This document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It consists of 13 points that describe procedures for filling out the answer sheet, handling rough work, and other testing policies. Specifically, it notes that the paper contains 60 multiple choice questions, though only 50 need to be answered. It provides guidance on marking answers on the scantron sheet and dealing with issues like changing answers.
1. The document contains instructions for a multiple choice exam with 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions, and only the first 50 attempted will be graded.
2. Examinees have 5 minutes to verify the test booklet is not damaged or missing pages before starting. They must fill in test booklet and OMR sheet codes for matching.
3. Instructions provide details on selecting answers, handling the OMR sheet, writing in the test booklet, and general exam policies like starting and ending on time.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking a multiple choice exam consisting of 50 questions. It specifies that candidates should fill in personal details on the cover page and instructions for examining the question booklet upon receiving it. Candidates are asked to verify the number of pages and questions match the cover page and report any issues within 5 minutes for a replacement. Each question will have 4 answer options labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. No negative marks will be given for incorrect answers.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer 50 questions by darkening the correct option on an answer sheet.
2. It outlines procedures for verifying the question booklet before the exam starts and marking responses on the answer sheet.
3. Candidates are instructed to only mark their responses in the designated circles on the answer sheet and do rough work in the designated section.
- The document is a 16 page, 50 question test booklet for a Management paper.
- It provides instructions for candidates taking the exam, including verifying the test booklet, marking responses on the answer sheet, start and end times, and prohibitions on external materials.
- Candidates are instructed to only mark their responses on the answer sheet provided and not write anywhere else that could reveal their identity.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer 50 questions by darkening the correct option on an answer sheet.
2. It outlines procedures for verifying the question booklet before the exam starts and marking responses on the answer sheet.
3. Candidates are instructed to only mark their responses in the designated circles on the answer sheet and do rough work in the designated section.
Previous year question paper of ugc net jrf exam june 2013 paper ii (politica...Kishor Vp
This document provides instructions for a political science exam. It outlines the structure of the exam, which consists of 50 multiple choice questions. It instructs candidates to fill in their roll number and check that their question booklet is complete. Candidates are advised to only mark their answers in the designated sections of the OMR answer sheet and are not allowed to use outside materials during the exam.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam. It states there are 75 questions in the exam booklet.
2. Examinees must fill in personal details on the booklet cover and check that the number of pages and questions match the details on the cover. Faulty booklets can be replaced within 5 minutes.
3. Answers must be marked on the OMR sheet provided, following instructions inside carefully. Rough work should be done at the end of the booklet.
This document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions. It states that the exam consists of 60 questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 5 minutes to verify that their exam booklet is complete before starting. They must fill in information from the booklet on the answer sheet, which is used for two parts of the exam, and mark their answers by darkening circles on the answer sheet corresponding to the question numbers. The document provides several other guidelines for properly completing the exam.
1. The document contains instructions for a multiple choice exam with 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions, and only the first 50 attempted will be graded.
2. Examinees have 5 minutes to verify the test booklet is not damaged or missing pages before starting. They must fill in test booklet and OMR sheet codes for matching.
3. Instructions provide details on selecting answers, handling the OMR sheet, writing in the test booklet, and general exam policies like starting and ending on time.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking a multiple choice exam consisting of 50 questions. It specifies that candidates should fill in personal details on the cover page and instructions for examining the question booklet upon receiving it. Candidates are asked to verify the number of pages and questions match the cover page and report any issues within 5 minutes for a replacement. Each question will have 4 answer options labelled A, B, C or D, and candidates must fill in their responses on the OMR sheet provided. No negative marks will be given for incorrect answers.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer 50 questions by darkening the correct option on an answer sheet.
2. It outlines procedures for verifying the question booklet before the exam starts and marking responses on the answer sheet.
3. Candidates are instructed to only mark their responses in the designated circles on the answer sheet and do rough work in the designated section.
- The document is a 16 page, 50 question test booklet for a Management paper.
- It provides instructions for candidates taking the exam, including verifying the test booklet, marking responses on the answer sheet, start and end times, and prohibitions on external materials.
- Candidates are instructed to only mark their responses on the answer sheet provided and not write anywhere else that could reveal their identity.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer 50 questions by darkening the correct option on an answer sheet.
2. It outlines procedures for verifying the question booklet before the exam starts and marking responses on the answer sheet.
3. Candidates are instructed to only mark their responses in the designated circles on the answer sheet and do rough work in the designated section.
Previous year question paper of ugc net jrf exam june 2013 paper ii (politica...Kishor Vp
This document provides instructions for a political science exam. It outlines the structure of the exam, which consists of 50 multiple choice questions. It instructs candidates to fill in their roll number and check that their question booklet is complete. Candidates are advised to only mark their answers in the designated sections of the OMR answer sheet and are not allowed to use outside materials during the exam.
1. The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam. It states there are 75 questions in the exam booklet.
2. Examinees must fill in personal details on the booklet cover and check that the number of pages and questions match the details on the cover. Faulty booklets can be replaced within 5 minutes.
3. Answers must be marked on the OMR sheet provided, following instructions inside carefully. Rough work should be done at the end of the booklet.
This document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions. It states that the exam consists of 60 questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 5 minutes to verify that their exam booklet is complete before starting. They must fill in information from the booklet on the answer sheet, which is used for two parts of the exam, and mark their answers by darkening circles on the answer sheet corresponding to the question numbers. The document provides several other guidelines for properly completing the exam.
1. The document contains instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions within the allotted time.
2. Candidates are to darken the oval on the answer sheet corresponding to their chosen alternative (A, B, C or D) for each question. They are also instructed to fill details on the answer sheet like roll number and test booklet code for evaluation.
3. The instructions provide guidance on receiving and verifying the question paper booklet, handling multiple answers, doing rough work, and completing the exam within the specified time and as per guidelines.
This document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions. It states that the exam consists of 60 questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 5 minutes to verify that their exam booklet is complete before starting. They must fill in information from the booklet on the answer sheet, which is used for two parts of the exam, and mark their answers by darkening circles on the answer sheet corresponding to the question numbers. The document provides several other guidelines for properly completing the exam.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam consists of 75 multiple choice questions to be completed in 2.5 hours. Candidates are instructed to verify that their question booklet is complete and in order. They should enter their candidate ID number on the booklet and answer sheet. Choices for each question are labelled A-D and candidates should fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. No marks are deducted for incorrect answers. At the end, candidates must return the question booklet and answer sheet.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination. It states that the exam will consist of 50 multiple choice questions over 24 pages. It instructs students to write their roll number on the paper and check that their question booklet is intact and in order. Students must fill in their assigned identification number and use a provided answer sheet to select only one answer for each question by darkening the corresponding circle. They are advised to follow the given instructions carefully and not write any identifying marks besides the spaces provided.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam on Mass Communication and Journalism.
2. It states that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions and will last 1 hour and 15 minutes.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates are to verify that their question booklet is not missing pages, has questions in serial order, and has the correct number of pages listed on the cover. Faulty booklets can be replaced within this period.
Economics learning question set in 6 yearsKishor Vp
This document provides instructions for a 50 question, multiple choice economics exam. It outlines formatting details like including your roll number, checking the question paper for errors upon receiving it, how to fill in answers on the OMR sheet, rules around rough work and calculator use, and returning materials after the exam. The exam consists of 50 objective type questions worth 2 marks each.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the answer sheet by darkening the appropriate oval for each question within the time allotted for the examination.
UGC NET Coaching in Chandigarh-We Provide the Best Institute for UGC- NET only Economics,Commerce,English and Computer Science Subjects Coaching Chandigarh.
Gyan Sagar Institute
SCF: 118-119-120,3rd Floor, Above State Bank of India
Sector 34/A, Chandigarh, 160022
Phone: 7307961122,7307861122
Website: http://www.gyansagarinstitute.com/ugc-net-economics-coaching-in-chandigarh/
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
LAND USE LAND COVER AND NDVI OF MIRZAPUR DISTRICT, UPRAHUL
This Dissertation explores the particular circumstances of Mirzapur, a region located in the
core of India. Mirzapur, with its varied terrains and abundant biodiversity, offers an optimal
environment for investigating the changes in vegetation cover dynamics. Our study utilizes
advanced technologies such as GIS (Geographic Information Systems) and Remote sensing to
analyze the transformations that have taken place over the course of a decade.
The complex relationship between human activities and the environment has been the focus
of extensive research and worry. As the global community grapples with swift urbanization,
population expansion, and economic progress, the effects on natural ecosystems are becoming
more evident. A crucial element of this impact is the alteration of vegetation cover, which plays a
significant role in maintaining the ecological equilibrium of our planet.Land serves as the foundation for all human activities and provides the necessary materials for
these activities. As the most crucial natural resource, its utilization by humans results in different
'Land uses,' which are determined by both human activities and the physical characteristics of the
land.
The utilization of land is impacted by human needs and environmental factors. In countries
like India, rapid population growth and the emphasis on extensive resource exploitation can lead
to significant land degradation, adversely affecting the region's land cover.
Therefore, human intervention has significantly influenced land use patterns over many
centuries, evolving its structure over time and space. In the present era, these changes have
accelerated due to factors such as agriculture and urbanization. Information regarding land use and
cover is essential for various planning and management tasks related to the Earth's surface,
providing crucial environmental data for scientific, resource management, policy purposes, and
diverse human activities.
Accurate understanding of land use and cover is imperative for the development planning
of any area. Consequently, a wide range of professionals, including earth system scientists, land
and water managers, and urban planners, are interested in obtaining data on land use and cover
changes, conversion trends, and other related patterns. The spatial dimensions of land use and
cover support policymakers and scientists in making well-informed decisions, as alterations in
these patterns indicate shifts in economic and social conditions. Monitoring such changes with the
help of Advanced technologies like Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems is
crucial for coordinated efforts across different administrative levels. Advanced technologies like
Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems
9
Changes in vegetation cover refer to variations in the distribution, composition, and overall
structure of plant communities across different temporal and spatial scales. These changes can
occur natural.
1. The document contains instructions for a multiple choice exam consisting of 60 questions. Candidates must answer any 50 questions within the allotted time.
2. Candidates are to darken the oval on the answer sheet corresponding to their chosen alternative (A, B, C or D) for each question. They are also instructed to fill details on the answer sheet like roll number and test booklet code for evaluation.
3. The instructions provide guidance on receiving and verifying the question paper booklet, handling multiple answers, doing rough work, and completing the exam within the specified time and as per guidelines.
This document provides instructions for taking an exam with multiple choice questions. It states that the exam consists of 60 questions, and candidates must answer 50 questions. Candidates have 5 minutes to verify that their exam booklet is complete before starting. They must fill in information from the booklet on the answer sheet, which is used for two parts of the exam, and mark their answers by darkening circles on the answer sheet corresponding to the question numbers. The document provides several other guidelines for properly completing the exam.
This document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam. It states that the exam consists of 75 multiple choice questions to be completed in 2.5 hours. Candidates are instructed to verify that their question booklet is complete and in order. They should enter their candidate ID number on the booklet and answer sheet. Choices for each question are labelled A-D and candidates should fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. No marks are deducted for incorrect answers. At the end, candidates must return the question booklet and answer sheet.
This document provides instructions for a multiple choice examination. It states that the exam will consist of 50 multiple choice questions over 24 pages. It instructs students to write their roll number on the paper and check that their question booklet is intact and in order. Students must fill in their assigned identification number and use a provided answer sheet to select only one answer for each question by darkening the corresponding circle. They are advised to follow the given instructions carefully and not write any identifying marks besides the spaces provided.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an exam on Mass Communication and Journalism.
