com/2024/06/building-and-scaling-ai-applications-with-the-nx-ai-manager-a-presentation-from-network-optix/
Robin van Emden, Senior Director of Data Science at Network Optix, presents the “Building and Scaling AI Applications with the Nx AI Manager,” tutorial at the May 2024 Embedded Vision Summit.
In this presentation, van Emden covers the basics of scaling edge AI solutions using the Nx tool kit. He emphasizes the process of developing AI models and deploying them globally. He also showcases the conversion of AI models and the creation of effective edge AI pipelines, with a focus on pre-processing, model conversion, selecting the appropriate inference engine for the target hardware and post-processing.
van Emden shows how Nx can simplify the developer’s life and facilitate a rapid transition from concept to production-ready applications.He provides valuable insights into developing scalable and efficient edge AI solutions, with a strong focus on practical implementation.
Taking AI to the Next Level in Manufacturing.pdfssuserfac0301
Read Taking AI to the Next Level in Manufacturing to gain insights on AI adoption in the manufacturing industry, such as:
1. How quickly AI is being implemented in manufacturing.
2. Which barriers stand in the way of AI adoption.
3. How data quality and governance form the backbone of AI.
4. Organizational processes and structures that may inhibit effective AI adoption.
6. Ideas and approaches to help build your organization's AI strategy.
Driving Business Innovation: Latest Generative AI Advancements & Success StorySafe Software
Are you ready to revolutionize how you handle data? Join us for a webinar where we’ll bring you up to speed with the latest advancements in Generative AI technology and discover how leveraging FME with tools from giants like Google Gemini, Amazon, and Microsoft OpenAI can supercharge your workflow efficiency.
During the hour, we’ll take you through:
Guest Speaker Segment with Hannah Barrington: Dive into the world of dynamic real estate marketing with Hannah, the Marketing Manager at Workspace Group. Hear firsthand how their team generates engaging descriptions for thousands of office units by integrating diverse data sources—from PDF floorplans to web pages—using FME transformers, like OpenAIVisionConnector and AnthropicVisionConnector. This use case will show you how GenAI can streamline content creation for marketing across the board.
Ollama Use Case: Learn how Scenario Specialist Dmitri Bagh has utilized Ollama within FME to input data, create custom models, and enhance security protocols. This segment will include demos to illustrate the full capabilities of FME in AI-driven processes.
Custom AI Models: Discover how to leverage FME to build personalized AI models using your data. Whether it’s populating a model with local data for added security or integrating public AI tools, find out how FME facilitates a versatile and secure approach to AI.
We’ll wrap up with a live Q&A session where you can engage with our experts on your specific use cases, and learn more about optimizing your data workflows with AI.
This webinar is ideal for professionals seeking to harness the power of AI within their data management systems while ensuring high levels of customization and security. Whether you're a novice or an expert, gain actionable insights and strategies to elevate your data processes. Join us to see how FME and AI can revolutionize how you work with data!
Threats to mobile devices are more prevalent and increasing in scope and complexity. Users of mobile devices desire to take full advantage of the features
available on those devices, but many of the features provide convenience and capability but sacrifice security. This best practices guide outlines steps the users can take to better protect personal devices and information.
AI-Powered Food Delivery Transforming App Development in Saudi Arabia.pdfTechgropse Pvt.Ltd.
In this blog post, we'll delve into the intersection of AI and app development in Saudi Arabia, focusing on the food delivery sector. We'll explore how AI is revolutionizing the way Saudi consumers order food, how restaurants manage their operations, and how delivery partners navigate the bustling streets of cities like Riyadh, Jeddah, and Dammam. Through real-world case studies, we'll showcase how leading Saudi food delivery apps are leveraging AI to redefine convenience, personalization, and efficiency.
Let's Integrate MuleSoft RPA, COMPOSER, APM with AWS IDP along with Slackshyamraj55
Discover the seamless integration of RPA (Robotic Process Automation), COMPOSER, and APM with AWS IDP enhanced with Slack notifications. Explore how these technologies converge to streamline workflows, optimize performance, and ensure secure access, all while leveraging the power of AWS IDP and real-time communication via Slack notifications.
Cosa hanno in comune un mattoncino Lego e la backdoor XZ?Speck&Tech
ABSTRACT: A prima vista, un mattoncino Lego e la backdoor XZ potrebbero avere in comune il fatto di essere entrambi blocchi di costruzione, o dipendenze di progetti creativi e software. La realtà è che un mattoncino Lego e il caso della backdoor XZ hanno molto di più di tutto ciò in comune.
Partecipate alla presentazione per immergervi in una storia di interoperabilità, standard e formati aperti, per poi discutere del ruolo importante che i contributori hanno in una comunità open source sostenibile.
