The data provided are not sufficient to determine the level of dehydration. Additional assessment is needed.

1. NURSING
QUIZ BEE
2023
Which guild will be this year's champion?
31st Nursing Days Celebration

2. Rules and Regulations
• There shall be only (1) group composed of four (4) bona fide URIAN
Nursing Student who will participate per guild (one nursing student
from each year level). Non-compliance of this guideline would mean a
deduction of five (5) points in the total score of the guild.
• The topics will be comprised of the concepts of the major nursing
subjects from Level I to Level IV.
• The quiz consists of three (3) rounds of tests; easy, average, and difficult
rounds.
• For every correct answer, one (1) point is given during easy round, two
(2) points in the average round and three (3) points in the difficult
round.

3. Rules and Regulations
• The participants are expected to be at the contest venue 30
minutes before the scheduled time for the registration and
orientation.
• For the easy round, questions are all in multiple choice type. The
participants are given 30 seconds to answer after the quiz master
says "go".
• For the average round, questions are in multiple choice and select
all that apply (SATA) type. The participants are given 30 seconds to
answer multiple choice questions and 1 minute for select all that
apply questions.

4. Rules and Regulations
• Identification type of questions are also prepared for the difficult
round and contestants will be given 2 minutes to answer this type
of questions.
• After every round, summary of scores obtained by each participant
shall be revealed.
• After the 3 rounds, a clincher round will follow in case of a tie. The
participants in this round shall answer the question orally. The first
to raise his/hand will be given the opportunity to answer the
question first. The first to answer the question correctly will be
declared as the winner.

5. TIME LIMITS
• Multiple choice questions: 30 seconds
• Select all that apply (SATA) questions: 1 minute
• Identification questions: 2 minutes

6. UE
EASY ROUND
10 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Coverage for this round:
• Anatomy and Physiology (1 question)
• Theoretical Foundations in Nursing (2 questions)
• Fundamentals of Nursing Practice (3 questions)
• Health Assessment (4 questions)

7. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
Question 1: A correct anatomical position is best exemplified
by which of the following?
A. Standing up with palms facing forward with thumbs
pointing towards the body.
B. Standing up with palms facing backward with thumbs
pointing towards the body.
C. Standing up with palms facing forward with thumbs
pointing away from the body.
D. Standing up with palms facing backward with thumbs
pointing away the body.

8. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (C) Standing up with
palms facing forward with
thumbs pointing away from the
body.
Rationale: A correct anatomical
position is similar to “standing
at attention” but is less
comfortable because the palms
are held unnaturally forward
with thumbs pointing away
from the body.
Source: Seeley’s Anatomy and
Physiology, 12th Edition

9. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | HEALTH ASSESSMENT
Question 2: The nurse is watching a new graduate nurse perform
auscultation of a patient’s abdomen. Which statement by the new graduate
shows a correct understanding of the reason auscultation precedes
percussion and palpation of the abdomen?
A. “We need to determine the areas of tenderness before using
percussion and palpation.”
B. “Auscultation prevents distortion of bowel sounds that might
occur after percussion and palpation.”
C. “Auscultation allows the patient more time to relax and
therefore be more comfortable with the physical examination.”
D. “Auscultation prevents distortion of vascular sounds, such as
bruits and hums, that might occur after percussion and palpation.”

10. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (B) “Auscultation
prevents distortion of bowel
sounds that might occur after
percussion and palpation.”
Rationale: Auscultation is performed
first (after inspection) because
percussion and palpation can
increase peristalsis, which would
give a false interpretation of bowel
sounds
Source: Jarvis – Physical Examination
and Health Assessment, 8th Edition

11. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | HEALTH ASSESSMENT
Question 3: The nurse notices that a woman in an exercise
class is unable to do a one-person jump rope. What does
the nurse know that the shoulder must be able to do in
order for one to be able to do one-person jump rope?
A. Inversion
B. Supination
C. Protraction
D. Circumduction

12. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (D) Circumduction
Rationale: Circumduction is defined
as moving the arm in a circle around
the shoulder. This movement is
necessary to perform a one-person
jump rope. Inversion is the moving of
the sole of the foot inward at the
ankle. Supination is turning the
forearm so the palm is down.
Protraction is moving a body part
forward and parallel to the ground.
Source: Jarvis – Physical Examination
and Health Assessment, 8th Edition

13. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | HEALTH ASSESSMENT
Question 4: The nurse is percussing the seventh right
intercostal space at the midclavicular line over the liver.
Which sound should the nurse expect to hear?
A. Tympany
B. Dullness
C. Resonance
D. Hyperresonance

14. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (B) Dullness
Rationale: Abdominal percussion is performed to
assess the relative density of abdominal contents,
locate organs, and screen for abnormal fluid or masses
in the abdomen. The liver is a solid organ which is
located in the right upper quadrant and would elicit a
dull percussion note. Tympany is heard over air-filled
organs such as the stomach and intestines. It is the
predominant sound that should be heard over the
intestines because the air in the intestines rises to the
surface when the person is supine. Resonance is a low-
pitched, clear, hollow sound that predominates in
healthy lung tissue. Hyperresonance is a lower-pitched,
booming sound found when too much air is present
such as with gaseous distention of the intestines in the
abdomen or emphysema in the lungs. Since the liver is
a solid organ located in the right upper quadrant, it
should elicit a dull sound when percussed.
Source: Jarvis – Physical Examination and Health
Assessment, 8th Edition

15. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | THEORETICAL FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING
Question 5: A nurse is caring for pediatric patients and using
the developmental theory to plan nursing care. What is the
focus of this nurse’s care?
A. Humans have an orderly, predictive process of growth and
development.
B. Humans respond to threats by adapting to growth and
development.
C. Humans respond with cognitive principles for growth and
development.
D. Humans have psychosocial domains for growth and
development.

16. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (A) Humans have an orderly, predictive process of
growth and development
Rationale: With development theory, human growth and development is
an orderly predictive process that begins with conception and continues
through death. Stress/adaptation theories describe how humans respond
to threats by adapting in order to maintain function and life. Educational
theories explain the teaching-learning process by examining behavioral,
cognitive, and adult-learning principles. Psychosocial theories explain
human responses within the physiological, psychological, sociocultural,
developmental, and spiritual domains
Source: Potter et al – Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition

17. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | THEORETICAL FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING
Question 6: The nurse views the patient as an
open system that needs help in coping with
stressors. As such, the nurse is using a theory
developed by?
A. Imogene Martina King
B. Myra Estrin Levine
C. Betty Neuman
D. Dorothy Johnson

18. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (C) Betty Neuman
Rationale: Neuman views a patient as being an open system that is in
constant energy exchange with the environment that the nurse must
help cope with stressors. King views a patient as a unique personal
system that is constantly interacting/transacting with other systems that
the nurse helps with goal attainment. Levine believes nurses promote a
balance between nursing interventions and patient participation to assist
in conserving the energy needed for healing. Johnson perceives patients
as a collection of subsystems that forms an overall behavioral system
focusing on balance.
Source: Potter et al – Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition

19. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING PRACTICE
Question 7: The manager identifies that a nurse
is practicing a professional identity. What did
the manager observe to come to this
conclusion?
A. Recognizing characteristics considered to be professional
B. Maintaining specific character and spirit
C. Learning about the influences of Florence Nightingale
D. Promising to uphold the standards of the profession

20. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (B) Maintaining specific character and spirit
Rationale: Professional identity is a "sense of oneself that is influenced by
characteristics, norms, and values of the nursing discipline, resulting in an
individual thinking, acting, and feeling like a nurse." Florence Nightingale
influenced nursing professionalism a great deal, but simply learning
about her influence does not constitute a professional identity because a
professional identity refers to a way of life. Professionalization is the
process of becoming professional, which is acquiring characteristics
considered to be professional and upholding the standards of a
profession.
Source: Kozier and Erb’s Fundamentals of Nursing, 11th Edition

21. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING PRACTICE
Question 8: Which therapeutic communication technique is being
used in this nurse-client interaction?
Client: "When I am anxious, the only thing that calms me down is
alcohol."
Nurse: "Other than drinking, what alternatives have you explored to
decrease anxiety?"
A. Reflecting
B. Making observations
C. Formulating a plan of action
D. Giving recognition

22. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (C) Formulating a plan of action
Rationale: The nurse is using the therapeutic
communication technique of formulating a plan of
action to help the client explore alternatives to drinking
alcohol. The use of this technique, rather than direct
confrontation regarding the client's poor coping choice,
may serve to prevent anger or anxiety from escalating.
Source: Kozier and Erb’s Fundamentals of Nursing, 11th
Edition

23. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING PRACTICE
Question 9: Nurse Meredith is in the process of giving a client a bed
bath. In the middle of the procedure, the unit secretary calls the
nurse on the intercom to tell the nurse that there is an emergency
phone call. The appropriate nursing action is to:
A. Immediately walk out of the client’s room and answer the phone
call.
B. Cover the client, place the call light within reach, and answer the
phone call.
C. Finish the bed bath before answering the phone call.
D. Leave the client’s door open so the client can be monitored and the
nurse can answer the phone call.

24. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (B) Cover the client, place the call light within
reach, and answer the phone call.
Rationale: Because a telephone call is an emergency, the nurse may
need to answer it. The other appropriate action is to ask another
nurse to accept the call. However, it is not one of the options. To
maintain privacy and safety, the nurse should cover the client and
place the call light within the client’s reach. Additionally, the door
should be closed or the room curtains pulled around the bathing
area.
Source: Kozier and Erb’s Fundamentals of Nursing, 11th Edition

25. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | HEALTH ASSESSMENT
Question 10: A patient is suspected of having
inflammation of the gallbladder, or cholecystitis.
The nurse should conduct which of these
techniques to assess for this condition?
A. Obturator test
B. Test for Murphy sign
C. Iliopsoas muscle test
D. Assess for rebound tenderness

26. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (B) Test for Murphy sign
Rationale: Normally palpating the liver causes no pain. In a
person with inflammation of the gallbladder, or
cholecystitis, pain occurs as the descending liver pushes
the inflamed gallbladder onto the examining hand during
inspiration, and this is known as the Murphy test. The
person feels a sharp pain and abruptly stops midway
during inspiration. The obturator and iliopsoas muscle
tests assess for an inflamed appendix. Although a patient
with cholecystitis may have rebound tenderness, the
presence of rebound tenderness indicates peritoneal
inflammation, which could be caused by several things, so
it is not specific to cholecystitis.
Source: Jarvis – Physical Examination and Health
Assessment, 8th Edition

27. UE
AVERAGE ROUND
9 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS,
AND 1 SELECT ALL THAT APPLY (SATA) QUESTION
Coverage for this round:
• Maternal and Child Health Nursing (4 questions)
• Community Health Nursing (3 questions)
• Nutrition and Diet Therapy (1 question)
• Nursing Pharmacology (1 question)
• Nursing Informatics (1 question)

28. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH NURSING
Question 1: A female patient has nausea, breast
tenderness, fatigue, and amenorrhea. Her last menstrual
period was 6 weeks ago. What signs of pregnancy is this
patient experiencing?
A. Positive
B. Possible
C. Probable
D. Presumptive

29. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (D) Presumptive
Rationale: Presumptive signs of pregnancy are
those that the woman experiences and include
amenorrhea, breast tenderness, fatigue, nausea,
and increased urinary frequency. Probable signs
are those that are detected by the examiner,
such as an enlarged uterus or changes in the
cervix. Positive signs of pregnancy are those that
document direct evidence of the fetus, such as
fetal heart tones or positive cardiac activity on
ultrasound.
Source: Flagg and Pillitteri – Maternal and Child
Health Nursing: Care of the Childbearing and
Childrearing Family, 8th Edition

30. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING
Question 2: According to Margaret Shetland, the
philosophy of public health nursing is based on which of
the following?
A. Health and longevity as birthrights
B. The mandate of the state to protect the birthrights of its
citizens
C. Public health nursing as a specialized field of nursing
D. The worth and dignity of man

31. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (D) The worth and dignity of man
Rationale: This is a direct quote from her statements on public
health nursing. According to Dr. Margaret Shetland, the philosophy
of community health nursing is based on the worth and dignity of
man.
Source: Jean P. Reyala (2000) - Community Health Nursing Services in the
Philippines, prepared and published by the Community Health Nursing
Section, National League of Philippine Government Nurses, Incorporated

32. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH NURSING
Question 3: A patient’s pregnancy test is positive, and she
wants to know when the baby is due. The first day of her last
menstrual period was June 14, and that period ended June 20.
Using the Nägele rule, what is her expected date of delivery?
A. March 7
B. March 14
C. March 21
D. March 27

33. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (C) March 21
Rationale: To determine the expected date of delivery using the
Nägele rule, 7 days are added to the first day of the last menstrual
period; then 3 months are subtracted. Therefore, adding 7 days to
June 14 would be June 21 and subtracting 3 months would make
the expected delivery date March 21.
Source: Davidson, M., London, M., & Ladewig, P. (2008). Olds’ Maternal-
Newborn Nursing & Women’s Health Across the Lifespan (8th ed., p.
344). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice Hall Health.

34. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING
Question 4: A 5-month-old infant was brought by his mother to
the health center because of diarrhea occurring 4 to 5 times a
day. His skin goes back slowly after a skin pinch and his eyes
are sunken. Using the IMCI guidelines, you will classify this
infant in which category?
A. No signs of dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. The data provided is insufficient

35. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (B) Some dehydration
Rationale: Using the assessment guidelines of IMCI, a child (2 months to 5 years
old) with diarrhea is classified as having some dehydration if he shows two (2) or
more of the following signs: restless or irritable, sunken eyes, and the skin goes
back slowly after a skin pinch.
Source: Handbook of Integrated Management of Childhood Illnesses (IMCI) - 2019

36. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | NUTRITION AND DIET THERAPY
Question 5: A client has a goal of increasing fiber intake to 30 grams per day. Current
intake reveals the following information:
Breakfast intake is: 3/4 cup of sugary corn popped cereal, 1 cup of skim milk, 1 slice of white
toast, and 1/2 cup of orange juice.
Lunch includes: 2 ounces of sliced turkey, 1 slice of wheat bread, 1 tablespoon of mayonnaise,
2 chocolate chip cookies, and 1 cup of water.
Dinner includes: 4 ounces of beef, 1/2 cup of green beans, 3/4 cup of instant mashed potatoes
with butter, 1 biscuit, and 1 cup of skim milk.
As the nutrition expert counseling this patient, one appropriate recommendation might
be to:
A. Encourage whole-grain breads and cereals in place of white breads and cereals.
B. Double the amounts of protein such as turkey and beef and eliminate sugar intake.
C. Add 2 tablespoons of omega-3 fatty-acid enriched margarine to breads and potatoes.
D. Make no changes because adequate fiber intake is present

37. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (A) Encourage whole-grain breads and cereals in
place of white breads and cereals.
Rationale: The recommended daily fiber intake is 38 grams
per day for men. This intake requires consistent use of whole
grains, legumes, vegetables, and fruits, along with seeds and
nuts. Meats and fats such as butter and margarine do not
contain fiber.
Source: Williams Basic Nutrition and Diet Therapy, 16th Edition

38. UE
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY (SATA) | NURSING PHARMACOLOGY
Question 6: A client says to a nurse, "Why do you need to know the names of
all the over-the-counter supplements I take? They aren't drugs." Which of
the nurse's responses are appropriate? Select all that apply.
A. "The healthcare provider needs to know everything you are taking."
B. "You're right. I'm not sure why the admitting paperwork asks for this
information. Would you mind listing them anyway?"
C. "The law requires us to keep a list of over-the-counter drugs and supplements
that you are taking."
D. "It is true that supplements are not considered drugs; however, some of these
products can cause adverse effects
with prescribed drugs."
E. "We need to know if you are having an allergic reaction to one of them."

39. UE
RATIONALE
Answers:
(A) "The healthcare provider needs to know everything you are taking."
(D) "It is true that supplements are not considered drugs; however, some of these
products can cause adverse effects with prescribed drugs."
Rationale: The healthcare providers involved in this client's care will need to know everything she is
taking—both prescription and over-the-counter (OTC). Supplements are not subject to the same
regulatory process as drugs, and some of these products can cause adverse effects and interact with
other medications, which is why the nurses should ask about any supplements the patient may be
taking. Choice B is incorrect, as while it is true that supplements are not considered drugs, there is a
specific reason why the healthcare team needs to know this information, which is the reason for the
requested list on the paperwork. The nurse's answer did not address the client's question appropriately.
Choice C is incorrect, as no law requires hospitals to keep records of OTC drugs and supplements that
clients take. This information is needed, however, for other reasons. Lastly, choice E is incorrect, as
although it is possible that this client could be having an allergic reaction, however, there is not enough
information to determine this, and this is not the main reason why the healthcare team needs to know
what OTC medications the patient is taking.
Source: Adams – Pharmacology for Nurses, 6th Edition

40. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | NURSING INFORMATICS
Question 7: Which of the following best describes the central
goal of nursing informatics?
A. To foster interdisciplinary collaboration and communication in a
healthcare organization
B. To promote patient safety and prevent falls by assigning a fall
risk number to hospitalized patients
C. To increase the efficiency of care delivery and help to manage
costs
D. To manage and communicate data, information, knowledge, and
wisdom in the delivery of nursing care

41. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (D) To manage and communicate data,
information, knowledge, and wisdom in the delivery of
nursing care
Rationale: The central goal of nursing informatics is to manage
and communicate data, information, knowledge and wisdom in
the delivery of nursing care. The other remaining choices do not
reflect the primary goal of nursing informatics.
Source: McGonigle – Nursing Informatics and the Foundation of
Knowledge, 4th Edition

42. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH NURSING
Question 8: A nurse in a clinic is assessing the weight of an
infant. Which infant’s weight indicates to the nurse that the
infant’s weight is normal for the infant’s age?
A. The baby’s weight has tripled in the first 6 months of life
B. The baby’s weight has doubled in the first year of life
C. The baby’s weight has doubled in the first 6 months of life and
tripled in the first year
D. The baby’s weight has doubled in the first 6 months and
doubled again in the next 6 months

43. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (C) The baby’s weight has
doubled in the first 6 months of life
and tripled in the first year
Rationale: A baby’s weight should double
in the first 4 to 6 months of life and triple
by the end of the first year. The weight
needs to be more than double the first
year.
Source: Pillitteri, A. (2007). Maternal & Child
Health Nursing: Care of the Childbearing &
Childrearing Family (5th ed., p. 827).
Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.

44. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH NURSING
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a pediatric client immediately
following a permanent pacemaker placement. Which intervention
should be the nurse’s first priority for this client?
A. Initiate continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring.
B. Administer only non-narcotic analgesic medications to
avoid masking signs and symptoms of complications.
C. Transport the child to the radiology department for a chest
x-ray.
D. Administer antibiotic therapy to prevent infection.

45. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (A) Initiate continuous electrocardiogram (ECG)
monitoring.
Rationale: The nurse’s first priority should be to initiate continuous ECG
monitoring. Continuous ECG monitoring during the recovery phase is important
to assess pacemaker function immediately following placement. Analgesics,
including narcotics, are administered as needed to control pain. A chest x-ray is
performed within 24 hours for future comparison, but it is not the priority. While
the nurse should carefully monitor the site for signs of infection; prophylactic
antibiotic therapy is not the priority.
Source: Hockenberry, M., & Wilson, D. (2007). Wong’s Nursing Care of Infants and
Children (8th ed., p. 1494). St. Louis, MO: Mosby/Elsevier

46. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING
Question 10: Which of the following vaccines used in the
Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) should not be
stored in the freezer?
A. DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis) vaccine
B. OPV (oral polio vaccine)
C. Measles vaccine
D. MMR (measles, mumps and rubella) vaccine

47. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (A) DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis) vaccine
Rationale: DTaP vaccines are sensitive to freezing. The appropriate
storage temperature of the DTaP vaccine is 2-8 Celsius only. OPV
and measles vaccines are highly sensitive to heat and require
freezing. MMR vaccine is not part of the Expanded Program on
Immunization.
Source: Philippine Department of Health - Expanded Program on
Immunization (EPI)

48. UE
DIFFICULT ROUND
4 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS,
5 IDENTIFICATION QUESTIONS,
AND 1 SELECT ALL THAT APPLY (SATA) QUESTION
Coverage for this round:
• Medical-Surgical Nursing
• Psychiatric Nursing
• Emergency and Disaster Nursing
• Nursing Research
• Nursing Leadership and Management
• Nursing Pharmacology
• Laws in the Nursing Practice

49. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | PSYCHIATRIC NURSING
Question 1: A client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal
exhibits tremors, diaphoresis, and hyperactivity. Blood
pressure is 190/87 mm Hg and pulse is 92 bpm. Which of the
following medications should the nurse expect to
administer?
A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
C. Benztropine (Cogentin)
D. Naloxone (Narcan)

50. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (B) Lorazepam
[Ativan]
Rationale: The nurse would most likely administer a benzodiazepine, such as
lorazepam, to the client who is experiencing symptoms of alcohol withdrawal.
The benzodiazepine substitutes for alcohol to suppress withdrawal symptoms.
The client experiences symptoms of withdrawal because of the “rebound
phenomenon” when sedation of the central nervous system (CNS) from alcohol
begins to decrease. Haloperidol (Haldol) is an antipsychotic and is not indicated
for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Benztropine is used to treat extrapyramidal
symptoms associated with antipsychotic therapy. Naloxone is used in opioid
overdose to reverse the CNS depression caused by the opioid.
Source: Dianne Billings and Desiree Hensel – Lippincott’s Q&A Review for NCLEX
(2014)

51. UE
IDENTIFICATION | NURSING PHARMACOLOGY
Question 2: How many drops per minute
(gtts/min) will you infuse if the order reads:
“Infuse 750 mL of D5W over 5 hours and 45
minutes.” The drop factor is 60 gtts/mL.
Write your final answer in the nearest whole
number.

52. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: 130 gtts/min
Rationale:

53. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | LAWS IN THE NURSING PRACTICE
Question 3: Nurse Sheena Perez is the Health Education
Program Officer of the Municipal Health Office. She knows
that all prescriptions of the municipal health officer should
be in generic form. Which of the following republic acts
provide for this mandate?
A. RA 9173
B. RA 1080
C. RA 6675
D. RA 7160

54. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (C) RA 6675
Rationale: RA 6675, also knowns as the Generics Act of 1998, is an act to
promote, require and ensure the production of an adequate supply,
distribution, use and acceptance of drugs and medicines identified by
their generic names. RA 9173 is the Philippine Nursing Act of 2002,
while RA 1080 is an act declaring the bar and board examinations as
civil service examinations. On the other hand, RA 7160 is the Local
Government Code of 1991, which is an act providing for a local
government code of 1991.
Source: Philippine Health Care Laws – RNPedia

55. UE
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY (SATA) | PSYCHIATRIC NURSING
Question 4: Which goals should be included in the plan of
care for a client with dementia? Select all that apply.
A. The client will remain physically safe.
B. The client will receive emotional support.
C. The client will receive physical health care.
D. The client will show cognitive improvement.
E. The client will function at the highest level of independence.
F. The client will perform activities of daily living independently.

56. UE
RATIONALE
Answers:
(A) The client will remain
physically safe.
(B) The client will receive
emotional support.
(C) The client will receive
physical health care.
(E) The client will function
at the highest level of
independence.
Rationale: The care of a client with
dementia should include provisions for
physical and emotional well-being and
safety. The nurse should encourage and
support the client’s independence within
the limit of his or her abilities. Alzheimer-
type dementia is characterized by a
progressive loss of both physical and
cognitive function. Therefore, improvement
and/or independent living are not realistic
goals.
Source: Mohr, W. (2006). Psychiatric-Mental
Health Nursing (6th ed., p. 742). Philadelphia:
Lippincott Williams & Wilkins

