1. The document provides instructions for a chemistry exam paper consisting of multiple choice questions testing concepts in chemistry.
2. It outlines the format of the paper including four sections - Section I tests for single correct answers, Section II allows for multiple correct answers, Section III again tests for single correct answers but in a paragraph format, and Section IV again tests for single correct answers.
3. Marking schemes and instructions for filling out the optical response sheet are also provided.
1. The decimal expansion of π is non-terminating and recurring.
2. If one diagonal of a trapezium divides the other in the ratio 1:3, then one of the parallel sides is three times the other.
3. The mode of the data with classes 50-60, 60-70, 70-80, 80-90, 90-100 and frequencies 9, 12, 20, 11, 10 respectively is 70-80.
This document contains solutions to chemistry questions from the IIT-JEE 2009 exam. It provides the questions, explanations of the correct answers, and in some cases diagrams. The questions cover topics like electrolytes, isotopes, acid strength, IUPAC naming, gas laws, intermolecular forces, chemical reactions, isomerism, and defects in solids.
This document contains solutions to chemistry questions from the IIT-JEE 2009 exam. It includes multiple choice, matrix match, and integer answer questions covering topics like thermodynamics, organic chemistry reactions, and coordination compounds. The questions assess understanding of concepts like reaction mechanisms, isomerism, redox potentials, and calorimetry calculations.
This document contains the questions and answers from an engineering physics exam. It covers topics like:
- Blackbody radiation and Planck's law
- De Broglie wavelength and particle-wave duality
- Quantum mechanics including the particle in a box model
- Normalization constants and probability distributions in quantum mechanics
The exam contains multiple choice and short answer questions testing understanding of fundamental concepts in modern physics including wave-particle duality, quantum mechanics, and blackbody radiation. It requires calculations of quantities like de Broglie wavelength and energies of the particle in a box model.
1. The document provides 13 mathematics questions covering topics such as: simplifying expressions, solving quadratic equations, working with cylinders and areas, and proving identities. Students must show their working and attempt all questions.
2. The questions involve skills like factorizing, using the quadratic formula, eliminating variables, finding minimum points on graphs, and proving statements about odd numbers. Working is required for full marks.
3. Students must complete the questions for homework and bring their work to the next mathematics lesson.
The document is a review game for Chapter 11 geometry concepts that includes:
1) Formulas for calculating the area of basic shapes like rectangles, polygons, circles, etc.
2) Practice problems calculating missing measures and areas using the formulas.
3) Finding surface areas and geometric probabilities of various shapes.
Previous Years Solved Question Papers for Staff Selection Commission (SSC)…SmartPrep Education
Here is the Previous Years Solved Staff Selection Commission (SSC) LDC DEO Exam Paper. Visit SmartPrep for information on Test Prep courses for Undergraduates
This document provides instructions for a test. It begins by instructing students not to open the question paper until instructed by the invigilator. It then provides the following information:
1) The test contains 90 questions worth 4 marks each, with 1 mark deducted for incorrect answers.
2) Instructions are provided for correctly filling out the answer sheet, including using a pencil to shade bubbles, marking the answer for each question, and verifying information.
3) A sample question is provided from the mathematics section to demonstrate the multiple choice format.
1. The decimal expansion of π is non-terminating and recurring.
2. If one diagonal of a trapezium divides the other in the ratio 1:3, then one of the parallel sides is three times the other.
3. The mode of the data with classes 50-60, 60-70, 70-80, 80-90, 90-100 and frequencies 9, 12, 20, 11, 10 respectively is 70-80.
This document contains solutions to chemistry questions from the IIT-JEE 2009 exam. It provides the questions, explanations of the correct answers, and in some cases diagrams. The questions cover topics like electrolytes, isotopes, acid strength, IUPAC naming, gas laws, intermolecular forces, chemical reactions, isomerism, and defects in solids.
This document contains solutions to chemistry questions from the IIT-JEE 2009 exam. It includes multiple choice, matrix match, and integer answer questions covering topics like thermodynamics, organic chemistry reactions, and coordination compounds. The questions assess understanding of concepts like reaction mechanisms, isomerism, redox potentials, and calorimetry calculations.
This document contains the questions and answers from an engineering physics exam. It covers topics like:
- Blackbody radiation and Planck's law
- De Broglie wavelength and particle-wave duality
- Quantum mechanics including the particle in a box model
- Normalization constants and probability distributions in quantum mechanics
The exam contains multiple choice and short answer questions testing understanding of fundamental concepts in modern physics including wave-particle duality, quantum mechanics, and blackbody radiation. It requires calculations of quantities like de Broglie wavelength and energies of the particle in a box model.
1. The document provides 13 mathematics questions covering topics such as: simplifying expressions, solving quadratic equations, working with cylinders and areas, and proving identities. Students must show their working and attempt all questions.
2. The questions involve skills like factorizing, using the quadratic formula, eliminating variables, finding minimum points on graphs, and proving statements about odd numbers. Working is required for full marks.
3. Students must complete the questions for homework and bring their work to the next mathematics lesson.
The document is a review game for Chapter 11 geometry concepts that includes:
1) Formulas for calculating the area of basic shapes like rectangles, polygons, circles, etc.
2) Practice problems calculating missing measures and areas using the formulas.
3) Finding surface areas and geometric probabilities of various shapes.
Previous Years Solved Question Papers for Staff Selection Commission (SSC)…SmartPrep Education
Here is the Previous Years Solved Staff Selection Commission (SSC) LDC DEO Exam Paper. Visit SmartPrep for information on Test Prep courses for Undergraduates
This document provides instructions for a test. It begins by instructing students not to open the question paper until instructed by the invigilator. It then provides the following information:
1) The test contains 90 questions worth 4 marks each, with 1 mark deducted for incorrect answers.
2) Instructions are provided for correctly filling out the answer sheet, including using a pencil to shade bubbles, marking the answer for each question, and verifying information.
3) A sample question is provided from the mathematics section to demonstrate the multiple choice format.
The document provides instructions for a chemistry exam consisting of 57 questions divided into 4 sections. Some key details:
1. The exam is 3 hours long and has a maximum of 240 marks.
2. Students must fill out identifying information on the question paper and answer sheet.
3. The answer sheet is machine-readable and students must follow instructions to fill it out correctly.
4. Section I contains 4 multiple choice questions with a single correct answer each. Section II has 5 multiple choice questions where students select one or more correct answers. Section III involves matching statements between two columns. Section IV contains 8 questions where students provide a single digit integer answer.
The document provides instructions for a 3 hour exam with 57 questions worth a maximum of 237 marks. It details the format, marking scheme, and sections of the exam. The exam consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics, Physics) with 4 sections each. Section I has 5 mark multiple choice questions with negative marking. Section II has 3 mark multiple choice questions without negative marking. Section III has 3 mark comprehension questions with negative marking. Section IV has 2 mark questions with a maximum of 8 marks per question and no negative marking. Useful data is also provided.
This document provides instructions and information for a mathematics exam, including:
1) The exam consists of two sections, with Section I containing multiple choice questions and Section II containing extended response questions. Students must answer all questions in Section I and two questions in Section II.
2) A list of formulas is provided to use for reference.
3) The exam materials allowed are a non-programmable calculator, geometry set, mathematical tables, and graph paper.
4) The exam code, date, time limit and copyright information are provided.
The document provides instructions for the IIT-JEE 2009 exam. It is divided into 3 sections. Section 1 contains 8 multiple choice questions with one correct answer each about chemistry. Section 2 contains 4 multiple choice questions where one or more answers may be correct. Section 3 provides information on marking schemes and signatures. The document outlines the format of the exam, instructions for filling out answer sheets, allowed and prohibited materials, as well as instructions the candidate must agree to by signing.
1. The document contains 42 multiple choice questions about factorizing algebraic expressions and evaluating expressions.
2. The questions cover topics like factorizing quadratic expressions, common factors of expressions, evaluating expressions involving exponents and fractions, and identifying factors of expressions.
3. The multiple choice options provide the possible factored forms or simplified expressions for evaluating each question.
This document contains a past paper for the IITJEE physics exam from 2009. It includes 3 sections - multiple choice questions with single answers, multiple choice questions with multiple answers, and questions requiring integer answers. The document provides the questions and options/choices for each question but does not include the solutions. It addresses topics in physics including photoelectric effect, simple harmonic motion, centripetal force, gas laws, electromagnetic induction, sound waves, and fluid mechanics.
