Name: ______________________ Class: _________________ Date: _________ ID: D 1 Exam 1 1. The moment magnitude scale depends on a. the rupture area, slip magnitude, and shear rigidity of rock b. the length of the fault c. the depth of the earthquake d. the amplitude of shaking 2. The particle motions of P-waves a. are perpendicular to the wave propagation direction. b. are retrograde elliptical. c. are horizontal. d. are compression only. e. involve dilations and compressions in direction of wave propagation. 3. Which of the following statements is TRUE about plate boundaries and their earthquakes? a. Divergent plate boundaries produce very large earthquakes, transform boundaries produce small events, and convergent boundaries produce large-to-intermediate sized earthquakes. b. Divergent boundaries produce small to moderate sized earthquakes, transform boundaries produce moderate to large earthquakes, and convergent boundaries produce the largest earthquakes. c. Divergent boundaries are rare but they do produce the largest events. d. Convergent boundaries and transform boundaries both produce the magnitude 9.0 events in equal numbers. 4. A magnitude 6.0 earthquake will affect the largest area of shaking in which region below? a. Northeast United States b. California along the San Andreas Fault c. In the state of Nevada in the western United States d. In the state of Utah in the western United States 5. The intraplate earthquakes in New Madrid, Missouri in 1811 and 1812 a. where very small and not felt widely. b. were larger than magnitude 7.0, felt as far away as Boston, and occurred in a failed rift zone. c. occurred where the Pacific and North American plates meet. d. were not as large as magnitude 7.0, with felt shaking confined mainly to the regions of the midwestern United States. 6. The enormous earthquake of March 11, 2011 in Japan was greater than 9.0 because a. it occurred on a major transform fault zone. b. it occurred on a major normal fault in a divergent plate boundary zone. c. slip occurred on a large area of fault patch with a slip of one centimeter. d. slip occurred on a large area of fault patch with a large amount of slip of as much as half a football field (50 meters) 7. Which of the following will most likely lead to a Natural Disaster? a. A magnitude 3.0 earthquake beneath New York City b. A magnitude 8.0 very far from any populated region c. A magnitude 7.5 with an epicenter 10 kilometers from downtown Tokyo d. An earthquake with a maximum felt intensity of V e. An earthquake at a mid-ocean ridge 8. An earthquake initiates at 35°N, 108° W, and depth Z = 10 km. What is its epicenter? a. 10 km b. 35° N c. 35° N, 108° W d. 108° W e. the waves that radiate from the source Name: ______________________ ID: D 2 9. An example of the presently active early stages of continental rifting can be found in a. Mid continent of North America b. East Africa c. Indi.

1. Name: ______________________ Class: _________________
Date: _________ ID: D
1
Exam 1
1. The moment magnitude scale depends on
a. the rupture area, slip magnitude, and shear
rigidity of rock
b. the length of the fault
c. the depth of the earthquake
d. the amplitude of shaking
2. The particle motions of P-waves
a. are perpendicular to the wave propagation
direction.
b. are retrograde elliptical.
c. are horizontal.
d. are compression only.
e. involve dilations and compressions in
direction of wave propagation.
3. Which of the following statements is TRUE
about plate boundaries and their earthquakes?
a. Divergent plate boundaries produce very large
earthquakes, transform boundaries produce
small events, and convergent boundaries

2. produce large-to-intermediate sized
earthquakes.
b. Divergent boundaries produce small to
moderate sized earthquakes, transform
boundaries produce moderate to large
earthquakes, and convergent boundaries
produce the largest earthquakes.
c. Divergent boundaries are rare but they do
produce the largest events.
d. Convergent boundaries and transform
boundaries both produce the magnitude 9.0
events in equal numbers.
4. A magnitude 6.0 earthquake will affect the largest
area of shaking in which region below?
a. Northeast United States
b. California along the San Andreas Fault
c. In the state of Nevada in the western United
States
d. In the state of Utah in the western United
States
5. The intraplate earthquakes in New Madrid,
Missouri in 1811 and 1812
a. where very small and not felt widely.
b. were larger than magnitude 7.0, felt as far
away as Boston, and occurred in a failed rift
zone.
c. occurred where the Pacific and North

3. American plates meet.
d. were not as large as magnitude 7.0, with felt
shaking confined mainly to the regions of the
midwestern United States.
6. The enormous earthquake of March 11, 2011 in
Japan was greater than 9.0 because
a. it occurred on a major transform fault zone.
b. it occurred on a major normal fault in a
divergent plate boundary zone.
c. slip occurred on a large area of fault patch
with a slip of one centimeter.
d. slip occurred on a large area of fault patch
with a large amount of slip of as much as half
a football field (50 meters)
7. Which of the following will most likely lead to a
Natural Disaster?
a. A magnitude 3.0 earthquake beneath New
York City
b. A magnitude 8.0 very far from any populated
region
c. A magnitude 7.5 with an epicenter 10
kilometers from downtown Tokyo
d. An earthquake with a maximum felt intensity
of V
e. An earthquake at a mid-ocean ridge

4. 8. An earthquake initiates at 35°N, 108° W, and
depth Z = 10 km. What is its epicenter?
a. 10 km
b. 35° N
c. 35° N, 108° W
d. 108° W
e. the waves that radiate from the source
Name: ______________________ ID: D
2
9. An example of the presently active early stages
of continental rifting can be found in
a. Mid continent of North America
b. East Africa
c. India-Eurasia
d. Andes Mountains of South America
10. What is TRUE below about the seismic energy
release between 1900 - 2011?
a. 90% of the energy release was taken up by
thousands of small earthquakes.
b. 10% of the energy release was taken up by
hundreds of magnitude 9.0 events.
c. All of the energy release was taken up by the
4 largest events
d. As much as 50% of the energy release was
taken up by the 4 largest megathrust events
(Chile, Alaska, Sumatra, and 2011 Japan).

