The document contains information about the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test (PGCET) that will be administered on August 8, 2015 from 10:30 AM to 12:30 PM. It will contain 75 questions testing knowledge of Polymer Science and Technology. Students are provided instructions on filling out the answer sheet correctly and handling the question booklet. They are notified that non-programmable calculators are allowed and the test is divided into two parts - the first 50 questions carrying 1 mark each and the next 25 questions carrying 2 marks each.
The document provides instructions for a post graduate common entrance test being administered on August 8th, 2015 for various engineering and architecture programs. It includes details like test duration, number of questions, marking instructions, and prohibited behaviors during the exam. The test covers topics related to textile technology and has two parts - the first with 50 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each and the second with 25 questions worth 2 marks each.
This document contains the results from a test taken by VISHNU KUMAR for the position of Junior Engineer Civil at Lucknow Metro Rail Corporation on 28/06/2015 from 4:00 PM to 5:30 PM. It lists 55 multiple choice questions from sections on technical topics related to civil engineering, along with the options presented and the choices selected by VISHNU KUMAR for each question.
The document provides instructions for taking an online examination for Textile Engineering and Fibre Science. It states that the exam will be 3 hours long and contain 65 multiple choice questions and 5 numerical answer questions worth a total of 100 marks. It provides details on question types and marks, logging in, selecting and changing answers, the automatic end of exam, prohibited materials, and the need to sign a declaration.
This document provides information about lab dip development and dyeing processes. It begins with an overview of lab dip development, which involves matching dye samples to buyer's swatches. Key objectives of lab dip include calculating dye recipes, comparing samples to swatches, and approving the final lab dip. Common stock solutions and an example calculation for a 0.5% shade are also provided. The document then outlines the general procedure for lab dip dyeing and provides a flow chart depicting the process for sample dyeing from scouring through to softening. Additional details include a recipe and calculations for dyeing cotton with reactive dyes and information about the turquoise color including its types and the specific process flow for dyeing cotton knit fabric that
Important questions for class 10 maths chapter 13 surface areas and volumes w...ExpertClass
1. The document contains solutions to 26 math questions about surface areas and volumes of shapes like spheres, cylinders, cones, cubes, and combinations of solids.
2. The questions cover calculating surface areas and volumes, as well as word problems involving combining or transferring volumes between shapes.
3. Many questions provide real-world contexts like tents, wells, or water storage to demonstrate applications of surface area and volume calculations.
The document appears to be instructions for a post graduate entrance exam for various engineering programs. It provides exam details such as date, time, subjects covered, number of questions and marks. It lists instructions for candidates regarding filling the answer sheet correctly and provides guidance on answering questions within the allotted time. The questions will be from various subjects with multiple choice answers.
This document provides information about the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test (PGCET) to be held on July 1, 2017 for various polymer-related engineering programs. The test will be for 150 minutes, with the first 120 minutes for answering multiple choice questions. The test contains 75 questions worth a total of 100 marks. Candidates are instructed to follow directions for filling out the answer sheet correctly and provided with important instructions about the format and timing of the test.
1. The document provides information about the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test conducted on 08-08-2015 for courses offered by VTU, UVCE and UBDTCE.
2. It lists the instructions for candidates regarding filling the answer sheet correctly, signing the sheet, and preserving the candidate's copy for self-evaluation.
3. The test details include the subjects, duration, number and type of questions, and distribution of marks for different sections. Instructions for candidates during the exam are also provided.
The document provides instructions for a post graduate common entrance test being administered on August 8th, 2015 for various engineering and architecture programs. It includes details like test duration, number of questions, marking instructions, and prohibited behaviors during the exam. The test covers topics related to textile technology and has two parts - the first with 50 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each and the second with 25 questions worth 2 marks each.
This document contains the results from a test taken by VISHNU KUMAR for the position of Junior Engineer Civil at Lucknow Metro Rail Corporation on 28/06/2015 from 4:00 PM to 5:30 PM. It lists 55 multiple choice questions from sections on technical topics related to civil engineering, along with the options presented and the choices selected by VISHNU KUMAR for each question.