This document contains an unsolved chemistry paper from 2007 containing multiple choice and reason-type questions testing knowledge of chemistry concepts. The questions cover topics including resonance structures, thermodynamics, reaction kinetics, metal carbonyls, nuclear reactions, redox reactions, organic synthesis, and crystal systems. The document provides the questions and statements to be matched but does not include the answers. It is designed to test a test-taker's understanding of fundamental chemistry concepts through analysis of the problems presented.
The document contains 50 multiple choice questions testing mathematical concepts such as algebra, geometry, statistics, and trigonometry. The questions cover a wide range of topics including: simplifying expressions, solving equations, finding values based on graphs/tables, properties of shapes, percentages, and probability.
Engineering Chemistry 1 Jntu Model Paper{Www.Studentyogi.Com}guest3f9c6b
This document appears to contain an exam for an Engineering Chemistry course, with 8 multi-part questions covering various topics in chemistry. It provides the exam code, date, course details, instructions to answer 5 of the 8 questions, and then lists the 8 questions which cover topics such as water analysis, corrosion, fuels, polymers, lubrication, and refractories. Each question has between 2-4 parts requiring explanations of concepts, processes, comparisons, or calculations.
1. The document contains a series of 35 math and word problems with diagrams. It tests concepts like number operations, measurements, percentages, geometry, data interpretation, and problem solving.
2. The problems cover a wide range of topics from basic arithmetic to more complex multi-step word problems involving ratios, rates, proportions and conversions between different units.
3. Most problems are followed by 4 multiple choice answer options to choose from. The document aims to assess mathematical and analytical skills through practical, real world type questions.
This document appears to be an exam paper for mathematics from the Caribbean Examinations Council. It consists of two sections, with Section I containing 8 questions and Section II containing 3 questions. Students are instructed to answer all questions in Section I and any two questions from Section II. The paper provides a list of formulas, instructions for required materials, and sample questions on topics including algebra, geometry, trigonometry, and data analysis.
Bowen prelim a maths p1 2011 with answer keyMeng XinYi
This document consists of 13 multiple choice mathematics questions testing concepts such as:
1) Solving quadratic, logarithmic, and trigonometric equations.
2) Finding gradients, derivatives, integrals, and curve equations.
3) Analyzing graphs of functions and solving simultaneous equations.
The questions cover a wide range of mathematics topics and require showing steps to find exact solutions or simplify expressions. Answers are provided in the form of a detailed answer key.
The document is an exam for the Caribbean Examinations Council's Secondary Education Certificate in Mathematics. It contains 8 questions testing various math skills like algebra, geometry, trigonometry, and statistics. The exam is 2 hours and 40 minutes long and students must answer all questions in Section I and any two questions in Section II. Working must be shown clearly and formulas are provided.
This document contains 20 algebra problems with multiple choice answers. The problems cover topics such as evaluating expressions, simplifying polynomials, factoring expressions, solving equations, and graphing lines. The solutions are provided.
This document appears to be an exam for a 6th grade mathematics class. It contains instructions for a 3 hour exam divided into 3 sections worth a total of 100 marks. Section A is a 20 question multiple choice section to be completed in 30 minutes. Section B contains word problems worth 40 marks, with students to attempt 10 questions of 4 marks each. Section C contains longer word problems worth 40 marks, with students to attempt 5 questions of 8 marks each. The exam covers topics in mathematics including fractions, percentages, algebra, geometry and measurement.
The document is a past exam paper for the Caribbean Examinations Council Secondary Education Certificate examination in Mathematics from May 2009. It contains 8 multiple choice questions covering topics such as factorizing expressions, solving simultaneous equations, working with functions and graphs, vectors, matrices, and geometry. The exam is 2 hours and 40 minutes long and contains two sections, with Section I containing all 8 compulsory questions and Section II containing two questions to choose from out of three options covering relations and functions, vectors and matrices, or geometry and trigonometry.
This document contains information about a mathematics exam given by the Caribbean Examinations Council on May 21, 2008. The exam consists of two sections, with Section I containing compulsory questions and Section II containing a choice of two out of three questions. The document provides the instructions, questions, and information needed to answer questions on topics including algebra, geometry, trigonometry, vectors, and matrices. It is a source of information for summarizing the structure and content of the mathematics exam.
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This document contains sample answers and solutions to exercises in a math textbook. It includes:
1) Answers to standard form exercises and diagnostic tests in Chapter 1.
2) Answers to quadratic expressions exercises and diagnostic tests in Chapter 2.
3) Answers to sets exercises and diagnostic tests in Chapter 3.
4) Sample exercises and answers on mathematical reasoning in Chapter 4.
5) Sample exercises and answers on straight lines in Chapter 5.
The document provides concise worked out solutions to math problems across multiple chapters in a standardized format for student practice and review.
IIT JEE 2011 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
(1) The document provides instructions for a test paper containing 69 multiple choice questions across 3 subjects (Chemistry, Physics, and Mathematics) divided into 4 sections each.
(2) It details the marking scheme for each section - for sections with single correct answers, marks are awarded based on selecting the right option and penalizing for wrong ones; sections with multiple correct options award marks only for fully correct responses.
(3) Instructions are given on filling details on the answer sheet correctly and handling the paper and materials during the exam.
The document provides instructions for a 3 hour exam with 84 questions across 3 subjects (Chemistry, Mathematics, Physics). It details how to fill out the answer sheet, the question format and marking scheme. The exam contains multiple choice, multiple correct, and comprehension question types across 4 sections for each subject. Negative marks may be given for some incorrect answers. Useful data on constants, atomic numbers, and formulas are also provided.
The document provides instructions for a chemistry exam consisting of 57 questions divided into 4 sections. Some key details:
1. The exam is 3 hours long and has a maximum of 240 marks.
2. Students must fill out identifying information on the question paper and answer sheet.
3. The answer sheet is machine-readable and students must follow instructions to fill it out correctly.
4. Section I contains 4 multiple choice questions with a single correct answer each. Section II has 5 multiple choice questions where students select one or more correct answers. Section III involves matching statements between two columns. Section IV contains 8 questions where students provide a single digit integer answer.
The document provides instructions for a 3 hour exam with 57 questions worth a maximum of 237 marks. It details the format, marking scheme, and sections of the exam. The exam consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics, Physics) with 4 sections each. Section I has 5 mark multiple choice questions with negative marking. Section II has 3 mark multiple choice questions without negative marking. Section III has 3 mark comprehension questions with negative marking. Section IV has 2 mark questions with a maximum of 8 marks per question and no negative marking. Useful data is also provided.
This document provides instructions and information for a mathematics exam, including:
1) The exam consists of two sections, with Section I containing multiple choice questions and Section II containing extended response questions. Students must answer all questions in Section I and two questions in Section II.
2) A list of formulas is provided to use for reference.
3) The exam materials allowed are a non-programmable calculator, geometry set, mathematical tables, and graph paper.
4) The exam code, date, time limit and copyright information are provided.
The document provides instructions for the IIT-JEE 2009 exam. It is divided into 3 sections. Section 1 contains 8 multiple choice questions with one correct answer each about chemistry. Section 2 contains 4 multiple choice questions where one or more answers may be correct. Section 3 provides information on marking schemes and signatures. The document outlines the format of the exam, instructions for filling out answer sheets, allowed and prohibited materials, as well as instructions the candidate must agree to by signing.
1. The document contains 42 multiple choice questions about factorizing algebraic expressions and evaluating expressions.
2. The questions cover topics like factorizing quadratic expressions, common factors of expressions, evaluating expressions involving exponents and fractions, and identifying factors of expressions.
3. The multiple choice options provide the possible factored forms or simplified expressions for evaluating each question.
This document contains a past paper for the IITJEE physics exam from 2009. It includes 3 sections - multiple choice questions with single answers, multiple choice questions with multiple answers, and questions requiring integer answers. The document provides the questions and options/choices for each question but does not include the solutions. It addresses topics in physics including photoelectric effect, simple harmonic motion, centripetal force, gas laws, electromagnetic induction, sound waves, and fluid mechanics.