5. e. 50% of the energy release was taken up by
millions of small magnitude 2.0 events.
11. A magnitude 7 earthquake has how much higher
amplitude of ground motion than a magnitude 6
earthquake on a seismogram?
a. twice as high
b. 10 times higher
c. 32 times higher
d. about 100 times higher
e. about 1,000 times higher
12. The magnetic stripes of the seafloor are
considered evidence of seafloor spreading and
____.
a. subduction in the rift valleys
b. spreading centers in the trenches
c. changes in the Earth's axis of rotation
d. periodic reversals in the polarity of Earth's
magnetic field
e. periodic collapses of Earth's gravitational
field
13. Intensity of ground shaking depends on
a. the e.q. magnitude, distance from focus,
duration of shaking, and soil or bedrock
conditions
b. the earthquake magnitude only
c. the duration of shaking only
d. the length of the fault but not the area or slip

6. of the fault
e. how many city structures will be affected
14. Example(s) of divergent plate boundary zones
is/are
a. The Himalayas and Tibet
b. The central and eastern United States
c. Turkey
d. East African Rift and Red Sea
e. The subduction zone west of Chile, South
America and Alaska subduction
15. Which of the following statements is NOT true
about oceanic and continental crust
a. continental crust is thick (30 - 50 km) and
oceanic crust is thin (3-7 km)
b. oceanic crust is less dense than continental
crust
c. oceanic crust is more dense than continental
crust
d. oceanic crust is generally younger (few
hundred My maximum age) and continental
crust can be very old (few billion yrs)
16. You determine from satellite imagery that there
are two ~500 km fault segments in Antarctica that
ruptured in the 12th century. What information
do you need to determine which one produced
the bigger earthquake?
a. The ages of both ruptures
b. The distance of movement that occurred

7. along each fault and the area for each fault
c. The direction of plate movement.
d. They should have produced similar magnitude
EQ’s because they have the same length.
e. a record of the intensity of shaking
experienced by penguins in the 12th Century
17. The best response to take during an earthquake if
you are inside a building is to
a. run out of the building as fast as possible
because the building may collapse
b. run for the exits while looking up so that you
can spot and dodge falling objects
c. lay flat onto the floor facing upward with
arms and legs fully extended
d. drop down to the ground, take cover by
getting under a sturdy desk or table, and hold
on until shaking stops
Name: ______________________ ID: D
3
18. An earthquake initiates at 35°N, 108° W, and
depth Z = 10 km. Where was the focus?
a. 35°N, 108° W
b. below the fault

8. c. 35°N, 108° W, Z = 10 km
d. the epicenter
19. Which of the following is NOT true about
strike-slip faults?
a. The fault plane is near-vertical.
b. Rocks on one side of fault plane slip laterally
past rocks on the other side of fault.
c. Strike-slip faults are commonly associated
with transform plate boundaries.
d. Strike-slip faults accommodate pure
compression in convergent plate boundaries.
20. Plate tectonics is driven by
a. the release of the Earth’s internal heat.
b. external sources of heat, such as the sun.
c. the rotation of the planet.
d. ocean waves.
e. early impacts in the early history.
21. The east coast of the United States is in
compressional stress and has had
a. some large earthquakes, including the 1886
Charleston earthquake of M > 7.0.
b. no known earthquakes.
c. some earthquakes but only small ones less
than M=4.
d. thousands of magnitude 8.0 and greater over
the last 100 years.

9. 22. What is needed to measure the “Richter”
magnitude?
a. The measred amplitude of ground shaking and
the known distance from focus
b. The fault offset
c. The fault area
d. only the distance from the focus
e. The felt intensity of shaking, such as: “hey
my chimney fell down!”
23. The Pacific Northwest in Oregon and
Washington overly a zone where
a. there are no earthquake hazards because there
is no plate boundary zone there.
b. there are earthquake hazards caused by the
San Andreas Fault.
c. there are only hazards associated with storms
and flooding.
d. there is a subduction zone where all of the slip
is taken up by silent slip mechanisms and
there is no accummulated strain and no
earthquake related hazards.
e. there is a subduction zone where a large
portion of the slip is accumulating along a
major locked subduction thrust fault.
24. Which earthquake waves arrive first?
a. P waves
b. S waves

10. c. Love waves
d. shear waves
e. surface waves
25. The type of fault that is found in divergent plate
boundaries is
a. normal fault
b. thrust fault
c. strike-slip fault
d. nobody’s fault
26. What is needed to locate an earthquake?
a. One seismic station
b. The time separation between the P wave
arrival and the S wave arrival.
c. Knowledge of the shaking intensity.
d. The time separation between the P wave and
S wave at three separate stations.
e. The depth must be known.
27. The San Andreas Fault in California is an examle
o f
a. a strike-slip fault along a transform boundary.
b. a thrust fault along a convergent plate
boundary.
c. a normal fault at a divergent plate boundary.
d. a thrust fault along a transform boundary.
e. a normal fault along a transform boundary.
Name: ______________________ ID: D

11. 4
28. Mid-ocean ridge spreading centers are
a. where lithosphere is formed and constitute a
divergent plate boundary zone.
b. where ocean lithosphere is destroyed and
constitutes a convergent plate boundary.
c. not found anywhere on Earth but they are
observed on other planets in the solar system.
d. found in the Earth’s core.
e. places where there is no life and no heat.
29. What best describes the magnitude-frequency
relationship?
a. Small events occur more frequently and large
events occur less frequently
b. Large events and small events occur in
roughly equal amounts
c. There are more large events than small
events
d. The combined energy released in small events
far exceeds the energy released in the very
largest events
e. The smallest events are very rare, whereas
the largest events are relatively common.
30. A magnitude 7.0 has how much more energy than
a magnitude 5.0?