BIO: Sostenitrice del software libero e dei formati standard e aperti. È stata un membro attivo dei progetti Fedora e openSUSE e ha co-fondato l'Associazione LibreItalia dove è stata coinvolta in diversi eventi, migrazioni e formazione relativi a LibreOffice. In precedenza ha lavorato a migrazioni e corsi di formazione su LibreOffice per diverse amministrazioni pubbliche e privati. Da gennaio 2020 lavora in SUSE come Software Release Engineer per Uyuni e SUSE Manager e quando non segue la sua passione per i computer e per Geeko coltiva la sua curiosità per l'astronomia (da cui deriva il suo nickname deneb_alpha).
Removing Uninteresting Bytes in Software FuzzingAftab Hussain
Imagine a world where software fuzzing, the process of mutating bytes in test seeds to uncover hidden and erroneous program behaviors, becomes faster and more effective. A lot depends on the initial seeds, which can significantly dictate the trajectory of a fuzzing campaign, particularly in terms of how long it takes to uncover interesting behaviour in your code. We introduce DIAR, a technique designed to speedup fuzzing campaigns by pinpointing and eliminating those uninteresting bytes in the seeds. Picture this: instead of wasting valuable resources on meaningless mutations in large, bloated seeds, DIAR removes the unnecessary bytes, streamlining the entire process.
In this work, we equipped AFL, a popular fuzzer, with DIAR and examined two critical Linux libraries -- Libxml's xmllint, a tool for parsing xml documents, and Binutil's readelf, an essential debugging and security analysis command-line tool used to display detailed information about ELF (Executable and Linkable Format). Our preliminary results show that AFL+DIAR does not only discover new paths more quickly but also achieves higher coverage overall. This work thus showcases how starting with lean and optimized seeds can lead to faster, more comprehensive fuzzing campaigns -- and DIAR helps you find such seeds.
- These are slides of the talk given at IEEE International Conference on Software Testing Verification and Validation Workshop, ICSTW 2022.
UiPath Test Automation using UiPath Test Suite series, part 6DianaGray10
Welcome to UiPath Test Automation using UiPath Test Suite series part 6. In this session, we will cover Test Automation with generative AI and Open AI.
UiPath Test Automation with generative AI and Open AI webinar offers an in-depth exploration of leveraging cutting-edge technologies for test automation within the UiPath platform. Attendees will delve into the integration of generative AI, a test automation solution, with Open AI advanced natural language processing capabilities.
Throughout the session, participants will discover how this synergy empowers testers to automate repetitive tasks, enhance testing accuracy, and expedite the software testing life cycle. Topics covered include the seamless integration process, practical use cases, and the benefits of harnessing AI-driven automation for UiPath testing initiatives. By attending this webinar, testers, and automation professionals can gain valuable insights into harnessing the power of AI to optimize their test automation workflows within the UiPath ecosystem, ultimately driving efficiency and quality in software development processes.
What will you get from this session?
1. Insights into integrating generative AI.
2. Understanding how this integration enhances test automation within the UiPath platform
3. Practical demonstrations
4. Exploration of real-world use cases illustrating the benefits of AI-driven test automation for UiPath
Topics covered:
What is generative AI
Test Automation with generative AI and Open AI.
UiPath integration with generative AI
Speaker:
Deepak Rai, Automation Practice Lead, Boundaryless Group and UiPath MVP
Full-RAG: A modern architecture for hyper-personalizationZilliz
Mike Del Balso, CEO & Co-Founder at Tecton, presents "Full RAG," a novel approach to AI recommendation systems, aiming to push beyond the limitations of traditional models through a deep integration of contextual insights and real-time data, leveraging the Retrieval-Augmented Generation architecture. This talk will outline Full RAG's potential to significantly enhance personalization, address engineering challenges such as data management and model training, and introduce data enrichment with reranking as a key solution. Attendees will gain crucial insights into the importance of hyperpersonalization in AI, the capabilities of Full RAG for advanced personalization, and strategies for managing complex data integrations for deploying cutting-edge AI solutions.
Best 20 SEO Techniques To Improve Website Visibility In SERPPixlogix Infotech
Boost your website's visibility with proven SEO techniques! Our latest blog dives into essential strategies to enhance your online presence, increase traffic, and rank higher on search engines. From keyword optimization to quality content creation, learn how to make your site stand out in the crowded digital landscape. Discover actionable tips and expert insights to elevate your SEO game.
Programming Foundation Models with DSPy - Meetup SlidesZilliz
Prompting language models is hard, while programming language models is easy. In this talk, I will discuss the state-of-the-art framework DSPy for programming foundation models with its powerful optimizers and runtime constraint system.
Ivanti’s Patch Tuesday breakdown goes beyond patching your applications and brings you the intelligence and guidance needed to prioritize where to focus your attention first. Catch early analysis on our Ivanti blog, then join industry expert Chris Goettl for the Patch Tuesday Webinar Event. There we’ll do a deep dive into each of the bulletins and give guidance on the risks associated with the newly-identified vulnerabilities.
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ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC 2013
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
(Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút)
Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:...............................................................................
I. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different
1. A. necessary B. benefit C. vulnerable D.
parade
2. A. relationship B. equipment C. customer D.
deliver
3. A. concentrate B. eventual C. character D.
optimism
4. A. intimate B. literature C. participate D.
powerful
5. A. material B. harmony C. evidence D.
readable
II. Choose the best answer to complete the sentence.
6. Only in Japan …the high levels of western countries.
A. industrialization has reached B. industrialization is reached
C. has industrialization reached D. is industrialization reached
7. Nowadays children would prefer history ______ in more practical ways.
A. be taught B. to teach C. to be taught D. teach
8. Hurry up! They‟ve only got………….seats left.
A. a little B. a few C. a lot of D. plenty of
9. ……of the students know the answer to that question.
A. Most B. Almost C. Mostly D. The most
10. We decided not to travel, ………….. the terrible weather forecast.
A. having heard B. we heard
C. having been heard D. being heard
11..............for their strong fiber include flax and hemp.
A Plants are grown B. Plants grown C. Plants that grow D. To grow
plants
12..I think you must be ………….me for someone else.
A. confusing B. reminding C. mistaking D
.considering
13.. „John won‟t come tomorrow.‟ „Did he say he ……….….next week?‟
A. will come B. would come C. is coming
D. had come
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14. Pests occur in large numbers, and they can ….terrible damage, particularly to
growing crops, that in some parts of the world people frequently suffer from famine.
A. do such B. do so C. make such D.
make so
15. The new magazine about maintenance ……………..tomorrow.
A. comes down B. comes off C. comes on D.
comes out
16. A:”Do you think it will rain?‟ B: „…………………...‟
A. I hope not B.I not hope so C. I don‟t hope so
D. So do I hope
17. Peter is very………… for all the help you have given him.
A. generous B. pleasant C. acceptable D. thankful
18. He couldn‟t…………. her to speak a word to him all the way back to her
boarding house.
A. have B. make C. let D. get
19. No sooner ………….. the corner than its wheel came off.
A. the van turned B. did the van turned
C. the van had turned D. had the van turned
20. He……….. all his money, then closed the account.
A. took out B. took away C. took off D. took in
21. The government are doing a …………. of people‟s changing habits.
A. plan B. project C. survey D. research
22. A cool drink……….. him after his long hot journey.
A. relaxed B. relieved C. refreshed D. recovere
23. Although he is rich and famous, he lives in a ……….. house in the village .
A. limited B. modest C. slight D. reserved
24. I took the shoes back to the shop, but the manager……….. to change them.
A. denied B. disliked C. disagrees D. refused
25. Well, we did have a terrible row but we‟ve………….. it up now.
A. turned B. made C. sorted D. cleaned
26. I do not believe that this preposterous scheme………… of our serious
consideration.
A. worthy B. worth C. worthwhile D. worthles
27. It was only …….. he told me his surname that I realized that we had been to the
same school.
A. when B. until C. as soon as D. then
28. The…….. of his first novel appeared in The Times yesterday.
A. review B. inspection C. revision D. survey
29. He did not share his secrets with many people but he……… in her.
A. confessed B. concealed C. confided D. consente
30. He just couldn't open the jar……………hard he tried.
A. however B. whatever C. moreover D. even
31. If the students……….. on time, they'd have enjoyed the pictures.
A. had come B. came C. have come D. come
32. Would you be……….to hold the door open?
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A. too kind B. as kind C. kind enough D so
kind
33. Mike: 'That's the 16th job interview I've failed. What should I do?'
Jane: '.........'
A. Don't give over. B. Don't give out. C. Don't give up. D. Don't give on.
34. "I've got two tickets for the exhibition." "………………"
A. Oh, let's go and get the tickets. B. That's great. When is it?
C. Oh, anything else? D. Thanks. I can't afford the
tickets.
35. Nga: “Thanks a lot for your nice present!” Mai: “………………”
A. Yes, it‟s very nice. B. Yes, it‟s very expensive.
C. You‟re welcomed. D. I‟m glad you like it.
III. Choose the part that needs correcting
36. In purchasing a winter coat, it is very important for trying it on with heavy
clothing underneath.( to try)
A B C D
37. What happened in that city were a reaction from city workers, including firemen
and policemen who had
A B C
been laid off from their jobs. ( was)
D
38. A number of novelists submitted their manuscripts under pseudonyms to
conceal the fact that there were
A B C
D
women. ( they were)
39. Although a doctor may be able to diagnose a problem perfectly, he still may not
be able to find a drug
A B C
which the patient will respond. ( to which)
D
40. Because the Red Cross accepts blood from most donors, the nurses will not let
you give blood if you have
A B
C
just had a cold. ( Although)
D
IV. Choose the sentence that is the nearest in meaning to the given one
41. Unlike the other students, Thomas does not have any ambition.
A. Thomas's peers, as well as him, all have some ambition.
B. Thomas does not like his friends because they are ambitious.
C. His students do not like Thomas because he has no ambition.
D. All the students, excluding Thomas, have some ambition.
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42. It‟s no use reading that book.
A. You should read that book. B. That book has not been
used.
C. That book is not worth reading. D. I have used the book
for a long time.