The document provides instructions for taking an online examination for Textile Engineering and Fibre Science. It states that the exam will be 3 hours long and contain 65 multiple choice questions and 5 numerical answer questions worth a total of 100 marks. It provides details on question types and marks, logging in, selecting and changing answers, the automatic end of exam, prohibited materials, and the need to sign a declaration.
This document provides information about lab dip development and dyeing processes. It begins with an overview of lab dip development, which involves matching dye samples to buyer's swatches. Key objectives of lab dip include calculating dye recipes, comparing samples to swatches, and approving the final lab dip. Common stock solutions and an example calculation for a 0.5% shade are also provided. The document then outlines the general procedure for lab dip dyeing and provides a flow chart depicting the process for sample dyeing from scouring through to softening. Additional details include a recipe and calculations for dyeing cotton with reactive dyes and information about the turquoise color including its types and the specific process flow for dyeing cotton knit fabric that
Important questions for class 10 maths chapter 13 surface areas and volumes w...ExpertClass
1. The document contains solutions to 26 math questions about surface areas and volumes of shapes like spheres, cylinders, cones, cubes, and combinations of solids.
2. The questions cover calculating surface areas and volumes, as well as word problems involving combining or transferring volumes between shapes.
3. Many questions provide real-world contexts like tents, wells, or water storage to demonstrate applications of surface area and volume calculations.
The document appears to be instructions for a post graduate entrance exam for various engineering programs. It provides exam details such as date, time, subjects covered, number of questions and marks. It lists instructions for candidates regarding filling the answer sheet correctly and provides guidance on answering questions within the allotted time. The questions will be from various subjects with multiple choice answers.
This document provides information about the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test (PGCET) to be held on July 1, 2017 for various polymer-related engineering programs. The test will be for 150 minutes, with the first 120 minutes for answering multiple choice questions. The test contains 75 questions worth a total of 100 marks. Candidates are instructed to follow directions for filling out the answer sheet correctly and provided with important instructions about the format and timing of the test.
1. The document provides information about the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test conducted on 08-08-2015 for courses offered by VTU, UVCE and UBDTCE.
2. It lists the instructions for candidates regarding filling the answer sheet correctly, signing the sheet, and preserving the candidate's copy for self-evaluation.
3. The test details include the subjects, duration, number and type of questions, and distribution of marks for different sections. Instructions for candidates during the exam are also provided.
The document contains information about a post graduate entrance exam for various engineering courses offered by VTU, UVCE, and UBDTCE in Karnataka, India. It provides details of the exam such as date and time, duration, number of questions, marks distribution, and instructions for candidates. The exam contains 75 multiple choice questions from Civil Engineering, with 50 questions carrying 1 mark each and 25 questions carrying 2 marks each. The document lists dos and don'ts for candidates and provides important instructions regarding marking answers, handling question booklets and answer sheets, and exam day procedures.
The document provides information about the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test (PGCET) that will be administered on July 1, 2017 for various engineering programs. It includes details like the exam duration from 2:30 pm to 4:30 pm, subjects that will be tested, maximum marks (100), and time allowed to answer (120 minutes). It provides instructions to candidates regarding filling the answer sheet, signing, and handling of test materials. The exam consists of 75 multiple choice questions worth 1 or 2 marks each. Candidates are advised to use the question booklet for rough work and follow invigilators' instructions regarding starting and finishing the exam.
39. The process of separating a mixture of
solids into
This document provides instructions for a post graduate common entrance test being administered on August 8, 2015. It details the date, time, subjects covered, maximum marks, duration allowed, and instructions that candidates must follow. The test contains 75 multiple choice questions across various sections. Candidates are provided with a question booklet and OMR answer sheet and must fill in personal details correctly on the answer sheet. They have 120 minutes to complete the test. The document outlines dos and don'ts and provides important guidelines regarding marking answers, calculator usage, and handing in the answer sheet.
The document appears to be instructions for a post graduate entrance exam covering biotechnology. It provides exam details like date, time, duration, subjects covered and instructions for candidates. It mentions that the exam contains 75 multiple choice questions across 2 parts. Part 1 has 50 questions worth 1 mark each and Part 2 has 25 questions worth 2 marks each. The instructions provide details on properly filling the answer sheet, handling the question booklet, marking answers and procedures after the exam.
