2. I. Direction: Read each
statement or question
carefully. Write the correct
answer using an uppercase
letter. Example: A
3. 1. Which is correctly written in number
form, corresponding to the given word
form? two million, six hundred fifty-
seven thousand, three
a. 2,657,003
b. 2,657,300
c. 2,657,030
4. 2. Ryle earned Php 34,627, Karl earned Php 32,392
while Jake earned Php 28,898. If they put together
their earnings, around how many thousands do they
have in all?
a. Their earnings are about Php 95,000 in all.
b. Their earnings are about Php 96,000 in all.
c. Their earnings are about Php 90,000 in all.
5. 3. Which of the number forms
corresponds to the word form “one
million, one hundred thousand,
ninety-four”
a. 1,100,094
b. 1,001,094
c. 1,010,094
6. 4. When should you add one to the rounding
digit?
a. You add one to the rounding digit if
the digit to its right is 0, 1, 2, 3, or 4.
b. You add one to the rounding digit if
the digit to its right is 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8.
c. You add one to the rounding digit if
the digit to its right is 5, 6, 7, 8, or 9.
7. 5. What is the value of 10,586
if you round it off to the
nearest tens?
a. 11,000
b. 10,600
c. 10,590
8. 6. Kyra spent Php 3,220,000 to buy her
new house. After 5 years, she sold it to
Php 1,870,000. Around how much millions
were her loss?
a. Around Php 1,300,000 were her loss.
b. Around Php 1,000,000 was her loss.
c. Around Php 1,400,000 were her loss.
9. 7. Millie took along six friends to a local
farm to pick strawberries. They picked 120
strawberries in all. How many strawberries
will each one gets if they decided to share
them equally?
a. Each one gets 20 strawberries.
b. Each one gets 24 strawberries.
c. Each one gets 26 strawberries.
10. 8. What is the value of 6,985 if
you round it off to the nearest
thousands?
a. 7,000
b. 6,000
c. 5,000
11. 9. Marionne made 64 paper boats in 8 days.
How many dolls did he make each day?
a. He made 10 paper boats each
day.
b. He made 8 paper boats each
day.
c. He made 7 paper boats each
day.
12. 10. 48 players are equally divided in 6
teams. How many players are there in each
team?
a. There are 7 players in each team.
b. There are 6 players in each team.
c. There are 8 players in each team.
13. 11. What is the place value of
7 in 167,953?
a. thousands
b. ten thousands
c. hundreds
14. 12. Ruth can make 15 sandwiches in an hour. How
many hours will I take to make 150 sandwiches?
a. She will take 5 hours to make 150
sandwiches.
b. She will take 10 hours to make 150
sandwiches.
c. She will take 15 hours to make 150
sandwiches.
15. 13. What is the place value of
9 in 976,120?
a. thousands
b. ten thousands
c. hundred thousands
16. 14. What is the place value of
6 in 320,065?
a. ones
b. tens
c. hundreds
17. 15. What is the value of 11,567 if
you round it off to the nearest
hundreds?
a. 11,500
b. 11,600
c. 12,000
18. 16. Andi has 50 sweets. She shares them into 6
party bags. How many sweets are in each bag?
How many are left over?
a. There are 8 sweets in each bag and 2
are left over.
b. There are 9 sweets in each bag and 2
are left over.
c. There are 10 sweets in each bag and 5
are left over.
19. 17. Margo collected 23,500 stamps. Brylle collected
35,280 stamps, and Josh collected 28,090 stamps.
Around how many stamps to the nearest hundred did
they collect altogether?
a. They collected around 86,800 stamps
altogether.
b. They collected around 86,900 stamps
altogether.
c. They collected around 86,000 stamps
altogether.
20. 18. What is the correct word form of
9,005,500?
a. nine million, five thousand, five
hundred
b. nine million, five hundred, five
thousand
c. nine million, fifty thousand, five
hundred
21. 19. Ms. Lim surrendered 2,709 accounts of
interested clients for a project. About how many
accounts were surrendered in thousands?
a. There were about 2,000 surrendered
accounts.
b. There were about 2,700 surrendered
accounts.
c. There were about 3,000 surrendered
accounts.
22. 20. What is the correct word form
of 1,003?
a. one thousand, three
hundred
b. one thousand, thirty
c. one thousand, three
23. 21. In Safari Amusement Park, the price for
an adult ticket is Php 125 and Php 75 for
child ticket. If the Sanchez Family has 3
children and 4 adults, how much did they
pay in all?
a. They paid Php 675 in all.
b. They paid Php 75 in all.
c. They paid Php 765 in all.