This document contains an unsolved chemistry paper from 2007 containing multiple choice and reason-type questions testing knowledge of chemistry concepts. The questions cover topics including resonance structures, thermodynamics, reaction kinetics, metal carbonyls, nuclear reactions, redox reactions, organic synthesis, and crystal systems. The document provides the questions and statements to be matched but does not include the answers. It is designed to test a test-taker's understanding of fundamental chemistry concepts through analysis of the problems presented.
The document contains 50 multiple choice questions testing mathematical concepts such as algebra, geometry, statistics, and trigonometry. The questions cover a wide range of topics including: simplifying expressions, solving equations, finding values based on graphs/tables, properties of shapes, percentages, and probability.
Engineering Chemistry 1 Jntu Model Paper{Www.Studentyogi.Com}guest3f9c6b
This document appears to contain an exam for an Engineering Chemistry course, with 8 multi-part questions covering various topics in chemistry. It provides the exam code, date, course details, instructions to answer 5 of the 8 questions, and then lists the 8 questions which cover topics such as water analysis, corrosion, fuels, polymers, lubrication, and refractories. Each question has between 2-4 parts requiring explanations of concepts, processes, comparisons, or calculations.
1. The document contains a series of 35 math and word problems with diagrams. It tests concepts like number operations, measurements, percentages, geometry, data interpretation, and problem solving.
2. The problems cover a wide range of topics from basic arithmetic to more complex multi-step word problems involving ratios, rates, proportions and conversions between different units.
3. Most problems are followed by 4 multiple choice answer options to choose from. The document aims to assess mathematical and analytical skills through practical, real world type questions.
This document appears to be an exam paper for mathematics from the Caribbean Examinations Council. It consists of two sections, with Section I containing 8 questions and Section II containing 3 questions. Students are instructed to answer all questions in Section I and any two questions from Section II. The paper provides a list of formulas, instructions for required materials, and sample questions on topics including algebra, geometry, trigonometry, and data analysis.
Bowen prelim a maths p1 2011 with answer keyMeng XinYi
This document consists of 13 multiple choice mathematics questions testing concepts such as:
1) Solving quadratic, logarithmic, and trigonometric equations.
2) Finding gradients, derivatives, integrals, and curve equations.
3) Analyzing graphs of functions and solving simultaneous equations.
The questions cover a wide range of mathematics topics and require showing steps to find exact solutions or simplify expressions. Answers are provided in the form of a detailed answer key.
The document is an exam for the Caribbean Examinations Council's Secondary Education Certificate in Mathematics. It contains 8 questions testing various math skills like algebra, geometry, trigonometry, and statistics. The exam is 2 hours and 40 minutes long and students must answer all questions in Section I and any two questions in Section II. Working must be shown clearly and formulas are provided.
This document contains 20 algebra problems with multiple choice answers. The problems cover topics such as evaluating expressions, simplifying polynomials, factoring expressions, solving equations, and graphing lines. The solutions are provided.
This document appears to be an exam for a 6th grade mathematics class. It contains instructions for a 3 hour exam divided into 3 sections worth a total of 100 marks. Section A is a 20 question multiple choice section to be completed in 30 minutes. Section B contains word problems worth 40 marks, with students to attempt 10 questions of 4 marks each. Section C contains longer word problems worth 40 marks, with students to attempt 5 questions of 8 marks each. The exam covers topics in mathematics including fractions, percentages, algebra, geometry and measurement.
The document is a past exam paper for the Caribbean Examinations Council Secondary Education Certificate examination in Mathematics from May 2009. It contains 8 multiple choice questions covering topics such as factorizing expressions, solving simultaneous equations, working with functions and graphs, vectors, matrices, and geometry. The exam is 2 hours and 40 minutes long and contains two sections, with Section I containing all 8 compulsory questions and Section II containing two questions to choose from out of three options covering relations and functions, vectors and matrices, or geometry and trigonometry.
This document contains information about a mathematics exam given by the Caribbean Examinations Council on May 21, 2008. The exam consists of two sections, with Section I containing compulsory questions and Section II containing a choice of two out of three questions. The document provides the instructions, questions, and information needed to answer questions on topics including algebra, geometry, trigonometry, vectors, and matrices. It is a source of information for summarizing the structure and content of the mathematics exam.
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This document contains sample answers and solutions to exercises in a math textbook. It includes:
1) Answers to standard form exercises and diagnostic tests in Chapter 1.
2) Answers to quadratic expressions exercises and diagnostic tests in Chapter 2.
3) Answers to sets exercises and diagnostic tests in Chapter 3.
4) Sample exercises and answers on mathematical reasoning in Chapter 4.
5) Sample exercises and answers on straight lines in Chapter 5.
The document provides concise worked out solutions to math problems across multiple chapters in a standardized format for student practice and review.
IIT JEE 2011 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
(1) The document provides instructions for a test paper containing 69 multiple choice questions across 3 subjects (Chemistry, Physics, and Mathematics) divided into 4 sections each.
(2) It details the marking scheme for each section - for sections with single correct answers, marks are awarded based on selecting the right option and penalizing for wrong ones; sections with multiple correct options award marks only for fully correct responses.
(3) Instructions are given on filling details on the answer sheet correctly and handling the paper and materials during the exam.
The document provides instructions for a 3 hour exam with 84 questions across 3 subjects (Chemistry, Mathematics, Physics). It details how to fill out the answer sheet, the question format and marking scheme. The exam contains multiple choice, multiple correct, and comprehension question types across 4 sections for each subject. Negative marks may be given for some incorrect answers. Useful data on constants, atomic numbers, and formulas are also provided.
1) The document contains an exam for engineering chemistry with multiple choice and long answer questions.
2) Questions cover topics like batteries, fuel cells, corrosion, electrochemistry, and polymers.
3) Students are instructed to answer 5 full questions by choosing at least 2 from each part, and to answer objective questions on a separate OMR sheet.
1) The document contains an exam for engineering chemistry with multiple choice and long answer questions.
2) Questions cover topics like batteries, fuel cells, corrosion, electrochemistry, and polymers.
3) Students are asked to choose the correct answer for multiple choice questions, define terms, derive equations, describe processes, and explain concepts.
The document describes the format and marking scheme of the IIT-JEE 2009 paper 1 exam. It includes 4 sections with different question types. Section I has 8 multiple choice questions with a single correct answer. Section II has 4 multiple choice questions where one or more answers may be correct. Section III has 2 groups of 3 questions each based on paragraphs. Section IV has 2 questions matching statements between two columns. The marking scheme awards marks for correct answers and deducts marks for incorrect answers depending on the section.
This document contains a mock chemistry exam with 36 multiple choice questions covering various topics in chemistry including spectroscopy, reaction mechanisms, inorganic and organic chemistry. The questions test knowledge of symmetry point groups, NMR spectroscopy, reaction rates, thermodynamics, coordination complexes, organic naming and reactions.
10 years gate solved papers CHEMISTRY(Upto 2014)Raghab Gorain
This document provides instructions for a chemistry exam. It states that the exam contains 85 objective questions, with questions 1-20 worth 1 mark each and questions 21-85 worth 2 marks each. It provides some information on how to fill out the answer sheet and describes the content and format of the exam paper. The document also lists some useful physical constants and atomic numbers that may be needed for the exam.
The document contains a past chemistry exam with 4 sections - multiple choice, multiple answer choice, matching, and numerical answer questions. The exam covers topics like organic chemistry reactions, thermodynamics, stoichiometry, and nuclear chemistry. It provides 9 chemistry problems and their answer options to test understanding of concepts covered in class.
This document contains a chemistry exam paper with 30 questions ranging from 1 to 5 marks each. The questions cover various topics in chemistry including electrochemistry, thermodynamics, kinetics, organic chemistry, coordination compounds and polymers. The paper tests the students' understanding of concepts and their ability to solve numerical problems and explain chemical phenomena. It also contains multi-part questions involving explanations, chemical equations and calculations.
This document contains a chemistry exam from 2007 with 40 multiple choice questions covering various topics:
1. Electrochemistry questions involving standard reduction potentials.
2. Equilibrium constants for reaction of N2 and O2.
3. Radioactive decay and half-life calculations.
4. Organic chemistry reactions like Friedel-Crafts acylation.
5. Properties of acids and bases.
6. Characteristics of polymers, transition metals, and coordination compounds.
7. Stoichiometry, gas laws, thermochemistry, and other general chemistry principles.
1. The document contains a practice test with multiple choice questions about chemical kinetics and equilibrium.
2. Questions cover topics like reaction rates, rate laws, reaction orders, equilibrium constants, Le Chatelier's principle, and the Haber process.