The document appears to be an exam test booklet for a mechanical engineering exam. It provides instructions for test takers, including not opening the booklet until instructed, entering identifying information, and marking answers on a separate answer sheet rather than in the booklet. It also notes the exam will contain 120 multiple choice questions covering a range of topics, with equal marks given to each question and penalties for incorrect answers.
This article comprises four sets of MCQ questions from flow, level, temperature and pressure measurement that may be very helpful for technical interview purpose.
This document provides instructions for a chemistry exam. It includes information such as:
- The total mark for the exam is 80 marks
- Questions are labeled with an asterisk if written communication will be assessed
- A periodic table is printed on the back cover
- Students should read questions carefully, keep track of time, try to answer every question, and check answers at the end.
GATE Chemistry 2013 Question Paper | Sourav Sir's ClassesSOURAV DAS
GATE Chemistry Past Year Question Paper
GATE Chemistry Preparation
GATE 2013 Questions
GATE Exam Tips
For full solutions contact us.
Call - 9836793076
Sourav Sir's Classes
Kolkata, New Delhi
This document provides a sample question paper for Chemistry (043) Class XII. It includes the design of the question paper with the breakdown of marks for different question types. It also provides a blue print of the syllabus distribution and the difficulty level of questions. Sample questions are provided for Very Short Answer, Short Answer and Long Answer questions along with the suggested marking scheme. The document aims to help students prepare for the exam by understanding the format and coverage of the question paper.
This document outlines the topics and assignments for Week IX of a Chemistry II course for Evening Scholars, including a chapter 8 exam, chemical equations and reactions, a science in the news segment, a final project, a stoichiometry lab, and exam answer keys. It provides details on exams, labs, assignments, and opportunities for extra credit or test recovery.
The Tridiagonal Matrix Algorithm (TDMA) is used to solve systems of tridiagonal linear algebraic equations. The equations are of the form:
aiXi-1 + biXi + ciXi+1 = di
Where ai, bi, ci are the coefficients on the sub-diagonal, diagonal and super-diagonal respectively.
TDMA solves the equations in forward and backward substitution steps. In the forward step, it expresses the solution at each node Xi in terms of the solution at the next node Xi+1. In the backward step, it substitutes these expressions back into the original equations to obtain an expression for the solution at each node in terms of the solutions of nodes with higher indices. This
The document provides instructions for a test, including details about timing, number of questions, marking the answer sheet, and procedures during the exam. It mentions there will be 75 questions total, with 50 single-mark questions in Part 1 and 25 two-mark questions in Part 2. Students must darken circles on the answer sheet with a blue or black ink pen to select only one answer for each question. They have 120 minutes to complete the test.
The document provides information about the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test (PGCET) to be held on July 1, 2017 for various engineering courses. It specifies the exam duration as 150 minutes, with 120 minutes allotted for answering. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details like PGCET number, course and version code on the answer sheet. They are advised to follow instructions regarding signing the sheet, handling question booklets and timing. The test contains 75 questions worth 100 marks, with 50 one-mark questions in Part 1 and 25 two-mark questions in Part 2.
- The document provides instructions for a Post Graduate Common Entrance Test (PGCET) that will be administered on July 1, 2017 from 2:30 pm to 4:30 pm.
- It provides details about the exam such as the subjects that will be tested, number of questions, marks distribution, and instructions that candidates should follow while taking the exam.
- Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details correctly on the answer sheet, choose only one answer per question, and follow other guidelines around timing and handling of exam materials.
This document describes an experiment to determine the efficiency of a continuous plate distillation column. It provides background on distillation column design and efficiency calculations using concepts like theoretical plates, reflux ratio, and Fenske's method. The experiment involves running a methanol-water mixture through a distillation column at total reflux to establish equilibrium. Samples are taken from the overhead and their compositions are measured using a refractometer and calibration curve. The number of theoretical plates is then calculated using the compositions and Fenske's method. This is compared to the actual number of plates in the column to determine the efficiency. Key steps include establishing a calibration curve, collecting samples at various reflux rates, measuring compositions, and performing efficiency calculations.