43. I ran into Peter, a friend of mine, on my may to work this morning.
A. I met Peter unexpectedly on my way to work this morning.
B. Peter and I ran to work this morning
C. Peter had to work this morning, but I did not
D. Peter ran into his friend this morning.
44. I would have been on time if I hadn‟t stopped at the post office.
A. I was on time even though I stopped at the post office.
B. I wasn‟t on time because I stopped at the post office.
C. I didn‟t stop at the post office, but I was late.
D. All of the above are correct.
45. But for his father‟s early retirement, Richard would not have taken over the
family business.
A. Richard didn‟t take over the family business because his father didn‟t retire.
B. Richard only took over the family business because his father decided to
retire early.
C. His father retire early, but he still ran the family business.
D. Richard‟s father didn‟t want him to take over the family business despite his
retirement.
46. Dick got to the bus station at midnight, missing his bus by two hours.
A. The bus left at ten o‟clock at night, so Dick missed it.
B. The bus left at two o‟clock in the afternoon.
C. The bus left at ten o‟clock in the morning. D. The bus left at
midnight.
47. The onset of the disease is shown by a feeling of faintness.
A. A feeling of faintness signals the final stage of the disease. B. One feels faint
if the disease is over .
C. The first sign of the disease is a feeling of faintness. D. Faintness causes the
disease.
48. Were it not for the money, this job wouldn‟t be worthwhile.
A. This job is not rewarding at all. B. The only thing that makes this job
worthwhile is the money.
C. Although the salary is poor, the job is worthwhile. D. This job offers a poor
salary.
49. 'Why not participate in the English Speaking Contest?'
A. He asked me to take part in the English Speaking Contest.
B. He suggested taking part in the English Speaking Contest.
C. He offered us to take part in the English Speaking Contest.
D. He told me not to participate in the English Speaking Contest.
50.'Don't be so disappointed Jane. You can take the driving test again,' said Helen.
A. Helen told Jane not to be disappointed and take the driving test again.
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B. Helen asked Jane not to be disappointed and offered her another driving test.
C. Helen warned Jane not to be disappointed' in order to take the driving test again.
D. Helen encouraged Jane to take the driving test again.
V. Read the passages and decide which answer A,B,C or D best fit each space.
Do you ever wish you were more optimistic, someone who always (51)
............. to be successful? Having someone around who always fears the worst isn't
really a lot of (52) …...... - we all know someone who sees a single cloud on a
sunny day and says, 'It looks like rain.' But if you catch yourself thinking such
things, it's important to do something about it.
You can change your view of life, according to psychologist. It only takes a
little…(53)….., and you'll find life more rewarding as a..(54)................ . .Optimism,
they say, is partly about self-respect and confidence but it's also a more positive
way of looking at life and all it has to (55) ………….. . Optimists are more (56)
............. to start new projects and are generally more prepared to take risks.
Upbringing is obviously very important in forming your (57) ………..... to the
world. Some people are brought up to depend too much on others and grow up
forever blaming other people when anything (58)……..... wrong. Most optimists, on
the (59) ……….. hand, have been brought up not to (60.) …….... failure as the end
of the world - they just get on with their lives.
51 A. counted B. expected C. felt
D. waited
52.A. amusement B. play C. enjoyment
D. fun
53. A. energy B. effort C. work
D. effect
54. A. result B. reason C. purpose D.
product
55. A. supply B. suggest C. offer
D. propose
56. A. possible B. likely C. hopeful
D. welcome
57. A. opinion B. attitude C. view
D. position
58. A. goes B. falls C. comes
D. turns
59. A. opposite B. others C. other
D. far
60. A. regard B. respect C. suppose D. think
VI.Read the passage and answer the question that follow
Accustomed though we are to speaking of the films made before 1927 as
"silent," the film has never been, in the full sense of the word, silent. From the very
beginning, music was regarded as an indispensable accompaniment ; when the
Lumiere films were shown at the first public film exhibition in the Unites States in
February 1896, they were accompanied by piano improvisations on popular tunes.
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At first, the music played bore no special relationship to the films ; an
accompaniment of any kind was sufficient.
Within a very short time, however, the incongruity of playing lively music to a
solemn film became apparent, and film pianists began to take some care in
matching their pieces to the mood of the film.
As movie theaters grew in number and importance, a violinist, and perhaps a
cellist, would be added to the pianist in certain cases, and in the larger movie
theaters small orchestras were formed. For a number of years the selection of music
for each film program rested entirely in the hands of the conductor or leader of the
orchestra, and very often the principal qualification for holding such a position was
not skill or taste
so much as the ownership of a large personal library of musical pieces. Since the
conductor seldom saw the films until the night before they were to be shown (if,
indeed, the conductor was lucky enough to see them then), the musical arrangement
was normally improvised in the greatest hurry.
To help meet this difficulty, film distributing companies started the practice
of publishing suggestions for musical accompaniments. In 1909, for example, the
Edison Company began issuing with their films such indications of mood as
"pleasant," "sad," "lively." The suggestions became more explicit, and so emerged
the musical cue sheet containing indications of mood, the titles of suitable pieces of
music, and precise directions to show where one piece led into the next.