12. a. twice the energy
b. 10 times the energy
c. about 100 times the energy
d. about 1000 times the energy
31. The explanation for why shaking is felt over
larger areas (for a given magnitude earthquake) in
the central and eastern United States in
comparison with the western United States is:
a. It is the ease of wave propagation through
the North American Craton with less
attenuation of energy in comparison with the
western United States
b. Earthquakes are bigger in the central and
eastern United States than in the west.
c. There is lower attenuation of energy in the
west but high attenuation in the east.
d. The west is composed only of soil with no
bedrock.
e. The east is composed of lousy soft soil with
no bedrock.
32. If there are 100 U-235 atoms at the initial time
then after two half-lives there will be
a. 100 U-235 atoms and 25 Pb-207 atoms
b. 50 U-235 atoms and 50 Pb-207 atoms
c. 25 U-235 atoms and 75 Pb-207 atoms
d. 0 U-235 atoms and 100 Pb-207 atoms
33. Magnetic strips or magnetic anomalies on the
ocean floor are:

13. a. symmetric about the mid-ocean ridge
b. a result of periodic reversal of the Earth’s
magnetic field
c. a recording of the creation of ocean
lithosphere through time
d. all answers for this question are valid
34. The type of fault found in convergent plate
boundaries is
a. normal fault
b. abnormal fault
c. thrust fault
d. strike-slip fault
e. only vertical faults
35. Which body wave cannot travel through liquid?
a. The P-wave
b. The surface wave
c. The compressional wave
d. waves that are good for surfing
e. S-waves
36. Body waves consist of
a. surface waves
b. Rayleigh waves
c. P-waves only
d. S-waves only
e. P-waves and S-waves
37. The Basin and Range in Utah and Nevada
involves
a. a major transform fault zone with large thrust
earthquakes.

14. b. high hazard from snakes but not earthquakes.
c. no seismic hazard because there is no active
tectonics there.
d. thrust fault earthquakes in an area of
continental convergence.
e. Normal fault earthquakes in an area of
continental spreading.
Name: ______________________ ID: D
5
38. The Haiti earthquake
a. occurred on a normal fault in the Caribbean
and was a magnitude 7.0
b. occurred on a strike-slip fault and was about a
magntiude of ~7.0 or greater
c. was a pure thrust fault event and caused major
damage because it was the largest event ever
recorded
d. had a low death toll because it was a small
earthquake in a region with few earthquakes
historically
e. produced very little damage because of the
solid construction design in the region

15. 39. Which of the following is the best way to
minimize future losses from flooding through land
use planning?
a. Let the ‘buyer beware’ when it comes to land
use and construction in flood prone areas.
b. discourage building in flood prone areas by
charging very high prices for properties
there.
c. Keep it a secret that the area is flood prone
and encourage construction. Then when the
area floods it will teach a valuable lesson to
all.
d. Conduct a detailed analysis of where flooding
is likely to occur and restrict development
there.
40. Earthquake early warning systems will be useful
for
a. giving us several hours warning to prepare or
leave the region
b. controlling speeding trains, shutting down gas
lines and factory lines, enabling time for rapid
personal protection.
c. allowing time to stop the earthquake through
use of fluid injection into the fault zones
d. providing months of warning thereby giving
you the chance to obtain earthquake
insurance.

16. e. nothing, as it can only provide a few seconds
of warning for you to run out of the building
before shaking starts
41. Surface waves
a. travel through the core
b. travel just as fast as P-waves
c. arrive last and have low amplitude compared
to P-waves
d. arrive last and usually have the greateast
amplitude of ground shaking
42. Which of the following is TRUE?
a. Continental crust is thinner than oceanic
b. Oceanic crust is thicker than continental and
more dense than continental
c. Oceanic crust is less dense than continental
crust
d. Oceanic crust is 3-7 km thick and
Continental crust is 30 - 50 km thick
e. Oceanic crust rarely subducts
43. Magnetic stripes on the seafloor
a. were created by the Sun’s rays.
b. tell scientists that the plates do not move
over long periods of geologic time.
c. formed all at once in a single event.
d. were painted by ancient people with unusual

17. artistic merit.
e. help scientists determine when sections of
oceanic crust formed and how fast the plates
are moving or spreading apart.
44. The three types of plate boundary zones are
a. transform, convective, and conductive
b. convergent, divergent, and transform
c. convergent, divergent and subduction
d. transform, stationary, and moving
e. fast moving, super fast moving, and
slow-sluggish moving
Name: ______________________ ID: D
6
45. Which of the following is true about earthquake
magnitudes?
a. a magnitude increase of 1 involves an
amplitude increase of 1 and an energy
increase of 10.
b. a magnitude of 8 is smaller than a magnitude
of 6
c. a magnitude of 6 is larger than a magnitude 5
by one energy unit
d. a magnitude increase of 1 equals 32 times
increase in amplitude

18. e. a magnitude increase of 1 equals 32 times as much
energy released and 10 times as much ground
shaking amplitude
46. The widely felt shaking from the 1811 and 1812
New Madrid, Missouri earthquakes is an example
o f
a. the high attenuation or loss of seismic energy
in the central and eastern United States
b. how well instrumented the region was back
then
c. how folklore can become exaggerated
d. the low attenuation of seismic energy in the
central and eastern United States
47. Which of the following is NOT a source of the
Earth’s internal heat?
a. Accretion
b. Formation of the Earth’s Moon
c. Differentiation of the Earth
d. Solar radiation
e. Radioactive decay of elements within the
Earth’s interior
48. The San Andreas Fault in California
a. is a major transform fault with no known
large strike-slip earthquakes in its history.
b. is a major transform fault with some
moderate earthquakes but no large

19. earthquakes larger than 7.0 in its history.
c. is a major convergent plate boundary zone.
d. is a major oceanic divergent plate boundary
zone and that is why California is going to
fall off into the ocean.
e. is a major transform fault with some
moderate earthquakes and two known large
earthquakes in its recent history of 1857 Fort
Tejon and 1906 San Francisco
49. The largest earthquakes in the world happen as
megathrust events in subduction zones. The
reason these earthquakes are so large is due to:
a. the very large area (width times length) of
locked fault zone and large slip within this
area.
b. the small area of locked fault zone but large
amount of slip.
c. the low attenuation of seismic energy.
d. the fact that volcanoes give off additional
energy during the earthquakes.
50. The theory that explains earthquakes is
a. the elastic rebound theory
b. the theory of special relativity
c. the theory of geomagnetic reversals
d. the theory of evolution