24. 22. Joe receive a change of Php 150
after paying for a backpack worth
Php 3,350. How much did he pay the
cashier?
a. He paid 3,600 to the cashier.
b. He paid 4,000 to the cashier
c. He paid 3,500 to the cashier.
25. 23. There are 1,500 students in preschool. 4,050
students in grade school, 3,120 students in high
school. How many students are there from
preschool to high school?
a. There are 6,780 students from preschool
to high school.
b. There are 8,760 students from preschool
to high school.
c. There are 8,670 students from preschool
to high school.
26. 24. What is the difference
between 50,000 and the sum of
13,500, and 12,500?
a. 24,000
b. 25,000
c. 24, 500
27. 25. Dani baked 21 cookies for her children.
If the cookies are shared equally among 3
of her children, how many cookies will
each child get?
a. Each child will get 8 cupcakes.
b. Each child will get 7 cupcakes.
c. Each child will get 6 cupcakes.
28. 26. What is the value of 3,092 if
you round it off to the nearest
hundreds?
a. 3,090
b. 3,100
c. 4,000
29. 27. What is the correct word form
of 10,905?
a. ten thousand, ninety-five
b. ten thousand, five
c. ten thousand, nine
hundred five
30. II. Direction: Read each word
problem carefully then answer
the following questions. Write
the correct answer an
uppercase letter. Example: A
31. 28-31. Eight friends decided to share
the expenses in a restaurant. When
they were about to pay the bill, Mike
decided to treat everyone by paying
for their drinks. Each drink is worth
Php 75, how much will the share of
Mike will be?
32. 28-31. Eight friends decided to share
the expenses in a restaurant. When
they were about to pay the bill, Mike
decided to treat everyone by paying
for their drinks. Each drink is worth
Php 75, how much will the share of
Mike will be?
33. 28. What is asked?
a. The total amount of Mike’s
share of the bill.
b. The total amount of their
bill.
c. The total amount of their
expenses in the restaurant.
34. 29. What are is the
operation to be used?
a. addition
b. subtraction
c. multiplication
35. 30. What is the number
sentence?
a. 75 + 8 = N
b. 75 x 8 = N
c. 75-8 = N
36. 31. What is the answer?
a. The total amount of Mike’s share
is Php 83.
b. The total amount of Mike’s share
is Php 600.
c. The total amount of Mike’s share
is Php 67.
37. 32-35. Russel sold 950 doughnuts for
his school organization. The
doughnuts were sold in boxes with
5 doughnuts each. How many boxes
were there in all if each box contains
5 doughnuts?
38. 32. What is asked?
a. The number of boxes if each
box contains 5 doughnuts.
b. The number of doughnuts in
each box.
c. The total number of
doughnuts and boxes.
39. 33. What is the operation to
be used?
a. multiplication
b. subtraction
c. division
40. 34. What is the number
sentence?
a. 950 ÷ 5 = N
b. 950 x 5 = N
c. 950 – 5 = N
41. 35. What is the answer?
a. There were 4,750 boxes in
all.
b. There were 190 boxes in
all.
c. There were 945 boxes in
all.
42. 36-40. There are 3 Grade- Five
sections in a school. During a
program, each section gave a
presentation with 10 participants
each. If there are 250 students in all,
how many students were not
participants?
43. 36. What is asked?
a. The number of students who
were not participants.
b. The number of students who
were participants.
c. The total number of Grade-
Five students.
44. 37. What are the given facts?
a. 3 Grade-Five sections, 10
participants each, 250 students in
all
b. 10 Grade-Five sections, 3
participants each, 250 students in
all
c. 250 Grade-Five sections, 10
participants, 3 students in all
45. 38. What are the operations to be
used?
a. addition and subtraction
b. division and addition
c. multiplication and
subtraction
46. 39. What is the number
sentence?
a. 250 – (3x10) = N
b. 250 + (10-3) = N
c. 250 x (10-3) = N
47. 40. What is the answer?
a. There were 257 students who
were not participants.
b. There were 250 students who
were not participants.
c. There were 220 students who
were not participants.
48. 41-45. In 2007, the Philippines has
136 cities, 64 are in Luzon, 39
cities are in Visayas, and rest are
in Mindanao. How many cities
were there in Mindanao?
49. 41. What is asked?
a. The total number of cities in the
Philippines.
b. The total number of cities in
Mindanao.
c. The total number of cities in
Luzon and Visayas.