57. UE
IDENTIFICATION | EMERGENCY AND DISASTER NURSING
Question 5: A client is admitted to an emergency department with multiple
injuries from a motor vehicle accident. A nurse saw that the client’s head had
been immobilized at the scene. Prioritize the nurse’s management of the
client during admission to the emergency department.
Identify the proper sequence of prioritization of the nursing interventions
provided below from the highest priority to the lowest priority.
1. Control hemorrhage.
2. Evaluate for head and neck injuries and other injuries.
3. Splint fractures.
4. Prevent and treat hypovolemic shock.
5. Carry out a more thorough examination.
6. Establish airway patency and ventilation

58. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: 6, 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
Rationale: The priority is airway and breathing. First, establish the airway and
maintain ventilation. Next is circulation: control hemorrhage with direct
pressure. Third, prevent and treat hypovolemic shock with intravenous fluids
and monitor the urine output, all essential components of circulation. Next is
disability: assess for head and neck injuries, evaluate for other injuries, and
reassess head and neck. Identify deformities and splint fractures, and finally
complete the secondary survey, which is a more thorough examination.-
Source: Lewis, S., Heitkemper, M., Dirksen, S., O’Brien, P., & Bucher, L. (2007). Medical-
Surgical Nursing: Assessment and Management of Clinical Problems (7th ed., pp.
1823–1826). St. Louis, MO: Mosby/Elsevier; Smeltzer, S., Bare, B., Hinkle, J., & Cheever, K.
(2008). Brunner & Suddarth’s Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing (11th ed., pp.
2530–2531). Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins

59. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | NURSING RESEARCH
Question 6: A nurse researcher is conducting qualitative
research and is about to resort to triangulation. She sought
the expertise of multiple observers to provide check on
selective perception and illuminate blind spots. This is what
kind of triangulation?
A. Methods triangulation
B. Triangulation of sources
C. Analyst triangulation
D. Theory triangulation

60. UE
RATIONALE
Answer: (C) Analyst triangulation
Rationale: Analyst triangulation involves the participation of two or more researchers in
the same study to provide multiple observations and conclusions. This type of
triangulation can bring both confirmation of findings and different perspectives, adding
breadth to the phenomenon of interest (Denzin, 1978). Method triangulation involves the
use of multiple methods of data collection about the same phenomenon (Polit & Beck,
2012). This type of triangulation, frequently used in qualitative studies, may include
interviews, observation, and field notes. On the other hand, theory triangulation uses
different theories to analyze and interpret data. With this type of triangulation, different
theories or hypotheses can assist the researcher in supporting or refuting findings. Lastly,
source triangulation involves the collection of data from different types of people,
including individuals, groups, families, and communities, to gain multiple perspectives and
validation of data.
Source: Polit and Beck – Nursing Research: Generating and Assessing Evidence for Nursing
Practice, 9 thEdition

61. UE
IDENTIFICATION | NURSING LEADERSHIP AND MANAGEMENT
Question 7: Nurse Betty, a nursing supervisor at
Manuel J. Santos Hospital, defers decision-
making to her staff nurses. In addition, Nurse
Betty allows her team members to work
independently, with minimal interference or
direction. What leadership style is Nurse Betty
using?

62. UE
RATIONALE
Rationale: Laissez-faire leadership, also known as delegative
leadership, is a type of leadership style in which leaders are hands-
off and allow group members to make decisions. Laissez-faire
leadership is a type of leadership style where leaders allow team
members to make their own decisions and work independently,
with minimal interference or direction from the leader.
Source: Tan and Beltran – Leadership and Management in Nursing: A
Transformative and Reflective Patient Care, 1 stEdition
Answer: Laissez-faire

63. UE
Question 8: A patient was rushed to the hospital
after a vehicular accident. Upon assessment, the
patient has an increased intracranial pressure.
As the nurse, you know that the patient will
manifest Cushing’s triad. Give all three of the
manifestations of Cushing’s triad.
IDENTIFICATION | MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING

64. UE
RATIONALE
Rationale: Cushing's triad refers to a set of signs that are indicative
of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), or increased pressure in the
brain. Cushing's triad consists of bradycardia (also known as a low
heart rate), irregular respirations (bradypnea), and widened pulse
pressure (hypertension).
Source: Brunner & Suddarth’s Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing
(11th ed.). Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins
Answer: Hypertension, bradycardia and bradypnea (hyper-
brady-brady)

65. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | PSYCHIATRIC NURSING
Question 9: Which should a nurse include as a
primary outcome for an individual with schizoid
personality disorder?
A. Validates ideas before taking action
B. Able to function independently in the community
C. Cope and control emotions
D. Recognizes limits

66. UE
RATIONALE
Rationale: An outcome for the individual with schizoid personality
disorder focuses on improving functioning within the community.
Validating ideas before acting is an outcome for an individual with
a paranoid personality disorder. Being able to cope and control
emotions are outcomes for individuals with borderline personality
disorder. Recognizing limits is an outcome for individuals with
antisocial personality disorder.
Source: Videbeck, S. (2006). Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing (3rd ed.,
p. 347). Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
Answer: (B) Able to function independently in the community