2. It states that the exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions and will last 1 hour and 15 minutes.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates are to verify that their question booklet is not missing pages, has questions in serial order, and has the correct number of pages listed on the cover. Faulty booklets can be replaced within this period.
Economics learning question set in 6 yearsKishor Vp
This document provides instructions for a 50 question, multiple choice economics exam. It outlines formatting details like including your roll number, checking the question paper for errors upon receiving it, how to fill in answers on the OMR sheet, rules around rough work and calculator use, and returning materials after the exam. The exam consists of 50 objective type questions worth 2 marks each.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. It states that the exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50 questions.
3. In the first 5 minutes, candidates should verify that their question booklet is not faulty by checking the number of pages and questions.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the answer sheet by darkening the appropriate oval for each question within the time allotted for the examination.
UGC NET Coaching in Chandigarh-We Provide the Best Institute for UGC- NET only Economics,Commerce,English and Computer Science Subjects Coaching Chandigarh.
Gyan Sagar Institute
SCF: 118-119-120,3rd Floor, Above State Bank of India
Sector 34/A, Chandigarh, 160022
Phone: 7307961122,7307861122
Website: http://www.gyansagarinstitute.com/ugc-net-economics-coaching-in-chandigarh/
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill in personal details on the test booklet and answer sheet.
3. Candidates must carefully verify that their test booklet contains the correct number of pages and questions. Any issues should be reported within 5 minutes for replacement.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
1. The document provides instructions for candidates taking an examination.
2. Candidates are instructed to fill information on the test booklet and answer sheet, and verify that they have the correct booklet with the right number of pages and questions.
3. Candidates must select their responses on the multiple choice answer sheet, and may not write anywhere else on the answer sheet or booklet.
LAND USE LAND COVER AND NDVI OF MIRZAPUR DISTRICT, UPRAHUL
This Dissertation explores the particular circumstances of Mirzapur, a region located in the
core of India. Mirzapur, with its varied terrains and abundant biodiversity, offers an optimal
environment for investigating the changes in vegetation cover dynamics. Our study utilizes
advanced technologies such as GIS (Geographic Information Systems) and Remote sensing to
analyze the transformations that have taken place over the course of a decade.
The complex relationship between human activities and the environment has been the focus
of extensive research and worry. As the global community grapples with swift urbanization,
population expansion, and economic progress, the effects on natural ecosystems are becoming
more evident. A crucial element of this impact is the alteration of vegetation cover, which plays a
significant role in maintaining the ecological equilibrium of our planet.Land serves as the foundation for all human activities and provides the necessary materials for
these activities. As the most crucial natural resource, its utilization by humans results in different
'Land uses,' which are determined by both human activities and the physical characteristics of the
land.
The utilization of land is impacted by human needs and environmental factors. In countries
like India, rapid population growth and the emphasis on extensive resource exploitation can lead
to significant land degradation, adversely affecting the region's land cover.
Therefore, human intervention has significantly influenced land use patterns over many
centuries, evolving its structure over time and space. In the present era, these changes have
accelerated due to factors such as agriculture and urbanization. Information regarding land use and
cover is essential for various planning and management tasks related to the Earth's surface,
providing crucial environmental data for scientific, resource management, policy purposes, and
diverse human activities.
Accurate understanding of land use and cover is imperative for the development planning
of any area. Consequently, a wide range of professionals, including earth system scientists, land
and water managers, and urban planners, are interested in obtaining data on land use and cover
changes, conversion trends, and other related patterns. The spatial dimensions of land use and
cover support policymakers and scientists in making well-informed decisions, as alterations in
these patterns indicate shifts in economic and social conditions. Monitoring such changes with the
help of Advanced technologies like Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems is
crucial for coordinated efforts across different administrative levels. Advanced technologies like
Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems
9
Changes in vegetation cover refer to variations in the distribution, composition, and overall
structure of plant communities across different temporal and spatial scales. These changes can
occur natural.
This slide is special for master students (MIBS & MIFB) in UUM. Also useful for readers who are interested in the topic of contemporary Islamic banking.
How to Make a Field Mandatory in Odoo 17Celine George
In Odoo, making a field required can be done through both Python code and XML views. When you set the required attribute to True in Python code, it makes the field required across all views where it's used. Conversely, when you set the required attribute in XML views, it makes the field required only in the context of that particular view.
Exploiting Artificial Intelligence for Empowering Researchers and Faculty, In...Dr. Vinod Kumar Kanvaria
Exploiting Artificial Intelligence for Empowering Researchers and Faculty,
International FDP on Fundamentals of Research in Social Sciences
at Integral University, Lucknow, 06.06.2024
By Dr. Vinod Kumar Kanvaria
Main Java[All of the Base Concepts}.docxadhitya5119
This is part 1 of my Java Learning Journey. This Contains Custom methods, classes, constructors, packages, multithreading , try- catch block, finally block and more.
How to Manage Your Lost Opportunities in Odoo 17 CRMCeline George
Odoo 17 CRM allows us to track why we lose sales opportunities with "Lost Reasons." This helps analyze our sales process and identify areas for improvement. Here's how to configure lost reasons in Odoo 17 CRM
The simplified electron and muon model, Oscillating Spacetime: The Foundation...RitikBhardwaj56
Discover the Simplified Electron and Muon Model: A New Wave-Based Approach to Understanding Particles delves into a groundbreaking theory that presents electrons and muons as rotating soliton waves within oscillating spacetime. Geared towards students, researchers, and science buffs, this book breaks down complex ideas into simple explanations. It covers topics such as electron waves, temporal dynamics, and the implications of this model on particle physics. With clear illustrations and easy-to-follow explanations, readers will gain a new outlook on the universe's fundamental nature.
Executive Directors Chat Leveraging AI for Diversity, Equity, and InclusionTechSoup
Let’s explore the intersection of technology and equity in the final session of our DEI series. Discover how AI tools, like ChatGPT, can be used to support and enhance your nonprofit's DEI initiatives. Participants will gain insights into practical AI applications and get tips for leveraging technology to advance their DEI goals.
This presentation was provided by Steph Pollock of The American Psychological Association’s Journals Program, and Damita Snow, of The American Society of Civil Engineers (ASCE), for the initial session of NISO's 2024 Training Series "DEIA in the Scholarly Landscape." Session One: 'Setting Expectations: a DEIA Primer,' was held June 6, 2024.
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Signature and Name of Invigilator
OMR Sheet No. : ............................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Roll No.
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2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
Roll No.________________________________
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(ii) Ûú¾Ö¸ü ¯Öéšü ¯Ö¸ü ”û¯Öê ×®Ö¤ìü¿ÖÖ®ÖãÃÖÖ¸ü ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ Ûêú ¯Öéšü ŸÖ£ÖÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë
Ûúß ÃÖÓÜμÖÖ ÛúÖê †“”ûß ŸÖ¸üÆü “ÖîÛú Ûú¸ü »Öë ×Ûú μÖê ¯Öæ¸êü Æïü … ¤üÖêÂÖ¯ÖæÞÖÔ
¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ×•Ö®Ö´Öë ¯Öéšü/¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûú´Ö ÆüÖë μÖÖ ¤ãü²ÖÖ¸üÖ †Ö ÝÖμÖê ÆüÖë μÖÖ ÃÖß׸üμÖ»Ö
´Öë ®Ö ÆüÖë †£ÖÖÔŸÖ ×ÛúÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü Ûúß ¡Öã×™ü¯ÖæÞÖÔ ¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ Ã¾ÖßÛúÖ¸ü ®Ö
Ûú¸ëü ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖß ÃÖ´ÖμÖ ˆÃÖê »ÖÖî™üÖÛú¸ü ˆÃÖÛêú ãÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ü ¤æüÃÖ¸üß ÃÖÆüß
¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ »Öê »Öë … ‡ÃÖÛêú ×»Ö‹ †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ü פüμÖê
•ÖÖμÖëÝÖê … ˆÃÖÛêú ²ÖÖ¤ü ®Ö ŸÖÖê †Ö¯ÖÛúß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ¾ÖÖ¯ÖÃÖ »Öß •ÖÖμÖêÝÖß
†Öî¸ü ®Ö Æüß †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê †×ŸÖ׸üŒŸÖ ÃÖ´ÖμÖ ×¤üμÖÖ •ÖÖμÖêÝÖÖ …
(iii) ‡ÃÖ •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûêú ²ÖÖ¤ü ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ÛúÖ ÛúÖê›ü OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú ¯Ö¸ü †Ó×ÛúŸÖ
Ûú¸ëü †Öî¸ü OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú Ûúß ÛÎú´Ö ÃÖÓÜμÖÖ ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ¯Ö¸ü
†Ó×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸ü ¤ëü …
4. ¯ÖÏŸμÖêÛú ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûêú ×»Ö‹ “ÖÖ¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü ×¾ÖÛú»¯Ö (A), (B), (C) ŸÖ£ÖÖ (D) פüμÖê
ÝÖμÖê Æïü … †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü Ûêú ¾Öé¢Ö ÛúÖê ¯Öê®Ö ÃÖê ³Ö¸üÛú¸ü ÛúÖ»ÖÖ Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ Æîü
•ÖîÃÖÖ ×Ûú ®Öß“Öê פüÜÖÖμÖÖ ÝÖμÖÖ Æîü …
ˆ¤üÖÆü¸üÞÖ : •Ö²Ö×Ûú (C) ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü Æîü …
5. ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö I †Öî¸ü¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö II Ûêú×»Ö‹‹ÛúÆüßOMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛúÆîü•ÖÖê‡ÃÖ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö
¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ Ûêú †®¤ü¸ü פüμÖÖ ÝÖμÖÖ Æîü … ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûêú ˆ¢Ö¸ü Ûêú¾Ö»Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú
¯Ö¸ü Æüß †Ó×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸ü®Öê Æïü … μÖפü †Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú ¯Ö¸ü פüμÖê ÝÖμÖê ¾Öé¢Ö Ûêú
†»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ ×ÛúÃÖß †®μÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü דÖÅ®ÖÖÓ×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸ŸÖêü Æïü, ŸÖÖê ˆÃÖÛúÖ
´Öæ»μÖÖÓÛú®Ö ®ÖÆüà ÆüÖêÝÖÖ …
6. †®¤ü¸ü פüμÖê ÝÖμÖê ×®Ö¤ìü¿ÖÖë ÛúÖê ¬μÖÖ®Ö¯Öæ¾ÖÔÛú ¯ÖœÌëü …
7. Ûú““ÖÖ ÛúÖ´Ö (Rough Work) ‡ÃÖ ¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ Ûêú †×®ŸÖ´Ö ¯Öéšü ¯Ö¸ü Ûú¸ëü …
8. μÖפü †Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú ¯Ö¸ü ×®ÖμÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö Ûêú †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ †¯Ö®ÖÖ ®ÖÖ´Ö, ¸üÖê»Ö
®Ö´²Ö¸ü, ±úÖê®Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ü μÖÖ ÛúÖê‡Ô ³Öß ‹êÃÖÖ ×“ÖÅ®Ö ×•ÖÃÖÃÖê †Ö¯ÖÛúß ¯ÖÆü“ÖÖ®Ö ÆüÖê
ÃÖÛêú, †Ó×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü †£Ö¾ÖÖ †³Ö¦ü ³ÖÖÂÖÖ ÛúÖ ¯ÖÏμÖÖêÝÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü, μÖÖ ÛúÖê‡Ô
†®μÖ †®Öã×“ÖŸÖ ÃÖÖ¬Ö®Ö ÛúÖ ¯ÖÏμÖÖêÝÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü, •ÖîÃÖê ×Ûú †Ó×ÛúŸÖ ×ÛúμÖê ÝÖμÖê
ˆ¢Ö¸ü ÛúÖê ×´Ö™üÖ®ÖÖ μÖÖ ÃÖ±êú¤ü ÃμÖÖÆüß ÃÖê ²Ö¤ü»Ö®ÖÖ ŸÖÖê ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ Ûêú ×»ÖμÖê
†μÖÖêÝμÖ ‘ÖÖê×ÂÖŸÖ ×ÛúμÖê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü …
9. †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯ŸÖ ÆüÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ü ´Öæ»Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú ×®Ö¸üßõÖÛú ´ÖÆüÖê¤üμÖ ÛúÖê
»ÖÖî™üÖ®ÖÖ †Ö¾Ö¿μÖÛú Æîü †Öî¸ü ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖׯŸÖ Ûêú ²ÖÖ¤ü ˆÃÖê †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö
¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ³Ö¾Ö®Ö ÃÖê ²ÖÖÆü¸ü ®Ö »ÖêÛú¸ü •ÖÖμÖë … ÆüÖ»ÖÖÓ×Ûú †Ö¯Ö ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖׯŸÖ ¯Ö¸ü
OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú Ûúß ›ãü¯»ÖßÛêú™ü ¯ÖÏ×ŸÖ †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö »Öê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü …
10. Ûêú¾Ö»Ö ®Öß»Öê/ÛúÖ»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ‡Õ™ü ¯Öê®Ö ÛúÖ Æüß ‡ÃŸÖê´ÖÖ»Ö Ûú¸ëü …
11. ×ÛúÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü ÛúÖ ÃÖÓÝÖÞÖÛú (Ûîú»ÖÛãú»Öê™ü¸ü) μÖÖ »ÖÖÝÖ ™êü²Ö»Ö †Öפü ÛúÖ
¯ÖÏμÖÖêÝÖ ¾ÖÙ•ÖŸÖ Æîü …
12. ÝÖ»ÖŸÖ ˆ¢Ö¸üÖë Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ÛúÖê‡Ô ®ÖÛúÖ¸üÖŸ´ÖÛú †ÓÛú ®ÖÆüà Æïü …
13. μÖפü †ÓÝÖÏê•Öß μÖÖ ØÆü¤üß ×¾Ö¾Ö¸üÞÖ ´Öë ÛúÖê‡Ô ×¾ÖÃÖÓÝÖ×ŸÖ ÆüÖê, ŸÖÖê †ÓÝÖÏê•Öß ×¾Ö¾Ö¸üÞÖ
†Ó×ŸÖ´Ö ´ÖÖ®ÖÖ •ÖÖ‹ÝÖÖ …
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag
and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the numberof pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of5minutes.Afterwards,neithertheQuestionBooklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in
the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are
however, allowed to carry duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions,
English version will be taken as final.