The document provides information about the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test (PG CET) for engineering programs offered by various universities in Karnataka, India. It specifies that the test will be held on July 1, 2017 from 2:30 pm to 4:30 pm. It will have 100 multiple choice questions, with 50 questions carrying 1 mark each and 25 questions carrying 2 marks each. The document also provides instructions to candidates regarding properly filling the answer sheet and details about question paper versions and serial numbers.
The document discusses various topics related to electrical engineering concepts like insulation, breakdown mechanisms, testing methods, and tariff structures. Some key points:
1) It discusses different theories of insulation breakdown like formative time lag, statistical time lag, Paschen's law, bubble theory, and stressed oil volume theory.
2) It covers insulation testing methods like breakdown tests and impulse testing used to evaluate insulation strength.
3) It explains different tariff structures used for electricity billing like two-part tariff, three-part tariff, block rate tariff and their advantages or disadvantages.
The document describes the theoretical competition portion of the 30th International Physics Olympiad held in Padua, Italy. It provides instructions for the 3 physics problems to be solved in 5 hours. Contestants must show their work, write responses on designated sheets, and submit all materials in order at the end. The first problem involves calculating properties of a gas that absorbs laser light in a cylindrical vessel, including its temperature, pressure, and energy changes.
CH EN 3453 Heat Transfer 2014 Fall Utah Homework HW 01 Assignmentsemihypocrite
This document contains information about a heat transfer course including:
1) An assignment on explaining the basic laws of heat transfer and solving conductivity problems is due on August 29th.
2) Help sessions will be held on Wednesday, August 27th at 4:30pm to assist with the assignment.
3) An end of document survey asks students questions about their background and experience relevant to the course.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive functioning. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help protect against mental illness and improve symptoms.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive function. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help protect against mental illness and improve symptoms for those who already suffer from conditions like anxiety and depression.
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The document contains information about a post graduate entrance exam for various engineering courses offered by VTU, UVCE, and UBDTCE in Karnataka, India. It provides details of the exam such as date and time, duration, number of questions, marks distribution, and instructions for candidates. The exam contains 75 multiple choice questions from Civil Engineering, with 50 questions carrying 1 mark each and 25 questions carrying 2 marks each. The document lists dos and don'ts for candidates and provides important instructions regarding marking answers, handling question booklets and answer sheets, and exam day procedures.
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This document provides instructions for a post graduate common entrance test being administered on August 8, 2015. It details the date, time, subjects covered, maximum marks, duration allowed, and instructions that candidates must follow. The test contains 75 multiple choice questions across various sections. Candidates are provided with a question booklet and OMR answer sheet and must fill in personal details correctly on the answer sheet. They have 120 minutes to complete the test. The document outlines dos and don'ts and provides important guidelines regarding marking answers, calculator usage, and handing in the answer sheet.
The document appears to be instructions for a post graduate entrance exam covering biotechnology. It provides exam details like date, time, duration, subjects covered and instructions for candidates. It mentions that the exam contains 75 multiple choice questions across 2 parts. Part 1 has 50 questions worth 1 mark each and Part 2 has 25 questions worth 2 marks each. The instructions provide details on properly filling the answer sheet, handling the question booklet, marking answers and procedures after the exam.
The document appears to be an exam test booklet for a mechanical engineering exam. It provides instructions for test takers, including not opening the booklet until instructed, entering identifying information, and marking answers on a separate answer sheet rather than in the booklet. It also notes the exam will contain 120 multiple choice questions covering a range of topics, with equal marks given to each question and penalties for incorrect answers.
This article comprises four sets of MCQ questions from flow, level, temperature and pressure measurement that may be very helpful for technical interview purpose.
This document provides instructions for a chemistry exam. It includes information such as:
- The total mark for the exam is 80 marks
- Questions are labeled with an asterisk if written communication will be assessed
- A periodic table is printed on the back cover
- Students should read questions carefully, keep track of time, try to answer every question, and check answers at the end.
GATE Chemistry 2013 Question Paper | Sourav Sir's ClassesSOURAV DAS
GATE Chemistry Past Year Question Paper
GATE Chemistry Preparation
GATE 2013 Questions
GATE Exam Tips
For full solutions contact us.