67. UE
Question 10: Identify the acid-base status o
the patient given the following blood
samples - pH: 7.57; PaCO2: 22; HCO3: 17.
Specify if it is uncompensated, partially
compensated or fully compensated.
IDENTIFICATION | MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING

68. UE
RATIONALE
Rationale: It is PARTIALLY COMPENSATED because all three (3)
values are abnormal. Remember that it is considered partially
compensated if all three (3) values are abnormal. Based on the
given ABG values, pH is 7.57. For pH, the normal range is 7.35 to 7.45.
Any blood pH above 7.45 (7.46, 7.47, 7.48, and so on…) is ALKALOSIS.
Since the PaCO2 is below the normal range, the alkalosis is of a
respiratory source.
Source: Brunner & Suddarth’s Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing
(11th ed.). Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins
Answer: Partially compensated respiratory alkalosis

69. CLINCHER ROUND

70. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH NURSING
Question 1: When performing a pelvic
examination on a labor client, which pelvic
landmark does the nurse use to determine
station?
A. Ischial spines
B. Pelvic outlet
C. Pelvic brim
D. Ischial tuberosities

71. UE
Answer: (A) Ischial spines
Rationale: The ischial spines are used as a
landmark to assess the fetal station. The
ischial spines are bony protrusions located in
the narrowest part of your pelvis. During a
vaginal exam, your doctor will feel for your
baby's head. If the head is high and not yet
engaged in the birth canal, it may float away
from the fingers.
Source: Flagg and Pillitteri – Maternal and
Child Health Nursing: Care of the
Childbearing and Childrearing Family, 8th
Edition
RATIONALE

72. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH NURSING
Question 2: The nurse is palpating the abdomen of a
woman who is 35 weeks pregnant and notices that
the fetal head is facing downward toward the pelvis.
What does this describe?
A. Fetal lie
B. Fetal variety
C. Fetal attitude
D. Fetal presentation

73. UE
Answer: (D) Fetal presentation
Rationale: Fetal presentation describes the
part of the fetus that enters the pelvis first.
The fetal lie is the orientation of the fetal
spine to the maternal spine. Fetal attitude is
the position of fetal parts in relation to each
other, and fetal variety is the location of the
fetal back to the maternal pelvis.
Source: Flagg and Pillitteri – Maternal and
Child Health Nursing: Care of the
Childbearing and Childrearing Family, 8th
Edition
RATIONALE

74. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING
Question 3: A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed
furosemide (Lasix) for hypertension. For which acid-
base imbalance should the nurse assess to prevent
complications of this therapy?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis

75. UE
Answer: (D) Metabolic alkalosis
Rationale: Many diuretics, especially loop diuretics,
increase the excretion of hydrogen ions, leading to
excess acid loss through the renal system. This
situation is an acid deficit of metabolic origin.
Source: Ignatavicius – Medical-Surgical Nursing:
Concepts for Interprofessional Collaborative Care,
10th Edition
RATIONALE

76. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING
Question 4: The circulating nurse and preoperative nurse
are reviewing the chart of a client scheduled for
minimally invasive surgery (MIS). What information on the
chart needs to be reported to the surgeon as a priority?
A. Allergies noted, and allergy band on
B. Consent for MIS procedure only
C. No prior anesthesia exposure
D. NPO status for the last 8 hours

77. UE
Answer: (B) Consent for MIS procedure only
Rationale: All MIS procedures have the potential to become open
procedures depending on findings and complications. The client’s
consent should include this possibility. The nurse should report this
finding to the surgeon prior to the surgery taking place. Having
allergies noted and an allergy band applied is standard procedure.
Not having any prior surgical or anesthesia exposure is not the
priority. Maintaining NPO status as prescribed is standard procedure.
Source: Ignatavicius – Medical-Surgical Nursing: Concepts for
Interprofessional Collaborative Care, 10th Edition
RATIONALE

78. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING
Question 5: A nurse is performing a shift assessment on an elderly patient who is
recovering after surgery for a hip fracture. The nurse notes that the patient is
complaining of chest pain, has an increased heart rate, and increased respiratory rate.
The nurse further notes that the patient is febrile and hypoxic, coughing, and
producing large amounts of thick, white sputum. The nurse recognizes that this is a
medical emergency and calls for assistance, recognizing that this patient is likely
demonstrating symptoms of what complication?
A. Avascular necrosis of bone
B. Compartment syndrome
C. Fat embolism syndrome
D. Complex regional pain syndrome