Certain films had music especially composed for them. The most famous of these
early special scores was that composed and arranged for D.W. Griffith's film Birth
of a Nation, which was released in 1915.
61. The passage mainly discusses music that was .............. .
A. performed before the showing of a film B. played during
silent films
C. specifically composed for certain movie theaters D. recorded during
film exhibitions
62. What can be inferred from the passage about the majority of films made after
1927 ?
A. They were truly "silent." B. They were
accompanied by symphonic orchestras.
C. They incorporated the sound of the actors' voices. D. They corresponded to
specific musical compositions.
63. The word "solemn" is closest in meaning to .............. .
A. simple B. serious C. short
D. silent
64. It can be inferred that orchestra conductors who worked in movie theaters
needed to .............. .
A. be able to play many instruments B. have pleasant
voices
C. be familiar with a wide variety of music D. be able to
compose original music
65. The word "them" refers to .............. .
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A. years B. hands C. pieces D. films
66. According to the passage, what kind of business was the Edison Company?
A. It produced electricity. B. It distributed
films.
C. It published musical arrangements. D. It made musical
instruments.
67. It may be inferred from the passage that the first musical cue sheets appeared
around .............. .
A. 1896 B. 1909 C. 1915 D. 1927
68. Which of the following notations is most likely to have been included on a
musical cue sheet of the early 1900's?
A. "Calm, peaceful" B. "Piano, violin"
C. "Key of C major" D. "Directed by D.W. Griffith"
69. The word "scores" is closest in meaning to .............. .
A. totals B. successes C. musical compositions D.
groups of musicians
70. The passage probably continues with a discussion of .............. .
A. famous composers of the early twentieth century B. other films directed by
D.W. Griffith
C. silent films by other directors D. the music in Birth of a
Nation
VII. Read the passage and answer the question that follow
Marianne Moore (1887-1972) once said that her writing could be called poetry only
because there was no other name for it. Indeed her poems appear to be extremely
compressed essays that happen to be printed in jagged lines on the page. Her
subject were varied: animals, laborers, artists, and the craft of poetry. From her
general reading came quotations that she found striking or insightful. She included
these in her poems, scrupulously enclosed in quotation marks, and
sometimes identified in footnotes. Of this practice, she wrote, " 'Why many
quotation marks?' I am asked ... When a thing has been so well that it could not be
said better, why paraphrase it? Hence, my writing is, if not a cabinet of fossils, a
kind of collection of flies in amber." Close observation and concentration on detail
and the methods of her poetry.
Marianne Moore grew up in Kirkwood, Missouri, near St. Lois. After graduation
from Bryn Mawr College in 1909, she taught commercial subjects at the Indian
School in Carlisle, Pennsylvania. Later she became a librarian in New York
City. During the 1920‟s she was editor of The Dial, an important literary magazine
of the period. She lived quietly all her life, mostly in Brooklyn, New York. She
spent a lot of time at the Bronx Zoo, fascinated by animals. Her admiration of the
Brooklyn Dodgers-before the teammoved to Los Angeles-was widely known.
Her first book of poems was published in London in 1921 by a group of friends
associated with the Imagist movement. From that time on her poetry has been read
with interest by succeeding generations of poets and readers. In 1952 she was
awarded the Pulitzer Prize for her Collected Poems. She wrote that she did not write
poetry "for money or fame. To earn a living is needful, but it can be done in routine
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ways. One writes because one has a burning desire to objectify what it is
indispensable to one's happiness to express
71. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The influence of the imagists on Marianne Moore. B. Essayists and
poets of the 1920's.
C. The use of quotations in poetry. D. Marianne Moore's life
and work.
72.Which of the following can be inferred about Moore's poems?
A. They are better known in Europe than the United States. B. They do not use
traditional verse forms.
C. They were all published in The Dial. D. They tend to be
abstract.
73. According to the passage Moore wrote about all of the following EXCEPT
A. artists B. animals C. fossils
D. workers
74.What does Moore refer to as "flies in amber" (line 9)?
A. A common image in her poetry. B. Poetry
in the twentieth-century.
C. Concentration on detail. D. Quotations
within her poetry.
75. The author mentions all of the following as jobs held by Moore EXCEPT
A. commercial artist B. teacher C. magazine editor
D. librarian
76. The word "period" is closest in meaning to
A. movement B. school C. region D.
time
77. Where did Moore spend most of her adult life?
A. In Kirkwood. B. In Brooklyn. C. In
Los Angeles. D. In Carlisle.