20. Name: ______________________ Class: _________________
Date: _________ ID: A
1
Exam II GEO 107
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers
the question.
____ 1. Which of the following statements about basalt is NOT
true?
a. Basalt, like most dark magmas, has a high amount of silica.
b. Basalt has a black/brownish-black color.
c. Basalt has low viscosity.
d. Basalt is commonly found in ocean spreading centers
e. Basalt is at the more fluid end of the spectrum.
____ 2. Eruptions dominated by basalt compositions are found
where?
a. along convergent margins involving oceanic and continental
crust
b. over continental hotspots
c. along divergent boundaries at mid-oceanic ridges
d. between plates along transform boundaries
e. none of these
____ 3. High silica content magmas involve explosive eruptions
because
a. the viscosity is high and gas content is low
b. the viscosity is high and gases cannot escape easily
c. the viscosity is low and gases escape easily
d. the melting temperatures are so high compared to low silica
magmas

21. ____ 4. The relative viscosity of magma can be ordered from
LOWEST to HIGHEST as:
a. Andesite, Basalt, Rhyolite
b. Basalt, Rhyolite, Andesite
c. Basalt, Andesite, Rhyolite
d. Rhyolite, Andesite, Basalt
e. Rhyolite, Basalt, Andesite
____ 5. Which magma is expected to have the highest viscosity
and the highest silica content
a. rhyolite
b. basalt
c. andesite
d. granite
____ 6. Volcanic mudflows are caused when which of the
following combine?
a. rocks and lava
b. water and dirt
c. ash and water
d. ash and lava
e. calcium carbonate and liquid nitrogen
____ 7. A higher percentage of silica in a melt tends to produce
a. a higher viscosity magma
b. a higher pressure in the melt
c. a lower viscosity magma
d. mild and gentle volcanic eruptions
Name: ______________________ ID: A
2

22. ____ 8. What two main factors result in more violent eruptions?
a. higher viscosity and narrow enough vent
b. a large enough volcano with low-viscosity magma
c. more water and higher viscosity of the magma
d. not too much water and low enough viscosity such as basalt
e. strong rocks around the vent and more water
____ 9. Volcanic flows from Cinder Cone eruptions have what
characteristics?
a. They flow down the sides of the cinder cone
b. They are basalt composition and flow out the base of the
cinder cone
c. They are rhyolite composition and flow out the base of the
cinder cone
d. They are basalt composition and they violently explode in
catastrophic pyroclastic
flows
____ 10. What are harmonic tremors?
a. a rare mountain building event
b. a type of lava flow
c. a low-frequency rolling ground movement
d. a variation of a surge
e. volcanic eruptions
____ 11. Which of the two main volcanic gases is heavier than
air, collects in low areas, and can asphyxiate
people or animals if it is in high concentrations?
a. hydrogen
b. water vapor
c. ethane
d. helium
e. carbon dioxide
____ 12. What processes produces oceanic crust?

23. a. basalt eruption caused by pressure decrease and upwelling
mantle beneath mid-ocean
ridge
b. andesite eruption due to introduction of volatiles beneath
mid-ocean ridge
c. rhyolite eruption due to pressure reduction melting
d. Pressure increase below the mid-ocean ridge
____ 13. Which of the following can be used to determine a
possible or emminent eruption
a. seismometers to measure seismic activity and harmonic
tremors
b. tiltmeters to measure bulge on flanks of volcano
c. Global Positioning System Measurements
d. all the listed measurments given in this question
____ 14. What are the two most abundant gases in magmas?
a. hydrogen and methane
b. carbon dioxide and oxygen
c. methane and helium
d. water vapor and carbon dioxide
e. water vapor and oxygen
Name: ______________________ ID: A
3
____ 15. Temperature has an effect on magma viscosity in that
a. higher temperature tends to increase the viscosity
b. higher temperature causes melting but no change in viscosity
c. higher temperature causes melting but no change in viscosity
d. higher temperature tends to lower the viscosity

24. ____ 16. What caused the Tsunami in the March 11, 2011 Japan
E.Q.?
a. uplift of the sea floor above the strike-slip fault
b. uplift of the seafloor, simultaneous with subduction of the
Pacific Plate
c. collapse of a Japan volcano following eruption phase
d. uplift of the sea floor above the normal fault
____ 17. Which of the following is true about Andesite magma
a. It has a 50% silica composition and is commonly found in
ocean spreading centers
b. It has a 60% silica composition and is commonly found above
subduction zones
c. It has a 70% silica composition and is commonly found above
subduction zones
d. It has a 60% silica composition and forms shield volcanoes
with peaceful eruptions
____ 18. When water is introduced into the mantle via
subduction zones, what are the effects?
a. the melting temperature increases
b. the melting temperature does not change but the viscosity
increases
c. the pressure decreases
d. the melting temperature decreases
____ 19. Highly explosive magmas are controlled by which of
the following?
a. high silica content and high water
b. high iron content and low water
c. high magnesium content and high water
d. high silica content and low water
e. low silica content and high water
____ 20. The Fire Triangle involves
a. a pile of sticks designed for controlled burns

25. b. 1. Radiant heat, 2. fuel, and 3. oxygen
c. a large feature sometimes observed in major filres
d. 1. atmosphere, 2. Carbon dioxide, and 3. water
e. 1. fire retardant, 2. water, 3. carbon dioxide
____ 21. Which of these is NOT a Cascade volcano of Western
North America?
a. Mount Hood
b. Mount St. Helens
c. Mount Vesuvius
d. Mount Rainier
e. none of these
Name: ______________________ ID: A
4
____ 22. Following the May 1980 eruption of Mount St. Helens,
Washington, thousands of trees lay on the
ground, all parallel to one another. Why?
a. A giant landslide from the volcano toppled them.
b. Thermal winds during the eruption toppled them.
c. A big earthquake at the beginning of the eruption shook them
down.
d. A lateral blast at the beginning of the eruption blew them all
down.
e. Huge mudflows racing downslope flattened them.
____ 23. What is the best way to avoid a mudflow?
a. Crawl up into a ball.
b. Climb a tree.
c. Jump over it.
d. Climb up the valley wall.
e. Run away from it as fast as you can.