3. There is also a bonus section with chemical nomenclature questions matching names to formulas.
This document contains 25 multiple choice questions about chemical equilibrium. It provides general instructions to complete the exam in 90 minutes using a blue or black pen to mark the answers on the provided OMR sheet. No negative marking will be applied. The questions cover various topics relating to chemical equilibrium including the effects of changing conditions, equilibrium constants, and acid-base equilibria.
This document contains a practice test for Exam 2 covering Chapters 3, 4, and 7 of a chemistry course. The test has 30 multiple choice questions testing concepts like balancing chemical equations, stoichiometry, gas laws, solution concentrations, acid-base reactions, and periodic trends. The key is provided with the letter answers for each question.
The document is an exam for the Advanced Proficiency Examination in Chemistry. It provides instructions for the exam, which consists of 45 multiple choice questions to be completed in 90 minutes. The instructions state that the exam booklet should be used alongside an answer sheet and data booklet. Candidates are to choose the best answer among 4 options for each question and shade the corresponding space on their answer sheet.
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1. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-1
FIITJEE Solutions to
IIT-JEE-2011
PAPER 1
CODE
8
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 240
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General:
1. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page (page
No. 36) of this booklet.
2. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets
are NOT allowed.
4. Write your name and registration number in the space provided on the back page of this booklet.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Optical Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
6. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
7. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
8. This question Paper contains 36 pages having 69 questions.
9. On breaking the seals, please check that all the questions are legible.
B. Filling the Right Part of the ORS:
10. The ORS also has a CODE printed on its Left and Right parts.
11. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet. If the codes do not match ask for a
change of the booklet.
12. Write your Name, Registration No. and the name of centre and sign with pen in the boxes provided. Do not
write them anywhere else. Darken the appropriate bubble UNDER each digit of your Registration No.
with a good quality HB pencil.
C. Question paper format and Marking scheme:
13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics). Each part consists of four
sections.
14. In Section I (Total Marks: 21), for each question you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken ONLY the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases,
minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
15. In Section II (Total Marks: 16), for each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the
bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY and zero marks other wise. There are no negative
marks in this section.
16. In Section III (Total Marks: 15), for each question you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken ONLY the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases,
minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
17. In Section IV (Total Marks: 28), for each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ONLY the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks otherwise. There are no negative marks in
this section.
Write your name, registration number and sign in the space provided on the back of this booklet.
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com.
2. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-2
PAPER-1 [Code – 8]
IITJEE 2011
PART - I: CHEMISTRY
SECTION – I (Total Marks : 21)
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Extra pure N2 can be obtained by heating
(A) NH3 with CuO (B) NH4NO3
(C) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (D) Ba(N3)2
Sol. (D)
Ba ( N 3 ) 2 Ba + 3N 2
∆
→
2. Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol. wt. 60) in 1000 g of water gave a solution of density 1.15 g/mL. The
molarity of the solution is
(A) 1.78 M (B) 2.00 M
(C) 2.05 M (D) 2.22 M
Sol. (C)
Total mass of solution = 1000 + 120 = 1120 g
1120
Total volume of solution in (L) = ×103
1.15
W 1 120 1.15 × 103
M= × = × = 2.05 M
M V ( in L ) 60 1120
3. Bombardment of aluminium by α-particle leads to its artificial disintegration in two ways, (i) and (ii) as
shown. Products X, Y and Z respectively are,
( ) 30
Al 15 P + Y
→
27 ii
13
(i )
30
14Si + X 14 Si + Z
30
(A) proton, neutron, positron (B) neutron, positron, proton
(C) proton, positron, neutron (D) positron, proton, neutron
Sol. (A)
13 Al + 2 α →14 Si + 1 p ( X )
27 4 30 1
27
13 Al + 2 α 4 →15 P + 0 n1 ( Y )
30
30
15 P → 14 Si + +1 β0 ( Z )
30
4. Geometrical shapes of the complexes formed by the reaction of Ni2+ with Cl– , CN– and H2O, respectively,
are
(A) octahedral, tetrahedral and square planar (B) tetrahedral, square planar and octahedral
(C) square planar, tetrahedral and octahedral (D) octahedral, square planar and octahedral
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3. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-3
Sol. (B)
[ NiCl4 ] → Tetrahedral
2−
2−
Ni ( CN ) 4 → Square Planar
2+
Ni ( H 2 O )6
→ Octahedral
5. The major product of the following reaction is
O
C
()
→
i KOH
NH
C (ii) Br CH2Cl
O
O O
C C
(A) N CH2 Br (B) N CH2Cl
C C
O O
O O
C C
N N
(C) (D)
C
O CH2 Br O CH2 Cl
Sol. (A)
O O
()
→
i KOH
NH N CH2 Br
(ii ) Br CH2 Cl
O O
[Reason: Due to partial double bond character along C−Br bond prevents the attack of nucleophile at
phenylic position]
6. Among the following compounds, the most acidic is
(A) p-nitrophenol (B) p-hydroxybenzoic acid
(C) o-hydroxybenzoic acid (D) p-toluic acid
Sol. (C)
Due to ortho effect o-hydroxy benzoic acid is strongest acid and correct order of decreasing Ka is
COOH COOH COOH OH
OH
> > >
CH3 OH NO2
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4. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-4
7. AgNO3(aq.) was added to an aqueous KCl solution gradually and the conductivity of the solution was
measured. The plot of conductance ( Λ ) versus the volume of AgNO3 is
Λ Λ Λ Λ
volume volume volume volume
(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(A) (P) (B) (Q)
(C) (R) (D) (S)
Sol. (D)
AgNO3 + KCl ( aq ) → AgCl ( s ) + KNO3 ( aq )
Initially there is aq. KCl solution now as solution of AgNO3 is added, AgCl(s) is formed. Hence
conductivity of solution is almost compensated (or slightly increase) by the formation of KNO3. After end
point conductivity increases more rapidly because addition of excess AgNO3 solution.
SECTION – II (Total Marks : 16)
(Multiple Correct Answers Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
8. Amongst the given options, the compound(s) in which all the atoms are in one plane in all the possible
conformations (if any), is (are)
H
H H
H C C C
(A) C C (B)
CH2
H2C CH2
(C) H2C C O (D) H2C C CH2
Sol. (B, C)
Along C−C single bond conformations are possible in butadiene in which all the atoms may not lie in the
same plane.
9. Extraction of metal from the ore cassiterite involves
(A) carbon reduction of an oxide ore (B) self-reduction of a sulphide ore
(C) removal of copper impurity (D) removal of iron impurity
Sol. (A, C, D)
SnO 2 + 2C → 2CO + Sn
The ore cassiterite contains the impurity of Fe, Mn, W and traces of Cu.
10. According to kinetic theory of gases
(A) collisions are always elastic
(B) heavier molecules transfer more momentum to the wall of the container
(C) only a small number of molecules have very high velocity
(D) between collisions, the molecules move in straight lines with constant velocities
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5. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-5
Sol. (A, B, C, D)
11. The correct statement(s) pertaining to the adsorption of a gas on a solid surface is (are)
(A) Adsorption is always exothermic
(B) Physisorption may transform into chemisorption at high temperature
(C) Physiosorption increases with increasing temperature but chemisorption decreases with increasing
temperature
(D) Chemisorption is more exothermic than physisorption, however it is very slow due to higher energy of
activation
Sol. (A, B, D)
SECTION-III (Total Marls : 15)
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions and based on the
other paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 12 and 13
An acyclic hydrocarbon P, having molecular formula C6H10, gave acetone as the only organic product through the
following sequence of reaction, in which Q is an intermediate organic compound.
