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Mathematics
I. Direction: Read each
statement or question
carefully. Write the correct
answer using an uppercase
letter. Example: A
1. Which is correctly written in number
form, corresponding to the given word
form? two million, six hundred fifty-
seven thousand, three
a. 2,657,003
b. 2,657,300
c. 2,657,030
2. Ryle earned Php 34,627, Karl earned Php 32,392
while Jake earned Php 28,898. If they put together
their earnings, around how many thousands do they
have in all?
a. Their earnings are about Php 95,000 in all.
b. Their earnings are about Php 96,000 in all.
c. Their earnings are about Php 90,000 in all.
3. Which of the number forms
corresponds to the word form “one
million, one hundred thousand,
ninety-four”
a. 1,100,094
b. 1,001,094
c. 1,010,094
4. When should you add one to the rounding
digit?
a. You add one to the rounding digit if
the digit to its right is 0, 1, 2, 3, or 4.
b. You add one to the rounding digit if
the digit to its right is 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8.
c. You add one to the rounding digit if
the digit to its right is 5, 6, 7, 8, or 9.
5. What is the value of 10,586
if you round it off to the
nearest tens?
a. 11,000
b. 10,600
c. 10,590
6. Kyra spent Php 3,220,000 to buy her
new house. After 5 years, she sold it to
Php 1,870,000. Around how much millions
were her loss?
a. Around Php 1,300,000 were her loss.
b. Around Php 1,000,000 was her loss.
c. Around Php 1,400,000 were her loss.
7. Millie took along six friends to a local
farm to pick strawberries. They picked 120
strawberries in all. How many strawberries
will each one gets if they decided to share
them equally?
a. Each one gets 20 strawberries.
b. Each one gets 24 strawberries.
c. Each one gets 26 strawberries.
8. What is the value of 6,985 if
you round it off to the nearest
thousands?
a. 7,000
b. 6,000
c. 5,000
9. Marionne made 64 paper boats in 8 days.
How many dolls did he make each day?
a. He made 10 paper boats each
day.
b. He made 8 paper boats each
day.
c. He made 7 paper boats each
day.
10. 48 players are equally divided in 6
teams. How many players are there in each
team?
a. There are 7 players in each team.
b. There are 6 players in each team.
c. There are 8 players in each team.
11. What is the place value of
7 in 167,953?
a. thousands
b. ten thousands
c. hundreds
12. Ruth can make 15 sandwiches in an hour. How
many hours will I take to make 150 sandwiches?
a. She will take 5 hours to make 150
sandwiches.
b. She will take 10 hours to make 150
sandwiches.
c. She will take 15 hours to make 150
sandwiches.
13. What is the place value of
9 in 976,120?
a. thousands
b. ten thousands
c. hundred thousands
14. What is the place value of
6 in 320,065?
a. ones
b. tens
c. hundreds
15. What is the value of 11,567 if
you round it off to the nearest
hundreds?
a. 11,500
b. 11,600
c. 12,000
16. Andi has 50 sweets. She shares them into 6
party bags. How many sweets are in each bag?
How many are left over?
a. There are 8 sweets in each bag and 2
are left over.
b. There are 9 sweets in each bag and 2
are left over.
c. There are 10 sweets in each bag and 5
are left over.
17. Margo collected 23,500 stamps. Brylle collected
35,280 stamps, and Josh collected 28,090 stamps.
Around how many stamps to the nearest hundred did
they collect altogether?
a. They collected around 86,800 stamps
altogether.
b. They collected around 86,900 stamps
altogether.
c. They collected around 86,000 stamps
altogether.
18. What is the correct word form of
9,005,500?
a. nine million, five thousand, five
hundred
b. nine million, five hundred, five
thousand
c. nine million, fifty thousand, five
hundred
19. Ms. Lim surrendered 2,709 accounts of
interested clients for a project. About how many
accounts were surrendered in thousands?
a. There were about 2,000 surrendered
accounts.
b. There were about 2,700 surrendered
accounts.
c. There were about 3,000 surrendered
accounts.
20. What is the correct word form
of 1,003?
a. one thousand, three
hundred
b. one thousand, thirty
c. one thousand, three
21. In Safari Amusement Park, the price for
an adult ticket is Php 125 and Php 75 for
child ticket. If the Sanchez Family has 3
children and 4 adults, how much did they
pay in all?
a. They paid Php 675 in all.
b. They paid Php 75 in all.
c. They paid Php 765 in all.
22. Joe receive a change of Php 150
after paying for a backpack worth
Php 3,350. How much did he pay the
cashier?
a. He paid 3,600 to the cashier.
b. He paid 4,000 to the cashier
c. He paid 3,500 to the cashier.
23. There are 1,500 students in preschool. 4,050
students in grade school, 3,120 students in high
school. How many students are there from
preschool to high school?
a. There are 6,780 students from preschool
to high school.
b. There are 8,760 students from preschool
to high school.
c. There are 8,670 students from preschool
to high school.
24. What is the difference
between 50,000 and the sum of
13,500, and 12,500?
a. 24,000
b. 25,000
c. 24, 500
25. Dani baked 21 cookies for her children.
If the cookies are shared equally among 3
of her children, how many cookies will
each child get?
a. Each child will get 8 cupcakes.
b. Each child will get 7 cupcakes.
c. Each child will get 6 cupcakes.
26. What is the value of 3,092 if
you round it off to the nearest
hundreds?
a. 3,090
b. 3,100
c. 4,000
27. What is the correct word form
of 10,905?
a. ten thousand, ninety-five
b. ten thousand, five
c. ten thousand, nine
hundred five
II. Direction: Read each word
problem carefully then answer
the following questions. Write
the correct answer an
uppercase letter. Example: A
28-31. Eight friends decided to share
the expenses in a restaurant. When
they were about to pay the bill, Mike
decided to treat everyone by paying
for their drinks. Each drink is worth
Php 75, how much will the share of
Mike will be?
28-31. Eight friends decided to share
the expenses in a restaurant. When
they were about to pay the bill, Mike
decided to treat everyone by paying
for their drinks. Each drink is worth
Php 75, how much will the share of
Mike will be?
28. What is asked?
a. The total amount of Mike’s
share of the bill.
b. The total amount of their
bill.
c. The total amount of their
expenses in the restaurant.
29. What are is the
operation to be used?
a. addition
b. subtraction
c. multiplication
30. What is the number
sentence?
a. 75 + 8 = N
b. 75 x 8 = N
c. 75-8 = N
31. What is the answer?
a. The total amount of Mike’s share
is Php 83.
b. The total amount of Mike’s share
is Php 600.
c. The total amount of Mike’s share
is Php 67.
32-35. Russel sold 950 doughnuts for
his school organization. The
doughnuts were sold in boxes with
5 doughnuts each. How many boxes
were there in all if each box contains
5 doughnuts?
32. What is asked?
a. The number of boxes if each
box contains 5 doughnuts.
b. The number of doughnuts in
each box.
c. The total number of
doughnuts and boxes.
33. What is the operation to
be used?
a. multiplication
b. subtraction
c. division
34. What is the number
sentence?
a. 950 ÷ 5 = N
b. 950 x 5 = N
c. 950 – 5 = N
35. What is the answer?
a. There were 4,750 boxes in
all.
b. There were 190 boxes in
all.
c. There were 945 boxes in
all.
36-40. There are 3 Grade- Five
sections in a school. During a
program, each section gave a
presentation with 10 participants
each. If there are 250 students in all,
how many students were not
participants?
36. What is asked?
a. The number of students who
were not participants.
b. The number of students who
were participants.
c. The total number of Grade-
Five students.
37. What are the given facts?
a. 3 Grade-Five sections, 10
participants each, 250 students in
all
b. 10 Grade-Five sections, 3
participants each, 250 students in
all
c. 250 Grade-Five sections, 10
participants, 3 students in all
38. What are the operations to be
used?
a. addition and subtraction
b. division and addition
c. multiplication and
subtraction
39. What is the number
sentence?
a. 250 – (3x10) = N
b. 250 + (10-3) = N
c. 250 x (10-3) = N
40. What is the answer?
a. There were 257 students who
were not participants.
b. There were 250 students who
were not participants.
c. There were 220 students who
were not participants.
41-45. In 2007, the Philippines has
136 cities, 64 are in Luzon, 39
cities are in Visayas, and rest are
in Mindanao. How many cities
were there in Mindanao?
41. What is asked?
a. The total number of cities in the
Philippines.
b. The total number of cities in
Mindanao.
c. The total number of cities in
Luzon and Visayas.
42. What are given facts?
a. 136 cities in the Philippines, 64
cities in Luzon, and 39 cities in
Visayas
b. 136 cities in the Philippines, 39
cities in Luzon, and 64 cities in
Visayas
c. 136 cities in the Philippines, 64
cities in Luzon, and 39 cities in
Mindanao
43. What is the operation to be
used?
a. addition and subtraction
b. addition and
multiplication
c. addition and division
44. What is the number
sentence?
a. 136 + (64 - 39) = N
b. 136 + (64 x 39) = N
c. 136 - (64 + 39) = N
45. What is the answer?
a. There were 33 cities in
Mindanao.
b. There were 35 cities in
Mindanao.
c. There were 37 cities in
Mindanao.