26. ____ 24. Which of the following could never happen?
a. A violent pyroclasitic eruption of silica rich rhyolite on the
big island of Hawaii
b. A violent pyroclasitic eruption of silica rich rhyolite in
Yellowstone
c. A violent pyroclasitic eruption on Mt. Vesuvius
d. A violent pyroclasitic eruption on a Cascade volcano in the
U.S.
e. A violent pyroclasitic eruption on Mt. Pinatubo
____ 25. If you are at the beach and feel a large earthquake,
what should you do, and when should you do it?
a. Immediately get into the nearest house for protection.
b. Immediately call the nearest civil defense office to find out
where it happened.
c. Wait until the commotion dies down, and turn on the TV to
find out where it
happened.
d. Carefully scan the horizon to see if a tsunami wave formed.
If you see one, run
inland.
e. Immediately run up slope as far as possible.
____ 26. Why do shield volcanoes have very gently sloping
sides?
a. Their andesite and rhyolite have low viscosity because of
their water content, and
spread over a low slope.
b. Their basalt flows have low viscosity, so the lava solidifies
as gentle slopes.
c. Their basalt magmas blow out violently from all of their pent
up steam.

27. d. Their andesite composition produces huge ash flows that
spread over a large area.
e. Their basalt ash spreads out widely in the strong winds over
the open ocean.
____ 27. What type of magma is likely to erupt in the Cascade
volcanoes?
a. andesite and rhyolite due to subduction of volatiles and
interaction of magma with
continental crust
b. basalt due to pressure reduction melting above the subduction
zone there
c. carbon dioxide gas explosions through transform fault
fissures
d. andesite magma above the mid-ocean ridge that lies below
the volcanoes
Name: ______________________ ID: A
5
____ 28. A reduction in pressure while keeping temperature
constant
a. can produce partial melt.
b. increases the melting temperature.
c. has no effect on the production of melt
d. will never produce partial melt.
____ 29. What are the approximate wavelengths of tsunami
waves?
a. 10 kilometers
b. 360 kilometers
c. 1 kilometer

28. d. 10 meters
e. 100 meters
____ 30. Which of the following statements is correct about the
island of Hawaii
a. Hawaii is a stratovolcano
b. Hawaii is the tallest mountain in the world if you consider its
height from base level
to its peak
c. Hawaii is composed of basalt above a subduction zone
d. Hawaii is composed of rhyolite above subduction zones
____ 31. Which of the following statements about volatiles is
true?
a. Water content determines the violence of a volcanic eruption.
b. Carbon dioxide is the most abundant gas in volcanoes.
c. Water exposed to high temperatures of magma becomes a
solid.
d. Magmas that contain little water erupt violently.
e. Volatiles come out of solution at only very high pressures
____ 32. What type of magma is going to be produced above hot
spots that lie beneath oceanic crust?
a. andesite
b. none, as no melting can occur there
c. basalt
d. rhyolite
____ 33. Mt. Pelee, Martenique in West Indies produced an
eruption in 1902 that
a. produced deadly Carbon dioxide gases that asphyxiated all
people and animals
b. produced Lahars, but no damage to ships in the harbour
c. produced massive pyroclastic flow that wiped out St. Pierre
and also burned ships in

29. the harbour
d. produced a basalt flow that partially buried the northen half
of St. Pierre
____ 34. A massive tsunami on the east coast of the United
States could be generated by
a. subduction below the United Kingdom that would generate a
wave that crosses the
Atlantic
b. a big pillow basalt eruption along the mid-ocean ridge in the
Atlantic
c. a big earthquake in Sumatran Trench
d. a volcano flank collapse of one of Canarie Islands
Name: ______________________ ID: A
6
____ 35. Which of the following can produce melting of rock
a. an increase in temperature above the solidus
b. introduction of water into the mantle through subduction
process
c. reduction in pressure while keeping temperature constant
d. basalt rich magma introduced into silica rich rock at base of
continental crust
e. all of the answers for this question
____ 36. Which is the most dangerous location for a tsunami
hazard?
a. a rocky point protruding into the ocean in deep water
b. a straight stretch of coast directly exposed to the open sea
c. a large boat 300 kilometers offshore

30. d. a small boat in the deep ocean
e. a bay with a nice sandy beach at its end
____ 37. How does pahoehoe lava differ from aa lava?
a. Pahoehoe is basalt, and aa is andesite.
b. Pahoehoe has a ragged top, and aa is smooth on top.
c. Pahoehoe is full of gas holes, and aa is solid lava.
d. Pahoehoe is ropy-looking, and aa is rough with jagged
surfaces
e. Pahoehoe is rhyolite, and aa is basalt.
____ 38. The tectonic setting of the Japan E.Q. of 2011 is
a. a transform fault
b. a mid-ocean ridge
c. subduction
d. there is no plate boundary there
____ 39. What are the approximate times between tsunami wave
crests?
a. 10 to 35 minutes
b. 10 to 12 hours
c. 30 seconds to 1 minute
d. 1 to 3 minutes
e. 2 to 3 hours
____ 40. What threat exists in regard to Mt. Ranier in
Washington State
a. very little threat because flows can be halted using fire hoses
b. rapid burial of subdivisions from low viscosity basalt flows
c. Strombolian type eruptions that blanket the region in hot ash
d. Mudflows burying subdivisions
____ 41. In 1700 a large tsunami was generated where?
a. In the South Pacific
b. In the Japan Trench
c. In the subduction of the Juan de Fuca plate beneath North

31. America (Cascadia)
d. In China
Name: ______________________ ID: A
7
____ 42. Which of the following statements is completely
TRUE about the nuclear reactor accident in Japan
casued by the March 11, 2011 Tsunami
a. The reactor never shut down because there was no warning
from the earthquake
b. Although there was early warning, there were no back-up
batteries for running the
cooling system
c. There was early warning, but they lacked back-up batteries
and generators for the
cooling system
d. Early warning shut the reactor down, but the Tsunami buried
the generators (shutting
them off) and the back-up batteries for the cooling system lost
power after about 9
hours
e. The generators were in a safe place from the Tsunami but
they eventually ran out of
gas and there was therefore no way to run the cooling system
once the generators ran
out of gas
____ 43. Where are volcanoes likely to be least abundant