50. 42. What are given facts?
a. 136 cities in the Philippines, 64
cities in Luzon, and 39 cities in
Visayas
b. 136 cities in the Philippines, 39
cities in Luzon, and 64 cities in
Visayas
c. 136 cities in the Philippines, 64
cities in Luzon, and 39 cities in
Mindanao
51. 43. What is the operation to be
used?
a. addition and subtraction
b. addition and
multiplication
c. addition and division
52. 44. What is the number
sentence?
a. 136 + (64 - 39) = N
b. 136 + (64 x 39) = N
c. 136 - (64 + 39) = N
53. 45. What is the answer?
a. There were 33 cities in
Mindanao.
b. There were 35 cities in
Mindanao.
c. There were 37 cities in
Mindanao.
54. 46. What is the value of 13,530
if you round it off to the
nearest hundreds?
a. 13,600
b. 13,500
c. 14,000
55. 47. What is the correct word form of
5,607?
a. five thousand, sixty-seven
b. five thousand, seven
hundred six
c. five thousand, six hundred
seven
56. 48. What is the rounded
number of 45, 670 to the
nearest ten thousands?
a. 40,000
b. 46,000
c. 50,000
57. 49. How can you write “five million
seven hundred thousand eighty-
five” in figures?
a. 5,700,085
b. 5,070,805
c. 7,007,85
58. 50. How can you write “seven
hundred fifty thousand, fifty-six”
in figures?
a. 750,506
b. 750,056
c. 750,605
61. A. Identify the names of the
illustrated notes and rests.
Choose the correct answer from
the given choices. Write it using
an uppercase letter. Example: A
62. a. whole note and rest b. eighth note and rest
c. half note and rest d. sixteenth note and rest
e. quarter note and rest
1.
63. a. whole note and rest b. eighth note and rest
c. half note and rest d. sixteenth note and rest
e. quarter note and rest
2.
64. a. whole note and rest b. eighth note and rest
c. half note and rest d. sixteenth note and rest
e. quarter note and rest
3.
65. a. whole note and rest b. eighth note and rest
c. half note and rest d. sixteenth note and rest
e. quarter note and rest
4.
66. a. whole note and rest b. eighth note and rest
c. half note and rest d. sixteenth note and rest
e. quarter note and rest
5.
67. B. Read each statement or
question carefully. Write the
correct answer using an
uppercase letter. Example: A
68. 6. What is the time signature
of the given set of notes?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4
4 4 4
69. 7. What note should be added to
make the measure complete?
3
8
a. quarter note
b. eighth note
c. c. sixteenth note
70. 8. Why is there a need to conduct?
a. To distract the performance of
the musical group.
b. To guide the performers and
keep them in uniform tempo.
c. To make the performance
chaotic and unpleasant.
71. 9. Which is NOT true about time signature?
a. Time signature is one of the
important elements in a musical
piece.
b. The upper number indicates the
number of beats in a measure.
c. The lower number indicates the
number of notes which will receive
the beat.
72. 10. How many beats does a quarter
have if the time signature is 3?
8
a. It has 4 beats.
b. It has 2 beats.
c. It has 1 beat.
73. 11. How does a quadruple meter be conducted?
a. It starts by lowering the hand on 1, bounce to
the left on 2, bounce to the right on 3 then again,
bounce up at head level on 4.
b. It starts by lowering the hand on 1 and bounce
up at 2 about head level.
c. It starts by lowering the hand on 1, make a
bounce to the right then another bounce up at
about head level.
74. 12. Which is used to divide the
staff into measures?
a. slash
b. bar line
c. rest
75. 13. If the lower number of the time
signatures is 8, which note receives
one beat?
a. quarter note
b. eighth note
c. sixteenth note
76. 14. What is the use of a musical rest?
a. It gives the performers time to
relax or take a deep breath in a
performance.
b. It gives the performers the cue to
make a sound.
c. It lets the performers produce
sound.
77. 15. Where can you find the time
signature?
a. At the center of the musical
piece.
b. At the end of the musical
piece.
c. At the beginning of the musical
piece.
83. 19. What do static lines
suggest?
a. movement
b. calmness
c. action
84. 20. How do you define a
jagged line?
a. It goes up and down.
b. It has no straight part.
c. It has a diagonal
orientation.
85. B. Identify the kind of line
that is being described.
Write the correct answer
using an uppercase letter.