(In words)
Test Booklet Code [Maximum Marks : 100
Time : 1 1
/4
hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖÙ£ÖμÖÖë Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ×®Ö¤ìü¿Ö
Z
D 0 0 1 3
2. Z-00 2
Total Marks Obtained (in words) ...........................................
(in figures) ..........................................
Signature & Name of the Coordinator ...................................
(Evaluation) Date .........................
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Question
Number
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Obtained
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FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
3. Z-00 3 P.T.O.
Paper – I
¯ÖÏ¿®Ö¯Ö¡Ö – I
Note : • This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
• Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
• In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will
be evaluated.
®ÖÖê™ : • ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ÃÖÖšü (60) ²ÖÆãü×¾ÖÛú»¯ÖßµÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Æïü … ¯ÖÏŸµÖêÛú ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûêú ¤üÖê (2) †ÓÛú Æïü …
• †³µÖ£Öá ÛúÖê ÛúÖê‡Ô ³Öß ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ (50) ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûêú ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¤êü®Öê Æïü …
• µÖפü ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ (50) ÃÖê †×¬ÖÛú ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûêú ˆ¢Ö¸ü פüµÖê ŸÖÖê ¯ÖÏ£Ö´Ö ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ (50) ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Æüß •ÖÖÑ“Öê •ÖÖµÖëÝÖê …
1. A man pointing to a lady said, “The
son of her only brother is the brother
of my wife”. The lady is related to the
man as
(A) Mother’s sister
(B) Grand mother
(C) Mother-in-law
(D) Sister of Father-in-law
2. In this series
6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2,
2, 7, 1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6, how many pairs
of successive numbers have a
difference of 2 each ?
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 8
3. The mean marks obtained by a class
of 40 students is 65. The mean marks
of half of the students is found to be
45. The mean marks of the remaining
students is
(A) 85 (B) 60
(C) 70 (D) 65
4. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three
years ago, he was three times as old as
Sunita. The present age of Anil is
(A) 6 years (B) 8 years
(C) 12 years (D) 16 years
5. Which of the following is a social
network ?
(A) amazon.com
(B) eBay
(C) gmail.com
(D) Twitter
6. The population information is called
parameter while the corresponding
sample information is known as
(A) Universe
(B) Inference
(C) Sampling design
(D) Statistics
1. ‹Ûú ´Ö×Æü»ÖÖ ÛúÖê ‡Ó×ÝÖŸÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æãü‹ ‹Ûú †Ö¤ü´Öß ®Öê ÛúÆüÖ,
“ˆÃÖÛêú ‹Ûú´ÖÖ¡Ö ³ÖÖ‡Ô ÛúÖ ¯Öã¡Ö ´Öê¸üß ¯ÖŸ®Öß ÛúÖ ³ÖÖ‡Ô
Æîü …” ¾ÖÆü ´Ö×Æü»ÖÖ ˆÃÖ †Ö¤ü´Öß Ûúß ŒµÖÖ »ÖÝÖŸÖß Æîü ?
(A) ´ÖÖŸÖÖ Ûúß ²ÖÆü®Ö
(B) ¤Ö¤üß
(C) ÃÖÖÃÖ
(D) ¿¾ÖÃÖã¸ü Ûúß ²ÖÆü®Ö
2. ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ÃÖ߸üß•Ö :
6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2,
2, 7, 1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6
´Öë ˆ¢Ö¸üÖê¢Ö¸ü ÃÖÓܵÖÖ†Öë Ûêú ×ÛúŸÖ®Öê µÖãÝ´ÖÖë ´Öë ¯ÖÏŸµÖêÛú
Ûêú ²Öß“Ö 2 ÛúÖ †ÓŸÖ¸ü Æîü ?
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 8
3. 40 ×¾ÖªÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë Ûúß ‹Ûú ÛúõÖÖ Ûêú ¯ÖÏÖ¯ŸÖÖÓÛú ÛúÖ
´Ö¬µÖ´ÖÖ®Ö 65 Æîü … ÛúõÖÖ Ûêú †Ö¬Öê ×¾ÖªÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë Ûêú
¯ÖÏÖ¯ŸÖÖÓÛú ÛúÖ ´Ö¬µÖ´ÖÖ®Ö 45 Æîü … ²Ö“Öê Æãü‹ ×¾ÖªÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë
Ûêú ¯ÖÏÖ¯ŸÖÖÓÛú ÛúÖ ´Ö¬µÖ´ÖÖ®Ö ŒµÖÖ Æîü ?
(A) 85 (B) 60
(C) 70 (D) 65
4. †×®Ö»Ö Ûúß ˆ´ÖÏ ÃÖã®ÖߟÖÖ Ûúß ˆ´ÖÏ ÃÖê ¤ãüÝÖ®Öß Æîü … ŸÖß®Ö
¾ÖÂÖÔ ¯ÖÆü»Öê ˆÃÖÛúß ˆ´ÖÏ ÃÖã®ÖߟÖÖ Ûúß ˆ´ÖÏ ÃÖê ןÖÝÖã®Öß
£Öß … †×®Ö»Ö Ûúß ¾ÖŸÖÔ´ÖÖ®Ö ˆ´ÖÏ Æîü
(A) 6 ¾ÖÂÖÔ (B) 8 ¾ÖÂÖÔ
(C) 12 ¾ÖÂÖÔ (D) 16 ¾ÖÂÖÔ
5. ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖÖ ‹Ûú ÃÖÖê¿Ö»Ö ®Öê™ü¾ÖÛÔú Æîü ?
(A) †´Öê•ÖÖê®Ö.ÛúÖò´Ö
(B) ‡Ô-²Öê
(C) •Öß´Öê»Ö.ÛúÖò´Ö
(D) ×™Ëü¾Ö™ü¸ü
6. ÃÖ´Ö×™ü ÃÖæ“Ö®ÖÖ ¯Öî¸üÖ´Öß™ü¸ü Æîü •Ö²Ö×Ûú ÃÖÓÝÖŸÖ ÃÖï¯Ö»Ö
ÃÖæ“Ö®ÖÖ ÛúÖê ŒµÖÖ ÛúÆüÖ •ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü ?
(A) µÖæ×®Ö¾ÖÃÖÔ (ÃÖ´Ö×™ü)
(B) †®Öã´ÖÖ®Ö
(C) ¯ÖÏ×ŸÖ“ÖµÖ®Ö †×³ÖÛú»¯Ö
(D) ÃÖÖÓ×ܵÖÛúß
4. Z-00 4
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 7 to 12 :
Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Centre for the Study
of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property (ICCROM) was established with
UNESCO’s assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organisation with 126 member states has
done a commendable job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards,
and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in
global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian
conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and
dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have
demonstrated that prioritising heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand,
India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long way to go. Surveys
indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable
heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological
Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to
overcome this severe shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training
institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream
research and engineering institutes, as has been done in Europe.
Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to
redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to
enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures, which international charters perhaps
overemphasise. The effort has to be broad-based : It must also serve as a means to improving the
quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task therefore is to
integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people living in the
heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and
conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian
National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial
state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilised by aligning it with the green
building movement. Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and conservation could become a
vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.
7. The outlook for conservation heritage changed
(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation
and Restoration of Cultural Property.
(B) after training the specialists in the field.
(C) after extending UNESCO’s assistance to the educational institutions.
(D) after ASI’s measures to protect the monuments.
8. The inter-government organization was appreciated because of
(A) increasing number of members to 126.
(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.
(C) consistent investment in conservation.
(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration.
9. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be
(A) Financial support from the Government of India.
(B) Non-governmental organisations role and participation in the conservation movement.
(C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of
awareness for conservation.
(D) Archaeological Survey of India’s meaningful assistance.
10. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of
protected monuments. As per given the total number of monuments and enlisted number of
protected monuments, percentage comes to
(A) 10 percent (B) 11 percent (C) 12 percent (D) 13 percent
11. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage ?
(i) There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.
(ii) Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.
(iii) Force the government to provide sufficient funds.
(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.
Choose correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (i), (ii), (iv) (C) (i), (ii) (D) (i), (iii), (iv)
12. INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural heritage. The full
form of INTACH is
(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(C) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
6. Z-00 6
13. While delivering lecture if there is
some disturbance in the class, a
teacher should
(A) keep quiet for a while and then
continue.
(B) punish those causing
disturbance.
(C) motivate to teach those causing
disturbance.
(D) not bother of what is happening
in the class.
14. Effective teaching is a function of
(A) Teacher’s satisfaction.
(B) Teacher’s honesty and
commitment.
(C) Teacher’s making students learn
and understand.
(D) Teacher’s liking for professional
excellence.