46. What is the value of 13,530
if you round it off to the
nearest hundreds?
a. 13,600
b. 13,500
c. 14,000
47. What is the correct word form of
5,607?
a. five thousand, sixty-seven
b. five thousand, seven
hundred six
c. five thousand, six hundred
seven
48. What is the rounded
number of 45, 670 to the
nearest ten thousands?
a. 40,000
b. 46,000
c. 50,000
49. How can you write “five million
seven hundred thousand eighty-
five” in figures?
a. 5,700,085
b. 5,070,805
c. 7,007,85
50. How can you write “seven
hundred fifty thousand, fifty-six”
in figures?
a. 750,506
b. 750,056
c. 750,605
MAPEH
I. Music
A. Identify the names of the
illustrated notes and rests.
Choose the correct answer from
the given choices. Write it using
an uppercase letter. Example: A
a. whole note and rest b. eighth note and rest
c. half note and rest d. sixteenth note and rest
e. quarter note and rest
1.
a. whole note and rest b. eighth note and rest
c. half note and rest d. sixteenth note and rest
e. quarter note and rest
2.
a. whole note and rest b. eighth note and rest
c. half note and rest d. sixteenth note and rest
e. quarter note and rest
3.
a. whole note and rest b. eighth note and rest
c. half note and rest d. sixteenth note and rest
e. quarter note and rest
4.
a. whole note and rest b. eighth note and rest
c. half note and rest d. sixteenth note and rest
e. quarter note and rest
5.
B. Read each statement or
question carefully. Write the
correct answer using an
uppercase letter. Example: A
6. What is the time signature
of the given set of notes?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4
4 4 4
7. What note should be added to
make the measure complete?
3
8
a. quarter note
b. eighth note
c. c. sixteenth note
8. Why is there a need to conduct?
a. To distract the performance of
the musical group.
b. To guide the performers and
keep them in uniform tempo.
c. To make the performance
chaotic and unpleasant.
9. Which is NOT true about time signature?
a. Time signature is one of the
important elements in a musical
piece.
b. The upper number indicates the
number of beats in a measure.
c. The lower number indicates the
number of notes which will receive
the beat.
10. How many beats does a quarter
have if the time signature is 3?
8
a. It has 4 beats.
b. It has 2 beats.
c. It has 1 beat.
11. How does a quadruple meter be conducted?
a. It starts by lowering the hand on 1, bounce to
the left on 2, bounce to the right on 3 then again,
bounce up at head level on 4.
b. It starts by lowering the hand on 1 and bounce
up at 2 about head level.
c. It starts by lowering the hand on 1, make a
bounce to the right then another bounce up at
about head level.
12. Which is used to divide the
staff into measures?
a. slash
b. bar line
c. rest
13. If the lower number of the time
signatures is 8, which note receives
one beat?
a. quarter note
b. eighth note
c. sixteenth note
14. What is the use of a musical rest?
a. It gives the performers time to
relax or take a deep breath in a
performance.
b. It gives the performers the cue to
make a sound.
c. It lets the performers produce
sound.
15. Where can you find the time
signature?
a. At the center of the musical
piece.
b. At the end of the musical
piece.
c. At the beginning of the musical
piece.
II. Arts
Direction: Read each statement
or question carefully. Write the
correct answer using an
uppercase letter. Example: A
16. What is the 3-dimensional
counterpart of a square?
a. cube
b. rectangular prism
c. cone
17. Which refers to a line that
extends without a break?
a. broken line
b. dotted line
c. continuous line
18. Which is not a form?
a. b.
c.
19. What do static lines
suggest?
a. movement
b. calmness
c. action
20. How do you define a
jagged line?
a. It goes up and down.
b. It has no straight part.
c. It has a diagonal
orientation.
B. Identify the kind of line
that is being described.
Write the correct answer
using an uppercase letter.
Example: A
a. broken lines b. thick line c.
vertical line
d. wavy line e. dynamic line
21. It is a moving line. It is also
called an action line which may form
regular patterns like sea waves.
a. broken lines b. thick line c.
vertical line
d. wavy line e. dynamic line
22. It is a broad or fat line,
usually used to outline shapes.
a. broken lines b. thick line c.
vertical line
d. wavy line e. dynamic line
23. A perpendicular or upright
line that goes endlessly in both
directions.
a. broken lines b. thick line c.
vertical line
d. wavy line e. dynamic line
24. Line with curved parts or
bending strokes that signify
movement and vitality.
a. broken lines b. thick line c.
vertical line
d. wavy line e. dynamic line
25. It refers to a sequence of
short lines.
a. broken lines b. thick line c.
vertical line
d. wavy line e. dynamic line
25. It refers to a sequence of
short lines.
C. Identify the type of
rhythm shown in each
illustration. Write the correct
answer using capital letters.
Example: A
26.
a. random rhythm b. flowing rhythm
c. regular rhythm
d. alternating rhythm e. progressive rhythm
27.
a. random rhythm b. flowing rhythm
c. regular rhythm
d. alternating rhythm e. progressive rhythm
28.
a. random rhythm b. flowing rhythm
c. regular rhythm
d. alternating rhythm e. progressive rhythm
29.
a. random rhythm b. flowing rhythm
c. regular rhythm
d. alternating rhythm e. progressive rhythm
30.
a. random rhythm b. flowing rhythm
c. regular rhythm
d. alternating rhythm e. progressive rhythm
III. Health
Direction: Read each statement
or question carefully. Write the
correct answer using an
uppercase letter. Example: A
31. Which of the following habits
can cause damage to the brain?
a. Getting enough sleep.
b. Taking a rest when sick.
c. Talking rarely.
32. How can you nurture your health?
a. Stay away from other
people?
b. Learn how to manage stress.
c. Take care of yourself by
eating junk food.
33. What should you do to avoid
developing brain damage?
a. Eat a lot of food.
b. Eat healthful food.
c. Skip breakfast.
34. Which is NOT a sign of a healthy
relationship?
a. Jeen and Jam respect each other.
b. Mario and Luigi set bonding time as
often as possible.
c. Louise does things for Mari and even
share things with her equally but
Mari doesn’t do the same.
35. How can you nurture your
emotional health?
a. Focus on the negative things
in life.
b. Ignore your capabilities.
c. Be sociable. Talk with other
people.
36. You had your family gathering and everyone
was praising your sister for being a good singer.
What would you do?
a. Sing your favorite song and show them
that you are better than her.
b. Praise your sister and watch him as she
sings.
c. Get mad at your sister and tell her that
her voice isn’t that good.
37. When can you say that a person is
healthy?
a. When they do not suffer from
any illnesses.
b. When they can balance rest and
activity, work and recreation.
c. When they have never gone to
the hospital.
38. Who is an emotionally healthy person?
a. Harry isolates himself when he feels
sad and won’t bother other people
for help.
b. Lily expresses her emotions and tries
to reflect on it.
c. Max acknowledges his strengths
and believes that he is never weak.
39. Margaux transferred in your school. She
doesn’t know anyone in your class. Which will
you avoid to build a healthy relationship with
her?
a. Approach her and make friends
with her.
b. Ignore and stay away from her.
c. Start a conversation and ask about
her.
40. Which is NOT a way to develop fruitful
and happy relationships?
a. sharing one’s time and energy
b. growing and thriving together
with others
c. taking insults and abuse without
complaining
41. Whom among the following nurtures their
emotional and mental health?
a. Marco is always thinking of the negative
things that might happen causing him to
ignore the positive things.
b. Andre goes out with his friends every
weekend. They go to different places
with beautiful views.
c. Jul refuses to go out because he is
stressed out.
42. How can you nurture your
mental health?
a. Eat twice a day, it is not
necessary to eat breakfast.
b. Limit drinking water.
c. Get enough sleep
44. What should you do to have a
healthy body?
a. Wake up early even if you
slept late.
b. Eat only when you feel
hungry.
c. Engage in regular physical
activities.
45. What can a healthy relationship do
to you?
a. It decreases your confidence.
b. It makes you feel unsatisfied
and like you don’t belong.
c. It allows you to be independent
and try out new ideas.
IV. Physical
Education
Direction: Read each statement
or question carefully. Write the
correct answer using an
uppercase letter. Example: A
46. Which is NOT true about the Filipino Pyramid
Activity Guide?
a. It is intended to help Filipinos select
activities that best fits their lifestyle
and health.
b. The activities at the bottom of the
pyramid should be done habitually.
c. Activities that can contribute to a
healthy body are categorized on top
of the pyramid.
47. Why should do warm-up exercises
before taking the physical fitness test?
a. To make sure that the body is
stiffed after the test.
b. To condition the body and avoid
possible injuries.
c. To make the body sore after the
test.
48. What kind of exercises should be
done for the improvement of bones
and muscles?
a. Aerobic exercises
b. Strengthening and flexibility
exercises
c. Recreational activities
49. Whom among the following took appropriate
measures before taking the physical fitness test?
a. Molly took heavy meal before the
test.
b. Xander skipped doing warm-up
exercises because it will just make
him tired.
c. Aimee got a medical certificate from
her doctor.
50. Which is TRUE?
a. Physical fitness tests are conducted to
determine the strengths and
weaknesses of the body.
b. At a young age, it is not necessary for
you to be well-guided on how to
maintain or improve your body’s condition/
c. Physical fitness tests measure individual
fitness in terms of emotional functions.