Example: A
86. a. broken lines b. thick line c.
vertical line
d. wavy line e. dynamic line
21. It is a moving line. It is also
called an action line which may form
regular patterns like sea waves.
87. a. broken lines b. thick line c.
vertical line
d. wavy line e. dynamic line
22. It is a broad or fat line,
usually used to outline shapes.
88. a. broken lines b. thick line c.
vertical line
d. wavy line e. dynamic line
23. A perpendicular or upright
line that goes endlessly in both
directions.
89. a. broken lines b. thick line c.
vertical line
d. wavy line e. dynamic line
24. Line with curved parts or
bending strokes that signify
movement and vitality.
90. a. broken lines b. thick line c.
vertical line
d. wavy line e. dynamic line
25. It refers to a sequence of
short lines.
91. a. broken lines b. thick line c.
vertical line
d. wavy line e. dynamic line
25. It refers to a sequence of
short lines.
92. C. Identify the type of
rhythm shown in each
illustration. Write the correct
answer using capital letters.
Example: A
93. 26.
a. random rhythm b. flowing rhythm
c. regular rhythm
d. alternating rhythm e. progressive rhythm
94. 27.
a. random rhythm b. flowing rhythm
c. regular rhythm
d. alternating rhythm e. progressive rhythm
95. 28.
a. random rhythm b. flowing rhythm
c. regular rhythm
d. alternating rhythm e. progressive rhythm
96. 29.
a. random rhythm b. flowing rhythm
c. regular rhythm
d. alternating rhythm e. progressive rhythm
97. 30.
a. random rhythm b. flowing rhythm
c. regular rhythm
d. alternating rhythm e. progressive rhythm
99. Direction: Read each statement
or question carefully. Write the
correct answer using an
uppercase letter. Example: A
100. 31. Which of the following habits
can cause damage to the brain?
a. Getting enough sleep.
b. Taking a rest when sick.
c. Talking rarely.
101. 32. How can you nurture your health?
a. Stay away from other
people?
b. Learn how to manage stress.
c. Take care of yourself by
eating junk food.
102. 33. What should you do to avoid
developing brain damage?
a. Eat a lot of food.
b. Eat healthful food.
c. Skip breakfast.
103. 34. Which is NOT a sign of a healthy
relationship?
a. Jeen and Jam respect each other.
b. Mario and Luigi set bonding time as
often as possible.
c. Louise does things for Mari and even
share things with her equally but
Mari doesn’t do the same.
104. 35. How can you nurture your
emotional health?
a. Focus on the negative things
in life.
b. Ignore your capabilities.
c. Be sociable. Talk with other
people.
105. 36. You had your family gathering and everyone
was praising your sister for being a good singer.
What would you do?
a. Sing your favorite song and show them
that you are better than her.
b. Praise your sister and watch him as she
sings.
c. Get mad at your sister and tell her that
her voice isn’t that good.
106. 37. When can you say that a person is
healthy?
a. When they do not suffer from
any illnesses.
b. When they can balance rest and
activity, work and recreation.
c. When they have never gone to
the hospital.
107. 38. Who is an emotionally healthy person?
a. Harry isolates himself when he feels
sad and won’t bother other people
for help.
b. Lily expresses her emotions and tries
to reflect on it.
c. Max acknowledges his strengths
and believes that he is never weak.
108. 39. Margaux transferred in your school. She
doesn’t know anyone in your class. Which will
you avoid to build a healthy relationship with
her?
a. Approach her and make friends
with her.
b. Ignore and stay away from her.
c. Start a conversation and ask about
her.
109. 40. Which is NOT a way to develop fruitful
and happy relationships?
a. sharing one’s time and energy
b. growing and thriving together
with others
c. taking insults and abuse without
complaining
110. 41. Whom among the following nurtures their
emotional and mental health?
a. Marco is always thinking of the negative
things that might happen causing him to
ignore the positive things.
b. Andre goes out with his friends every
weekend. They go to different places
with beautiful views.
c. Jul refuses to go out because he is
stressed out.
111. 42. How can you nurture your
mental health?
a. Eat twice a day, it is not
necessary to eat breakfast.
b. Limit drinking water.
c. Get enough sleep
112. 44. What should you do to have a
healthy body?
a. Wake up early even if you
slept late.
b. Eat only when you feel
hungry.
c. Engage in regular physical
activities.
113. 45. What can a healthy relationship do
to you?
a. It decreases your confidence.
b. It makes you feel unsatisfied
and like you don’t belong.
c. It allows you to be independent
and try out new ideas.