( i ) conc. H 2SO4
O
( catalytic amount )
( i ) dil. H 2SO4 / HgSO4 ( − H2O )
P Q → 2
( ii ) NaBH 4 / ethanol → ( ii ) O3 C
( C6 H10 )
( iii ) dil.acid ( iii ) Zn / H 2 O
CH3
H3C
12. The structure of compound P is
(A) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 − C ≡ C − H (B) H 3 CH 2 C − C ≡ C − CH 2 CH 3
H3C H3C
(C) H C C C CH3 (D) H3C C C C H
H3C H3C
Sol. (D)
13. The structure of the compound Q is
OH OH
H3C H3C
(A) H C C CH2 CH3 (B) H3C C C CH3
H3C H3C
H H
OH
H3C OH
(C) H C CH2CHCH3 (D)
CH3 CH2 CH2 CHCH2 CH3
H3C
Sol. (B)
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6. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-6
Solution for the Q. No. 12 to 13
O H3C OH
H3C H3C
( i ) NaBH 4 / EtOH
( ) ii dil. H +
H H3C → CH3 H3C
→ C CH CH3
dil. H2 SO4
H3C C C C HgSO4 C C
(Q)
H3C (P) H3C H3C
∆ H 2 SO 4 ( conc.)
H3C CH3 H3C CH3
C O+ O C ←
O3 / Zn / H 2 O
C C
H3C CH3 H3C CH3
Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16
When a metal rod M is dipped into an aqueous colourless concentrated solution of compound N, the solution turns
light blue. Addition of aqueous NaCl to the blue solution gives a white precipitate O. Addition of aqueous NH3
dissolves O and gives an intense blue solution.
14. The metal rod M is
(A) Fe (B) Cu
(C) Ni (D) Co
Sol. (B)
Cu + 2AgNO3 → Cu ( NO3 ) 2 + 2Ag
M N Blue
While Cu partially oxidizes to Cu(NO3)2 and remaining AgNO3 reacts with NaCl.
15. The compound N is
(A) AgNO3 (B) Zn(NO3)2
(C) Al(NO3)3 (D) Pb(NO3)2
Sol. (A)
16. The final solution contains
2+ 3+ 2+
(A) Pb ( NH 3 )4 and [ CoCl 4 ] (B) Al ( NH 3 ) 4 and Cu ( NH 3 ) 4
2−
+ 2+ + 2+
(C) Ag ( NH 3 )2 and Cu ( NH 3 )4
(D) Ag ( NH 3 )2 and Ni ( NH 3 )6
Sol. (C)
AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl ↓ + NaNO3
(N) ( O)
+
AgCl + 2NH 3 → Ag ( NH 3 )2 Cl −
2+
Cu ( NO3 ) 2 + 4NH 4 OH → Cu ( NH 3 )4
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7. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-7
SECTION-IV (Total Marks : 28)
(Integer Answer Type)
This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The bubble corresponding to the correct is to be darkened in the ORS.
17. The difference in the oxidation numbers of the two types of sulphur atoms in Na2S4O6 is
Sol. (5)
O O
Na O S S S S O Na
O O
S will have oxidation number = +5, 0
Difference in oxidation number = 5
18. A decapeptide (Mol. Wt. 796) on complete hydrolysis gives glycine (Mol. Wt. 75), alanine and
phenylalanine. Glycine contributes 47.0% to the total weight of the hydrolysed products. The number of
glycine units present in the decapeptide is
Sol. (6)
For n-units of glycine,
n × 75
× 100 = 47
( 796 + 9 × 18 )
⇒n=6
19. The work function ( φ) of some metals is listed below. The number of metals which will show
photoelectric effect when light of 300 nm wavelength falls on the metal is
Metal Li Na K Mg Cu Ag Fe Pt W
φ (eV) 2.4 2.3 2.2 3.7 4.8 4.3 4.7 6.3 4.75
Sol. (4)
hc
The energy associated with incident photon =
λ
6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
⇒E= J
300 × 10−9
6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
E in eV = = 4.16 eV
300 × 10−9 × 1.6 ×10−19
So, number of metals showing photo-electric effects will be (4), i.e., Li, Na, K, Mg
20. The maximum number of electrons that can have principal quantum number, n = 3, and spin quantum
1
number, ms = − , is
2
Sol. (9)
For principal quantum number (n = 3)
Number of orbitals = n2 = 9
1
So, number of electrons with ms = − will be 9.
2
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8. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-8
21. Reaction of Br2 with Na2CO3 in aqueous solution gives sodium bromide and sodium bromate with
evolution of CO2 gas. The number of sodium bromide molecules involved in the balanced chemical
equation is
Sol. (5)
3Br2 + 3Na 2 CO3 5NaBr + NaBrO3 + 3CO2
→
So, number of NaBr molecules = 5
22. To an evacuated vessel with movable piston under external pressure of 1 atm, 0.1 mol of He and 1.0 mol of
an unknown compound (vapour pressure 0.68 atm. at 0oC) are introduced. Considering the ideal gas
behaviour, the total volume (in litre) of the gases at 0oC is close to
Sol. (7)
For any ideal gas, PV = nRT 1 atm
0.32 × V = 0.1 × 0.0821 × 273
V = 7 litre
(unknown compound X will not follow
ideal gas equation) He + X
For He, n = 0.1, P = 0.32 atm., V = ?, T = 273
23. The total number of alkenes possible by dehydrobromination of 3-bromo-3-cyclopentylhexane using
alcoholic KOH is
Sol. (5)
Total no. of alkenes will be = 5
Br
H3C CH2 CH2 C CH2 CH3 H3C CH2 CH2 C CH CH3
(E & Z)
alc. KOH
→
H3C CH2 CH C CH2 CH3
or (E & Z)
H3C CH2 CH2 C CH2 CH3
or ( only 1)
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9. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-9
PART - II: PHYSICS
SECTION – I (Total Marks : 21)
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
24. A police car with a siren of frequency 8 kHz is moving with uniform velocity 36 km/hr towards a tall
building which reflects the sound waves. The speed of sound in air is 320 m/s. The frequency of the siren
heard by the car driver is
(A) 8.50 kHz (B) 8.25 kHz
(C) 7.75 kHz (D) 7.50 kHZ
Sol. (A)
320 320 + 10
f= × 8 × 103 ×
320 − 10 320
= 8.5 kHz
25. The wavelength of the first spectral line in the Balmer series of hydrogen atom is 6561 Ǻ. The wavelength
of the second spectral line in the Balmer series of singly-ionized helium atom is
(A) 1215 Ǻ (B) 1640 Ǻ
(C) 2430 Ǻ (D) 4687 Ǻ
Sol. (A)
1 1 1 5R
= R − =
6561 4 9 36
1 1 1 3R × 4
= 4R − =
λ 4 16 16
λ = 1215 Ǻ.
z
26. Consider an electric field E = E 0 x , where E0 is a constant. The flux
ˆ
through the shaded area (as shown in the figure) due to this field is (a,0,a) (a,a,a)
(A) 2E0a2 (B) 2E 0 a 2
E0 a 2 y
(C) E0 a2 (D) x (0,0,0) (0,a,0)
2
Sol. (C)
(E0) (Projected area ) = E0a2
27. 5.6 liter of helium gas at STP is adiabatically compressed to 0.7 liter. Taking the initial temperature to be
T1, the work done in the process is
9 3
(A) RT1 (B) RT1
8 2
15 9
(C) RT1 (D) RT1
8 2
Sol. (A)
TVγ-1 = C
T1(5.6)2/3 = T2 (0.7)2/3 ⇒ T2 = T1(8)2/3 = 4T1
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10. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-10
nR∆T 9
∴ ∆w(work done on the system) = = RT1
γ −1 8
28. A 2 µF capacitor is charged as shown in the figure. The percentage of its 1 2
stored energy dissipated after the switch S is turned to position 2 is S
(A) 0 % (B) 20 %
V
(C) 75 % (D) 80 % 2µ F 8µ F
Sol. (D)
1
Ui = × 2 × V2 = V2
2 2V-q q
qi = 2V
Now, switch S is turned to position 2
2V − q q
=
2 8
8V – 4q = q
8V
⇒q=
5
64V 2 4V 2
∆ H = V2 - +
2 × 25 × 8 2 × 25 × 2
4V 2
=
5
29. A meter bridge is set-up as shown, to determine an
unknown resistance ‘X’ using a standard 10 ohm resistor. X 10 Ω
The galvanometer shows null point when tapping-key is at
52 cm mark. The end-corrections are 1 cm and 2 cm
respectively for the ends A and B. The determined value of A B
‘X’ is
(A) 10.2 ohm (B) 10.6 ohm
(C) 10.8 ohm (D) 11.1 ohm
Sol. (B)
X (48 + 2) = (10) (52 + 1)
530
X= = 10.6Ω
50
30. A ball of mass (m) 0.5 kg is attached to the end of a string having length
(L) 0.5 m. The ball is rotated on a horizontal circular path about vertical
axis. The maximum tension that the string can bear is 324 N. The L
maximum possible value of angular velocity of ball (in radian/s) is
(A) 9 (B) 18
(C) 27 (D) 36
m
Sol. (D)
324 = 0.5 ω2 (0.5)
ω2 = 324 × 4
ω = 1296 = 36 rad / s
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11. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-11
SECTION – II (Total Marks : 16)
(Multiple Correct Answers Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
31. A metal rod of length ‘L’ and mass ‘m’ is pivoted at one end. A thin disk of mass
‘M’ and radius ‘R’ (<L) is attached at its center to the free end of the rod. Consider
two ways the disc is attached: (case A). The disc is not free to rotate about its
centre and (case B) the disc is free to rotate about its centre. The rod-disc system
performs SHM in vertical plane after being released from the same displaced
position. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true?