Call - 9836793076
Sourav Sir's Classes
Kolkata, New Delhi
This document provides a sample question paper for Chemistry (043) Class XII. It includes the design of the question paper with the breakdown of marks for different question types. It also provides a blue print of the syllabus distribution and the difficulty level of questions. Sample questions are provided for Very Short Answer, Short Answer and Long Answer questions along with the suggested marking scheme. The document aims to help students prepare for the exam by understanding the format and coverage of the question paper.
This document outlines the topics and assignments for Week IX of a Chemistry II course for Evening Scholars, including a chapter 8 exam, chemical equations and reactions, a science in the news segment, a final project, a stoichiometry lab, and exam answer keys. It provides details on exams, labs, assignments, and opportunities for extra credit or test recovery.
The Tridiagonal Matrix Algorithm (TDMA) is used to solve systems of tridiagonal linear algebraic equations. The equations are of the form:
aiXi-1 + biXi + ciXi+1 = di
Where ai, bi, ci are the coefficients on the sub-diagonal, diagonal and super-diagonal respectively.
TDMA solves the equations in forward and backward substitution steps. In the forward step, it expresses the solution at each node Xi in terms of the solution at the next node Xi+1. In the backward step, it substitutes these expressions back into the original equations to obtain an expression for the solution at each node in terms of the solutions of nodes with higher indices. This
The document provides instructions for a test, including details about timing, number of questions, marking the answer sheet, and procedures during the exam. It mentions there will be 75 questions total, with 50 single-mark questions in Part 1 and 25 two-mark questions in Part 2. Students must darken circles on the answer sheet with a blue or black ink pen to select only one answer for each question. They have 120 minutes to complete the test.
The document provides information about the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test (PGCET) to be held on July 1, 2017 for various engineering courses. It specifies the exam duration as 150 minutes, with 120 minutes allotted for answering. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details like PGCET number, course and version code on the answer sheet. They are advised to follow instructions regarding signing the sheet, handling question booklets and timing. The test contains 75 questions worth 100 marks, with 50 one-mark questions in Part 1 and 25 two-mark questions in Part 2.
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This document describes an experiment to determine the efficiency of a continuous plate distillation column. It provides background on distillation column design and efficiency calculations using concepts like theoretical plates, reflux ratio, and Fenske's method. The experiment involves running a methanol-water mixture through a distillation column at total reflux to establish equilibrium. Samples are taken from the overhead and their compositions are measured using a refractometer and calibration curve. The number of theoretical plates is then calculated using the compositions and Fenske's method. This is compared to the actual number of plates in the column to determine the efficiency. Key steps include establishing a calibration curve, collecting samples at various reflux rates, measuring compositions, and performing efficiency calculations.
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1. POST GRADUATE COMMON ENTRANCE TEST - 2015
DATE & TIME COURSE SUBJECT
08-08-2015
10.30 AM TO 12.30 PM
ME / M.Tech/ M.Arch / Courses
Offered by VTU / UVCE / UBDTCE
POLYMER SCIENCE &
TECHNOLOGY
MAXIMUM MARKS TOTAL DURATION MAXIMUM TIME FOR ANSWERING
100 150 MINUTES 120 MINUTES
MENTION YOUR PGCET NO. QUESTION BOOKLET
SERIAL NUMBER 335009
VERSION CODE A - 1
DOs :
1. Check whether the PGCET No. has been entered and shaded in the respective circles on the OMR
answer sheet.
2. Ensure whether the circles corresponding to course and the specific branch have been shaded on the
OMR answer sheet.
3. This question booklet is issued to you by the invigilator after the 2nd bell i.e., after 10.25 am.
4. The serial number of this question booklet should be entered on the OMR answer sheet.
5. The version code of this question booklet should be entered on the OMR answer sheet and the
respective circles should also be shaded completely.
6. Compulsorily sign at the bottom portion of the OMR answer sheet in the space provided.
DON'Ts:
1. THE TIMING AND MARKS PRINTED ON THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHOULD NOT BE DAMAGED /
MUTILATED / SPOILED.