115. Direction: Read each statement
or question carefully. Write the
correct answer using an
uppercase letter. Example: A
116. 46. Which is NOT true about the Filipino Pyramid
Activity Guide?
a. It is intended to help Filipinos select
activities that best fits their lifestyle
and health.
b. The activities at the bottom of the
pyramid should be done habitually.
c. Activities that can contribute to a
healthy body are categorized on top
of the pyramid.
117. 47. Why should do warm-up exercises
before taking the physical fitness test?
a. To make sure that the body is
stiffed after the test.
b. To condition the body and avoid
possible injuries.
c. To make the body sore after the
test.
118. 48. What kind of exercises should be
done for the improvement of bones
and muscles?
a. Aerobic exercises
b. Strengthening and flexibility
exercises
c. Recreational activities
119. 49. Whom among the following took appropriate
measures before taking the physical fitness test?
a. Molly took heavy meal before the
test.
b. Xander skipped doing warm-up
exercises because it will just make
him tired.
c. Aimee got a medical certificate from
her doctor.
120. 50. Which is TRUE?
a. Physical fitness tests are conducted to
determine the strengths and
weaknesses of the body.
b. At a young age, it is not necessary for
you to be well-guided on how to
maintain or improve your body’s condition/
c. Physical fitness tests measure individual
fitness in terms of emotional functions.
122. Direction: Identify which of the
following tests or activities is
being described. Write the
correct answer using an
uppercase letter. Example: A
123. 51. It is a test to determine strength
and endurance of abdominal
muscles.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
124. 52. It is conducted to assess the
ability to balance successfully on a
single leg.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
125. 53. An activity which measures
agility and speed.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
126. 54. Its objective is to determine the
strengths and weaknesses of the
body.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
127. 55. It aims to assess trunk
flexibility.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
128. 56. A test to determine the student’s
acceleration and speed.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
129. 57. It is done to assess upper body’s
endurance and strength.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
130. 58. An activity which tests the
reaction time of the students.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
131. 59. Its objective is to evaluate leg
strength and power.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
132. 60. It aims to determine overall
endurance.
a. 3-minute Step Test f. 50-meter Dash
b. Curl-ups or Crunches g. Shuttle Run
c. Right Angle Push-ups h. Ball Pass
d. Sit and Reach i. Flamingo Balance Test
e. Standing Long Jump j. Physical Fitness Test
135. A. Read each statement carefully and
identify which among the choices
from the word box is being described.
Write the correct answer using an
uppercase letter. Example: A
136. 1. It refers to the tightness of the
foreskin.
a. Puberty b. bathroom
c. Zygote d. Testosterone
e. menstruation f. phimosis
137. 2. It is when your body begins to
develop as you move from being a
child to being an adult.
a. Puberty b. bathroom
c. Zygote d. Testosterone
e. menstruation f. phimosis
138. 3. It is also known as the
fertilized egg.
a. Puberty b. bathroom
c. Zygote d. Testosterone
e. menstruation f. phimosis
139. 4. This is the smallest part of
the house.
a. Puberty b. bathroom
c. Zygote d. Testosterone
e. menstruation f. phimosis
140. 5. It is the hormone that causes most
of the changes in a boy’s body.
a. Puberty b. bathroom
c. Zygote d. Testosterone
e. menstruation f. phimosis
141. 6. It is when blood is released
through the vagina.
a. Puberty b. bathroom
c. Zygote d. Testosterone
e. menstruation f. phimosis
142. B. Read each statement or
question carefully. Write the
correct answer using an
uppercase letter.
143. 7. __________ is a pea-shaped
gland at the bottom of the brain.
a. Pituitary gland
b. Thyroid gland
c. Pineal gland
144. 8. While Lita is combing her hair, she
noticed that there are white small
pieces that are falling from her hair.
Lita has _______.
a. sunburn
b. dandruff
c. blister
145. 9. _________ gives color to our
skin.
a. melanin
b. food coloring
c. chloroplast
146. 10. While Teresa is playing volleyball, her
friends noticed that she is hard up in
catching her breath. They rushed Teresa to
the hospital and after few hours, she is now
okay. Teresa has ___________.
a. melanin
b. sunburn
c. asthma
147. C. Write True if the statement
is true. If it is false, change the
underlined word with the
correct answer.
148. 11. If your eyes are itchy,
rinse it with warm clean
water to soothe them.
149. 12. Redness, red streaks
or pus in a blister should
be cured by a
pharmacist.