B. Identification
Direction: Identify which of the
following tests or activities is
being described. Write the
correct answer using an
uppercase letter. Example: A
51. It is a test to determine strength
and endurance of abdominal
muscles.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
52. It is conducted to assess the
ability to balance successfully on a
single leg.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
53. An activity which measures
agility and speed.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
54. Its objective is to determine the
strengths and weaknesses of the
body.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
55. It aims to assess trunk
flexibility.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
56. A test to determine the student’s
acceleration and speed.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
57. It is done to assess upper body’s
endurance and strength.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
58. An activity which tests the
reaction time of the students.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
59. Its objective is to evaluate leg
strength and power.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
60. It aims to determine overall
endurance.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
HELE
I. Entrepreneurship
A. Read each statement carefully and
identify which among the choices
from the word box is being described.
Write the correct answer using an
uppercase letter. Example: A
1. It refers to the tightness of the
foreskin.
a. Puberty b. bathroom
c. Zygote d. Testosterone
e. menstruation f. phimosis
2. It is when your body begins to
develop as you move from being a
child to being an adult.
a. Puberty b. bathroom
c. Zygote d. Testosterone
e. menstruation f. phimosis
3. It is also known as the
fertilized egg.
a. Puberty b. bathroom
c. Zygote d. Testosterone
e. menstruation f. phimosis
4. This is the smallest part of
the house.
a. Puberty b. bathroom
c. Zygote d. Testosterone
e. menstruation f. phimosis
5. It is the hormone that causes most
of the changes in a boy’s body.
a. Puberty b. bathroom
c. Zygote d. Testosterone
e. menstruation f. phimosis
6. It is when blood is released
through the vagina.
a. Puberty b. bathroom
c. Zygote d. Testosterone
e. menstruation f. phimosis
B. Read each statement or
question carefully. Write the
correct answer using an
uppercase letter.
7. __________ is a pea-shaped
gland at the bottom of the brain.
a. Pituitary gland
b. Thyroid gland
c. Pineal gland
8. While Lita is combing her hair, she
noticed that there are white small
pieces that are falling from her hair.
Lita has _______.
a. sunburn
b. dandruff
c. blister
9. _________ gives color to our
skin.
a. melanin
b. food coloring
c. chloroplast
10. While Teresa is playing volleyball, her
friends noticed that she is hard up in
catching her breath. They rushed Teresa to
the hospital and after few hours, she is now
okay. Teresa has ___________.
a. melanin
b. sunburn
c. asthma
C. Write True if the statement
is true. If it is false, change the
underlined word with the
correct answer.
11. If your eyes are itchy,
rinse it with warm clean
water to soothe them.
12. Redness, red streaks
or pus in a blister should
be cured by a
pharmacist.
13. If you break the
skin in your scalp, use
strong shampoo until
the wound heals.
14. Do not keep a pet
that can trigger your
asthma.
15. Drink a lot of
water to avoid
constipation.
16. Extended family is
composed of mother,
father and children.
17. Your brother and
sister are the most
important people in
your life.
18. Sibling rivalry occurs
when brothers and
sisters compete with
each other.
19. If you have a
fever, stay at home.
20. Wash your hands
to avoid spreading the
germs that cause
influenza.
21. Underweight
people find it harder
to breathe properly.
22. If you have toothache,
put a cold compress on the
outside of your cheek to
decrease the swelling.
23. If you have body odor,
clean your underarm with
deodorant soap and water
at least once a day.
24. Stress can also
contribute to the
increase of dandruff.
D. Match the description
from column A to the word
it describes in column B.
Write the letter only.
a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
25. The place where one
usually sleeps and rest.
a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
26. These are the clothes you need to
use when you go on a jogging.
a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
27. These are rich in protein and
also known as “Grow Foods”.
a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
28. The place where family
entertains guests and friends.
a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
29. These are the clothes you need to
use when you go to school.
a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
30. The place where one can eat
and study.
a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
31. These are rich in carbohydrates and
fats and also known as “Go Foods”.
a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
32. The place where meals are
prepared and cooked.
a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
33. It is a list of specific food or
dishes.
a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
34. These are rich in vitamins and
minerals and also called as the “Glow
Foods”.
E. Identify the correct name
of the following utensils in
the Formal Table Setting.
Write your answer only.
Araling
Panlipunan
Panuto: Tukuyin ang inilalarawan sa
bawat bilang sa pamamagitan ng
pagpili ng angkop na salita o
konsepto mula sa kahon. Isulat ang
tamang sagot gamit ang malaking
titik. Halimbawa: A
1. Ito ay tumutukoy sa pinakamahabang guhit
latitud kung saan nagsisimula ang pagbilang
ng distansya.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
2. Ito ang tawag sa lokasyon ng isang bans
ana natutukoy sa pamamagitan ng mga
karatig-bansa.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
3. Ito ang tawag sa kinaroroonan ng isag
bansa kapag nakakabit ito sa isang
kontinente.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
4. Ito ang pang-araw-araw na kalagayan ng
kapaligiran na man kinalaman sa init o lamig,
pagkabasa o pagkatuyo, at pagkamaaliwalas o
pagkamakulimlim.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
5. Ano ang tawag sa gumagawa ng
mapa?
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
6. Ito ang tawag sa kinaroroonan ng isang
bansa kapag nakahiwalay at napaligligiran
ng tubig.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
7. Ito ang batayang guhit sa
pagbabago ng oras sa iba’t ibang
panig ng mundo.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
8. Ito ang pag-aaral sa kaugnayan ng
katangiang pisikal ng lupa at ng mga
gawaing-tao.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
9. Ito ay nagsisimula sa Greenwich,
London, England. Ito ang
pinakamahabang guhit longhitud.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
10. Ito ay tumutukoy sa patag na
representasyon ng mundo.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
11. Ito ang kalagayan ng panahon na
nararanasan natin nang matagal.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
B. Basahing mabuti ang
bawat katanungan. Isulat
ang tamang sagot gamit
ang malaking titik.
Halimbawa: A
12. Ilang kapuluan ang bumubuo sa
bansang Pilipinas?
a. 7,641 malalaki at maliliit na
mga pulo
b. 7,107 malalaki at maliliit na
mga pulo
13. Kung ang araw ay
sumisikat sa silangan, saan
naman ito lumulubog?
a. hilaga
b. timog
c. kanluran
14. Saan matatagpuan ang Arctic
Circle?
a. 66.5 degrees hilagang
latitud
b. 23.5 degrees hilagang
latitud
c. 66.5 degrees timog-latitud
15. Ano ang kagandahang dulot ng lokasyon ng
Pilipinas?
a. Hindi masyadong paglaganap ng
matitinding sakit na nakaaapekto sa
maraming mamamayan sa iba’t ibang
bansa sa buong mundo.
b. Madalas na pagkakaroon ng
trahedyang dulot ng kalikasan.
c. Mabilis naaapektuhan ang mga
mamamayan ng mga matitinding sakit.
16. Bakit nakararanas ng matinding lamig o klimang
polar ang mga bansang nasa mataas na latitud?
a. Ang mga bansang ito ay hindi gaanong
nasisikatan ng araw kaya’t kaunti
lamang ang tinatanggap nilang init.
b. Ang mga bansang ito ay tumatanggap
ng pinakamatinding sinag mula sa araw.
c. Ang mga bansang ito napagigitnaan ng
Tropiko ng Cancer at Tropiko ng Capricorn.
17. Ano ang kaibahan ng klima at panahon?
a. Ang klima ay ang pang-araw-araw na
kalagayan ng kapaligiran
samantalang ang panahon ay ang
nararanasan natin nang matagal.
b. Ang klima ay ang kalagayan ng
panahon na nararanasan natin nang
matagal samantalang ang panahon ay
ang pang-araw-araw na kalagayan
ng kapaligiran.
c. Walang pinagkaiba ang mga ito.
18. Alin ang hindi totoo tungkol sa rebolusyon?
a. Ang rebolusyon ay ang pag-ikot ng
araw sa mga planeta.
b. Ang rebolusyon ay ang pag-ikot ng
mga planeta sa araw.
c. Ito ang dahilan kung bakit
nagkakaroon ng iba’t ibang klima at
panahon ang bawat bansa sa daigdig.
19. Bakit kailangang maglabas ng babala ng
bagyo ang PAGASA?
a. Upang magig maingat at alerto
ang mga naninirahan sa mga lugar
na dadaanan nito.
b. Upang alam nating kung kailan
tayo makikipagkita sa mga
kaibigan natin.
c. Upang magdiwang o magsaya ang
mga mamamayan.
20. Sa bagong palatuntunan ng pagbibigay ng
babala ng bagyo ng PAGASA, kailan sinususpindi
ang pasok sa mga paaralan?
a. Kapag ang babala ay nakataas sa
bilang 3
b. Kapag ang babala ay nakataas sa
bilang 1
c. Kapag ang lugar ay nasa ilalim ng
ilanmang Tropical Cyclone Warning
Signal
21. Aling teorya ng pinagmulan ng
Pilipinas ang mas pinaniniwalaan ng
mga siyentipiko?
a. Out-of-Taiwan Hypothesis
b. Teorya ng Core Population
c. Teorya ng Migrasyon
22. Kaninong lahi nagmula ang
mga ninuno nating gumawa ng
rice terraces sa Cordillera?
a. Negrito
b. Indones
c. Aeta
23. Paano namuhay ang mga pygmy sa ating
bansa?
a. Nabuhay sila sa pagtatanim ng mga
halamang maaaring kainin at nag-
alaga sila ng mga hayop.
b. Ang mga ito ay may permanenteng
tirahan.
c. Nabuhay sila sa pangangaso at
pangingisda gamit ang sibat at
matutulis na bato.