78. The word "succeeding" in line 19 is closest to
A. inheriting B. prospering C. diverse
D. later
79. The word "it" in line 22 refers to
A. writing poetry B. becoming famous C. earning a living D.
attracting readers
80. It can be inferred from the passage that Moore wrote because she
A. wanted to win awards B. was dissatisfied with what others wrote
C. felt a need to express herself D. wanted to raise money for the
Bronx Zoo
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KEY
1D 2C 3B 4C 5A 6C 7C 8B 9A 10A
11B 12C 13B 14A 15D 16A 17D 18D 19D 20A
21C 22C 23B 24D 25B 26A 27A 28A 29C 30A
31A 32C 33C 34B 35D 36D 37B 38D 39D 40A
41D 42C 43A 44B 45B 46A 47C 48B 49B 50D
51B 52D 53B 54A 55C 56B 57B 58A 59C 60A
61B 62D 63B 64C 65D 66B 67B 68A 69C 70D
71D 72B 73C 74C 75A 76D 77B 78D 79C 80C
SỞ GD & ĐT NGHỆ AN
TRƯỜNG THPT ĐÔ
LƯƠNG 1
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(4 trang)
ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC, CAO ĐẲNG NĂM 2012-
LẦN I
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian: 90 phút (Không kể thời gian giao nhận
đề)
Họ và tên thí sinh:
..........................................................
Phòng thi:
...................
Số báo
danh:
................
Mã đề:
252
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is closest
in meaning to the underlined
part in each of the following sentences.
1. I will communicate with you as soon as I have any news.
A. be related B. be interested in C. get in touch D. have
connection
2. He is an honest man. You can rely on him to do a good job.
A. take in B. count on C. base on D. put up
with
3. We‟ll have to use the restrooms on the next floor because the ones on this floor
are not in working condition.
A. out of work B. run out of C. out of order D. torn down
4. “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You‟re hardly loud enough to be heard from
the back”, the teacher said.
A. visible B. edible C. eligible D. audible
5. I couldn‟t see what she was doing. It was so dark down there.
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A. make out B. make up C. make for D. make
from
II. Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions.
In the world today, particular in the two most industrialized areas, North
America and Europe, recycling is the big news. People are talking about it,
practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to the environment.
Recycling means finding ways to use products a second time. The motto of the
recycling movement is “Reduce, Reuse, Recycle”.
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in
blister packs, boxes and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food
restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually paper, a box and a bag. All that
packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are wrapped
simply, and to reuse cups and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-
quality products. When low-quality appliances break, many customers throw them
away and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example, if
a customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the
manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer
chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to
the manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the throw-away must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable
bottles. After customers empty the bottles, they return them to the stores. The
manufacturers of the drinks collect bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The
energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world,
returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage
dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throw-away bottles.
The third step being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can
be cleaned and used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same
amount of energy to make one aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for
three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help
save one of the world‟s
precious resources.
6. It is a waste when customers buy low-quality products because _______.
A. they will soon throw them away B. they have to be repaired many
times
C. customers always change their idea D. they are very cheap .
7. The word “motto” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. meaning B. belief C. value D. reference
8. People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT _______.
A. buy high-quality products B. buy simply-wrapped things
C. buy more hamburgers D. reuse
cups
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9. What is the topic of the passage?
A. How to reduce garbage disposal. B. How to live sensitively to the
environment.
C. What is involved in the recycling movement. D. What
people understand the term “recycle”.
10. Which area is considered one of the most industrialized?
A. South America. B. Europe. C. Middle East. D. Asia.
11. The word “practice” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. training B. exercise C. belief D. deed
12. What does the word “sensitive” means?
A. friendly. B. cautious. C. logical. D.
responding.
13. What best describe the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
B. The bottles are washed, returned filled again and collected.
C. The bottles are collected, returned, filled again and washed.
D. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
14. What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling?
A. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil. B. Hamburger wrappings and spent
motor oil.
C. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings. D. TV sets and aluminum cans.
15. Garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because
_______.
A. people are ordered to return bottles B. returned bottles are few
C. few bottles are made of glass or plastic D. each returned bottle is paid
III. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following sentences.
16. Having been served lunch, _______ .
A. it was discussed by the committee members the problem
B. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee
C. the committee members discussed the problem
D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee
17. New sources of energy are constantly being looked for _______.
A. although fossil fuels continue to dwindle B. fossil fuels continuing to
dwindle
C. so that we continue to reduce fossil fuels D. as fossil fuels continue to
dwindle
18. _______, he would have come to class on time.
A. If Mike could get up early B. If Mike was able to get up early
C. Had Mike got up earlier D. Unless
Mike had got up early
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19. _______ is the price of this car .
A. What interested in us B. What we
are interested in
C. That interested us D. That we are interested in
20. Such _______ that we all felt numb.
A. a cold weather was B. was a cold weather C. cold the weather D. was cold
weather
IV. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following sentences.
21. As I was _______ of the change in the program, I arrived half an hour late for
the rehearsal.
A. unconscious B. unable C. unaware D.
unreasonable
22._______ I didn‟t know how to do the job. But now I am making progress.
A. At first B. First C. First of all D. At the
first
23.My uncle is in _______ of 60 engineers and workers.