150. 13. If you break the
skin in your scalp, use
strong shampoo until
the wound heals.
151. 14. Do not keep a pet
that can trigger your
asthma.
152. 15. Drink a lot of
water to avoid
constipation.
159. 22. If you have toothache,
put a cold compress on the
outside of your cheek to
decrease the swelling.
160. 23. If you have body odor,
clean your underarm with
deodorant soap and water
at least once a day.
161. 24. Stress can also
contribute to the
increase of dandruff.
162. D. Match the description
from column A to the word
it describes in column B.
Write the letter only.
163. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
25. The place where one
usually sleeps and rest.
164. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
26. These are the clothes you need to
use when you go on a jogging.
165. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
27. These are rich in protein and
also known as “Grow Foods”.
166. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
28. The place where family
entertains guests and friends.
167. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
29. These are the clothes you need to
use when you go to school.
168. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
30. The place where one can eat
and study.
169. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
31. These are rich in carbohydrates and
fats and also known as “Go Foods”.
170. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
32. The place where meals are
prepared and cooked.
171. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
33. It is a list of specific food or
dishes.
172. a. Kitchen f. Energy-Giving Foods
b. Body-Building Foods g. menu
c. sports clothes h. dining room
d. Body-Regulating Foods i. bedroom
e. living room j. school clothes
34. These are rich in vitamins and
minerals and also called as the “Glow
Foods”.
173. E. Identify the correct name
of the following utensils in
the Formal Table Setting.
Write your answer only.
176. Panuto: Tukuyin ang inilalarawan sa
bawat bilang sa pamamagitan ng
pagpili ng angkop na salita o
konsepto mula sa kahon. Isulat ang
tamang sagot gamit ang malaking
titik. Halimbawa: A
177. 1. Ito ay tumutukoy sa pinakamahabang guhit
latitud kung saan nagsisimula ang pagbilang
ng distansya.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
178. 2. Ito ang tawag sa lokasyon ng isang bans
ana natutukoy sa pamamagitan ng mga
karatig-bansa.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
179. 3. Ito ang tawag sa kinaroroonan ng isag
bansa kapag nakakabit ito sa isang
kontinente.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
180. 4. Ito ang pang-araw-araw na kalagayan ng
kapaligiran na man kinalaman sa init o lamig,
pagkabasa o pagkatuyo, at pagkamaaliwalas o
pagkamakulimlim.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
181. 5. Ano ang tawag sa gumagawa ng
mapa?
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
182. 6. Ito ang tawag sa kinaroroonan ng isang
bansa kapag nakahiwalay at napaligligiran
ng tubig.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
183. 7. Ito ang batayang guhit sa
pagbabago ng oras sa iba’t ibang
panig ng mundo.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
184. 8. Ito ang pag-aaral sa kaugnayan ng
katangiang pisikal ng lupa at ng mga
gawaing-tao.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
185. 9. Ito ay nagsisimula sa Greenwich,
London, England. Ito ang
pinakamahabang guhit longhitud.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
186. 10. Ito ay tumutukoy sa patag na
representasyon ng mundo.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
187. 11. Ito ang kalagayan ng panahon na
nararanasan natin nang matagal.
a. ekwador f. heograpiya
b. International Date Line g. bisinal
c. kartograpo h. kontinental
d. mapa i. insular
e. Punong meridian j. panahon
k. klima
188. B. Basahing mabuti ang
bawat katanungan. Isulat
ang tamang sagot gamit
ang malaking titik.
Halimbawa: A
189. 12. Ilang kapuluan ang bumubuo sa
bansang Pilipinas?
a. 7,641 malalaki at maliliit na
mga pulo
b. 7,107 malalaki at maliliit na
mga pulo
190. 13. Kung ang araw ay
sumisikat sa silangan, saan
naman ito lumulubog?
a. hilaga
b. timog
c. kanluran
191. 14. Saan matatagpuan ang Arctic
Circle?
a. 66.5 degrees hilagang
latitud
b. 23.5 degrees hilagang
latitud
c. 66.5 degrees timog-latitud
192. 15. Ano ang kagandahang dulot ng lokasyon ng
Pilipinas?
a. Hindi masyadong paglaganap ng
matitinding sakit na nakaaapekto sa
maraming mamamayan sa iba’t ibang
bansa sa buong mundo.
b. Madalas na pagkakaroon ng
trahedyang dulot ng kalikasan.
c. Mabilis naaapektuhan ang mga
mamamayan ng mga matitinding sakit.