15. The most appropriate meaning of
learning is
(A) Acquisition of skills
(B) Modification of behaviour
(C) Personal adjustment
(D) Inculcation of knowledge
16. Arrange the following teaching
process in order :
(i) Relate the present knowledge
with previous one
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Reteaching
(iv) Formulating instructional objectives
(v) Presentation of instructional
materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)
13. ¾µÖÖܵÖÖ®Ö ¤êüŸÖê ÃÖ´ÖµÖ µÖפü ÛúõÖÖ ´Öë ÛúÖê‡Ô ×¾Ö‘®Ö-²ÖÖ¬ÖÖ ÆüÖê
ŸÖÖê ׿ÖõÖÛú ÛúÖê ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ŒµÖÖ Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ “ÖÖ×Æü‹ ?
(A) Ûãú”û ¤êü¸ü Ûêú ×»Ö‹ “Öã¯Ö ÆüÖê •ÖÖ‹ †Öî¸ü ×±ú¸ü
¿Öãºþ Ûú¸ü ¤êü …
(B) •ÖÖê ²ÖÖ¬ÖÖ ›üÖ»Ö ¸üÆêü ÆüÖë ˆ®Æëü ¤Óü×›üŸÖ Ûú¸êü …
(C) •ÖÖê ²ÖÖ¬ÖÖ ›üÖ»Ö ¸üÆêü ÆüÖë ˆ®Æëü ÃÖßÜÖ®Öê Ûêú ×»Ö‹
¯ÖÏê׸üŸÖ Ûú¸êü …
(D) ÛúõÖÖ ´Öë •ÖÖê Ûãú”û ÆüÖê ¸üÆüÖ Æîü ˆÃÖÛêú ²ÖÖ¸êü ´Öë
ÛúÖê‡Ô ¯Ö¸ü¾ÖÖÆü ®Ö Ûú¸êü …
14. ¯ÖϳÖÖ¾Öß ×¿ÖõÖÞÖ ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ŒµÖÖ Æîü ?
(A) ׿ÖõÖÛú ÛúÖ ÃÖÓŸÖÖêÂÖ
(B) ׿ÖõÖÛú Ûúß ‡Ô´ÖÖ®Ö¤üÖ¸üß †Öî¸ü ¯ÖÏןֲ֨üŸÖÖ
(C) ׿ÖõÖÛú ÛúÖ ”ûÖ¡ÖÖë ÛúÖê ¯ÖœÌüÖ®ÖÖ †Öî¸ü
ÃÖ´Ö—ÖÖ®ÖÖ
(D) ¾µÖÖ¾ÖÃÖÖ×µÖÛú ÁÖêšüŸÖÖ Ûêú ¯ÖÏ×ŸÖ ×¿ÖõÖÛú Ûúß
¹ýדÖ
15. †×¬ÖÝÖ´Ö ÛúÖ ÃÖ²ÖÃÖê ˆ¯ÖµÖãŒŸÖ †£ÖÔ Æîü
(A) ÛúÖî¿Ö»Ö-†•ÖÔ®Ö
(B) ¾µÖ¾ÖÆüÖ¸ü-ÃÖÓ¿ÖÖê¬Ö®Ö
(C) ¾µÖ׌ŸÖÝÖŸÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖµÖÖê•Ö®Ö
(D) –ÖÖ®Ö ÛúÖê פü´ÖÖÝÖ ´Öë ²ÖîšüÖ®ÖÖ
16. ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ×¿ÖõÖÞÖ-¯ÖÏ×ÛÎúµÖÖ šüßÛú ÛÎú´Ö ´Öë
¾µÖ¾Ö×Ã£ÖŸÖ Ûúßו֋ :
(i) ¾ÖŸÖÔ´ÖÖ®Ö –ÖÖ®Ö ÛúÖê ¯ÖÆü»Öê Ûêú –ÖÖ®Ö ÃÖê •ÖÖê›Ìü®ÖÖ
(ii) ´Ö滵ÖÖÓÛú®Ö
(iii) ¯Öã®ÖÙ¿ÖõÖÞÖ
(iv) ׿ÖõÖÞÖ-»ÖõµÖÖë ÛúÖê ÃÖæ¡Ö²Ö¨ü Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ
(v) ׿ÖõÖÞÖ-ÃÖÖ´ÖÝÖÏß ÛúÖ ¯ÖÏßÖãŸÖßÛú¸üÞÖ
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)
7. Z-00 7 P.T.O.
17. CIET stands for
(A) Centre for Integrated Education
and Technology
(B) Central Institute for Engineering
and Technology
(C) Central Institute for Education
Technology
(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation
Techniques.
18. Teacher’s role at higher education
level is to
(A) provide information to students.
(B) promote self learning in students.
(C) encourage healthy competition
among students.
(D) help students to solve their
problems.
19. The Verstehen School of
Understanding was popularised by
(A) German Social Scientists
(B) American Philosophers
(C) British Academicians
(D) Italian Political Analysts
20. The sequential operations in scientific
research are
(A) Co-variation, Elimination of
Spurious Relations, Generalisation,
Theorisation
(B) Generalisation, Co-variation,
Theorisation, Elimination of
Spurious Relations
(C) Theorisation, Generalisation,
Elimination of Spurious
Relations, Co-variation
(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations,
Theorisation, Generalisation,
Co-variation.
21. In sampling, the lottery method is
used for
(A) Interpretation
(B) Theorisation
(C) Conceptualisation
(D) Randomisation
17. CIET ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ×ÛúÃÖÛúÖ ÃÖæ“ÖÛú Æîü ?
(A) ÃÖë™ü¸ü ±úÖò¸ü ‡Ó™üßÝÖÏê×™ü›ü ‹•ÖæÛêú¿Ö®Ö ‹Þ›ü
™êüŒ®ÖÖê»ÖÖò•Öß
(B) ÃÖë™Òü»Ö ‡®Ã™üß™ËüµÖæ™ü ±úÖò¸ü ‡Ó•Öß×®ÖµÖظüÝÖ ‹Þ›ü
™êüŒ®ÖÖê»ÖÖò•Öß
(C) ÃÖë™Òü»Ö ‡®Ã™üß™ËüµÖæ™ü ±úÖò¸ü ‹•ÖæÛêú¿Ö®Ö
™êüŒ®ÖÖê»ÖÖò•Öß
(D) ÃÖë™ü¸ü ±úÖò¸ü ‡Ó™üßÝÖÏê×™ü›ü ‡¾Öê»Öã‹¿Ö®Ö ™êüÛú®ÖßÛú
18. ˆ““Ö ×¿ÖõÖÖ Ûêú ßָü ¯Ö¸ü ׿ÖõÖÛú Ûúß ³Öæ×´ÖÛúÖ ŒµÖÖ Æîü ?
(A) ×¾ÖªÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë ÛúÖê ÃÖæ“Ö®ÖÖ ¯ÖϤüÖ®Ö Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ …
(B) ×¾ÖªÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë ´Öë þÖÖ¬µÖÖµÖ ÛúÖê ¯ÖÏÖêŸÃÖÖ×ÆüŸÖ
Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ …
(C) ×¾ÖªÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë ´Öë þÖÃ£Ö ¯ÖÏןÖï֬ÖÖÔ ÛúÖê
¯ÖÏÖêŸÃÖÖÆü®Ö ¤êü®ÖÖ …
(D) †¯Ö®Öß ÃÖ´ÖõÖÖ‹Ñ Æü»Ö Ûú¸ü®Öê ´Öë ×¾ÖªÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë
Ûúß ´Ö¤ü¤ü Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ …
19. ¾ÖÙüáÆêü®Ö ÃÛæú»Ö †Öò±ú †Ó›ü¸üÙëüØ›üÝÖ ÛúÖê
×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ×ÛúÃÖ®Öê »ÖÖêÛúׯÖ쵅 ²Ö®ÖÖµÖÖ ?
(A) •Ö´ÖÔ®Ö ÃÖ´ÖÖ•Ö ×¾Ö–ÖÖ®Öß
(B) †´Öê׸üÛúß ¤üÖ¿ÖÔ×®ÖÛú
(C) ײÖÎ×™ü¿Ö †ÛúÖ¤ü×´ÖÛú ×¾Ö«üÖ®Ö
(D) ‡ŸÖÖ»Ö¾Öß ¸üÖ•Ö®ÖßןÖÛú ×¾Ö¿»ÖêÂÖÛú
20. ¾Öî–ÖÖ×®ÖÛú ¿ÖÖê¬Ö ´Öë ÛÎú×´ÖÛú ÃÖÓ×ÛÎúµÖÖ‹Ñ ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖß Æïü ?
(A) ÃÖÆü×¾Ö“Ö¸üÞÖ, ³ÖÏÖ´ÖÛú ÃÖÓ²ÖÓ¬ÖÖë ÛúÖ ²Ö×ÆüÂÛú¸üÞÖ,
ÃÖÖ´ÖÖ®µÖßÛú¸üÞÖ, ×ÃÖ¨üÖÓŸÖßÛú¸üÞÖ
(B) ÃÖÖ´ÖÖ®µÖßÛú¸üÞÖ, ÃÖÆü×¾Ö“Ö¸üÞÖ, ×ÃÖ¨üÖÓŸÖßÛú¸üÞÖ,
³ÖÏÖ´ÖÛú ÃÖÓ²ÖÓ¬ÖÖë ÛúÖ ²Ö×ÆüÂÛú¸üÞÖ
(C) ×ÃÖ¨üÖÓŸÖßÛú¸üÞÖ, ÃÖÖ´ÖÖ®µÖßÛú¸üÞÖ, ³ÖÏÖ´ÖÛú
ÃÖÓ²ÖÓ¬ÖÖë ÛúÖ ²Ö×ÆüÂÛú¸üÞÖ, ÃÖÆü×¾Ö“Ö¸üÞÖ
(D) ³ÖÏÖ´ÖÛú ÃÖÓ²ÖÓ¬ÖÖë ÛúÖ ²Ö×ÆüÂÛú¸üÞÖ,
×ÃÖ¨üÖÓŸÖßÛú¸üÞÖ, ÃÖÖ´ÖÖ®µÖßÛú¸üÞÖ, ÃÖÆü×¾Ö“Ö¸üÞÖ
21. ®Ö´Öæ®ÖÖ »Öê®Öê Ûúß »ÖÖò™ü¸üß ¯Ö¨ü×ŸÖ ÛúÖ ˆ¯ÖµÖÖêÝÖ
×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ×ÛúÃÖÛêú ×»Ö‹ ×ÛúµÖÖ •ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü ?
(A) ×®Ö¾ÖÔ“Ö®Ö (¾µÖÖܵÖÖ)
(B) ×ÃÖ¨üÖÓŸÖßÛú¸üÞÖ
(C) ÃÖÓÛú»¯Ö®ÖÖ
(D) ²ÖêŸÖ¸üŸÖß²Ö ÝÖÏÆüÞÖ (µÖÖ¥ü“”ûßÛú¸üÞÖ)
8. Z-00 8
22. Which is the main objective of research ?
(A) To review the literature
(B) To summarize what is already
known
(C) To get an academic degree
(D) To discover new facts or to
make fresh interpretation of
known facts
23. Sampling error decreases with the
(A) decrease in sample size
(B) increase in sample size
(C) process of randomization
(D) process of analysis
24. The principles of fundamental
research are used in
(A) action research
(B) applied research
(C) philosophical research
(D) historical research
25. Users who use media for their own
ends are identified as
(A) Passive audience
(B) Active audience
(C) Positive audience
(D) Negative audience
26. Classroom communication can be
described as
(A) Exploration
(B) Institutionalisation
(C) Unsignified narration
(D) Discourse
27. Ideological codes shape our collective
(A) Productions
(B) Perceptions
(C) Consumptions
(D) Creations
22. ¿ÖÖê¬Ö ÛúÖ ´ÖãÜµÖ ¬µÖêµÖ ŒµÖÖ Æîü ?