24. Ang bansang Canada ay nasa
gitnang latitud. Ilang panahon
mayroon dito?
a. dalawa
b. apat
c. isa
25. Alin ang tamang paglalarawan sa mga Malay?
a. Ang mga Malay ay may mas
mababang antas ng pamumuhay
kaysa sa mga Indones.
b. Walang kaalaman ang mga ito sa
paggamit ng patubig sa pagsasaka.
c. Marunong ang mga ito sa pagmimina,
paglulusaw ng metal at paghahabi ng
tela.
26. Ayon sa mga siyentipiko, nabuo ang Pilipinas sanhi ng tatlong
penomena. Alin ang tumutukoy sa diyastropismo?
a. Dahil sa lakas ng pagsabog ng mga bulkang nasa
ilalim ng Pacific Ocean, ang magkakalapit na
tunaw na bato mula sa ilalim ay nagkahiwa-hiwalay at
kumilos patungong ibabaw.
b. Ang Pilipinas ay kabahagi ng continental shelf na
tumutukoy sa masa ng lupa sa ilalalim ng
karagatan na umaabot hanggang sa isang kontinente.
c. Tumaas ang tubig sa dagat nang matunaw ang mga
yelo na naging sanhi ng paglubog ng
mabababang rehiyon ng daigdig kasama ang mga tulay
na lupa na nagpahiwalay sa Pilipinas sa Asia.
27. Ano ang kahulugan ng PAGASA?
a. Philippine Astronomical Geophysical
Atmospheric Services Administration
b. Philippine Atmospheric Geophysical
Astronomical Services Administration
c. Philippine Atmospheric Geographical
Astronomical Services Administration
28. Anong klima ang nararanasan ng
mga bansang malapit sa ekwador
katulad ng Pilipinas?
a. Klimang disyerto
b. Klimang polar
c. Klimang tropikal
29. Alin ang totoo tungkol sa hanging amihan?
a. Ito ay may dalang ulan na karaniwang
bumagbagsak sa silangang bahagi ng
Pilipinas.
b. Ito ay nagdadala ng malakas na ulang
karaniwang bumagbagsak sa
kanlurang bahagi ng Pilipinas.
c. Ito ay nagmumula sa hilagang silangan
ng hilagang emisperyo at timog-
silangan ng timog emisperyo
30. Ang Pilipinas ay may kabuuang sukat na 300,000
kilometro kuwadrado. Alin ang hindi totoo tungkol
dito?
a. Ang Pilipinas ay halos kasinlaki ng
Norway.
b. Ang Pilipinas ay mas malaki kaysa New
Zealand.
c. Ang Pilipinas ay mas maliit kaysa North
Korea.
31. Ilang bagyo ang dumaraan sa ating
bansa taon-taon?
a. humigit-kumulang dalawampung
bagyo
b. humigit-kumulang apatnapung
bagyo
c. humigit-kumulang dalawang
bagyo
32. Aling uri ng klima ay
tumutukoy sa pantay-pantay na
pagkakabahagi ng pag-ulan?
a. unang uri
b. ikalawang uri
c. ikaapat na uri
33. Alin ang tamang pagkakalarawan ng unang uri ng
klima sa Pilipinas?
a. halos walang tuyong panahon sapagkat
madalas umulas mula Nobyembre
hanggang Enero
b. madalas umulan at maikli lamang ang
tuyong panahon na tumatagal lamang ng isa
hanggang tatlong buwan
c. maulan mula Mayo hanggang Oktubre at
tuyo naman mula Nobyembre hanggang
Abril
34. Ano ang pagkakaiba ng dalawang pangkat ng Indones na dumating
sa Pilipinas?
a. Ang unang pangkat ay mapuputi, matatangkad,
balingkinitan ang katawan, matangos ang ilong, at
maninipis ang mga labi samantalang ang ikalawa ay
may malaking pangangatawan, makakapal na labi,
malalaking panga, at bilugang mga mata.
b. Ang unang pangkat ay may malaking pangangatawan,
makakapal na labi, malalaking panga, at bilugang
mga mata samantalang ang ikalawa ay mapuputi,
matatangkad, balingkinitan ang katawan, matangos ang
ilong, at maninipis ang mga labi.
c. Magkakamukha at magkakapareho ang mga katangian ng
mga ito.
35. Ilang milya ang batayang
guhit ng dagat teritoryal ng isang
bansa ayon sa UNCLOS?
a. 12-milya
b. 14-milya
c. 16-milya
36. Alin ang hindi kahalagahan ng lokasyon ng Pilipinas
sa pag-unlad nito?
a. Ito ay naging sentro ng kalakalan, labas-
pasok sa baybayin ng Pilipinas ang mga
sasakyang pandagat ng mga dayuhang
mangangalakal
b. Naging masila at mabuti ang takbo ng
kalakalan
b. Madalas ang pagkakaroon ng trahedyang dulot ng
kalikasan
c. 7,000 malalaki at maliliit na mga pulo
37. Sa tatlong pangunahing pangkat
ng mga pulo ng Pilipinas, ano ang
pinakamaliit?
a. Luzon
b. Visayas
c. Mindanao
38. Ano ang pinakamalaking
anyong lupa sa mundo?
a. ilog
b. karagatan
c. kontinente
39. Kung ikaw ay nakaharap sa
hilaga, ano ang nasa likuran mo?
a. kanluran
b. timog
c. silangan
40. Bakit mahalagang mayroon tayong
kaalaman sa mga direksyon?
a. Upang madali nating matagpuan
ang mga hinahanap natin.
b. Upang tayo ay maligaw sa
paghahanap.
c. Upang hindi tayo makarating sa
ating patutunguhan.
C. Tingnan at suriin ang
larawan upang masagutan ang
mga katanungan. Isulat ang
tamang sagot gamit ang
malaking titik. Halimbawa: A
41. Saan bahagi
matatagpuan ang
pagamutan
(hospital)?
a. timog
b. hilaga
c. kanluran
42. Saang bahagi ng
bangko matatagpuan
ang pulisya?
a. hilaga
b. kanluran
c. timog
43. Ano ang nasa
silangan ng fire
station?
a. Police station b.
Gas station
c. paaralan
44. Ano ang
matatagpuan sa
pinakahilagang bahagi
ng
larawan?
a. paaralan
b. pagupitan (barber)
c. bangko
45. Saan matatagpuan
ang fire station?
a. timog-kanluran
b. hilagang
kanluran
c. timog-silangan
46. Anong bayan ang
nasa pinakahilagang
bahagi ng Ilocos Norte?
a. Pagudpud
b. Laoag City
c. Badoc
47. Anong bayan
ang nasa timog ng
Burgos?
a. Pagudpud b.
Dumalneg c.
Pasuquin
48. Saang bahagi ng
Ilocos Norte
matatagpuan ang
Carasi?
a. hilaga
b. kanluran
c. silangan
49. Anong bayan ang
nasa timog ng Banna?
a. Badoc
b. Pinili
c. Marcos
50. Saang bahagi
matatagpuan ang
Currimao?
a. Timog-kanluran
b. Hilangang
silangan
c. Timog-silangan

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PERIODICAL TEST. For Elementary school pptx

  • 2. I. Direction: Read each statement or question carefully. Write the correct answer using an uppercase letter. Example: A
  • 3. 1. Which is correctly written in number form, corresponding to the given word form? two million, six hundred fifty- seven thousand, three a. 2,657,003 b. 2,657,300 c. 2,657,030
  • 4. 2. Ryle earned Php 34,627, Karl earned Php 32,392 while Jake earned Php 28,898. If they put together their earnings, around how many thousands do they have in all? a. Their earnings are about Php 95,000 in all. b. Their earnings are about Php 96,000 in all. c. Their earnings are about Php 90,000 in all.
  • 5. 3. Which of the number forms corresponds to the word form “one million, one hundred thousand, ninety-four” a. 1,100,094 b. 1,001,094 c. 1,010,094
  • 6. 4. When should you add one to the rounding digit? a. You add one to the rounding digit if the digit to its right is 0, 1, 2, 3, or 4. b. You add one to the rounding digit if the digit to its right is 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8. c. You add one to the rounding digit if the digit to its right is 5, 6, 7, 8, or 9.
  • 7. 5. What is the value of 10,586 if you round it off to the nearest tens? a. 11,000 b. 10,600 c. 10,590
  • 8. 6. Kyra spent Php 3,220,000 to buy her new house. After 5 years, she sold it to Php 1,870,000. Around how much millions were her loss? a. Around Php 1,300,000 were her loss. b. Around Php 1,000,000 was her loss. c. Around Php 1,400,000 were her loss.
  • 9. 7. Millie took along six friends to a local farm to pick strawberries. They picked 120 strawberries in all. How many strawberries will each one gets if they decided to share them equally? a. Each one gets 20 strawberries. b. Each one gets 24 strawberries. c. Each one gets 26 strawberries.