193. 16. Bakit nakararanas ng matinding lamig o klimang
polar ang mga bansang nasa mataas na latitud?
a. Ang mga bansang ito ay hindi gaanong
nasisikatan ng araw kaya’t kaunti
lamang ang tinatanggap nilang init.
b. Ang mga bansang ito ay tumatanggap
ng pinakamatinding sinag mula sa araw.
c. Ang mga bansang ito napagigitnaan ng
Tropiko ng Cancer at Tropiko ng Capricorn.
194. 17. Ano ang kaibahan ng klima at panahon?
a. Ang klima ay ang pang-araw-araw na
kalagayan ng kapaligiran
samantalang ang panahon ay ang
nararanasan natin nang matagal.
b. Ang klima ay ang kalagayan ng
panahon na nararanasan natin nang
matagal samantalang ang panahon ay
ang pang-araw-araw na kalagayan
ng kapaligiran.
c. Walang pinagkaiba ang mga ito.
195. 18. Alin ang hindi totoo tungkol sa rebolusyon?
a. Ang rebolusyon ay ang pag-ikot ng
araw sa mga planeta.
b. Ang rebolusyon ay ang pag-ikot ng
mga planeta sa araw.
c. Ito ang dahilan kung bakit
nagkakaroon ng iba’t ibang klima at
panahon ang bawat bansa sa daigdig.
196. 19. Bakit kailangang maglabas ng babala ng
bagyo ang PAGASA?
a. Upang magig maingat at alerto
ang mga naninirahan sa mga lugar
na dadaanan nito.
b. Upang alam nating kung kailan
tayo makikipagkita sa mga
kaibigan natin.
c. Upang magdiwang o magsaya ang
mga mamamayan.
197. 20. Sa bagong palatuntunan ng pagbibigay ng
babala ng bagyo ng PAGASA, kailan sinususpindi
ang pasok sa mga paaralan?
a. Kapag ang babala ay nakataas sa
bilang 3
b. Kapag ang babala ay nakataas sa
bilang 1
c. Kapag ang lugar ay nasa ilalim ng
ilanmang Tropical Cyclone Warning
Signal
198. 21. Aling teorya ng pinagmulan ng
Pilipinas ang mas pinaniniwalaan ng
mga siyentipiko?
a. Out-of-Taiwan Hypothesis
b. Teorya ng Core Population
c. Teorya ng Migrasyon
199. 22. Kaninong lahi nagmula ang
mga ninuno nating gumawa ng
rice terraces sa Cordillera?
a. Negrito
b. Indones
c. Aeta
200. 23. Paano namuhay ang mga pygmy sa ating
bansa?
a. Nabuhay sila sa pagtatanim ng mga
halamang maaaring kainin at nag-
alaga sila ng mga hayop.
b. Ang mga ito ay may permanenteng
tirahan.
c. Nabuhay sila sa pangangaso at
pangingisda gamit ang sibat at
matutulis na bato.
201. 24. Ang bansang Canada ay nasa
gitnang latitud. Ilang panahon
mayroon dito?
a. dalawa
b. apat
c. isa
202. 25. Alin ang tamang paglalarawan sa mga Malay?
a. Ang mga Malay ay may mas
mababang antas ng pamumuhay
kaysa sa mga Indones.
b. Walang kaalaman ang mga ito sa
paggamit ng patubig sa pagsasaka.
c. Marunong ang mga ito sa pagmimina,
paglulusaw ng metal at paghahabi ng
tela.
203. 26. Ayon sa mga siyentipiko, nabuo ang Pilipinas sanhi ng tatlong
penomena. Alin ang tumutukoy sa diyastropismo?
a. Dahil sa lakas ng pagsabog ng mga bulkang nasa
ilalim ng Pacific Ocean, ang magkakalapit na
tunaw na bato mula sa ilalim ay nagkahiwa-hiwalay at
kumilos patungong ibabaw.
b. Ang Pilipinas ay kabahagi ng continental shelf na
tumutukoy sa masa ng lupa sa ilalalim ng
karagatan na umaabot hanggang sa isang kontinente.
c. Tumaas ang tubig sa dagat nang matunaw ang mga
yelo na naging sanhi ng paglubog ng
mabababang rehiyon ng daigdig kasama ang mga tulay
na lupa na nagpahiwalay sa Pilipinas sa Asia.