(A) ÃÖÖ×ÆüŸµÖ Ûúß ÃÖ´ÖßõÖÖ Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ …
(B) ¯ÖÆü»Öê ÃÖê –ÖÖŸÖ ÛúÖ ÃÖÖ¸üÖÓ¿Ö Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ …
(C) †ÛúÖ¤ü×´ÖÛú ˆ¯ÖÖ×¬Ö (×›üÝÖÏß) ¯ÖÏÖ¯ŸÖ Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ …
(D) ®ÖµÖê ŸÖ£µÖÖë Ûúß ÜÖÖê•Ö Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ †£Ö¾ÖÖ –ÖÖŸÖ
ŸÖ£µÖÖë Ûúß ŸÖÖ•ÖÖ ¾µÖÖܵÖÖ Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ …
23. ®Ö´Öæ®ÖÖ »Öê®Öê ´Öë ÝÖ»ÖŸÖß ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ×ÛúÃÖÛêú
ÃÖÖ£Ö ‘Ö™üŸÖß •ÖÖŸÖß Æîü ?
(A) ®Ö´Öæ®Öê Ûêú †ÖÛúÖ¸ü ´Öë Ûú´Öß
(B) ®Ö´Öæ®Öê Ûêú †ÖÛúÖ¸ü ´Öë ¾Öéרü
(C) µÖÖ¥ü“”ûßÛú¸üÞÖ Ûúß ¯ÖÏ×ÛÎúµÖÖ
(D) ×¾Ö¿»ÖêÂÖÞÖ Ûúß ¯ÖÏ×ÛÎúµÖÖ
24. ´ÖÖî×»ÖÛú ¿ÖÖê¬Ö Ûêú ×ÃÖ¨üÖÓŸÖÖë ÛúÖ ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê
×ÛúÃÖ´Öë ˆ¯ÖµÖÖêÝÖ ×ÛúµÖÖ •ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü ?
(A) ×ÛÎúµÖÖ¯Ö¸üÛú ¿ÖÖê¬Ö
(B) †®Öã¯ÖϵÖãŒŸÖ ¿ÖÖê¬Ö
(C) ¤üÖ¿ÖÔ×®ÖÛú ¿ÖÖê¬Ö
(D) ‹êןÖÆüÖ×ÃÖÛú ¿ÖÖê¬Ö
25. ÃÖÓ“ÖÖ¸ü ´ÖÖ¬µÖ´Ö ÛúÖ †¯Ö®Öß ÛúÖµÖÔ×ÃÖרü Ûêú ×»Ö‹
ˆ¯ÖµÖÖêÝÖ Ûú¸ü®Öê ¾ÖÖ»Öê ¯ÖϵÖÖꌟÖÖ ÛúÖê ŒµÖÖ ÛúÆüŸÖê Æïü ?
(A) ×®Ö×ÂÛÎúµÖ ÁÖÖêŸÖÖ
(B) ÃÖ×ÛÎúµÖ ÁÖÖêŸÖÖ
(C) ÃÖÛúÖ¸üÖŸ´ÖÛú ÁÖÖêŸÖÖ
(D) ®ÖÛúÖ¸üÖŸ´ÖÛú ÁÖÖêŸÖÖ
26. ÛúõÖÖ ÃÖÓ“ÖÖ¸ü ÛúÖ ¾ÖÞÖÔ®Ö ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ×ÛúÃÖÛêú
«üÖ¸üÖ ×ÛúµÖÖ •ÖÖ ÃÖÛúŸÖÖ Æîü ?
(A) ÝÖ¾ÖêÂÖÞÖÖ
(B) ÃÖÓãÖÖ®ÖßÛú¸üÞÖ
(C) †ÃÖÓÛêú×ŸÖŸÖ †ÖܵÖÖ®Ö
(D) ¾µÖÖܵÖÖ®Ö
27. ÃÖî¨üÖÓןÖÛú ÛúÖê›ü Æü´ÖÖ¸êü ÃÖÖ´Öæ×ÆüÛú ______ ÛúÖê
†ÖÛúÖ¸ü ¯ÖϤüÖ®Ö Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü …
(A) ×®Ö´ÖÖÔÞÖ
(B) †¾Ö²ÖÖê¬Ö®Ö
(C) ÜÖ¯ÖŸÖ
(D) ÃÖé•Ö®Ö
9. Z-00 9 P.T.O.
28. In communication, myths have power,
but are
(A) uncultural.
(B) insignificant.
(C) imprecise.
(D) unpreferred.
29. The first multi-lingual news agency of
India was
(A) Samachar
(B) API
(C) Hindustan Samachar
(D) Samachar Bharati
30. Organisational communication can
also be equated with
(A) intra-personal communication.
(B) inter-personal communication.
(C) group communication.
(D) mass communication.
31. If two propositions having the same
subject and predicate terms are such
that one is the denial of the other, the
relationship between them is called
(A) Contradictory
(B) Contrary
(C) Sub-contrary
(D) Sub-alternation
32. Ananya and Krishna can speak and
follow English. Bulbul can write and
speak Hindi as Archana does.
Archana talks with Ananya also in
Bengali. Krishna can not follow
Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in
Hindi. Who can speak and follow
English, Hindi and Bengali ?
(A) Archana
(B) Bulbul
(C) Ananya
(D) Krishna
28. ÃÖ´¯ÖÏêÂÖÞÖ ´Öë, ×´Ö£ÖÛúÖë ´Öë ¿Ö׌ŸÖ ÆüÖêŸÖß Æîü, ¯Ö¸ü®ŸÖã
¾Öê/ˆ®Æëü
(A) ÃÖÓÃÛéúןÖÆüß®Ö ÆüÖêŸÖê Æïü …
(B) ´ÖÆü¢¾ÖÆüß®Ö ÆüÖêŸÖê Æïü …
(C) µÖ£ÖÖŸÖ£µÖ ®ÖÆüà ÆüÖêŸÖê …
(D) ¾Ö¸üßµÖŸÖÖ ®ÖÆüà ¤üß •ÖÖŸÖß …
29. ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ Ûúß ¯ÖÏ£Ö´Ö ²ÖÆãü-³ÖÖÂÖÖµÖß ÃÖ´ÖÖ“ÖÖ¸ü ‹•ÖëÃÖß
×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ÛúÖî®Ö Æîü ?
(A) ÃÖ´ÖÖ“ÖÖ¸ü
(B) ‹ ¯Öß †Ö‡Ô
(C) ×Æü®¤ãüßÖÖ®Ö ÃÖ´ÖÖ“ÖÖ¸ü
(D) ÃÖ´ÖÖ“ÖÖ¸ü ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖß
30. ÃÖÓãÖÖÝÖŸÖ ÃÖÓ“ÖÖ¸ü ÛúÖê ‡®Ö´Öë ÃÖê ×ÛúÃÖÛêú ÃÖ´ÖŸÖã»µÖ ³Öß
´ÖÖ®ÖÖ •ÖÖ ÃÖÛúŸÖÖ Æîü ?
(A) †ÓŸÖ:¾ÖîµÖ׌ŸÖÛú ÃÖÓ“ÖÖ¸ü
(B) †ÓŸÖ¾ÖðµÖ׌ŸÖÛú ÃÖÓ“ÖÖ¸ü
(C) ÃÖ´ÖæÆü ÃÖÓ“ÖÖ¸ü
(D) •Ö®Ö ÃÖÓ“ÖÖ¸ü
31. ¤üÖê †×³ÖÛú£Ö®ÖÖë Ûêú ˆ§êü¿µÖ †Öî¸ü ×¾Ö¬ÖêµÖ Ûúß
¿Ö²¤üÖ¾Ö»Öß µÖפü ‹êÃÖß Æîü ×Ûú ‹Ûú Ûúß ¿Ö²¤üÖ¾Ö»Öß
¤æüÃÖ¸êü ÛúÖ ×®ÖÂÖê¬Ö Ûú¸üŸÖß Æîü ŸÖÖê ˆ®Ö ¤üÖê®ÖÖë Ûêú ²Öß“Ö ÛúÖ
ÃÖÓ²ÖÓ¬Ö ŒµÖÖ ÛúÆü»ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü ?
(A) ×¾Ö¸üÖê¬ÖÖŸ´ÖÛú
(B) ×¾Ö¯Ö¸üߟÖ
(C) ˆ¯Ö-×¾Ö¯Ö¸üߟÖ
(D) ˆ¯ÖÖÁÖµÖÞÖ
32. †®Ö®µÖÖ †Öî¸ü ÛéúÂÞÖÖ †ÓÝÖÏê•ÖÌß ²ÖÖê»Ö †Öî¸ü ÃÖ´Ö—Ö
ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü … ²Öã»Ö²Öã»Ö †“ÖÔ®ÖÖ Ûúß ŸÖ¸üÆü Æüß ØÆü¤üß
×»ÖÜÖ †Öî¸ü ²ÖÖê»Ö ÃÖÛúŸÖß Æîü … †“ÖÔ®ÖÖ †®Ö®µÖÖ ÃÖê
²ÖÓÝÖ»ÖÖ ´Öë ³Öß ²ÖÖŸÖ Ûú¸üŸÖß Æîü … ÛéúÂÞÖÖ ²ÖÓÝÖ»ÖÖ ®ÖÆüà
ÃÖ´Ö—Ö ÃÖÛúŸÖß … ²Öã»Ö²Öã»Ö †®Ö®µÖÖ ÃÖê ØÆü¤üß ´Öë ²ÖÖŸÖ
Ûú¸üŸÖß Æîü … ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ÛúÖî®Ö †ÓÝÖÏê•Öß, ØÆü¤üß
†Öî¸ü ²ÖÓÝÖ»ÖÖ ²ÖÖê»Ö †Öî¸ü ÃÖ´Ö—Ö ÃÖÛúŸÖÖ Æîü ?
(A) †“ÖÔ®ÖÖ
(B) ²Öã»Ö²Öã»Ö
(C) †®Ö®µÖÖ
(D) ÛéúÂÞÖÖ
10. Z-00 10
33. A stipulative definition may be said to
be
(A) Always true
(B) Always false
(C) Sometimes true, sometimes
false
(D) Neither true nor false
34. When the conclusion of an argument
follows from its premise/premises
conclusively, the argument is called
(A) Circular argument
(B) Inductive argument
(C) Deductive argument
(D) Analogical argument
35. Saturn and Mars are planets like the
earth. They borrow light from the Sun
and moves around the Sun as the
Earth does. So those planets are
inhabited by various orders of
creatures as the earth is.
What type of argument is contained in
the above passage ?
(A) Deductive (B) Astrological
(C) Analogical (D) Mathematical
36. Given below are two premises. Four
conclusions are drawn from those two
premises in four codes. Select the code
that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises :
(i) All saints are religious. (major)
(ii) Some honest persons are saints.
(minor)
Codes :
(A) All saints are honest.
(B) Some saints are honest.
(C) Some honest persons are
religious.
(D) All religious persons are honest.
33. þÖ×®ÖÙ´ÖŸÖ ¯Ö׸ü³ÖÖÂÖÖ ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖß
ÛúÆüß •ÖÖ ÃÖÛúŸÖß Æîü ?
(A) •ÖÖê Æü´Öê¿ÖÖ ÃÖŸµÖ ÆüÖê …
(B) •ÖÖê Æü´Öê¿ÖÖ ×´Ö£µÖÖ ÆüÖê …
(C) •ÖÖê Ûú³Öß ÃÖŸµÖ ÆüÖê, Ûú³Öß ×´Ö£µÖÖ …
(D) •ÖÖê ®Ö ÃÖŸµÖ ÆüÖê ®Ö ×´Ö£µÖÖ …
34. •Ö²Ö ×ÛúÃÖß ŸÖÛÔú ÛúÖ ×®ÖÂÛúÂÖÔ †Ó×ŸÖ´Ö ºþ¯Ö ÃÖê †¯Ö®Öß
†Ö¬ÖÖ׸üÛúÖ/†Ö¬ÖÖ׸üÛúÖ†Öë Ûêú ¯Ö׸üÞÖÖ´Öþֺþ¯Ö †Ö‹
ŸÖÖê ¾ÖÆü ŸÖÛÔú ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ŒµÖÖ ÛúÆü»ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü ?