(A) Restoring torque in case A = Restoring torque in case B
(B) restoring torque in case A < Restoring torque in case B
(C) Angular frequency for case A > Angular frequency for case B.
(D) Angular frequency for case A < Angular frequency for case B.
Sol. (A, D)
In case A
m 2 MR 2
mg( /2) sin θ + Mg sin θ = + +M 2
αA
3 2
In case B
m 2
mg ( /2) sin θ + Mg sin θ = + M 2 αB
3
τA = τB, ωA < ωB
32. A spherical metal shell A of radius RA and a solid metal sphere B of radius RB (<RA) are kept far apart and
each is given charge ‘+Q’. Now they are connected by a thin metal wire. Then
(A) E inside = 0
A (B) QA > QB
σA R B
(C) = (D) E on surface
< E on surface
σB R A
A B
Sol. (A, B, C, D)
RB < RA
QA + QB = 2Q
kQ A kQ B
=
RA RB
σARA = σBRB
2QR A
QA =
RA + RB
2QR B
QB =
RA + RB
33. A composite block is made of slabs A, B, C, D and E of 0 1L 5L 6L
heat
different thermal conductivities (given in terms of a A B 3K E
constant K) and sizes (given in terms of length, L) as 1L
shown in the figure. All slabs are of same width. Heat 6K
‘Q’ flows only from left to right through the blocks. Then 2K C 4K
in steady state 3L
(A) heat flow through A and E slabs are same.
D 5K
(B) heat flow through slab E is maximum.
4L
(C) temperature difference across slab E is smallest.
(D) heat flow through C = heat flow through B + heat flow through D.
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12. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-12
Sol. (A, C, D) or (A, B, C, D)
Let width of each rod is d
1 4
R1 = , R2 = 2
8kd 3kd
1 4 5
R3 = , R4 = 1 3
2kd 5kd
1
R5 = , 4
24kd
R2
R1 R5
R3
R4
34. An electron and a proton are moving on straight parallel paths with same velocity. They enter a semi-
infinite region of uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the velocity. Which of the following
statement(s) is / are true?
(A) They will never come out of the magnetic field region.
(B) They will come out travelling along parallel paths.
(C) They will come out at the same time.
(D) They will come out at different times.
Sol. (B, D)
Both will travel in semicircular path
Since, m is different, hence time will be different
SECTION-III (Total Marls : 15)
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions and based on the
other paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 35 and 36
A dense collection of equal number of electrons and positive ions is called neutral plasma. Certain solids containing
fixed positive ions surrounded by free electrons can be treated as neutral plasma. Let ‘N’ be the number density of
free electrons, each of mass ‘m’. When the electrons are subjected to an electric field, they are displaced relatively
away from the heavy positive ions. If the electric field becomes zero, the electrons begin to oscillate about the
positive ions with a natural angular frequency ‘ωp’ which is called the plasma frequency. To sustain the oscillations,
a time varying electric field needs to be applied that has an angular frequency ω, where a part of the energy is
absorbed and a part of it is reflected. As ω approaches ωp all the free electrons are set to resonance together and all
the energy is reflected. This is the explanation of high reflectivity of metals.
35. Taking the electronic charge as ‘e’ and the permittivity as ‘ε0’. Use dimensional analysis to determine the
correct expression for ωp.
Ne mε0
(A) (B)
mε0 Ne
Ne 2 mε 0
(C) (D)
mε 0 Ne 2
Sol. (C)
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13. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-13
36. Estimate the wavelength at which plasma reflection will occur for a metal having the density of electrons
N ≈ 4 × 1027 m-3. Taking ε0 = 10-11 and m ≈ 10-30, where these quantities are in proper SI units.
(A) 800 nm (B) 600 nm
(C) 300 nm (D) 200 nm
Sol. (B)
ω = 2πc / λ
Paragraph for Question Nos. 37 to 39
Phase space diagrams are useful tools in analyzing all kinds of dynamical problems.
They are especially useful in studying the changes in motion as initial position and
Momentum
momenum are changed. Here we consider some simple dynamical systems in one-
dimension. For such systems, phase space is a plane in which position is plotted along
horizontal axis and momentum is plotted along vertical axis. The phase space diagram is
x(t) vs. p(t) curve in this plane. The arrow on the curve indicates the time flow. For
example, the phase space diagram for a particle moving with constant velocity is a Position
straight line as shown in the figure. We use the sign convention in which positon or
momentum upwards (or to right) is positive and downwards (or to left) is negative.
37. The phase space diagram for a ball thrown vertically up from ground is
Momentum Momentum
(A) (B)
Position Position
Momentum Momentum
(C) (D)
Position Position
Sol. (D)
38. The phase space diagram for simple harmonic motion is a circle Momentum
centered at the origin. In the figure, the two circles represent the same
oscillator but for different initial conditions, and E1 and E2 are the E1
total mechanical energies respectively. Then E2
(A) E1 = 2E 2 (B) E1 = 2E2 2a
(C) E1 = 4E2 (D) E1 = 16E2 Position
a
Sol. (C)
E ∝ A2
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14. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-14
39. Consider the spring-mass system, with the mass submerged in
water, as shown in the figure. The phase space diagram for one
cycle of this system is
(A) Momentum (B) Momentum
Position Position
(C) Momentum (D) Momentum
Position Position
Sol. (B)
SECTION-IV (Total Marks : 28)
(Integer Answer Type)
This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The bubble corresponding to the correct is to be darkened in the ORS.
40. A boy is pushing a ring of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m with a stick as Stick
shown in the figure. The stick applies a force of 2N on the ring and rolls it
without slipping with an acceleration of 0.3 m/s2. The coefficient of
friction between the ground and the ring is large enough that rolling
always occurs and the coefficeint of friction between the stick and the ring
is (P/10). The value of P is
Ground
Sol. (4)
Now R
N − fs = ma ∴ fs = 1.4 N a
and (fs − fK)R = Iα, a = Rα
∴ fK = 0.8 N
P N α
So, µ = = 0.4
10 fk
P=4 fs
Mg
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15. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-15
41. Four solid spheres each of diameter 5 cm and mass 0.5 kg are placed with their centers at the corners of
a square of side 4 cm. The moment of inertia of the system about the diagonal of the square is N × 10−4 kg-
m2, then N is
Sol. (9)
2 2 a
2
I = 2 × mr 2 + 2 mr 2 + m m, r
5 5
2
−4
I = 9 × 10 kg-m 2
∴N=9
a
42. Steel wire of lenght ‘L’ at 40°C is suspended from the ceiling and then a mass ‘m’ is hung from its free
end. The wire is cooled down from 40°C to 30°C to regain its original length ‘L’. The coefficient of linear
thermal expansion of the steel is 10−5/°C, Young’s modulus of steel is 1011 N/m2 and radius of the wire is 1
mm. Assume that L diameter of the wire. Then the value of ‘m’ in kg is nearly
Sol. (3)