204. 27. Ano ang kahulugan ng PAGASA?
a. Philippine Astronomical Geophysical
Atmospheric Services Administration
b. Philippine Atmospheric Geophysical
Astronomical Services Administration
c. Philippine Atmospheric Geographical
Astronomical Services Administration
205. 28. Anong klima ang nararanasan ng
mga bansang malapit sa ekwador
katulad ng Pilipinas?
a. Klimang disyerto
b. Klimang polar
c. Klimang tropikal
206. 29. Alin ang totoo tungkol sa hanging amihan?
a. Ito ay may dalang ulan na karaniwang
bumagbagsak sa silangang bahagi ng
Pilipinas.
b. Ito ay nagdadala ng malakas na ulang
karaniwang bumagbagsak sa
kanlurang bahagi ng Pilipinas.
c. Ito ay nagmumula sa hilagang silangan
ng hilagang emisperyo at timog-
silangan ng timog emisperyo
207. 30. Ang Pilipinas ay may kabuuang sukat na 300,000
kilometro kuwadrado. Alin ang hindi totoo tungkol
dito?
a. Ang Pilipinas ay halos kasinlaki ng
Norway.
b. Ang Pilipinas ay mas malaki kaysa New
Zealand.
c. Ang Pilipinas ay mas maliit kaysa North
Korea.
208. 31. Ilang bagyo ang dumaraan sa ating
bansa taon-taon?
a. humigit-kumulang dalawampung
bagyo
b. humigit-kumulang apatnapung
bagyo
c. humigit-kumulang dalawang
bagyo
209. 32. Aling uri ng klima ay
tumutukoy sa pantay-pantay na
pagkakabahagi ng pag-ulan?
a. unang uri
b. ikalawang uri
c. ikaapat na uri
210. 33. Alin ang tamang pagkakalarawan ng unang uri ng
klima sa Pilipinas?
a. halos walang tuyong panahon sapagkat
madalas umulas mula Nobyembre
hanggang Enero
b. madalas umulan at maikli lamang ang
tuyong panahon na tumatagal lamang ng isa
hanggang tatlong buwan
c. maulan mula Mayo hanggang Oktubre at
tuyo naman mula Nobyembre hanggang
Abril
211. 34. Ano ang pagkakaiba ng dalawang pangkat ng Indones na dumating
sa Pilipinas?
a. Ang unang pangkat ay mapuputi, matatangkad,
balingkinitan ang katawan, matangos ang ilong, at
maninipis ang mga labi samantalang ang ikalawa ay
may malaking pangangatawan, makakapal na labi,
malalaking panga, at bilugang mga mata.
b. Ang unang pangkat ay may malaking pangangatawan,
makakapal na labi, malalaking panga, at bilugang
mga mata samantalang ang ikalawa ay mapuputi,
matatangkad, balingkinitan ang katawan, matangos ang
ilong, at maninipis ang mga labi.
c. Magkakamukha at magkakapareho ang mga katangian ng
mga ito.
212. 35. Ilang milya ang batayang
guhit ng dagat teritoryal ng isang
bansa ayon sa UNCLOS?
a. 12-milya
b. 14-milya
c. 16-milya
213. 36. Alin ang hindi kahalagahan ng lokasyon ng Pilipinas
sa pag-unlad nito?
a. Ito ay naging sentro ng kalakalan, labas-
pasok sa baybayin ng Pilipinas ang mga
sasakyang pandagat ng mga dayuhang
mangangalakal
b. Naging masila at mabuti ang takbo ng
kalakalan
b. Madalas ang pagkakaroon ng trahedyang dulot ng
kalikasan
c. 7,000 malalaki at maliliit na mga pulo
214. 37. Sa tatlong pangunahing pangkat
ng mga pulo ng Pilipinas, ano ang
pinakamaliit?
a. Luzon
b. Visayas
c. Mindanao
215. 38. Ano ang pinakamalaking
anyong lupa sa mundo?
a. ilog
b. karagatan
c. kontinente
216. 39. Kung ikaw ay nakaharap sa
hilaga, ano ang nasa likuran mo?
a. kanluran
b. timog
c. silangan
217. 40. Bakit mahalagang mayroon tayong
kaalaman sa mga direksyon?
a. Upang madali nating matagpuan
ang mga hinahanap natin.
b. Upang tayo ay maligaw sa
paghahanap.
c. Upang hindi tayo makarating sa
ating patutunguhan.
218. C. Tingnan at suriin ang
larawan upang masagutan ang
mga katanungan. Isulat ang
tamang sagot gamit ang
malaking titik. Halimbawa: A