  • 10. 8. What is the value of 6,985 if you round it off to the nearest thousands? a. 7,000 b. 6,000 c. 5,000
  • 11. 9. Marionne made 64 paper boats in 8 days. How many dolls did he make each day? a. He made 10 paper boats each day. b. He made 8 paper boats each day. c. He made 7 paper boats each day.
  • 12. 10. 48 players are equally divided in 6 teams. How many players are there in each team? a. There are 7 players in each team. b. There are 6 players in each team. c. There are 8 players in each team.
  • 13. 11. What is the place value of 7 in 167,953? a. thousands b. ten thousands c. hundreds
  • 14. 12. Ruth can make 15 sandwiches in an hour. How many hours will I take to make 150 sandwiches? a. She will take 5 hours to make 150 sandwiches. b. She will take 10 hours to make 150 sandwiches. c. She will take 15 hours to make 150 sandwiches.
  • 15. 13. What is the place value of 9 in 976,120? a. thousands b. ten thousands c. hundred thousands
  • 16. 14. What is the place value of 6 in 320,065? a. ones b. tens c. hundreds
  • 17. 15. What is the value of 11,567 if you round it off to the nearest hundreds? a. 11,500 b. 11,600 c. 12,000
  • 18. 16. Andi has 50 sweets. She shares them into 6 party bags. How many sweets are in each bag? How many are left over? a. There are 8 sweets in each bag and 2 are left over. b. There are 9 sweets in each bag and 2 are left over. c. There are 10 sweets in each bag and 5 are left over.
  • 19. 17. Margo collected 23,500 stamps. Brylle collected 35,280 stamps, and Josh collected 28,090 stamps. Around how many stamps to the nearest hundred did they collect altogether? a. They collected around 86,800 stamps altogether. b. They collected around 86,900 stamps altogether. c. They collected around 86,000 stamps altogether.
  • 20. 18. What is the correct word form of 9,005,500? a. nine million, five thousand, five hundred b. nine million, five hundred, five thousand c. nine million, fifty thousand, five hundred
  • 21. 19. Ms. Lim surrendered 2,709 accounts of interested clients for a project. About how many accounts were surrendered in thousands? a. There were about 2,000 surrendered accounts. b. There were about 2,700 surrendered accounts. c. There were about 3,000 surrendered accounts.
  • 22. 20. What is the correct word form of 1,003? a. one thousand, three hundred b. one thousand, thirty c. one thousand, three
  • 23. 21. In Safari Amusement Park, the price for an adult ticket is Php 125 and Php 75 for child ticket. If the Sanchez Family has 3 children and 4 adults, how much did they pay in all? a. They paid Php 675 in all. b. They paid Php 75 in all. c. They paid Php 765 in all.
  • 24. 22. Joe receive a change of Php 150 after paying for a backpack worth Php 3,350. How much did he pay the cashier? a. He paid 3,600 to the cashier. b. He paid 4,000 to the cashier c. He paid 3,500 to the cashier.
  • 25. 23. There are 1,500 students in preschool. 4,050 students in grade school, 3,120 students in high school. How many students are there from preschool to high school? a. There are 6,780 students from preschool to high school. b. There are 8,760 students from preschool to high school. c. There are 8,670 students from preschool to high school.
  • 26. 24. What is the difference between 50,000 and the sum of 13,500, and 12,500? a. 24,000 b. 25,000 c. 24, 500
  • 27. 25. Dani baked 21 cookies for her children. If the cookies are shared equally among 3 of her children, how many cookies will each child get? a. Each child will get 8 cupcakes. b. Each child will get 7 cupcakes. c. Each child will get 6 cupcakes.
  • 28. 26. What is the value of 3,092 if you round it off to the nearest hundreds? a. 3,090 b. 3,100 c. 4,000
  • 29. 27. What is the correct word form of 10,905? a. ten thousand, ninety-five b. ten thousand, five c. ten thousand, nine hundred five
  • 30. II. Direction: Read each word problem carefully then answer the following questions. Write the correct answer an uppercase letter. Example: A
  • 31. 28-31. Eight friends decided to share the expenses in a restaurant. When they were about to pay the bill, Mike decided to treat everyone by paying for their drinks. Each drink is worth Php 75, how much will the share of Mike will be?
  • 32. 28-31. Eight friends decided to share the expenses in a restaurant. When they were about to pay the bill, Mike decided to treat everyone by paying for their drinks. Each drink is worth Php 75, how much will the share of Mike will be?
  • 33. 28. What is asked? a. The total amount of Mike’s share of the bill. b. The total amount of their bill. c. The total amount of their expenses in the restaurant.
  • 34. 29. What are is the operation to be used? a. addition b. subtraction c. multiplication
  • 35. 30. What is the number sentence? a. 75 + 8 = N b. 75 x 8 = N c. 75-8 = N
  • 36. 31. What is the answer? a. The total amount of Mike’s share is Php 83. b. The total amount of Mike’s share is Php 600. c. The total amount of Mike’s share is Php 67.
  • 37. 32-35. Russel sold 950 doughnuts for his school organization. The doughnuts were sold in boxes with 5 doughnuts each. How many boxes were there in all if each box contains 5 doughnuts?
  • 38. 32. What is asked? a. The number of boxes if each box contains 5 doughnuts. b. The number of doughnuts in each box. c. The total number of doughnuts and boxes.
  • 39. 33. What is the operation to be used? a. multiplication b. subtraction c. division
  • 40. 34. What is the number sentence? a. 950 ÷ 5 = N b. 950 x 5 = N c. 950 – 5 = N
  • 41. 35. What is the answer? a. There were 4,750 boxes in all. b. There were 190 boxes in all. c. There were 945 boxes in all.
  • 42. 36-40. There are 3 Grade- Five sections in a school. During a program, each section gave a presentation with 10 participants each. If there are 250 students in all, how many students were not participants?
  • 43. 36. What is asked? a. The number of students who were not participants. b. The number of students who were participants. c. The total number of Grade- Five students.
  • 44. 37. What are the given facts? a. 3 Grade-Five sections, 10 participants each, 250 students in all b. 10 Grade-Five sections, 3 participants each, 250 students in all c. 250 Grade-Five sections, 10 participants, 3 students in all
  • 45. 38. What are the operations to be used? a. addition and subtraction b. division and addition c. multiplication and subtraction
  • 46. 39. What is the number sentence? a. 250 – (3x10) = N b. 250 + (10-3) = N c. 250 x (10-3) = N
  • 47. 40. What is the answer? a. There were 257 students who were not participants. b. There were 250 students who were not participants. c. There were 220 students who were not participants.
  • 48. 41-45. In 2007, the Philippines has 136 cities, 64 are in Luzon, 39 cities are in Visayas, and rest are in Mindanao. How many cities were there in Mindanao?
  • 49. 41. What is asked? a. The total number of cities in the Philippines. b. The total number of cities in Mindanao. c. The total number of cities in Luzon and Visayas.
  • 50. 42. What are given facts? a. 136 cities in the Philippines, 64 cities in Luzon, and 39 cities in Visayas b. 136 cities in the Philippines, 39 cities in Luzon, and 64 cities in Visayas c. 136 cities in the Philippines, 64 cities in Luzon, and 39 cities in Mindanao
  • 51. 43. What is the operation to be used? a. addition and subtraction b. addition and multiplication c. addition and division
  • 52. 44. What is the number sentence? a. 136 + (64 - 39) = N b. 136 + (64 x 39) = N c. 136 - (64 + 39) = N
  • 53. 45. What is the answer? a. There were 33 cities in Mindanao. b. There were 35 cities in Mindanao. c. There were 37 cities in Mindanao.
  • 54. 46. What is the value of 13,530 if you round it off to the nearest hundreds? a. 13,600 b. 13,500 c. 14,000
  • 55. 47. What is the correct word form of 5,607? a. five thousand, sixty-seven b. five thousand, seven hundred six c. five thousand, six hundred seven
  • 56. 48. What is the rounded number of 45, 670 to the nearest ten thousands? a. 40,000 b. 46,000 c. 50,000
  • 57. 49. How can you write “five million seven hundred thousand eighty- five” in figures? a. 5,700,085 b. 5,070,805 c. 7,007,85
  • 58. 50. How can you write “seven hundred fifty thousand, fifty-six” in figures? a. 750,506 b. 750,056 c. 750,605
  • 59. MAPEH
  • 61. A. Identify the names of the illustrated notes and rests. Choose the correct answer from the given choices. Write it using an uppercase letter. Example: A
  • 62. a. whole note and rest b. eighth note and rest c. half note and rest d. sixteenth note and rest e. quarter note and rest 1.
  • 63. a. whole note and rest b. eighth note and rest c. half note and rest d. sixteenth note and rest e. quarter note and rest 2.
  • 64. a. whole note and rest b. eighth note and rest c. half note and rest d. sixteenth note and rest e. quarter note and rest 3.
  • 65. a. whole note and rest b. eighth note and rest c. half note and rest d. sixteenth note and rest e. quarter note and rest 4.
  • 66. a. whole note and rest b. eighth note and rest c. half note and rest d. sixteenth note and rest e. quarter note and rest 5.