MgL
Change in length ∆L = = Lα∆T
YA
∴ m ≈ 3 kg
43. Four point charges, each of +q, are rigidly fixed at the four corners of a square planar soap film of side ‘a’.
The surface tension of the soap film is γ. The system of charges and planar film are in equilibrium, and
1/ N
q2
a = k , where ‘k’ is a constant. Then N is
γ
Sol. (3)
q2
Since Felectric ∝ ∝ γa
a2
1/3
q2
∴ a = k
γ
∴N=3
44. A block is moving on an inclined plane making an angle 45° with the horizontal and the coefficient of
friction is µ. The force required to just push it up the inclined plane is 3 times the force required to just
prevent it from sliding down. If we define N = 10 µ, then N is
Sol. (5)
mg(sin θ + µcosθ) = 3mg(sinθ − µcosθ)
∴ µ = 0.5
∴N=5
45. The activity of a freshly prepared radioactive sample is 1010 disintegrations per second, whose mean life is
109 s. The mass of an atom of this radioisotope is 10−25 kg. The mass (in mg) of the radioactive sample is
Sol. (1)
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16. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-16
dN
= λN
dt
dN
∴N=
dt
= 1010 ×109 = 1019 atoms
λ
msample = 10−25 × 1019 kg = 1 mg
46. A long circular tube of length 10 m and radius 0.3 m carries a current I along its
curved surface as shown. A wire-loop of resistance 0.005 ohm and of radius 0.1 m is
placed inside the tube with its axis coinciding with the axis of the tube. The current
varies as I = I0cos(300 t) where I0 is constant. If the magnetic moment of the loop is
Nµ0I0sin(300 t), then ‘N’ is
I
Sol. (6)
µo I
Binside = µ0ni =
L
dφ µ (πr 2 ) dI
∴ E ind = − =− 0
dt L dt
E 2
So magnetic moment = ind πr
R
= 6µ0I0sin(300t)
Therefore, n = 6
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17. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-17
PART - III:
MATHEMATICS
SECTION – I (Total Marks : 21)
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
47. Let (x0, y0) be solution of the following equations
(2x)ln2 = (3y)ln3
3lnx = 2lny
Then x0 is
1 1
(A) (B)
6 3
1
(C) (D) 6
2
Sol. (C)
(2x)ln2 = (3y)ln3 …(i)
3lnx = 2lny …(ii)
⇒ (logx) (log3) = (logy)log2
(log x )(log 3)
⇒ logy = …(iii)
log 2
In (i) taking log both sides
(log2) {log2 + logx} = log3{log3 + logy}
(log 3)2 (log x)
(log2)2 + (log2) (logx) = (log3)2 + from (iii)
log 2
(log 3) 2 − (log 2)2
⇒ (log2)2 − (log3)2 = (log x) ⇒ −log2 = logx
log 2
1 1
⇒ x= ⇒ x0 = .
2 2
48. Let P = {θ : sin θ − cos θ = 2 cos θ} and Q = {θ : sin θ + cos θ = 2 sin θ} be two sets. Then
(A) P ⊂ Q and Q − P ≠ ∅ (B) Q ⊄ P
(C) P ⊄ Q (D) P = Q
Sol. (D)
In set P, sinθ = ( )
2 + 1 cos θ ⇒ tanθ = 2 +1
In set Q, ( )
2 − 1 sin θ = cos θ ⇒ tan θ =
1
2 −1
= 2 + 1 ⇒ P = Q.
49. Let a = ˆ + ˆ + k , b = ˆ + ˆ + k and c = ˆ − ˆ − k be three vectors. A vector v in the plane of a and b , whose
i j ˆ i j ˆ i j ˆ
1
projection on c is , is given by
3
(A) ˆ − 3ˆ + 3k
i j ˆ (B) −3ˆ − 3ˆ + k
i j ˆ
(C) 3ˆ − ˆ + 3k
i j ˆ (D) ˆ + 3ˆ − 3k
i j ˆ
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18. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-18
Sol. (C)
v = λ a + µb
(
= λ ˆ+ˆ+k +µ ˆ−ˆ+k
i j ˆ i j ˆ ) ( )
Projection of v on c
v⋅c
=
1
⇒
i j ˆ i j ˆ
(
( λ + µ ) ˆ + ( λ − µ ) ˆ + ( λ + µ ) k ⋅ ˆ − ˆ − k
=
1 )
|c| 3 3 3
⇒λ+µ−λ+µ−λ−µ=1⇒µ−λ=1⇒λ=µ−1
( ) ( )
v = ( µ − 1) ˆ + ˆ + k + µ ˆ − ˆ + k = µ 2i + 2k − ˆ − ˆ − k
i j ˆ i j ˆ ˆ (
ˆ i j ˆ )
v = ( 2µ − 1) ˆ − ˆ + ( 2µ − 1) k
i j ˆ
At µ = 2, v = 3i − ˆ + 3k .
ˆ j ˆ
ln 3
x sin x 2
50. The value of ∫ sin x 2 + sin ( ln 6 − x 2 )
dx is
ln 2
1 3 1 3
(A) ln (B) ln
4 2 2 2
3 1 3
(C) ln (D) ln
2 6 2
Sol. (A)
x2 = t ⇒ 2x dx = dt
1
ln 3
sin t 1
ln 3
sin ( ln 6 − t )
I= ∫ dt and I = ∫ dt
2 ln 2 sin t + sin ( ln 6 − t ) 2 ln 2 sin ( ln 6 − t ) + sin t
ln 3
1 1 3
2I = ∫21dt ⇒ I = 4 ln 2 .
2 ln
51. A straight line L through the point (3, −2) is inclined at an angle 60° to the line 3x + y = 1 . If L also
intersects the x-axis, then the equation of L is
(A) y + 3x + 2 − 3 3 = 0 (B) y − 3x + 2 + 3 3 = 0
(C) 3y − x + 3 + 2 3 = 0 (D) 3y + x − 3 + 2 3 = 0
Sol. (B)
y =- 3x + 1
m+ 3
= 3 m
1 − 3m
( )
(0, 1)
⇒ m+ 3 = ± 3 − 3m
⇒ 4m = 0 ⇒ m = 0
60°
or 2m = 2 3 ⇒ m = 3 (3, −2)
∴ Equation is y + 2 = 3 ( x − 3)
⇒ (
3x − y − 2 + 3 3 = 0 )
a10 − 2a 8
52. Let α and β be the roots of x2 – 6x – 2 = 0, with α > β . If an = αn – β n for n ≥ 1, then the value of
2a 9
is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
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19. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-19
Sol. (C)
an = αn − β n
α2 − 6α − 2 = 0
Multiply with α8 on both sides
⇒ α10 − 6α9 − 2α8 = 0 …(i)
similarly β 10 − 6β9 − 2β8 = 0 …(ii)
(i) and (ii)
⇒ α10 − β 10 − 6(α9 − β 9) = 2(α8 − β 8)
a − 2a 8
⇒ a10 − 6a9 = 2a8 ⇒ 10 =3.
2a 9
53. Let the straight line x = b divides the area enclosed by y = (1 − x)2, y = 0 and x = 0 into two parts R1(0 ≤ x
1
≤ b) and R2(b ≤ x ≤ 1) such that R1 − R2 = . Then b equals
4
3 1
(A) (B)
4 2
1 1
(C) (D)
3 4
Sol. (B)
b 1
1
∫ (1 − x ) dx − ∫ (1 − x ) dx = 4
2 2
0 b
b 1
R1
( x − 1)3 ( x − 1)3 1 R2
⇒ − =
3 0 3 b 4 o b 1
( b − 1) 1 3
( b − 1) 1 3
⇒ + −0 − =
3 3 3 4
2 ( b − 1)
3
1 1 1
⇒ =− ⇒ (b – 1)3 = – ⇒ b = .
3 12 8 2
SECTION – II (Total Marks : 16)
(Multiple Correct Answers Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE or MORE may be correct.
54. Let f: R → R be a function such that f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y), ∀ x, y ∈ R. If f(x) is differentiable at x = 0, then
(A) f(x) is differentiable only in a finite interval containing zero
(B) f(x) is continuous ∀ x ∈ R
(C) f′(x) is constant ∀ x ∈ R
(D) f(x) is differentiable except at finitely many points
Sol. (B, C)
f(0) = 0
f (x + h ) − f (x)
and f′(x) = lim
h →0 h
f (h)
= = lim = f′(0) = k(say)
h →0
h
⇒ f(x) = kx + c ⇒ f(x) = kx ( f(0) = 0).