(A) “ÖÛÎúßµÖ ŸÖÛÔú
(B) †ÖÝÖ´Ö®ÖÖŸ´ÖÛú ŸÖÛÔú
(C) ×®ÖÝÖ´Ö®ÖÖŸ´ÖÛú ŸÖÛÔú
(D) ÃÖÖ¥ü¿µÖ´Öæ»ÖÛú ŸÖÛÔú
35. ¿Ö×®Ö †Öî¸ü ´ÖÓÝÖ»Ö ¤üÖê®ÖÖë ¯Ö飾Öß Ûúß ŸÖ¸üÆü Æüß ÝÖÏÆü Æïü …
¾Öê ÃÖæµÖÔ ÃÖê ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¿Ö ÝÖÏÆüÞÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü †Öî¸ü ¯Ö飾Öß Ûúß
ŸÖ¸üÆü Æüß ÃÖæµÖÔ Ûêú “ÖÖ¸üÖë ŸÖ¸ü±ú ‘Öæ´ÖŸÖê Æïü … ‡ÃÖ×»Ö‹
ˆ®Ö ÝÖÏÆüÖë ¯Ö¸ü ×¾Ö×¾Ö¬Ö ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü Ûêú •Öß¾Ö ¸üÆüŸÖê Æïü •ÖîÃÖê
×Ûú ¯Ö飾Öß ¯Ö¸ü ¸üÆüŸÖê Æïü …
ˆŒŸÖ ÝÖªÖÓ¿Ö ´Öë ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ×ÛúÃÖ ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü
ÛúÖ ŸÖÛÔú ×®Ö×ÆüŸÖ Æîü ?
(A) ×®ÖÝÖ´Ö®ÖÖŸ´ÖÛú
(B) ±ú×»ÖŸÖ-•µÖÖêןÖÂÖ ÃÖÓ²ÖÓ¬Öß
(C) ÃÖÖ¥ü¿µÖ´Öæ»ÖÛú
(D) ÝÖ×ÞÖŸÖßµÖ
36. ®Öß“Öê ¤üÖê †Ö¬ÖÖ׸üÛúÖ‹Ñ ¤üß ÝÖ‡Ô Æïü … ˆ®Ö ¤üÖê
†Ö¬ÖÖ׸üÛúÖ†Öë ÃÖê “ÖÖ¸ü ÛúÖê›üÖë ´Öë “ÖÖ¸ü ×®ÖÂÛúÂÖÔ
×®ÖÛúÖ»Öê ÝÖ‹ Æïü … ‡®Ö ÛúÖê›üÖë Ûêú †ÓŸÖÝÖÔŸÖ ×•ÖÃÖ ÛúÖê›ü
´Öë ×®ÖÂÛúÂÖÔ ¯ÖÏÖ´ÖÖ×ÞÖÛú ºþ¯Ö ÃÖê ²ÖŸÖÖµÖÖ ÝÖµÖÖ Æîü
ˆÃÖÛúÖ “ÖµÖ®Ö Ûúßו֋ …
†Ö¬ÖÖ׸üÛúÖ‹Ñ :
(i) ÃÖ³Öß ÃÖÓŸÖ ¬ÖÖÙ´ÖÛú ÆüÖêŸÖê Æïü … (¯ÖÏ´ÖãÜÖ)
(ii) Ûãú”û ‡Ô´ÖÖ®Ö¤üÖ¸ü »ÖÖêÝÖ ÃÖÓŸÖ ÆüÖêŸÖê Æïü … (ÝÖÖîÞÖ)
󜅐ݟ :
(A) ÃÖ³Öß ÃÖÓŸÖ ‡Ô´ÖÖ®Ö¤üÖ¸ü ÆüÖêŸÖê Æïü …
(B) Ûãú”û ÃÖÓŸÖ ‡Ô´ÖÖ®Ö¤üÖ¸ü Æïü …
(C) Ûãú”û ‡Ô´ÖÖ®Ö¤üÖ¸ü »ÖÖêÝÖ ¬ÖÖÙ´ÖÛú Æïü …
(D) ÃÖ³Öß ¬ÖÖÙ´ÖÛú »ÖÖêÝÖ ‡Ô´ÖÖ®Ö¤üÖ¸ü ÆüÖêŸÖê Æïü …
11. Z-00 11 P.T.O.
Following table provides details about the
Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India
from different regions of the world in
different years. Study the table carefully
and answer questions from 37 to 40 based
on this table.
Number of Foreign Tourist
Arrivals
Region
2007 2008 2009
Western
Europe
1686083 1799525 1610086
North
America
1007276 1027297 1024469
South Asia 982428 1051846 982633
South East
Asia
303475 332925 348495
East Asia 352037 355230 318292
West Asia 171661 215542 201110
Total FTAs
in India
5081504 5282603 5108579
37. Find out the region that contributed
around 20 percent of the total foreign
tourist arrivals in India in 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) South East Asia
38. Which of the following regions has
recorded the highest negative growth
rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India
in 2009 ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) West Asia
39. Find out the region that has been
showing declining trend in terms of
share of foreign tourist arrivals in
India in 2008 and 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) South East Asia
(C) East Asia
(D) West Asia
40. Identify the region that has shown
hyper growth rate of foreign tourist
arrivals than the growth rate of the
total FTAs in India in 2008.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) East Asia
®Öß“Öê ¤üß ÝÖ‡Ô ÃÖÖ¸üÞÖß ´Öë ¤ãü×®ÖµÖÖ Ûêú ×¾Ö׳֮®Ö õÖê¡ÖÖë ÃÖê
×¾Ö׳֮®Ö ¾ÖÂÖÖí ´Öë ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ ´Öë ×¾Ö¤êü¿Öß ¯ÖµÖÔ™üÛú †ÖÝÖ´Ö®Ö (‹±ú
™üß ‹) ÛúÖ ×¾Ö¾Ö¸üÞÖ ×¤üµÖÖ ÝÖµÖÖ Æîü … ‡ÃÖ ÃÖÖ¸üÞÖß ÛúÖ
¬µÖÖ®Ö¯Öæ¾ÖÔÛú †¬µÖµÖ®Ö Ûúßו֋ ŸÖ£ÖÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö ÃÖÓܵÖÖ 37 ÃÖê
40 ŸÖÛú ÛúÖ ˆ¢Ö¸ü ‡ÃÖ ÃÖÖ¸üÞÖß Ûêú †Ö¬ÖÖ¸ü ¯Ö¸ü ¤üßו֋ :
×¾Ö¤êü¿Öß ¯ÖµÖÔ™üÛú †ÖÝÖ´Ö®Ö ÃÖÓܵÖÖ
õÖê¡Ö
2007 2008 2009
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37. ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖ®ÖË 2009 ´Öë Ûãú»Ö ×¾Ö¤êü¿Öß ¯ÖµÖÔ™üÛú
†ÖÝÖ´Ö®Ö Ûêú »ÖÝÖ³ÖÝÖ 20 ¯ÖÏ×ŸÖ¿ÖŸÖ ¯ÖµÖÔ™üÛú ×ÛúÃÖ
õÖê¡Ö ÃÖê †ÖµÖê ?
(A) ¯Ö׿“Ö´Öß µÖæ¸üÖê¯Ö (B) ˆ¢Ö¸ü †´Öê׸üÛúÖ
(C) ¤ü×õÖÞÖ ‹×¿ÖµÖÖ (D) ¤ü×õÖÞÖ ¯Öæ¾ÖÔ ‹×¿ÖµÖÖ
38. ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ×ÛúÃÖ õÖê¡Ö ÃÖê 2009 ´Öë ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ
´Öë ×¾Ö¤êü¿Öß ¯ÖµÖÔ™üÛú †ÖÝÖ´Ö®Ö Ûúß †×¬ÖÛúŸÖ´Ö
ŠúÞÖÖŸ´ÖÛú ¾Öéרü ¤ü¸ü ¤ü•ÖÔ Ûúß ÝÖ‡Ô ?
(A) ¯Ö׿“Ö´Öß µÖæ¸üÖê¯Ö
(B) ˆ¢Ö¸ü †´Öê׸üÛúÖ
(C) ¤ü×õÖÞÖ ‹×¿ÖµÖÖ
(D) ¯Ö׿“Ö´Ö ‹×¿ÖµÖÖ
39. 2008 †Öî¸ü 2009 ´Öë ×ÛúÃÖ õÖê¡Ö ÃÖê ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ ´Öë
×¾Ö¤êü¿Öß ¯ÖµÖÔ™üÛú †ÖÝÖ´Ö®Ö Ûúß ÃÖÓܵÖÖ ´Öë ŠúÞÖÖŸ´ÖÛú
¾Öéרü ¤ü•ÖÔ Ûúß ÝÖ‡Ô ?
(A) ¯Ö׿“Ö´Öß µÖæ¸üÖê¯Ö
(B) ¤ü×õÖÞÖ ¯Öæ¾ÖÔ ‹×¿ÖµÖÖ
(C) ¯Öæ¾ÖÔ ‹×¿ÖµÖÖ
(D) ¯Ö׿“Ö´Ö ‹×¿ÖµÖÖ
40. ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ ´Öë Ûãú»Ö ×¾Ö¤êü¿Öß ¯ÖµÖÔ™üÛú †ÖÝÖ´Ö®Ö Ûêú ¾Öéרü
¤ü¸ü Ûúß †¯ÖêõÖÖ ×ÛúÃÖ õÖê¡Ö ÃÖê †Ö®Öê ¾ÖÖ»Öê ¯ÖµÖÔ™üÛúÖë
Ûúß ¾Öéרü ¤ü¸ü 2008 ´Öë †×¬ÖÛú ¸üÆüß Æîü ?
(A) ¯Ö׿“Ö´Öß µÖæ¸üÖê¯Ö
(B) ˆ¢Ö¸ü †´Öê׸üÛúÖ
(C) ¤ü×õÖÞÖ ‹×¿ÖµÖÖ
(D) ¯Öæ¾ÖÔ ‹×¿ÖµÖÖ
12. Z-00 12
41. The post-industrial society is
designated as
(A) Information society
(B) Technology society
(C) Mediated society
(D) Non-agricultural society
42. The initial efforts for internet based
communication was for
(A) Commercial communication
(B) Military purposes
(C) Personal interaction
(D) Political campaigns
43. Internal communication within
institutions is done through
(A) LAN
(B) WAN
(C) EBB
(D) MMS
44. Virtual reality provides
(A) Sharp pictures
(B) Individual audio
(C) Participatory experience
(D) Preview of new films
45. The first virtual university of India
came up in
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
46. Arrange the following books in
chronological order in which they
appeared. Use the code given below :
(i) Limits to Growth
(ii) Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future
(iv) Resourceful Earth
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
41. ˆ¢Ö¸ü-†ÖîªÖê×ÝÖÛú ÃÖ´ÖÖ•Ö ÛúÖê ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê
ÛúÖê‡Ô ‹Ûú ³Öß ÛúÆüÖ •ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü :
(A) ÃÖæ“Ö®ÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ•Ö
(B) ¯ÖÏÖîªÖê×ÝÖÛúß ÃÖ´ÖÖ•Ö
(C) ´Ö¬µÖ¾ÖŸÖá ÃÖ´ÖÖ•Ö
(D) ÝÖî¸ü-Ûéú×ÂÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ•Ö
42. ‡Ó™ü¸ü®Öê™ü †Ö¬ÖÖ׸üŸÖ ÃÖÓ“ÖÖ¸ü Ûêú †Ö¸Óü׳ÖÛú ¯ÖϵÖÖÃÖ
×ÛúÃÖÛêú ×»Ö‹ ×Ûú‹ ÝÖ‹ £Öê ?