  • 67. B. Read each statement or question carefully. Write the correct answer using an uppercase letter. Example: A
  • 68. 6. What is the time signature of the given set of notes? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 4 4 4
  • 69. 7. What note should be added to make the measure complete? 3 8 a. quarter note b. eighth note c. c. sixteenth note
  • 70. 8. Why is there a need to conduct? a. To distract the performance of the musical group. b. To guide the performers and keep them in uniform tempo. c. To make the performance chaotic and unpleasant.
  • 71. 9. Which is NOT true about time signature? a. Time signature is one of the important elements in a musical piece. b. The upper number indicates the number of beats in a measure. c. The lower number indicates the number of notes which will receive the beat.
  • 72. 10. How many beats does a quarter have if the time signature is 3? 8 a. It has 4 beats. b. It has 2 beats. c. It has 1 beat.
  • 73. 11. How does a quadruple meter be conducted? a. It starts by lowering the hand on 1, bounce to the left on 2, bounce to the right on 3 then again, bounce up at head level on 4. b. It starts by lowering the hand on 1 and bounce up at 2 about head level. c. It starts by lowering the hand on 1, make a bounce to the right then another bounce up at about head level.
  • 74. 12. Which is used to divide the staff into measures? a. slash b. bar line c. rest
  • 75. 13. If the lower number of the time signatures is 8, which note receives one beat? a. quarter note b. eighth note c. sixteenth note
  • 76. 14. What is the use of a musical rest? a. It gives the performers time to relax or take a deep breath in a performance. b. It gives the performers the cue to make a sound. c. It lets the performers produce sound.
  • 77. 15. Where can you find the time signature? a. At the center of the musical piece. b. At the end of the musical piece. c. At the beginning of the musical piece.
  • 79. Direction: Read each statement or question carefully. Write the correct answer using an uppercase letter. Example: A
  • 80. 16. What is the 3-dimensional counterpart of a square? a. cube b. rectangular prism c. cone
  • 81. 17. Which refers to a line that extends without a break? a. broken line b. dotted line c. continuous line
  • 82. 18. Which is not a form? a. b. c.
  • 83. 19. What do static lines suggest? a. movement b. calmness c. action
  • 84. 20. How do you define a jagged line? a. It goes up and down. b. It has no straight part. c. It has a diagonal orientation.
  • 85. B. Identify the kind of line that is being described. Write the correct answer using an uppercase letter. Example: A
  • 86. a. broken lines b. thick line c. vertical line d. wavy line e. dynamic line 21. It is a moving line. It is also called an action line which may form regular patterns like sea waves.
  • 87. a. broken lines b. thick line c. vertical line d. wavy line e. dynamic line 22. It is a broad or fat line, usually used to outline shapes.
  • 88. a. broken lines b. thick line c. vertical line d. wavy line e. dynamic line 23. A perpendicular or upright line that goes endlessly in both directions.
  • 89. a. broken lines b. thick line c. vertical line d. wavy line e. dynamic line 24. Line with curved parts or bending strokes that signify movement and vitality.
  • 90. a. broken lines b. thick line c. vertical line d. wavy line e. dynamic line 25. It refers to a sequence of short lines.
  • 91. a. broken lines b. thick line c. vertical line d. wavy line e. dynamic line 25. It refers to a sequence of short lines.
  • 92. C. Identify the type of rhythm shown in each illustration. Write the correct answer using capital letters. Example: A
  • 93. 26. a. random rhythm b. flowing rhythm c. regular rhythm d. alternating rhythm e. progressive rhythm
  • 94. 27. a. random rhythm b. flowing rhythm c. regular rhythm d. alternating rhythm e. progressive rhythm
  • 95. 28. a. random rhythm b. flowing rhythm c. regular rhythm d. alternating rhythm e. progressive rhythm
  • 96. 29. a. random rhythm b. flowing rhythm c. regular rhythm d. alternating rhythm e. progressive rhythm
  • 97. 30. a. random rhythm b. flowing rhythm c. regular rhythm d. alternating rhythm e. progressive rhythm
  • 99. Direction: Read each statement or question carefully. Write the correct answer using an uppercase letter. Example: A
  • 100. 31. Which of the following habits can cause damage to the brain? a. Getting enough sleep. b. Taking a rest when sick. c. Talking rarely.
  • 101. 32. How can you nurture your health? a. Stay away from other people? b. Learn how to manage stress. c. Take care of yourself by eating junk food.
  • 102. 33. What should you do to avoid developing brain damage? a. Eat a lot of food. b. Eat healthful food. c. Skip breakfast.
  • 103. 34. Which is NOT a sign of a healthy relationship? a. Jeen and Jam respect each other. b. Mario and Luigi set bonding time as often as possible. c. Louise does things for Mari and even share things with her equally but Mari doesn’t do the same.
  • 104. 35. How can you nurture your emotional health? a. Focus on the negative things in life. b. Ignore your capabilities. c. Be sociable. Talk with other people.
  • 105. 36. You had your family gathering and everyone was praising your sister for being a good singer. What would you do? a. Sing your favorite song and show them that you are better than her. b. Praise your sister and watch him as she sings. c. Get mad at your sister and tell her that her voice isn’t that good.
  • 106. 37. When can you say that a person is healthy? a. When they do not suffer from any illnesses. b. When they can balance rest and activity, work and recreation. c. When they have never gone to the hospital.
  • 107. 38. Who is an emotionally healthy person? a. Harry isolates himself when he feels sad and won’t bother other people for help. b. Lily expresses her emotions and tries to reflect on it. c. Max acknowledges his strengths and believes that he is never weak.
  • 108. 39. Margaux transferred in your school. She doesn’t know anyone in your class. Which will you avoid to build a healthy relationship with her? a. Approach her and make friends with her. b. Ignore and stay away from her. c. Start a conversation and ask about her.
  • 109. 40. Which is NOT a way to develop fruitful and happy relationships? a. sharing one’s time and energy b. growing and thriving together with others c. taking insults and abuse without complaining
  • 110. 41. Whom among the following nurtures their emotional and mental health? a. Marco is always thinking of the negative things that might happen causing him to ignore the positive things. b. Andre goes out with his friends every weekend. They go to different places with beautiful views. c. Jul refuses to go out because he is stressed out.
  • 111. 42. How can you nurture your mental health? a. Eat twice a day, it is not necessary to eat breakfast. b. Limit drinking water. c. Get enough sleep
  • 112. 44. What should you do to have a healthy body? a. Wake up early even if you slept late. b. Eat only when you feel hungry. c. Engage in regular physical activities.
  • 113. 45. What can a healthy relationship do to you? a. It decreases your confidence. b. It makes you feel unsatisfied and like you don’t belong. c. It allows you to be independent and try out new ideas.
  • 115. Direction: Read each statement or question carefully. Write the correct answer using an uppercase letter. Example: A
  • 116. 46. Which is NOT true about the Filipino Pyramid Activity Guide? a. It is intended to help Filipinos select activities that best fits their lifestyle and health. b. The activities at the bottom of the pyramid should be done habitually. c. Activities that can contribute to a healthy body are categorized on top of the pyramid.
  • 117. 47. Why should do warm-up exercises before taking the physical fitness test? a. To make sure that the body is stiffed after the test. b. To condition the body and avoid possible injuries. c. To make the body sore after the test.
  • 118. 48. What kind of exercises should be done for the improvement of bones and muscles? a. Aerobic exercises b. Strengthening and flexibility exercises c. Recreational activities
  • 119. 49. Whom among the following took appropriate measures before taking the physical fitness test? a. Molly took heavy meal before the test. b. Xander skipped doing warm-up exercises because it will just make him tired. c. Aimee got a medical certificate from her doctor.
  • 120. 50. Which is TRUE? a. Physical fitness tests are conducted to determine the strengths and weaknesses of the body. b. At a young age, it is not necessary for you to be well-guided on how to maintain or improve your body’s condition/ c. Physical fitness tests measure individual fitness in terms of emotional functions.
  • 122. Direction: Identify which of the following tests or activities is being described. Write the correct answer using an uppercase letter. Example: A
  • 123. 51. It is a test to determine strength and endurance of abdominal muscles. a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
  • 124. 52. It is conducted to assess the ability to balance successfully on a single leg. a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
  • 125. 53. An activity which measures agility and speed. a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
  • 126. 54. Its objective is to determine the strengths and weaknesses of the body. a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
  • 127. 55. It aims to assess trunk flexibility. a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
  • 128. 56. A test to determine the student’s acceleration and speed. a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
  • 129. 57. It is done to assess upper body’s endurance and strength. a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
  • 130. 58. An activity which tests the reaction time of the students. a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
  • 131. 59. Its objective is to evaluate leg strength and power. a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
  • 132. 60. It aims to determine overall endurance. a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
  • 133. HELE
  • 135. A. Read each statement carefully and identify which among the choices from the word box is being described. Write the correct answer using an uppercase letter. Example: A
  • 136. 1. It refers to the tightness of the foreskin. a. Puberty b. bathroom c. Zygote d. Testosterone e. menstruation f. phimosis
  • 137. 2. It is when your body begins to develop as you move from being a child to being an adult. a. Puberty b. bathroom c. Zygote d. Testosterone e. menstruation f. phimosis
  • 138. 3. It is also known as the fertilized egg. a. Puberty b. bathroom c. Zygote d. Testosterone e. menstruation f. phimosis
  • 139. 4. This is the smallest part of the house. a. Puberty b. bathroom c. Zygote d. Testosterone e. menstruation f. phimosis
  • 140. 5. It is the hormone that causes most of the changes in a boy’s body. a. Puberty b. bathroom c. Zygote d. Testosterone e. menstruation f. phimosis
  • 141. 6. It is when blood is released through the vagina. a. Puberty b. bathroom c. Zygote d. Testosterone e. menstruation f. phimosis
  • 142. B. Read each statement or question carefully. Write the correct answer using an uppercase letter.