A. management B. charge C. leadership D. direction
24. I‟d rather you _______ for me here.
A. wait B. waited C. to wait D. waiting
25. He _______ the plants. If he had, they wouldn't have died.
A. couldn't water B. needn't have watered C. can't have
watered D. shouldn't water
26.-Peter: "Would you like a beer?" - David: "Not while I‟m _______ ."
A. in the act B. on duty C. in order D. under
control
27.They decided to _______ their differences and became friends.
A. take on B. give away C. go over D. put aside
28.-Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?” -Susan: "_______
.”
A. You‟re welcome B. I feel very bored C. That would be great D. I
don't agree, I'm afraid
29. Tom. "Thank you for your help." - Mary. "_______ ."
A. With all my heart B. Never mind me C. Wish you D. It‟s my
pleasure
30.On _______ he had won, he jumped up for joy.
A. he was told B. being told C. having told D. telling
31. Unemployment _______ by 5 percent since the beginning of the year.
A. has risen B. rose C. has raised D. was
raised
32.No one died in the accident, _______ ?
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A. did he B. did they C. didn‟t he D. didn‟t
they
33. There's a good film _______ town.
A. on in B. at C. over D. in on
34.You have a good feeling about yourself and _______ when you volunteer.
A. the others B. others C. other D. the other
35. There was no _______ in waiting longer than an hour so we left.
A. use B. worth C. good D. point
36.There was nothing they could do _______ leave the car at the roadside where it
had broken down.
A. than B. unless C. but D. instead of
37. -A: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” - B: “_______.”
A. Yes, I am so glad B. No, thanks. C. Sorry, the
seat is taken D. Yes, yes. You can sit here.
38. Jump in the car. There‟s enough _______ for you.
A. place B. space C. room D. chair
39. Jane: “ _______ " – David: "Thanks. I‟ll write to you when I arrive there."
A. Have a good trip B. Good luck C. Have a go D. Good bye
40. She accepted the job _______ the salary, which was rather low.
A. although B. despite C. because of D. inspite
41. The information is strictly _______ and should not be discussed in public.
A. exact B. believable C. valuable D. secret
42. The concert was _______ because of the heavy rain.
A. put out B. run out C. set off D. called off
43. His father is a bank manager, _______ makes him easy to have a good job.
A. whom B. which C. who D. that
44. His father left New York. The doctor suggested he _______ there.
A. not stay B. not stayed C. didn‟t stay D. not go to
stay
45. Where can I get a good rate of _______ for my money?
A. deposit B. capital C. credit D. interest
V.MarktheletterA,B,C,orDtoindicatethesentencethatisclosestin meaningtoeach
ofthefollowingsentences.
46. I only recognized him when he came into the light.
A. Only when I recognized him, he came into the light.
B. Not until he came into the light I did recognize him
C. It wasn‟t until he came into the light that I recognized him
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D. I did not recognize him even when he came into the light.
47. You are all welcome to take any food you like .
A. Please help yourselves to any food you like. B. Any food
welcome to take if you like.
C. It‟s my pleasure to take any food you like. D. You don‟t
have to pay for any food that you like.
48. Jane refused to attend his birthday party, which made him feel sad.
A. He felt sad not be able to attend her birthday party.
B. Jane‟s refusal to attend his birthday party made him feel sad.
C. Jane made him sad despite her refusal to attend his birthday party.
D. Jane refused to attend his birthday party because it made him sad.
49. The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were re-checked.
A. When the figures were re-checked, they came to light the mistake in the
accounts.
B. The mistake in the accounts only came to light when the figures were re-
checked.
C. Once re-checking the figures, the mistake in the accounts was noticed.
D. It was not until the mistake in the accounts was noticed that the figures were
checked.
50. In spite of heavy rain, my brother went to work.
A. In spite it rained heavily, my brother went to work. B. Though
rain was heavily, my brother went to work.
C. Although it rained heavily, my brother went to work. D. Despite it
rained heavily, my brother went to work.
VI.MarktheletterA,B, C,orDtoshow theunderlinedpartthatneedscorrectionineach
ofthefollowingsentences.
51. They are known that colds can be avoided by eating the right kind of food and
taking exercise regularly.
A B C
D
52. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with
those of another.
A B C
D
53. There are many researches show that various species of animals have been
extinct.
A B C D
54. I strongly object the idea of students in the final year working part-time jobs.
A B C D
55. Most doctors agree that it is not good for patients to lay in bed without
exercising.
A B C D
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VII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Recent technological advances in manned and unmanned vehicles, along with
breakthroughs in satellite technology and computer equipment, have overcome
some of the limitations of divers and diving equipment for scientists doing research
on the great oceans of the world. Without a vehicle, divers often became sluggish,
and their mental concentration was severely limited. Because undersea pressure
affects their speech organs, communication among divers has always been difficult
or impossible. But today, most oceanographers avoid the use of vulnerable human
divers, preferring to reduce the risk to human life and make direct obervations by
means of instruments that are lowered into the ocean, from samples take from the
water, or from photographs made by orbiting satellites. Direct observations of the
ocean floor can be made not only by divers but also by deep-diving submarines in
the water and even by the technology of sophisticated aerial photgraphy from
vantage points above the surface of more than seven miles and cruise at depths of
fifteen thousand feet. In addition, radio-equipped buoys can be operated by remote
control in order to transmit data back to land-based laboratories via satellite.