(A) ¾µÖÖ¾ÖÃÖÖ×µÖÛú ÃÖÓ“ÖÖ¸ü
(B) ÃÖî®µÖ ˆ§êü¿µÖ
(C) ¯ÖÖ¸üïÖ׸üÛú †®ŸÖÙÛÎúµÖÖ
(D) ¸üÖ•Ö®ÖßןÖÛú †×³ÖµÖÖ®Ö
43. ÃÖÓãÖÖ®ÖÖë Ûêú †ÓŸÖÝÖÔŸÖ †ÖÓŸÖ׸üÛú ÃÖÓ“ÖÖ¸ü ×ÛúÃÖÛêú «üÖ¸üÖ
×ÛúµÖÖ •ÖÖŸÖÖ Æîü ?
(A) »Öî®Ö (‹»Ö ‹ ‹®Ö)
(B) ¾Öî®Ö (›ü²»µÖæ ‹ ‹®Ö)
(C) ‡ ²Öß ²Öß
(D) ‹´Ö ‹´Ö ‹ÃÖ
44. ¾Ö“ÖãÔ†»Ö ׸üµÖ×»Ö™üß ˆ¯Ö»Ö²¬Ö Ûú¸üÖŸÖß Æîü
(A) ÃÖãïÖ™ü ד֡Ö
(B) ¾µÖ׌ŸÖÝÖŸÖ ÁÖ¾ÖÞÖ
(C) ÃÖÆü³ÖÖÝÖß †®Öã³Ö¾Ö
(D) ®ÖµÖß ×±ú»´Ö ÛúÖ ¯Öæ¾ÖÔ ¯ÖµÖÔ»ÖÖêÛú®Ö
45. ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ ÛúÖ ¯ÖÏ£Ö´Ö ¾Ö“ÖãÔ†»Ö ×¾Ö¿¾Ö×¾ÖªÖ»ÖµÖ ÛúÆüÖÑ
†Ö¸Óü³Ö ×ÛúµÖÖ ÝÖµÖÖ ?
(A) †ÖÓ¬ÖÐ ¯ÖϤêü¿Ö
(B) ´ÖÆüÖ¸üÖ™Òü
(C) ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¯ÖϤêü¿Ö
(D) ŸÖ×´Ö»Ö®ÖÖ›ãü
46. ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ¯ÖãßÖÛúÖë ÛúÖê ˆ®ÖÛêú ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¿Ö®Ö Ûêú
ÛúÖ»ÖÖ®ÖãÛÎú´Ö ´Öë ¾µÖ¾Ö×Ã£ÖŸÖ Ûúßו֋ … ®Öß“Öê פü‹ ÝÖ‹
ÛúÖê›ü ÛúÖ ˆ¯ÖµÖÖêÝÖ Ûúßו֋ :
(i) ×»Ö×´Ö™ËüÃÖ ™æü ÝÖÏÖê£Ö
(ii) ÃÖÖ‡»Öë™ü ØïÖÏÝÖ
(iii) †¾Ö¸ü ÛúÖò´Ö®Ö °µÖæ“Ö¸ü
(iv) ׸üÃÖÖêÃÖÔ±ãú»Ö †£ÖÔ
󜅐ݟ :
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
13. Z-00 13 P.T.O.
47. Which one of the following continents
is at a greater risk of desertification ?
(A) Africa
(B) Asia
(C) South America
(D) North America
48. “Women are closer to nature than
men.” What kind of perspective is this ?
(A) Realist (B) Essentialist
(C) Feminist (D) Deep ecology
49. Which one of the following is not a
matter a global concern in the removal
of tropical forests ?
(A) Their ability to absorb the
chemicals that contribute to
depletion of ozone layer.
(B) Their role in maintaining the
oxygen and carbon balance of
the earth.
(C) Their ability to regulate surface
and air temperatures, moisture
content and reflectivity.
(D) Their contribution to the
biological diversity of the planet.
50. The most comprehensive approach to
address the problems of man-
environment interaction is one of the
following :
(A) Natural Resource Conservation
Approach
(B) Urban-industrial Growth
Oriented Approach
(C) Rural-agricultural Growth
Oriented Approach
(D) Watershed Development Approach
51. The major source of the pollutant gas,
carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban
areas is
(A) Thermal power sector
(B) Transport sector
(C) Industrial sector
(D) Domestic sector
52. In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the
energy is obtained from the
combustion of
(A) Methane (B) Hydrogen
(C) LPG (D) CNG
47. ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ×ÛúÃÖ ´ÖÆüÖ«üß¯Ö ¯Ö¸ü ¸êü×ÝÖßÖÖ®Ö ´Öë
¯Ö׸ü¾ÖÙŸÖŸÖ ÆüÖê®Öê ÛúÖ ÃÖ²ÖÃÖê †×¬ÖÛú ÜÖŸÖ¸üÖ Æîü ?
(A) †±ÏúßÛúÖ
(B) ‹×¿ÖµÖÖ
(C) ¤ü×õÖÞÖ †´Öê׸üÛúÖ
(D) ˆ¢Ö¸ü †´Öê׸üÛúÖ
48. “´Ö×Æü»ÖÖ‹Ñ ¯Öã¹ýÂÖÖë Ûúß †¯ÖêõÖÖ ¯ÖÏÛéú×ŸÖ Ûêú †×¬ÖÛú
×®ÖÛú™ü Æïü …” µÖÆü ×ÛúÃÖ ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü ÛúÖ ¥ü×™üÛúÖêÞÖ Æîü ?
(A) µÖ£ÖÖ£ÖÔ¾ÖÖ¤üß (B) †×®Ö¾ÖÖµÖÔŸÖÖ¾ÖÖ¤üß
(C) ®ÖÖ¸üß¾ÖÖ¤üß (D) ÝÖÆü®Ö ¯ÖÖ׸ü×ãÖןÖÛúß
49. ˆÂÞÖÛú×™ü²Ö®¬Öß ¾Ö®ÖÖë Ûêú ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯ŸÖ ÆüÖê®Öê Ûêú ÃÖÓ²ÖÓ¬Ö ´Öë
×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖÖ ´Öã§üÖ ¾Öî׿¾ÖÛú ÃÖ¸üÖêÛúÖ¸ü
ÛúÖ ×¾ÖÂÖµÖ ®ÖÆüà Æîü ?
(A) †Öê•ÖÖê®Ö Ûúß ÃÖŸÖÆü ÛúÖê õÖßÞÖ Ûú¸ü®Öê ´Öë
µÖÖêÝÖ¤üÖ®Ö Ûú¸ü®Öê ¾ÖÖ»Öê ¸üÃÖÖµÖ®ÖÖë ÛúÖê
†¾Ö¿ÖÖê×ÂÖŸÖ Ûú¸ü®Öê Ûúß ˆ®ÖÛúß õÖ´ÖŸÖÖ
(B) ¬Ö¸üŸÖß Ûêú †ÖòŒÃÖß•Ö®Ö †Öî¸ü ÛúÖ²ÖÔ®Ö ´Öë
ÃÖÓŸÖã»Ö®Ö ÛúÖµÖ´Ö ¸üÜÖ®Öê ´Öë ˆ®ÖÛúß ³Öæ×´ÖÛúÖ
(C) ¬Ö¸üŸÖß †Öî¸ü ¾ÖÖµÖã Ûêú ŸÖÖ¯Ö´ÖÖ®Ö, ®Ö´Öß,
†ÓÝÖ³ÖæŸÖ ŸÖ¢¾Ö ŸÖ£ÖÖ ¯Ö¸üÖ¾ÖŸÖÔÛúŸÖÖ ÛúÖê
ÃÖ´ÖÓ×•ÖŸÖ Ûú¸ü®Öê Ûúß ˆ®ÖÛúß õÖ´ÖŸÖÖ
(D) ¬Ö¸üŸÖß Ûêú •Öî¾Ö-¾Öî×¾Ö¬µÖ ´Öë ˆ®ÖÛúÖ µÖÖêÝÖ¤üÖ®Ö
50. ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖÖ ˆ¯ÖÖÝÖ´Ö ´ÖÖ®Ö¾Ö-
¯ÖµÖÖÔ¾Ö¸üÞÖ †®µÖÖꮵÖ×ÛÎúµÖÖ Ûúß ÃÖ´ÖõÖÖ ÃÖê ÃÖÓ²ÖÓ׬֟Ö
ÃÖ¾ÖÖÔ׬ÖÛú ¾µÖÖ¯ÖÛú ˆ¯ÖÖÝÖ´Ö Æîü ?
(A) ¯ÖÏÖÛéúןÖÛú ÃÖÓÃÖÖ¬Ö®Ö ÃÖÓ¸üõÖÞÖ ˆ¯ÖÖÝÖ´Ö
(B) ¿ÖÆü¸üß-†ÖîªÖê×ÝÖÛú ÃÖÓ¾Öéרü ˆ®´ÖãÜÖ ˆ¯ÖÖÝÖ´Ö
(C) ÝÖÏÖ´ÖßÞÖ-Ûéú×ÂÖ ÃÖÓ¾Öéרü ˆ®´ÖãÜÖ ˆ¯ÖÖÝÖ´Ö
(D) ¾ÖÖ™ü¸ü¿Öê›ü ×¾ÖÛúÖÃÖ ˆ¯ÖÖÝÖ´Ö
51. ¿ÖÆü¸üß õÖê¡ÖÖë ´Öë ¯ÖϤæüÂÖÞÖÛúÖ¸üß ÝÖîÃÖ ÛúÖ²ÖÔ®Ö
´ÖÖê®ÖÖòŒÃÖÖ‡›ü (CO), ÛúÖ ¯ÖÏ´ÖãÜÖ ÄÖÖêŸÖ Æîü
(A) ŸÖÖ¯ÖßµÖ ¿Ö׌ŸÖ õÖê¡Ö
(B) ¯Ö׸ü¾ÖÆü®Ö õÖê¡Ö
(C) †ÖîªÖê×ÝÖÛú õÖê¡Ö
(D) ‘Ö¸êü»Öæ õÖê¡Ö
52. ‡Õ¬Ö®Ö ²Öî™Òüß “ÖÖ×»ÖŸÖ ¾ÖÖÆü®Ö ´Öë ‰ú•ÖÖÔ ×ÛúÃÖÛêú ¤üÆü®Ö ÃÖê
¯ÖÏÖ¯ŸÖ ÆüÖêŸÖß Æîü ?
(A) ×´Ö£Öê®Ö (B) ÆüÖ‡›ÒüÖê•Ö®Ö
(C) ‹»Ö ¯Öß •Öß (D) ÃÖß ‹®Ö •Öß
14. Z-00 14
53. Which one of the following Councils
has been disbanded in 2013 ?
(A) Distance Education Council
(DEC)
(B) National Council for Teacher
Education (NCTE)
(C) National Council of Educational
Research and Training
(NCERT)
(D) National Assessment and
Accreditation Council (NAAC)
54. Which of the following statements are
correct about the National Assessment
and Accreditation Council ?
1. It is an autonomous institution.
2. It is tasked with the
responsibility of assessing and
accrediting institutions of higher
education.