  • 143. 7. __________ is a pea-shaped gland at the bottom of the brain. a. Pituitary gland b. Thyroid gland c. Pineal gland
  • 144. 8. While Lita is combing her hair, she noticed that there are white small pieces that are falling from her hair. Lita has _______. a. sunburn b. dandruff c. blister
  • 145. 9. _________ gives color to our skin. a. melanin b. food coloring c. chloroplast
  • 146. 10. While Teresa is playing volleyball, her friends noticed that she is hard up in catching her breath. They rushed Teresa to the hospital and after few hours, she is now okay. Teresa has ___________. a. melanin b. sunburn c. asthma
  • 147. C. Write True if the statement is true. If it is false, change the underlined word with the correct answer.
  • 148. 11. If your eyes are itchy, rinse it with warm clean water to soothe them.
  • 149. 12. Redness, red streaks or pus in a blister should be cured by a pharmacist.
  • 150. 13. If you break the skin in your scalp, use strong shampoo until the wound heals.
  • 151. 14. Do not keep a pet that can trigger your asthma.
  • 152. 15. Drink a lot of water to avoid constipation.
  • 153. 16. Extended family is composed of mother, father and children.
  • 154. 17. Your brother and sister are the most important people in your life.
  • 155. 18. Sibling rivalry occurs when brothers and sisters compete with each other.
  • 156. 19. If you have a fever, stay at home.
  • 157. 20. Wash your hands to avoid spreading the germs that cause influenza.
  • 158. 21. Underweight people find it harder to breathe properly.
  • 159. 22. If you have toothache, put a cold compress on the outside of your cheek to decrease the swelling.
  • 160. 23. If you have body odor, clean your underarm with deodorant soap and water at least once a day.
  • 161. 24. Stress can also contribute to the increase of dandruff.
  • 162. D. Match the description from column A to the word it describes in column B. Write the letter only.
  • 163. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods b. Body-Building Foods g. menu c. sports clothes h. dining room d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom e. living room j. school clothes 25. The place where one usually sleeps and rest.
  • 164. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods b. Body-Building Foods g. menu c. sports clothes h. dining room d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom e. living room j. school clothes 26. These are the clothes you need to use when you go on a jogging.
  • 165. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods b. Body-Building Foods g. menu c. sports clothes h. dining room d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom e. living room j. school clothes 27. These are rich in protein and also known as “Grow Foods”.
  • 166. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods b. Body-Building Foods g. menu c. sports clothes h. dining room d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom e. living room j. school clothes 28. The place where family entertains guests and friends.
  • 167. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods b. Body-Building Foods g. menu c. sports clothes h. dining room d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom e. living room j. school clothes 29. These are the clothes you need to use when you go to school.
  • 168. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods b. Body-Building Foods g. menu c. sports clothes h. dining room d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom e. living room j. school clothes 30. The place where one can eat and study.
  • 169. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods b. Body-Building Foods g. menu c. sports clothes h. dining room d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom e. living room j. school clothes 31. These are rich in carbohydrates and fats and also known as “Go Foods”.
  • 170. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods b. Body-Building Foods g. menu c. sports clothes h. dining room d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom e. living room j. school clothes 32. The place where meals are prepared and cooked.
  • 171. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods b. Body-Building Foods g. menu c. sports clothes h. dining room d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom e. living room j. school clothes 33. It is a list of specific food or dishes.
  • 172. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods b. Body-Building Foods g. menu c. sports clothes h. dining room d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom e. living room j. school clothes 34. These are rich in vitamins and minerals and also called as the “Glow Foods”.
  • 173. E. Identify the correct name of the following utensils in the Formal Table Setting. Write your answer only.
  • 174.
  • 176. Panuto: Tukuyin ang inilalarawan sa bawat bilang sa pamamagitan ng pagpili ng angkop na salita o konsepto mula sa kahon. Isulat ang tamang sagot gamit ang malaking titik. Halimbawa: A
  • 177. 1. Ito ay tumutukoy sa pinakamahabang guhit latitud kung saan nagsisimula ang pagbilang ng distansya. a. ekwador f. heograpiya b. International Date Line g. bisinal c. kartograpo h. kontinental d. mapa i. insular e. Punong meridian j. panahon k. klima
  • 178. 2. Ito ang tawag sa lokasyon ng isang bans ana natutukoy sa pamamagitan ng mga karatig-bansa. a. ekwador f. heograpiya b. International Date Line g. bisinal c. kartograpo h. kontinental d. mapa i. insular e. Punong meridian j. panahon k. klima
  • 179. 3. Ito ang tawag sa kinaroroonan ng isag bansa kapag nakakabit ito sa isang kontinente. a. ekwador f. heograpiya b. International Date Line g. bisinal c. kartograpo h. kontinental d. mapa i. insular e. Punong meridian j. panahon k. klima
  • 180. 4. Ito ang pang-araw-araw na kalagayan ng kapaligiran na man kinalaman sa init o lamig, pagkabasa o pagkatuyo, at pagkamaaliwalas o pagkamakulimlim. a. ekwador f. heograpiya b. International Date Line g. bisinal c. kartograpo h. kontinental d. mapa i. insular e. Punong meridian j. panahon k. klima
  • 181. 5. Ano ang tawag sa gumagawa ng mapa? a. ekwador f. heograpiya b. International Date Line g. bisinal c. kartograpo h. kontinental d. mapa i. insular e. Punong meridian j. panahon k. klima
  • 182. 6. Ito ang tawag sa kinaroroonan ng isang bansa kapag nakahiwalay at napaligligiran ng tubig. a. ekwador f. heograpiya b. International Date Line g. bisinal c. kartograpo h. kontinental d. mapa i. insular e. Punong meridian j. panahon k. klima
  • 183. 7. Ito ang batayang guhit sa pagbabago ng oras sa iba’t ibang panig ng mundo. a. ekwador f. heograpiya b. International Date Line g. bisinal c. kartograpo h. kontinental d. mapa i. insular e. Punong meridian j. panahon k. klima
  • 184. 8. Ito ang pag-aaral sa kaugnayan ng katangiang pisikal ng lupa at ng mga gawaing-tao. a. ekwador f. heograpiya b. International Date Line g. bisinal c. kartograpo h. kontinental d. mapa i. insular e. Punong meridian j. panahon k. klima
  • 185. 9. Ito ay nagsisimula sa Greenwich, London, England. Ito ang pinakamahabang guhit longhitud. a. ekwador f. heograpiya b. International Date Line g. bisinal c. kartograpo h. kontinental d. mapa i. insular e. Punong meridian j. panahon k. klima
  • 186. 10. Ito ay tumutukoy sa patag na representasyon ng mundo. a. ekwador f. heograpiya b. International Date Line g. bisinal c. kartograpo h. kontinental d. mapa i. insular e. Punong meridian j. panahon k. klima
  • 187. 11. Ito ang kalagayan ng panahon na nararanasan natin nang matagal. a. ekwador f. heograpiya b. International Date Line g. bisinal c. kartograpo h. kontinental d. mapa i. insular e. Punong meridian j. panahon k. klima
  • 188. B. Basahing mabuti ang bawat katanungan. Isulat ang tamang sagot gamit ang malaking titik. Halimbawa: A
  • 189. 12. Ilang kapuluan ang bumubuo sa bansang Pilipinas? a. 7,641 malalaki at maliliit na mga pulo b. 7,107 malalaki at maliliit na mga pulo
  • 190. 13. Kung ang araw ay sumisikat sa silangan, saan naman ito lumulubog? a. hilaga b. timog c. kanluran
  • 191. 14. Saan matatagpuan ang Arctic Circle? a. 66.5 degrees hilagang latitud b. 23.5 degrees hilagang latitud c. 66.5 degrees timog-latitud
  • 192. 15. Ano ang kagandahang dulot ng lokasyon ng Pilipinas? a. Hindi masyadong paglaganap ng matitinding sakit na nakaaapekto sa maraming mamamayan sa iba’t ibang bansa sa buong mundo. b. Madalas na pagkakaroon ng trahedyang dulot ng kalikasan. c. Mabilis naaapektuhan ang mga mamamayan ng mga matitinding sakit.
  • 193. 16. Bakit nakararanas ng matinding lamig o klimang polar ang mga bansang nasa mataas na latitud? a. Ang mga bansang ito ay hindi gaanong nasisikatan ng araw kaya’t kaunti lamang ang tinatanggap nilang init. b. Ang mga bansang ito ay tumatanggap ng pinakamatinding sinag mula sa araw. c. Ang mga bansang ito napagigitnaan ng Tropiko ng Cancer at Tropiko ng Capricorn.