Particularly important for ocean study are data about water temperature, currents,
and weather. Satellite photographs can show the distribution of sea ice, oil slicks,
and cloud formations over the ocean. Maps created from satellite pictures can
represent the temperature and the color of the ocean‟s surface, enabling researchers
to study the ocean currents from laboratories on dry land. Furthermore, computers
help oceanographers to collect, organize, and analyze data from submarines and
satellites. By creating a model of the ocean‟s movement and characteristics,
scientists can predict the patterns and possible effects of the ocean on the
enviroment.
Recently, many oceanographers have been relying more on satellites and computers
than on research ships or even submarine vehicles because they can supply a greater
range of information more quickly and more effectively. Some of humankind‟s most
serious problems, especially those concerning energy and food, may be solved with the
help of observations
made possible by this new technology.
56. Which of the following are NOT shown in satellite photographs?
A. A model of the ocean‟s movements. B. Cloud formations over the
ocean.
C. The temperature of the ocean‟s surface. D. The location of sea ice.
57. The words “those” refers to _______.
A. vehicles B. ships C. problems D. computers
58. With what topic is the passage primarily converned?
A. Technological advances in oceanography.B. Direct observation of the ocean
floor.
C. Undersea vehicles. D. Communication among drivers.
59. The word “sluggish” is closest in meaning to _______.
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A. slow moving B. very weak C. nervous D. confused
60. The word “cruise” could best be replaced by _______.
A. function without problems B. travel at a constant speed
C. stay in communication D. remain
still
61. Undersea vehicles _______.
A. have the same limitations that divers haveB. are too small for a man to fit
inside
C. are very slow to respond D. make direct observations of the
ocean floor
62. This passage suggests that the successful exploration of the ocean depends
upon _______.
A. controlling currents and the weather B. vehicles as well as divers
C. radios that divers use to communicate D. the limitations of diving
equipment
63. Divers have had problems in communicating underwater because _______.
A. they did not pronounce clearly B. the water destroyed their speech
organs
C. the vehicles they used have not been perfected D. the
pressure affected their speech organs
64. The word “data” is closest in meaing to _______.
A. samples B. photographs C. articles D.
information
65. How is a radio-quipped buoy operated?
A. by operators outside the vehicle on a diving platform. B. By
operators outside the vehicle on ship.
C. by operators outside the vehicle in a laboratory on shore. D. by
operators inside the vehicle in the part underwater.
VIII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the
rest in the position of the main
stress in each of the following words.
66. A. discriminate B. enthusiast C. admiration D. minority
67. A. essential B. industry C. embarrass D. develop
68. A. particular B. primitive C. continuous D. connected
69.A. explain B. involve C. control D. purpose
70. A. automatic B. familiar C. responsible D.
environment
IX. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct
word for each of the blanks.
Nearly 200 of the 1500 native plant species in Hawaii are at risk of going extinct
in the near future because they have been (71) _______ to such low numbers.
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Approximately 90 percent of Hawaii's plants are found nowhere else in the world but
they are (72) _______ by alien invasive species such as feral goats, pigs, rodents and
(73) _______ plants.
The Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Group is striving to (74) _______ the
extinction of the 182 rare Hawaiian plants with fewer than 50 individuals remaining
in the (75) _______ . Since 1990, (76) _______ a result of their "Plant Extinction
Prevention Program", sixteen species have been brought into (77) _______ and three
species have been reintroduced. Invasive weeds have been removed in key areas and
fencing put up in order to (78) _______ plants in the wild.
In the future the Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Program aims (79) _______
collecting genetic material from the remaining plants in the wild for storage as a
safety net for the future. They also aim to manage wild populations and where
possible reintroduce species into (80) _______ .
71. A. reduced B. increased C. disappeared D. developed
72. A. guarded B. invested C. threatened D .
conserved
73. A. national B. native C. non-native D.
international
74. A. encourage B. stimulate C. influence D. prevent
75. A. atmosphere B. hole C. sky D. wild
76. A. so B. as C. due D. but
77. A. contamination B. cultivation C. production D.
generation
78. A. derive B. vary C. protect D. remain
79. A. for B. with C. on D. at
80. A. reserves B. shelters C. gardens D. halls
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1C 2B 3C 4D 5A 6A 7B 8C 9B 10B
11D 12A 13D 1A 15D 16C 17D 18C 19B 20D
21C 22A 23B 24B 25C 26B 27D 28C 29D 30B
31A 32B 33A 34B 35D 36C 37C 38C 39A 40B
41D 42D 43B 44A 45D 6C 7A 48B 49B 50C
51A 52C 53B 54A 55C 56A 57B 58A 59A 60B
61D 62B 63D 64D 65C 66C 67B 68B 69D 70A
71A 72C 73C 74D 75D 76B 77B 78C 79D 80A