2. THE 3RD BELL RINGS AT 10.30 AM, TILL THEN;
Do not remove the seal / staple present on the right hand side of this question booklet.
Do not look inside this question booklet.
Do not start answering on the OMR answer sheet.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. This question booklet contains 75 (items) questions and each question will have one statement and
four answers. (Four different options / responses.)
2. After the 3rd Bell is rung at 10.30 am, remove the seal / staple stapled on the right hand side of this
question booklet and check that this booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or
items etc., if so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet. Read each item and start answering on the
OMR answer sheet.
3. During the subsequent 120 minutes:
• Read each question (item) carefully.
Choose one correct answer from out of the four available responses (options / choices) given
under each question / item. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark
the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose only one response for each item.
Completely darken / shade the relevant circle with a blue or black ink ballpoint pen against
the question number on the OMR answer sheet.
4. Use the space provided on each page of the question booklet for Rough Work. Do not use the OMR
answer sheet for the same.
5. After the last bell is rung at 12.30 pm, stop marking on the OMR answer sheet and affix your left
hand thumb impression on the OMR answer sheet as per the instructions.
6. Hand over the OMR answer sheet to the room invigilator as it is.
7. After separating the top sheet (KEA copy), the invigilator will return the bottom sheet replica (candidate's
copy) to you to carry home for self evaluation.
8. Preserve the replica of the OMR answer sheet for a minimum period of ONE year.
9. Only Non-programmable calculators are allowed.
MARKS DISTRIBUTION
PART - 1 50 QUESTIONS CARRY ONE MARK EACH (1 TO 50)
PART - 2 25 QUESTIONS CARRY TWO MARKS EACH (51 - 75)
3. POLYMER SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
PART - 1
(Each question carries one mark)
(50 X 1 = 50)
1. In a closed system, there is
a. No change of energy of the system
b. Exchange of energy with surroundings
and not mass
c. Exchange of mass and energy with
surroundings
d Exchange of mass with surroundings
2. A State function is
a. Internal energy
h Free energy
c. Pressure
d All of these
3. During adiabatic expansion of gas
a. Pressure remains constant
b. Pressure is increased
c. Temperature is decreased
d. None of these
4. Work of expansion is given by
a. PAV b. APV
6. According to first law of thermodynamics, the
total energy of an isolated system
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d None of these
7. C - C = R is valid forP v
a. Ideal gases
b. Real gases
c. All gases
d Nobel gases
8. Solid and liquid phases of a substance are in
equilibrium at
a. Melting point
b. Freezing point
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
9. In the reaction, N2 + 02 :Fa 2NO ,
Increasing pressure will result in
a. Shifting of equilibrium towards right
b. Shifting the equilibrium towards left
c. No change in equilibrium condition
d None of these
c. V AP d None of these
5. In an isobaric process
a. dp = 0 b. dq = 0
c. dv = 0 d dT = 0
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4. 10. For an ideal gas, enthalpy with rise in
pressure
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Is independent
d None of these
11. The value of gas constant R is
a. 1.987 cal/g mole (VC
b. 1.987 BTU/ lb mole 0 R
c. Both (a) & (b)
d None of these
12. Free energy change of mixing two liquid
substances is a function of
a. Concentration of the constituents only
b. Quantities of the constituents only
c. Temperature only
d All of these
13. Transfer of heat by molecular collision is
called
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d All of these
14. Heat is transferred by conduction, convection
and radiation in
a. Boiler furnaces
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
A mixture of acetone - chloroform can be
separated by
a. Steam distillation
b. Azeotropic distillation
c. Flash distillation
d. None of these
Term used in diffusion theory is
a. Velocity
b. Transfer rate across a plane
c. Flux & concentration
d. All of these
Mass transfer is a result of
a. Concentration difference
h Diffusion
c. Both (a) & (b)
d None of these
In a distillation operation, the reflux ratio
may vary between
a. Zero & one
b. Zero & infinity
c. Minimum & infinity