79. UE
Answer: (C) Fat embolism syndrome
Rationale: Fat embolism syndrome occurs most frequently in young adults
and elderly patients who experience fractures of the proximal femur (i.e., hip
fracture). Presenting features of fat embolism syndrome include hypoxia,
tachypnea, tachycardia, and pyrexia. The respiratory distress response
includes tachypnea, dyspnea, wheezes, precordial chest pain, cough, large
amounts of thick, white sputum, and tachycardia. Avascular necrosis (AVN)
occurs when the bone loses its blood supply and dies. This does not cause
coughing. Complex regional pain syndrome does not have cardiopulmonary
involvement.
Source: Brunner and Suddarth’s – Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing, 13th
Edition
RATIONALE

80. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | PSYCHIATRIC NURSING
Question 6: A nurse is reviewing diet restrictions with a
client taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI).
Which symptom could occur with nonadherence to
diet restrictions while taking the medication?
A. Agranulocytosis
B. Explosive occipital headache
C. Severe hypotension
D. Akathisia

81. UE
Answer: (B) Explosive occipital headache
Rationale: Explosive occipital headache is a symptom of hypertensive
crisis, which is a major concern with the combination of a monoamine
oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) and certain foods (e.g., aged cheeses, overripe
fruit, and sausage). Agranulocytosis, hypotension, and akathisia
(unpleasant sensations of “inner” restlessness that result in an inability
to sit still) are not symptoms associated with MAOIs and food
restrictions.
Source: Fortinash, K., & Holoday Worret, P. (2007). Psychiatric Nursing
Care Plans (5th ed., pp. 494–495). St. Louis, MO: Mosby
RATIONALE

82. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | PSYCHIATRIC NURSING
Question 7: A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed
with acute mania. The nurse observes coarse hand
tremors and learns that the client’s serum lithium
level is 1.8 mEq/L. Which action should be taken by the
nurse?
A. Continue to administer lithium as ordered.
B. Advise the client to limit fluids.
C. Withhold the medication and notify the physician.
D. Acknowledge that the side effects are unpleasant.

83. UE
Answer: (C) Withhold the medication and notify
the physician.
Rationale: The nurse should withhold the medication and notify the
physician. Lithium is at a toxic level. This is a medical emergency
requiring rapid treatment. Limiting fluids would worsen lithium toxicity.
Coarse hand tremor is a symptom of lithium toxicity. not an unpleasant
side effect.
Source: Varcarolis, E., Benner Carson, V., & Shoemaker, N. (2006).
Foundations of Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing (5th ed., p. 506). St.
Louis, MO: Saunders/Elsevier
RATIONALE

84. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | HEALTH ASSESSMENT
Question 8: The nurse is providing health education about an
erectile dysfunction drug. One of the drug’s potential side
effects is prolonged, painful erection of the penis without
sexual stimulation. What is the medical term for this
condition?
A. Orchitis
B. Phimosis
C. Strictured
D. Priapism

85. UE
Answer: (D) Priapism
Rationale: Priapism is a prolonged, painful erection of
the penis without sexual desire. Orchitis is
inflammation of the testes. Stricture is a narrowing of
the opening of the urethral meatus. Phimosis is the
inability to retract the foreskin.
Source: Jarvis – Physical Examination and Health
Assessment, 8th Edition
RATIONALE

86. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING
Question 9: A patient’s injury has initiated an
immune response that involves inflammation.
What are the first cells to arrive at a site of
inflammation?
A. Eosinophils
B. Red blood cells
C. Lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils

87. UE
Answer: (D) Neutrophils
Rationale: Neutrophils are the first cells to arrive at the site where
inflammation occurs. Eosinophils increase in number during
allergic reactions and stress responses but are not always present
during inflammation. RBCs do not migrate during an immune
response. Lymphocytes become active but do not migrate to the
site of inflammation.
Source: Brunner and Suddarth’s – Textbook of Medical-Surgical
Nursing, 13th Edition
RATIONALE

88. UE
MULTIPLE CHOICE | MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH NURSING
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client who is unable to
perform oral hygiene. The client has dentures, including both
upper and lower plates. Which technique should the nurse use
to perform oral hygiene for this client correctly?
A. Don sterile gloves before removing the dentures.
B. Use a foam swab to pry the upper plate loose before removing it.
C. Loosen the upper plate by grasping it at the front teeth with a piece of
gauze and moving the plate up and down to loosen it prior to removal.
D. Leave the dentures in the client’s mouth and use a toothbrush to
brush the plates

89. UE
Answer: (C) Loosen the upper plate by grasping it at the front
teeth with a piece of gauze and moving the plate up and down
to loosen it prior to removal.
Rationale: Grasping the upper plate and moving it breaks the suction that
holds the plate on the roof of the client’s mouth. Removing denture plates is
a clean procedure, and sterile gloves are not necessary. Removing the upper
plate with a foam swab to pry the plate could injure the client. Dentures
must be removed to clean the client’s mouth and the dentures properly.
Source: Berman, A., Snyder, S., Kozier, B., & Erb, G. (2008). Kozier & Erb’s
Fundamentals of Nursing: Concepts, Process, and Practice (8th ed., p. 771).
Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson Education.
RATIONALE