  • 194. 17. Ano ang kaibahan ng klima at panahon? a. Ang klima ay ang pang-araw-araw na kalagayan ng kapaligiran samantalang ang panahon ay ang nararanasan natin nang matagal. b. Ang klima ay ang kalagayan ng panahon na nararanasan natin nang matagal samantalang ang panahon ay ang pang-araw-araw na kalagayan ng kapaligiran. c. Walang pinagkaiba ang mga ito.
  • 195. 18. Alin ang hindi totoo tungkol sa rebolusyon? a. Ang rebolusyon ay ang pag-ikot ng araw sa mga planeta. b. Ang rebolusyon ay ang pag-ikot ng mga planeta sa araw. c. Ito ang dahilan kung bakit nagkakaroon ng iba’t ibang klima at panahon ang bawat bansa sa daigdig.
  • 196. 19. Bakit kailangang maglabas ng babala ng bagyo ang PAGASA? a. Upang magig maingat at alerto ang mga naninirahan sa mga lugar na dadaanan nito. b. Upang alam nating kung kailan tayo makikipagkita sa mga kaibigan natin. c. Upang magdiwang o magsaya ang mga mamamayan.
  • 197. 20. Sa bagong palatuntunan ng pagbibigay ng babala ng bagyo ng PAGASA, kailan sinususpindi ang pasok sa mga paaralan? a. Kapag ang babala ay nakataas sa bilang 3 b. Kapag ang babala ay nakataas sa bilang 1 c. Kapag ang lugar ay nasa ilalim ng ilanmang Tropical Cyclone Warning Signal
  • 198. 21. Aling teorya ng pinagmulan ng Pilipinas ang mas pinaniniwalaan ng mga siyentipiko? a. Out-of-Taiwan Hypothesis b. Teorya ng Core Population c. Teorya ng Migrasyon
  • 199. 22. Kaninong lahi nagmula ang mga ninuno nating gumawa ng rice terraces sa Cordillera? a. Negrito b. Indones c. Aeta
  • 200. 23. Paano namuhay ang mga pygmy sa ating bansa? a. Nabuhay sila sa pagtatanim ng mga halamang maaaring kainin at nag- alaga sila ng mga hayop. b. Ang mga ito ay may permanenteng tirahan. c. Nabuhay sila sa pangangaso at pangingisda gamit ang sibat at matutulis na bato.
  • 201. 24. Ang bansang Canada ay nasa gitnang latitud. Ilang panahon mayroon dito? a. dalawa b. apat c. isa
  • 202. 25. Alin ang tamang paglalarawan sa mga Malay? a. Ang mga Malay ay may mas mababang antas ng pamumuhay kaysa sa mga Indones. b. Walang kaalaman ang mga ito sa paggamit ng patubig sa pagsasaka. c. Marunong ang mga ito sa pagmimina, paglulusaw ng metal at paghahabi ng tela.
  • 203. 26. Ayon sa mga siyentipiko, nabuo ang Pilipinas sanhi ng tatlong penomena. Alin ang tumutukoy sa diyastropismo? a. Dahil sa lakas ng pagsabog ng mga bulkang nasa ilalim ng Pacific Ocean, ang magkakalapit na tunaw na bato mula sa ilalim ay nagkahiwa-hiwalay at kumilos patungong ibabaw. b. Ang Pilipinas ay kabahagi ng continental shelf na tumutukoy sa masa ng lupa sa ilalalim ng karagatan na umaabot hanggang sa isang kontinente. c. Tumaas ang tubig sa dagat nang matunaw ang mga yelo na naging sanhi ng paglubog ng mabababang rehiyon ng daigdig kasama ang mga tulay na lupa na nagpahiwalay sa Pilipinas sa Asia.
  • 204. 27. Ano ang kahulugan ng PAGASA? a. Philippine Astronomical Geophysical Atmospheric Services Administration b. Philippine Atmospheric Geophysical Astronomical Services Administration c. Philippine Atmospheric Geographical Astronomical Services Administration
  • 205. 28. Anong klima ang nararanasan ng mga bansang malapit sa ekwador katulad ng Pilipinas? a. Klimang disyerto b. Klimang polar c. Klimang tropikal
  • 206. 29. Alin ang totoo tungkol sa hanging amihan? a. Ito ay may dalang ulan na karaniwang bumagbagsak sa silangang bahagi ng Pilipinas. b. Ito ay nagdadala ng malakas na ulang karaniwang bumagbagsak sa kanlurang bahagi ng Pilipinas. c. Ito ay nagmumula sa hilagang silangan ng hilagang emisperyo at timog- silangan ng timog emisperyo
  • 207. 30. Ang Pilipinas ay may kabuuang sukat na 300,000 kilometro kuwadrado. Alin ang hindi totoo tungkol dito? a. Ang Pilipinas ay halos kasinlaki ng Norway. b. Ang Pilipinas ay mas malaki kaysa New Zealand. c. Ang Pilipinas ay mas maliit kaysa North Korea.
  • 208. 31. Ilang bagyo ang dumaraan sa ating bansa taon-taon? a. humigit-kumulang dalawampung bagyo b. humigit-kumulang apatnapung bagyo c. humigit-kumulang dalawang bagyo
  • 209. 32. Aling uri ng klima ay tumutukoy sa pantay-pantay na pagkakabahagi ng pag-ulan? a. unang uri b. ikalawang uri c. ikaapat na uri
  • 210. 33. Alin ang tamang pagkakalarawan ng unang uri ng klima sa Pilipinas? a. halos walang tuyong panahon sapagkat madalas umulas mula Nobyembre hanggang Enero b. madalas umulan at maikli lamang ang tuyong panahon na tumatagal lamang ng isa hanggang tatlong buwan c. maulan mula Mayo hanggang Oktubre at tuyo naman mula Nobyembre hanggang Abril
  • 211. 34. Ano ang pagkakaiba ng dalawang pangkat ng Indones na dumating sa Pilipinas? a. Ang unang pangkat ay mapuputi, matatangkad, balingkinitan ang katawan, matangos ang ilong, at maninipis ang mga labi samantalang ang ikalawa ay may malaking pangangatawan, makakapal na labi, malalaking panga, at bilugang mga mata. b. Ang unang pangkat ay may malaking pangangatawan, makakapal na labi, malalaking panga, at bilugang mga mata samantalang ang ikalawa ay mapuputi, matatangkad, balingkinitan ang katawan, matangos ang ilong, at maninipis ang mga labi. c. Magkakamukha at magkakapareho ang mga katangian ng mga ito.
  • 212. 35. Ilang milya ang batayang guhit ng dagat teritoryal ng isang bansa ayon sa UNCLOS? a. 12-milya b. 14-milya c. 16-milya
  • 213. 36. Alin ang hindi kahalagahan ng lokasyon ng Pilipinas sa pag-unlad nito? a. Ito ay naging sentro ng kalakalan, labas- pasok sa baybayin ng Pilipinas ang mga sasakyang pandagat ng mga dayuhang mangangalakal b. Naging masila at mabuti ang takbo ng kalakalan b. Madalas ang pagkakaroon ng trahedyang dulot ng kalikasan c. 7,000 malalaki at maliliit na mga pulo
  • 214. 37. Sa tatlong pangunahing pangkat ng mga pulo ng Pilipinas, ano ang pinakamaliit? a. Luzon b. Visayas c. Mindanao
  • 215. 38. Ano ang pinakamalaking anyong lupa sa mundo? a. ilog b. karagatan c. kontinente
  • 216. 39. Kung ikaw ay nakaharap sa hilaga, ano ang nasa likuran mo? a. kanluran b. timog c. silangan
  • 217. 40. Bakit mahalagang mayroon tayong kaalaman sa mga direksyon? a. Upang madali nating matagpuan ang mga hinahanap natin. b. Upang tayo ay maligaw sa paghahanap. c. Upang hindi tayo makarating sa ating patutunguhan.
  • 218. C. Tingnan at suriin ang larawan upang masagutan ang mga katanungan. Isulat ang tamang sagot gamit ang malaking titik. Halimbawa: A
  • 219. 41. Saan bahagi matatagpuan ang pagamutan (hospital)? a. timog b. hilaga c. kanluran
  • 220. 42. Saang bahagi ng bangko matatagpuan ang pulisya? a. hilaga b. kanluran c. timog
  • 221. 43. Ano ang nasa silangan ng fire station? a. Police station b. Gas station c. paaralan
  • 222. 44. Ano ang matatagpuan sa pinakahilagang bahagi ng larawan? a. paaralan b. pagupitan (barber) c. bangko
  • 223. 45. Saan matatagpuan ang fire station? a. timog-kanluran b. hilagang kanluran c. timog-silangan
  • 224. 46. Anong bayan ang nasa pinakahilagang bahagi ng Ilocos Norte? a. Pagudpud b. Laoag City c. Badoc
  • 225. 47. Anong bayan ang nasa timog ng Burgos? a. Pagudpud b. Dumalneg c. Pasuquin
  • 226. 48. Saang bahagi ng Ilocos Norte matatagpuan ang Carasi? a. hilaga b. kanluran c. silangan
  • 227. 49. Anong bayan ang nasa timog ng Banna? a. Badoc b. Pinili c. Marcos
  • 228. 50. Saang bahagi matatagpuan ang Currimao? a. Timog-kanluran b. Hilangang silangan c. Timog-silangan