d One & two
Polyethylene is a polymer obtained by the
b. Melting of ice polymerization of
c. Condensation of steam in condenser a. Ethane b. Ethylene
d. None of these c. Isoprene d. Methylene
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5. 25. Extrusion machine can
making of
a. Thermoplastic
be used for the
b. Thermoset
20. LDPE is a
a. Linear b. Branched
c. Crosslinked d. Thermoset
c. Elastomers d. All of these
21. The kinetics and degree of polymerization of
polymer during emulsion polymerization
depends upon
a. Temperature and time of process
b. Quantity of initiator
c. Intensity of agitator
d. All of these
22. Thermoset is
a. Phenol-formaldehyde resin
h Epoxy
c. Melamine-formaldehyde resin
d. All of these
23. In extrusion blow molding, the barrel heaters
is of the type of
a. Band heater
b. Cast heater
c. Either (a) or (b)
cl. None of these
24. Blow molding is a process to produce
a. Hollow articles
b. Bottles
c. Both (a) & (b)
cl. None of these
26. Rotational molding
a. Is also called roto molding
b. Is used to make plastic hollow articles
c. Has moulds usually made of aluminium
cL All of these
27. An extrusion machine cannot be used for the
production of
a. Pipes b. Buckets
c. Filaments d. All of these
28. Purpose of preheating of sheet in
thermoforming is to reduce the
a. Heating time
b. Forming time
c. Clamping time
d. All of these
29. Styrene can be polymerized by
a. Bulk polymerization
b. Solution polymerization
c. Suspension polymerization
cl. All of these
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6. 30. Terephthalic acid is a monomer for 36. Thermal decomposition of AIBN yields
a. Nylon b. Polyacetal a. CO b. CO2
c. PET d. PC
31. High pressure process uses oxygen as
catalyst in the manufacture of
a. LDPE b. HDPE
c. LLDPE d XLPE
32. The polymer SBS represents
a. Block copolymer
b. Graft copolymer
c. Blend
d. Random copolymer
33. Living polymers can be produced by
a. Anionic polymerization
b. Cationic polymerization
c. Addition polymerization
• Free radical polymerization
34. Which of the following are water resistive
polymers?
a. PTFE h HDPE
c. Iso PP d. All of these
35. Pearl or bead type polymerization is nothing
but
a. Addition polymerization
b. Suspension polymerization
c. Solution polymerization
d. Condensation polymerization
c. N2 d. NO
37. Example for free radical initiator
a. Benzoyl peroxide
b. NaOH
c. TiC14
d. Nitrobenzene
38. Chain carrier in cationic polymerization is
a. Carbonium ion
b. Carbanion
c. Hydroxyl group
d None of these
39. EPDM is an example for
a. Blend
b. Alloy
c. Copolymer
d None of these
40. Which of the following is an example for
heteropolymer?
a. PVC b. PET
c. PMMA d PP
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7. 41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
Polymer is nothing but
a. Oligomer
b. Macromolecule
c. Subpolymer
d. None of these
PP is an example for
a. Tacticity
b. Geometric isomerism
c. Conformation
d. All of these
Requirements for geometric isomerisms is
a. Asymmetric carbon atom
b. Symmetric carbon atom
c. Carbon-carbon double bond
d. Carbon-carbon single bond
Copolymer is a
a. Physical mixture of polymers
b. Chemical mixtures of polymers
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
Reaction between diol and diol yields
a. Polyether b. Polyester
c. Polyol d. None of these
46. Polyurethane can be produced by
a. Ring opening polymerization
b. Polyaddition polymerization
c. Condensation polymerization
d. Solution polymerization
47. Latex polymer product is obtained from
a. Solution polymerization
b. Bulk polymerization
c. Emulsion polymerization
d. Melt polymerization
48. Caprolactum is the monomer for
a. PU
b. Nylon 6
c. PC
d. Nylon 66
49. Stereoregular polymers are produced by
a. Co-ordination polymerization
h Vinyl polymerization
c. Condensation polymerization
None of these
50. Kinematic similarity is obtained when there
is equal
a. Liquid motion
b. Solid suspension
c. Mass transfer
d. Surface behaviour
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8. PART - 2
(Each question carries two marks)
(25 X 2 = 50)
51. Advantages of emulsion polymerization is
a. Control of temperature & viscosity
b. High molecular weight obtained
c. Homogeneity of the polymer
d All of these
52. Nylon is a
a. Thermoplastic polymer
h Condensed polymer
c. Polyamide
d. All of these
53. Vulcanization of rubber is carried out to
increase
a. Strength
b. Weight of polymer
c. Oxidation resistance
d. All of these
54. Which of the following statement is true with
reference to thermoset?