3. It is located in Delhi.
4. It has regional offices.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4
55. The power of the Supreme Court of
India to decide disputes between two
or more States falls under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction
(D) Writ Jurisdiction
56. Which of the following statements are
correct ?
1. There are seven Union
Territories in India.
2. Two Union Territories have
Legislative Assemblies
3. One Union Territory has a High
Court.
4. One Union Territory is the
capital of two States.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
53. ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ×ÛúÃÖ ¯Ö׸üÂÖ¤Ëü ÛúÖê ¾ÖÂÖÔ 2013 ´Öë
×¾Ö‘Ö×™üŸÖ Ûú¸ü פüµÖÖ ÝÖµÖÖ ?
(A) ×›üÙëüÃÖ ‹•ÖãÛêú¿Ö®Ö ÛúÖˆÓ×ÃÖ»Ö (›üß ‡Ô ÃÖß)
(B) ®Öê¿Ö®Ö»Ö ÛúÖˆÓ×ÃÖ»Ö ±úÖò¸ü ™üß“Ö¸ü ‹•ÖãÛêú¿Ö®Ö
(‹®Ö ÃÖß ™üß ‡Ô)
(C) ®Öê¿Ö®Ö»Ö ÛúÖˆÓ×ÃÖ»Ö †Öò±úü ‹•ÖãÛêú¿Ö®Ö»Ö
׸üÃÖ“ÖÔ ‹êÞ›ü ™ÒêüØ®ÖÝÖ (‹®Ö ÃÖß ‡Ô †Ö¸ü ™üß)
(D) ®Öê¿Ö®Ö»Ö ‹ÃÖêÃÖ´Öë™ü ‹Þ›ü ‹ÛÎêú×›ü™êü¿Ö®Ö
ÛúÖˆÓ×ÃÖ»Ö (‹®Ö ‹ ‹ ÃÖß)
54. ®Öê¿Ö®Ö»Ö ‹ÃÖêÃÖ´Öë™ü ‹Ó›ü ‹ÛÎêú×›ü™êü¿Ö®Ö ÛúÖˆÓ×ÃÖ»Ö Ûêú
×¾ÖÂÖµÖ ´Öë ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖê Ûú£Ö®Ö ÃÖÆüß Æïü ?
1. µÖÆü ‹Ûú þÖÖµÖ¢Ö¿ÖÖÃÖß ÃÖÓãÖÖ Æîü …
2. ‡ÃÖê ˆ““Ö ×¿ÖõÖÖ Ûêú ÃÖÓãÖÖ®ÖÖë Ûêú ´Ö滵ÖÖÓÛú®Ö
‹¾ÖÓ ¯ÖÏŸµÖÖµÖ®Ö Ûúß ×•Ö´´Öê¤üÖ¸üß ÛúÖ ÛúÖµÖÔ ×¤üµÖÖ
ÝÖµÖÖ Æîü …
3. µÖÆü פü»»Öß ´Öë ×Ã£ÖŸÖ Æîü …
4. ‡ÃÖÛêú õÖê¡ÖßµÖ ÛúÖµÖÖÔ»ÖµÖ Æïü …
®Öß“Öê פü‹ ÝÖ‹ ÛúÖê›ü ÃÖê ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü “Öã×®Ö‹ :
󜅐ݟ :
(A) 1 ŸÖ£ÖÖ 3 (B) 1 ŸÖ£ÖÖ 2
(C) 1, 2 ŸÖ£ÖÖ 4 (D) 2, 3 ŸÖ£ÖÖ 4
55. ¤üÖê µÖÖ †×¬ÖÛú ¸üÖ•µÖÖë Ûêú ²Öß“Ö Ûêú ×¾Ö¾ÖÖ¤ü ¯Ö¸ü ×®ÖÞÖÔµÖ
»Öê®Öê Ûúß ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ Ûêú ˆ““ÖŸÖ´Ö ®µÖÖµÖÖ»ÖµÖ Ûúß ¿Ö׌ŸÖ
×ÛúÃÖ †×¬ÖÛúÖ׸üŸÖÖ Ûêú †ÓŸÖÝÖÔŸÖ †ÖŸÖß Æîü ?
(A) ¯Ö¸üÖ´Ö¿ÖÔ¤üÖµÖß †×¬ÖÛúÖ׸üŸÖÖ
(B) †¯Öß»Öß †×¬ÖÛúÖ׸üŸÖÖ
(C) ´ÖÖî×»ÖÛú †×¬ÖÛúÖ׸üŸÖÖ
(D) ׸ü™ü †×¬ÖÛúÖ׸üŸÖÖ
56. ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖê Ûú£Ö®Ö ÃÖÆüß Æïü ?
1. ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖÖŸÖ ÃÖÓ‘Ö-¿ÖÖ×ÃÖŸÖ õÖê¡Ö Æïü …
2. ¤üÖê ÃÖÓ‘Ö-¿ÖÖ×ÃÖŸÖ õÖê¡ÖÖë ´Öë ×¾Ö¬ÖÖ®Ö ÃÖ³ÖÖ Æîü …
3. ‹Ûú ÃÖÓ‘Ö-¿ÖÖ×ÃÖŸÖ õÖê¡Ö ÛúÖ ˆ““Ö ®µÖÖµÖÖ»ÖµÖ Æîü …
4. ‹Ûú ÃÖÓ‘Ö-¿ÖÖ×ÃÖŸÖ õÖê¡Ö ¤üÖê ¸üÖ•µÖÖë Ûúß
¸üÖ•Ö¬ÖÖ®Öß Æîü …
®Öß“Öê פü‹ ÝÖ‹ ÛúÖê›ü ÃÖê ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü “Öã×®Ö‹ :
(A) Ûêú¾Ö»Ö 1 ŸÖ£ÖÖ 3
(B) Ûêú¾Ö»Ö 2 ŸÖ£ÖÖ 4
(C) Ûêú¾Ö»Ö 2, 3 ŸÖ£ÖÖ 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 ŸÖ£ÖÖ 4
15. Z-00 15 P.T.O.
57. Which of the following statements are
correct about the Central Information
Commission ?
1. The Central Information
Commission is a statutory body.
2. The Chief Information
Commissioner and other
Information Commissioners are
appointed by the President of
India.
3. The Commission can impose
a penalty upto a maximum of
` 25,000/-
4. It can punish an errant officer.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
58. Who among the following conducted
the CNN-IBN – The Hindu 2013
Election Tracker Survey across 267
constituencies in 18 States ?
(A) The Centre for the Study of
Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B) The Association for Democratic
Reforms (ADR)
(C) CNN and IBN
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu
59. In certain code TEACHER is written
as VGCEJGT. The code of
CHILDREN will be
(A) EKNJFTGP (B) EJKNFTGP
(C) KNJFGTP (D) None of these
60. A person has to buy both apples and
mangoes. The cost of one apple is
` 7/- whereas that of a mango is ` 5/-.
If the person has ` 38, the number of
apples he can buy is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
57. Ûêú®¦üßµÖ ÃÖæ“Ö®ÖÖ †ÖµÖÖêÝÖ Ûêú ²ÖÖ¸êü ´Öë ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë
ÃÖê ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖê Ûú£Ö®Ö ÃÖŸµÖ Æïü ?
1. Ûêú®¦üßµÖ ÃÖæ“Ö®ÖÖ †ÖµÖÖêÝÖ ‹Ûú ÃÖÖÓ×¾Ö׬ÖÛú
×®ÖÛúÖµÖ Æîü …
2. ´ÖãÜµÖ ÃÖæ“Ö®ÖÖ †ÖµÖãŒŸÖ ŸÖ£ÖÖ †®µÖ ÃÖæ“Ö®ÖÖ
†ÖµÖ㌟ÖÖë Ûúß ×®ÖµÖã׌ŸÖ ³ÖÖ¸üŸÖ ÛúÖ ¸üÖ™Òüü¯ÖןÖ
Ûú¸üŸÖÖ Æîü …
3. †ÖµÖÖêÝÖ †×¬ÖÛú ÃÖê †×¬ÖÛú ` 25,000/-
ÛúÖ •Öã´ÖÖÔ®ÖÖ »ÖÝÖÖ ÃÖÛúŸÖÖ Æîü …
4. ¾ÖÆü ÝÖ»ÖŸÖß Ûú¸ü®Öê ¾ÖÖ»Öê †×¬ÖÛúÖ¸üß ÛúÖê
¤Óü×›üŸÖ Ûú¸ü ÃÖÛúŸÖÖ Æîü …
®Öß“Öê פü‹ ÝÖ‹ Ûæú™ü ÃÖê ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü ÛúÖ “ÖµÖ®Ö
Ûúßו֋ :
󜅐ݟ :
(A) ×ÃÖ±Ôú 1 †Öî¸ü 2
(B) 1, 2 †Öî¸ü 4
(C) 1, 2 †Öî¸ü 3
(D) 2, 3 †Öî¸ü 4
58. ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ×ÛúÃÖ®Öê 18 ¸üÖ•µÖÖë Ûêú 267
×®Ö¾ÖÖÔ“Ö®Ö õÖê¡ÖÖë ´Öë ÃÖß ‹®Ö ‹®Ö-†Ö‡Ô ²Öß ‹®Ö –
פü ×Æü®¤æü 2013 ‡»ÖêŒ¿Ö®Ö ™ÒîüÛú¸ü ÃÖ¾Öì ×ÛúµÖÖ ?
(A) פü ÃÖë™ü¸ü ±úÖò¸ü פü Ùü›üß †Öò±ú ›êü¾Ö»ÖدÖÝÖ
ÃÖÖêÃÖÖ‡™üß•Ö (ÃÖß ‹ÃÖ ›üß ‹ÃÖ)
(B) פü ‹ÃÖÖê×ÃÖ‹¿Ö®Ö ±úÖò¸ü ›êü´ÖÖêÛÎêú×™üÛú ׸ü±úÖ´ÖÔËÃÖ
(‹ ›üß †Ö¸ü)
(C) ÃÖß ‹®Ö ‹®Ö ŸÖ£ÖÖ †Ö‡Ô ²Öß ‹®Ö
(D) ÃÖß ‹®Ö ‹®Ö, †Ö‡Ô ²Öß ‹®Ö ŸÖ£ÖÖ ×¤ü ×Æü®¤æü
59. ‹Ûú ÛúÖê›ü ×¾Ö¿ÖêÂÖ ´Öë TEACHER ÛúÖê
VGCEJGT Ûêú ºþ¯Ö ´Öë ×»ÖÜÖÖ ÝÖµÖÖ Æîü …
CHILDREN ÛúÖ ÛúÖê›ü ŒµÖÖ ÆüÖêÝÖÖ ?
(A) EKNJFTGP
(B) EJKNFTGP
(C) KNJFGTP
(D) ˆ¯ÖµÖãÔŒŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ÛúÖê‡Ô ®ÖÆüà
60. ×ÛúÃÖß ¾µÖ׌ŸÖ ÛúÖê ÃÖê²Ö ŸÖ£ÖÖ †Ö´Ö ¤üÖê®ÖÖë ÛúÖê ÜÖ¸üߤü®ÖÖ
Æîü … ‹Ûú ÃÖê²Ö Ûúß Ûúß´ÖŸÖ ` 7 Æîü •Ö²Ö×Ûú ‹Ûú †Ö´Ö
Ûúß Ûúß´ÖŸÖ ` 5 Æîü … µÖפü ˆÃÖ ¾µÖ׌ŸÖ Ûêú ¯ÖÖÃÖ ` 38
Æïü, ŸÖÖê ¾ÖÆü ×ÛúŸÖ®Öê ÃÖê²Ö ÜÖ¸üߤü ¯ÖÖ‹ÝÖÖ ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4