32. a. above hot spots
b. above subduction zones
c. in zones of continental collision
d. above divergent plate boundaries
____ 44. What is magma that is forcefully ejected into the
atmosphere as particles?
a. lava
b. pyroclastic
c. plutonic
d. pahoehoe
e. none of these
____ 45. Pompeii was buried in 79 AD by an eruption of
a. Mount Pelee
b. Mount Lassen
c. Mount Vesuvius
d. Mount Ranier
____ 46. Which of the following locations five kilometers from
the crater of a volcano would likely be safe from
a large ash flow, if any?
a. behind a large tree with an 80-centimeter-diameter (2 1 2
feet) trunk
b. far side of a five-kilometer-wide lake
c. far side of a steep-sided, 100-meter-high hill
d. none of these answers: ash flows can flow over large hills,
can cross large expanses of
water, and can fell very large trees
e. inside your car
____ 47. Which of the following is NOT true about the eruption
of Mount Pinatubo in 1991
a. A Plinean eruption with huge plume of ash reaching heights
of 35 - 40 km

33. b. Dust and SO2 generated by the Pinatubo eruption encircled
the Earth, scattering
incoming sunlight and reducing global temperature
c. Deadly basalt flows were generated, blanketing a region
equivalent to the size of the
state of New York
d. Lahars were generated
e. Pyroclastic flows were generated
Name: ______________________ ID: A
8
____ 48. Of the following magma types, which has the highest
silica content
a. Pillow Basalts
b. Basalt
c. Andesite
d. Rhyolite
____ 49. Landslides can be caused by
a. removal of support at the base of slope
b. adding load to the top of the slope
c. weak layers, such as clay
d. all of these answers in this question
____ 50. What is the average speed of tsunami waves in the
deep ocean?
a. the speed of light
b. 7-8 km/hour
c. the speed of an Olympic sprinter
d. 700-800 km/hour

34. e. 70-80 km/hour
Name: ______________________ Class: _________________
Date: _________ ID: A
1
Exam III GEO 107
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers
the question.
____ 1. Global data sets of temperatures over the past 1000
years show
a. dramatic cooling suggesting we will enter the next ice age
within a decade or two
b. temperatures were following a negative trend prior to 1900
but show a dramatic
positive upturn around 1900
c. temperature increases globally of 10° C
d. no substantial changes over the past 100 years
e. a gradual temperature increase over time
____ 2. Which of the following will impact the Earth with the
highest amount of energy?
a. a feather dropped from a height of 10 feet
b. a 2 million kilogram asteroid
c. a 1 kilogram asteroid
d. a 1 million kilogram comet
e. a 100 kilogram comet
____ 3. The asteroid belt, orbiting the sun, contains asteroids in

35. a belt between the orbits of ____.
a. Jupiter and Saturn
b. Earth and Mars
c. Mercury and Venus
d. Venus and Earth
e. Mars and Jupiter
____ 4. The storm surge from a hurricane is caused by
a. global warming
b. the low pressures near the eye and high winds which mound
the seawater up
c. high tides coinciding with arrival of tornadoes
d. the heavy rain
e. pressure only and winds have no effect
____ 5. The problem with New Orleans is that
a. the levees cannot withstand a category 5 hurricane and the
area continues to sink
b. there is not enough good music there
c. there is not enough good food there
d. the city continues to experience uplift
e. they have summers that are not hot enough for swimming
Name: ______________________ ID: A
2
____ 6. Hurricane Sandy’s storm track was unusual because
a. it moved into the Gulf of Mexico where it hit New Orleans
and then traveled across
the U.S. into the Northeast
b. it was not unusual
c. it traveled along the coastline and then diverted east out into

36. the deep Atlantic,
eventually making landfall in Sandy Bay, Greenland
d. instead of curving eastward out into the Atlantic, it made a
sharp left-turn and
collided with New Jersey coast
e. it collided with Florida where it fizzled out
____ 7. What temperature proxies do scientists use to determine
temperatures of the past
a. the types of fossil fish and the temperatures of the waters
they swam in
b. the thickness of mamoth bones
c. Carbon-14 dating
d. oxygen isotopes and tree ring widths
e. fossil dung droppings from different species
____ 8. What are comets made of?
a. high magnesium and iron rocks
b. close-packed hydrogen
c. ice and some rock
d. nickel-iron
e. ice
____ 9. Which of the following is true about general circulation
of oceans and the Gulf Stream in general
a. Warm currents in the North Atlantic warm Europe
b. Currents are confined only to equitorial regions
c. The Gulf Stream in the Atlantic is a section of very cold
water
d. The Golf Stream should be avoided, as it swallows up many a
long shots on the
ninteenth hole
e. Cold currents in the North Atlantic are causing an ice age in

37. North America
____ 10. The NASA GRACE gravity mission data shows what is
happening?
a. the Earth has been loosing its gravity very slowly due to
temperature increases from
global warming
b. The ice mass in both Greenland and Antarctica has been
decreasing over the past 10
years
c. The ice mass in Greenland and Antarctica has been increasing
dramatically over the
past 10 years
d. The ice mass in Greenland is increasing but the ice mass in
Antarctica is decreasing
e. sea level is falling in most places
____ 11. An example of anthropogenic source of greenhouse gas
is
a. heating of the upper atmosphere
b. lightening storms
c. Volcanoes
d. burning of fossil fuels
e. Earthquakes
Name: ______________________ ID: A
3
____ 12. Areas most at risk in the United States from Hurricane
are

38. a. New Jersey, Delaware, Maryland, and Virginia coasts
b. Southern California and Oregon
c. Florida, Georgia, South Carolina and North Carolina
coastlines
d. west Texas
e. Eastern coast of Maine
____ 13. In the Greenhouse effect
a. long wavelength radiation is blocked by greenhouse gases
b. the Milankovich cycles spin out of control
c. the albedo is reduced through increaseed growth of forests
d. Short wavelength radiation is blocked by greenhouse gases
e. the world freezes over if greenhouse gases get too high
____ 14. What is Albedo?
a. a measure of how reflective the surface is
b. the influence of heat on the ocean
c. The effect of solar winds on the magnetic field
d. the color of snow in summer
e. a measure of the magnitude of solar radiation coming from
the sun
____ 15. Hurricanes in the North Atlantic are most frequent in
the months of
a. May, June, July
b. August, September, October
c. December, January, February
d. March, April, May
e. June only and all other months only rarely have hurricanes
____ 16. Climate over the past 500,000 years can be sumarized
as
a. warm periods that last 100,000 years with brief periods of
glaciation lasting 10,000
years