55. Which of the following statements is true for
addition polymerization?
a. Elemental composition of reactant and
product are same
h Is a single step polymerization
c. Polymerization occurs without
by products
cL All of these
56. Which of the following belongs to
thermoplastic, thermoset and elastomer
family?
a. PP, epoxy and PF
b. PMMA, PP and NR
c. PP, epoxy and NR
d. PP, NR and epoxy
57. Which of the following contain nitrogen
element?
a. Nylon b. PAN
c. NBR d. All of these
58. Example for ring opening polymerization
I. Epoxy II. Caprolactum
a. They cannot be remoldable/recyclable III. Vinyl chloride IV. Styrene
b. They do not possess T m and not
soluble
a.
b.
Both (I) & (II)
Both (I) & (III)
c. Both (a) 86 (b) c. Both (I) & (IV)
d None of these d Both (II) & (III)
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9. 59. Example for symmetrical polymer pair
a. PS & HDPE
b. . - HDPE & PTFE
c. PP 86 PTFE
d. None of these
60. Barometers are used to measure
a. Flow rate
Temperature
c. Viscosity
d. Pressure
61. Functionality of ethylene glycol and
acetylene is
a. 2 86 4 b. 4 8s 4
c. 2 8s 2 d. 4 8s 2
62. A screw is used in extrusion blow molding
process to
a. Get minimum difference in melt
temperature
b. Permit materials and colors to be
blended
c. Deliver a more uniform melt to the mold
d. All of these
63. Advantage of blow molding as compared to
injection molding is
a. Possibility of re-entrant curves
(irregular)
la Low stresses and favourable cost factor
c. Possibility of variable wall thickness
d. All of these
64. In an injection molded article, the shrinkage
cannot be minimized by
a. Decreasing temperature
Increasing pressure
c. A longer cycle
d. Keeping the mold cool
65. HDPE water storage tank is an example of
a. Extrusion process
b. Injection molding
c. Rotational molding
d. Thermoforming
66. The unit of diffusion coefficient is
a. m2 i s b. m/s
c. mole/ (m2. s) d None of these
67. 1 g mol of ammonia contains
a. 6.02 x 10 23 atoms of hydrogen
b. 3 g mol of hydrogen
c. 2 x 10 23 molecules of ammonia
None of these
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10. 72. If the degree of polymerization of
polybutadiene is 1000, the molecular weight
of polybutadiene is
a. 5400 b. 54000
68. For an ideal gas the relation between the
enthalpy change (AH) and internal energy
(AE) at constant temperature is given by
a. All = AE PV
b. AH = OE + A n, RT
c. AG = AH+ TAS
cl• ex = AE 13 A T
where P,V,T & S are pressure, volume,
temperature and entropy respectively and n
is the number of moles.
R T a
69. In Vander Wall's equation P v _b v
the constants a and b are zero for
a. Ideal gases
h Real gases
c. Liquid
d. None of these
70. In p - v diagram of isotherms as given by
equation of state, for the isotherm T > Tc ,
with increasing v, pressure decreases
c. 10800 d 42000
73. A high Reynolds number
a. Power number tends to be independent
of impeller Reynolds number
b. Power number is dependent on the
geometry of the impeller
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. All of these
74. Laminar flow region exists during agitation,
when Reynold's number is
a. Less than 10
b. More than 50
c. More than 1000
d. More than 2500
a. Rapidly
c. Slowly
b. Monotonically
d. None of these
75. Newton's law of Viscosity states that
a. Shear stress is directly
the velocity
b. Shear stress is directly
velocity gradient
c. Shear stress is directly
shear strain
d. Shear stress is directly
the viscosity
proportional to
proportional to
proportional to
proportional to
71. Intensive properties are the properties whose
magnitude
a. Depends on the quantity of material
involved
b. Does not depend on the quantity of
material involved
c. Depends on the path followed
None of these
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