39. b. dominated by clacial periods lasting 250,000 years and
interglacials lasting 100,000
years
c. a 100,000 year cycle with glacial periods lasting 70,000 -
100,000 and brief warm
interglacials lasting about 20,000 years
d. nearly constant temperature until recently
e. the climate has been pleasant and until recently palm trees
grew in Antarctica
____ 17. The Coriolis Effect influences air motion in the
Northern Hemisphere in which way?
a. air travels in straight north-south directions
b. air travels in straight east-west directions
c. air moving towards the North Pole bends westward
d. air moving towards the North Pole bends eastward
e. air moving towards the equator bends eastward
Name: ______________________ ID: A
4
____ 18. A strong influence on hurricane paths in the North
Atlantic is:
a. the position of the mysterious ‘Bermuda Triangle’, which has
been known to swallow
hurricanes without a trace
b. where strong tornadoes are positioned
c. the size and position of the ‘Bermuda High’, a north Atlantic
high pressure zone
d. the size and position of the ‘Bermuda Low Pressure Zone’, a

40. zone of constant storms
in north Atlantic
e. none of these
____ 19. High speed impacts of very large objects (>2 km
diamter asteroid/comet) actually create
a. very large diamonds the size of a bowling ball
b. sonic booms but nothing else
c. craters but the evidence of these dissapear within about 10
years due to erosion
effects
d. very little damage
e. very small diamonds
____ 20. The process by which plants give up moisture to the
air is called ____.
a. sublimation
b. evaporation
c. evapotranspiration
d. transpiration
e. none of these
____ 21. How might you expect the loss of sea ice in the arctic
to affect temperatures in the region?
a. Less solar energy is retained and the entire ice cap will melt
within a few weeks
b. Less solar energy is retained but no cooling will occur
c. Less solar energy is retained and there will be a cooling
effect
d. More solar energy is retained and there will be a warming
effect
e. There will be no temperature change from melting sea ice
____ 22. What of the following is true about atmospheric

41. carbon dioxide levels?
a. Carbon dioxide levels have been gradually decreasing while
sea level is rising
b. Carbon dioxide levels have been constant over the past 150
years
c. Carbon dioxide levels are high today, but they have recently
been reduced due to
emmissions control laws in cars
d. Carbon dioxide is not a greenhouse gas, but it does block
incoming solar radiation
e. Carbon dioxide levels are higher now than they have been for
more than 800,000
years
____ 23. The Milankovich cycles are important because they
a. control how much solar radiation is received at the poles
b. predict future global climate change precisely
c. predict climate variations precisely
d. predict the concentrations of greenhouse gases
e. predict how much surface reflectivity will occur
Name: ______________________ ID: A
5
____ 24. Eccentricity describes
a. the tilt of the Earth’s spin axis
b. the magnetic field variation
c. how unusual and unpredictable the climate can be
d. the wobble of the Earth’s spin axis
e. the shape of the Earth’s orbit around the sun (circular to
elliptical)

42. ____ 25. Of the following, which mass extinction is thought to
have been caused by a large impact off of the
Yucatan Peninsula?
a. the end-Cretaceious period when the dinosaurs dissapeared
b. The Permian-Triassic boundary
c. The Triassic-Jurassic boundary
d. The Cambrian Explosion
e. The great extinction 4.0 billion years ago
____ 26. Greater rainfall totals from hurricanes is likely to
occur from
a. slow moving storms
b. fast moving storms
c. category 5 hurricanes only
d. tropical storms, but not hurricanes
e. the eye of the hurricane
____ 27. A rock that enters Earth's atmosphere and survives to
reach the ground is a(n) ____.
a. comet
b. meteorite
c. asteroid
d. space rock
e. meteor
____ 28. Roughly what depth of flowing stream is dangerous to
drive through?
a. 10 cm (4 inches)
b. 30 cm (1 foot)
c. 60 cm (2 feet), since water would then be over the axels
d. 180 cm (6 feet), since water would then be above the roof of
the car
e. 120 cm (4 feet), since water would then be window height
____ 29. How does heat transfor work on Earth?

43. a. Solar radiation is received near the poles in summer and this
heat travels south and
north to heat the planet evenly.
b. Solar radiation is received in the summers and this heats the
planet nearly evenly
c. Heat transfers through underground steam tunnels.
d. The majority of solar radiation is absorbed near equator and
convection (atmosphere
and ocean) redistributes that heat.
e. Solar radiation heats the Earth and this drives plate tectonics.
Name: ______________________ ID: A
6
____ 30. In regard to hurricane Katrina
a. most damage occurred to offshore oil rigs, but New Orleans
escaped disaster
b. many factors of the disaster were predicted
c. it was only a category 1 storm with very little damage to New
Orleans
d. the storm damage was greatest from the high winds but
flooding provided very little
damage
e. the storm damage was completely unexpected because few
realized that New Orleans
was below sea level
____ 31. How fast do asteroids travel in space?
a. about 15 to 40 km per minute

44. b. about 2 to 4 km per minute
c. about 15 to 25 km per second
d. about 2 to 4 km per second
e. about 150 to 400 km per second
____ 32. The El Nino has what effect on hurricane frequency?
a. all of these answers
b. No effects
c. fewer hurricanes due to cooling effect on Atlantic sea
temperatures
d. more hurricanes due to higher ocean temperatures
e. more hurricanes due to increased Coriolis effect
____ 33. The factors needed for a thunderstorm are:
a. Localized afternoon ground heating causing hot air to rise
b. Cold air pushing under warm air along a cold front
c. All answers provided
d. Warm air
e. Moist air
____ 34. Where do hurricanes striking North America originate?
a. near-equatorial latitudes off the west coast of Africa
b. the central Pacific Ocean, near the equator
c. in the steamy jungles of the Congo, in western Africa
d. in the Gulf of Mexico
e. off the north Coast of South America, near the equator
____ 35. What makes New Orleans so vulnerable to hurricanes?
a. levees prevent flooding but also prevent deposition of new
layers of sand and mud
that would build up land level
b. the city has subsided 6 m below sea level
c. levees can fail from heavy rains+wind+storm surge
d. because it is below sea level, failure of levees will result in
much of the city (80% or

45. more) being flooded in 20 - 25 feet of water.
e. all of these
Name: ______________________ ID: A
7
____ 36. Which of the following are true?
a. Much of what is now Canada and the northern midwest and
northeast U.S. was under a
massive ice sheet during the last ice age over 20,000 years ago
b. all of these
c. Presently we are in an interglacial period
d. Sea level during the last glacial period was 130 meters lower
than today
e. Long Island was formed by the advance of the last ice sheet
____ 37. A 100 year flood has a
a. a 5 percent chance of occurrence in any given year
b. a 1 percent chance of occurrence in any given year
c. a 100 percent chance of occurrence in any given year
d. 10 percent chance of occurrence in any given year
e. a very high probability of occurring next year
____ 38. The following is true for atmoshperic pressure and air
motion
a. Air flows from low pressure centers to high pressure centers.
b. The atmosphere has an even pressure distribution
everywhere.
c. High pressure centers are rare and are associated with very
little air flow.
d. Low pressure centers are created by cold dense air flowing

46. downward.
e. Rising air creates an area of low pressure. Air near the
ground flows toward
low-pressure center to replace rising air.
____ 39. What should you do to avoid being killed by lightning
if caught out in the open in a storm with no place
to take cover?
a. Crouch with your feet apart.
b. Stand very still, so your target is smaller.
c. Run for cover under the nearest dry tree.
d. Crouch down on the balls of your feet with your feet
together.
e. Lie flat on the ground, so you are as low as possible.
____ 40. Which isotope is preferentially locked up into the ice
during colder periods
a. Oxygen-18
b. Iron
c. Uranium-238
d. Oxygen-16
e. Purple
____ 41. Where does a tropical cyclone or hurricane get its
energy?
a. in the heat and moisture rising from a low pressure cell of the
equatorial ocean
b. from high temperatures of a humid high pressure weather cell
near the equator
c. from high summer temperatures over humid equatorial
jungles
d. from heat of the sun shining off a hot desert near the equator
e. none of these

47. Name: ______________________ ID: A
8
____ 42. Where in a hurricane is the atmospheric pressure
lowest, and approximately how low can that be?
a. lowest in the eye; as low as 1,200 millibars
b. lowest just outside the eye wall; as low as 6000 millibars
c. lowest in the zone of high winds, midway between the eye
and its outer fringes; as low
as 980 millibars
d. lowest in the center of the eye; as low as 920 millibars
e. lowest in the zone of high winds, on the outer edges of the
hurricane, as low as 1000
millibars
____ 43. Which of the following would be true about flood
plains and urbanization
a. Flood planes are good places to put schools, housing projects,
and other long-term
structures.
b. Flood planes are poor areas for agriculture
c. A river can and will occupy its flood plain during times of
heavy flooding.
d. Flood planes are no longer dangerous places to build because
modern levees are able to
prevent flooding for all cases.
e. Flood planes are not natural and result from urbanization
____ 44. Why are storms found at both warm fronts and cold
fronts?

48. a. Where a warm front collides with a cold front, the friction
between them generates
heat and storms.
b. In both cases, the warm, more-humid air rises rapidly over
cold air, cooling,
condensing, and raining.
c. In both cases, the northward-moving front goes to the right,
so the storm cell formed
turns counterclockwise.
d. Warm and cold airs do not mix easily because of their
different densities, so the
turbulence causes storms.
e. Warm fronts concentrate static positive charges; cold air
concentrates negative
charges. They storm where the two collide.
____ 45. Measurements show that
a. Carbon dioxide levels are unchanged from the last 1 million
years
b. Carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere are rapidly
decreasing over the past century
c. All greenhouse gases have been at a constant level for
thousands of years and have
not changed
d. We are now entering a new Ice Age
e. Carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere are rapidly
increasing over the past century
____ 46. What are shatter cones?
a. cones that look like volcanoes but actually result from

49. impacts
b. cones formed from volcanism that were once thought to be
caused by impacts
c. the shape of comet tails named after the famous Shatter
comet
d. streaked cones of rock radiating down (closed upward) and
out from the point of
impact
e. volcanic glass that fell from great heights
Name: ______________________ ID: A
9
____ 47. Hurricanes need the following to form
a. warm moist air, warm sea temperatures, strong low pressure
b. high pressure, dry air, and cooler sea temperatures
c. cool Atlantic temperatures
d. low pressure air flow out of Canada
e. heavy snow winters
____ 48. Tornadoes can develop with what factors?
a. warm, moist air from Gulf colliding with cold dry air out of
Canada, together with
presence of mesocyclone or presence of strong wind shear
b. warm, moist air from the North colliding with cold dry air
out of the Southern Gulf,
together with presence of hail and strong winds
c. all of these
d. cold low pressure zones colliding with warm high pressure
zones, along with very dry

50. air masses in the collision.
e. none of these
____ 49. Which of the following places is a hurricane or
typhoon NOT likely to form
a. Atlantic ocean at 10° N
b. In the Indian Ocean at 10° S
c. In the Pacific Ocean at 10° S
d. Pacific Ocean just north of Papua New Guinnea at 10° N
e. Off of the coast of Ireland at 50°N
____ 50. The Milankovich cycles involve
a. solar radiation cycles lasting 29,500 years
b. sea level rise, followed by sea level fall, followed by sea
level rise
c. temperature cycles lasting 11 years in relation to sun spot
activity
d. high powered gear systems making them ideal for racing
e. Eccentricity of the Earth, The wobble of the Earth, The tilt of
the Earth