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20. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-20
55. The vector(s) which is/are coplanar with vectors ˆ + ˆ + 2k and ˆ + 2ˆ + k , and perpendicular to the vector
i j ˆ i j ˆ
ˆ + ˆ + k is/are
i j ˆ
(A) ˆ − k
j ˆ (B) −ˆ + ˆ
i j
(C) ˆ − ˆ
i j (D) −ˆ + k
j ˆ
Sol. (A, D)
Any vector in the plane of ˆ + ˆ + 2k and ˆ + 2ˆ + k is r = ( λ + µ ) ˆ + ( λ + 2µ ) ˆ + ( 2λ + µ ) k
i j ˆ i j ˆ i j ˆ
Also, r ⋅ c = 0 ⇒ λ + µ = 0
⇒ r a b = 0 .
x2 y2
56. Let the eccentricity of the hyperbola −
= 1 be reciprocal to that of the ellipse x2 + 4y2 = 4. If the
a 2 b2
hyperbola passes through a focus of the ellipse, then
x 2 y2
(A) the equation of the hyperbola is − =1 (B) a focus of the hyperbola is (2, 0)
3 2
5
(C) the eccentricity of the hyperbola is (D) the equation of the hyperbola is x2 – 3y2 = 3
3
Sol. (B, D)
x 2 y2
Ellipse is + =1
2 2 12
3
12 = 22 (1 − e2) ⇒ e =
2
2 4
∴ eccentricity of the hyperbola is ⇒ b2 = a 2 − 1 ⇒ 3b2 = a2
3 3
Foci of the ellipse are ( )
3, 0 and − 3, 0 . ( )
Hyperbola passes through ( 3, 0 )
3
2
= 1 ⇒ a2 = 3 and b2 = 1
a
∴ Equation of hyperbola is x2 − 3y2 = 3
2
Focus of hyperbola is (ae, 0) ≡ 3 × , 0 ≡ (2, 0).
3
57. Let M and N be two 3 × 3 non-singular skew symmetric matrices such that MN = NM. If PT denotes the
transpose of P, then M2N2 (MTN)–1 (MN–1)T is equal to
(A) M2 (B) – N2
2
(C) – M (D) MN
Sol. (C)
MN = NM
M2N2(MTN)−1(MN−1)T
M2N2N−1(MT)−1(N−1)T.MT
= M2N.(MT)−1(N−1)TMT = −M2.N(M)−1(NT)−1MT
= +M2NM−1N−1MT = −M.NMM−1N−1M = −MNN−1M = −M2.
Note: A skew symmetric matrix of order 3 cannot be non-singular hence the question is wrong.
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21. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-21
SECTION-III (Total Marls : 15)
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions and based on the
other paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 59
Let U1 and U2 be two urns such that U1 contains 3 white and 2 red balls, and U2 contains only 1 white ball. A fair
coin is tossed. If head appears then 1 ball is drawn at random from U1 and put into U2. However, if tail appears then
2 balls are drawn at random from U1 and put into U2. Now 1 ball is drawn at random from U2.
58. The probability of the drawn ball from U2 being white is
13 23
(A) (B)
30 30
19 11
(C) (D)
30 30
Sol. (B)
H → 1 ball from U1 to U2
T → 2 ball from U1 to U2
E : 1 ball drawn from U2
1 3 1 2 1 1 3 C 2 1 2 C 2 1 1 3 C1 ⋅2 C1 2 23
P/W from U2 = × × 1 + × × + × × 1 + × × + × × = .
2 5 2 5 2 2 5 C2 2 5 C2 3 2 5 C2
3 30
59. Given that the drawn ball from U2 is white, the probability that head appeared on the coin is
17 11
(A) (B)
23 23
15 12
(C) (D)
23 23
Sol. (D)
13 2 1
P( W / H) × P( H) ×1 + × 12
H 25 5 2
P = = = .
W P (W / T ) ⋅ P ( T ) + ( W / H ) ⋅ P ( H ) 23 / 30 23
Paragraph for Question Nos. 60 to 62
1 9 7
Let a, b and c be three real numbers satisfying [ a b c ] 8 2 7 = [ 0 0 0]
……(E)
7 3 7
60. If the point P(a, b, c), with reference to (E), lies on the plane 2x + y + z = 1, then the value of 7a + b + c is
(A) 0 (B) 12
(C) 7 (D) 6
Sol. (D)
a + 8b + 7c = 0
9a + 2b + 3c = 0
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22. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-22
a+b+c=0
Solving these we get
b = 6a ⇒ c = – 7a
now 2x + y + z = 0
⇒ 2a + 6a + (–7a) = 1 ⇒ a = 1, b = 6, c = – 7.
61. Let ω be a solution of x3 – 1 = 0 with Im(ω) > 0. If a = 2 with b and c satisfying (E), then the value of
3 1 3
+ + is equal to
ωa ωb ωc
(A) –2 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) – 3
Sol. (A)
a = 2, b and c satisfies (E)
b = 12, c = – 14
3 1 3 3 1 3
+ b + c = 2 + 12 + −14 = –2.
ω a
ω ω ω ω ω
62. Let b = 6, with a and c satisfying (E). If α and β are the roots of the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0,
∞ n
1 1
then ∑ α +β
n =0
is
(A) 6 (B) 7
6
(C) (D) ∞
7
Sol. (B)
ax2 + bx + c = 0 ⇒ x2 + 6x – 7 = 0
⇒ α = 1, β = – 7
∞ n ∞ n
1 1 1 1
∑ α + β =
n =0
∑
n =0
− = 7.
1 7
SECTION-IV (Total Marks : 28)
(Integer Answer Type)
This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The bubble corresponding to the correct is to be darkened in the ORS.
63. Consider the parabola y2 = 8x. Let ∆1 be the area of the triangle formed by the end points of its latus rectum
1
and the point P , 2 on the parabola, and ∆2 be the area of the triangle formed by drawing tangents at P
2
∆
and at the end points of the latus rectum. Then 1 is
∆2
Sol. (2) L
y2 = 8x = 4.2.x A (2, 4)
∆LPM
=2
∆ABC B(0, 2) P(1/2, 2)
∆1
=2 (0, 0) (2, 0)
∆2 C
M
(2, −4)
x=−2
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23. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-23
sin θ π π d
64. Let f(θ) = sin tan −1 , where − 4 < θ < 4 . Then the value of d ( tan θ ) ( f ( θ ) ) is
cos 2θ
Sol. (1)
sin θ π π
sin tan −1 , where θ ∈ − ,
cos 2θ 4 4
sin θ
sin tan −1
2cos θ − 1
2
= sin ( sin −1 ( tan θ ) ) = tan θ.
d ( tan θ )
=1.
d ( tan θ )
x
65. ∫
Let f: [1, ∞) → [2, ∞) be a differentiable function such that f(1) = 2. If 6 f ( t ) dt = 3xf ( x ) − x 3 for all x ≥
1
1, then the value of f(2) is
Sol. (6)
x
∫
6 f ( t ) dt = 3x f(x) – x3 ⇒ 6f(x) = 3f(x) + 3xf′(x) – 3x2
1
⇒ 3f(x) = 3xf′(x) – 3x2 ⇒ xf′(x) – f(x) = x2
dy dy 1
⇒ x − y = x2 ⇒ − y = x …(i)
dx dx x
1
I.F. = e
∫ − x dx = e − loge x
1
Multiplying (i) both sides by
x
1 dy 1 d 1
− 2 y = 1⇒ y. = 1
x dx x dx x
integrating
y
= x+c
x
Put x = 1, y = 2
⇒ 2 = 1 + c ⇒ c = 1 ⇒ y = x2 + x
⇒ f(x) = x2 + x ⇒ f(2) = 6.
Note: If we put x = 1 in the given equation we get f(1) = 1/3.
1 1 1
66. The positive integer value of n > 3 satisfying the equation = + is
π 2π 3π
sin sin sin
n n n
Sol. (7)
3π π π 2π 2π
sin − sin 2sin cos sin
1
−
1
=
1
⇒ n n = 1 n n n
=1
π 3π 2π π 3π 2π π 3π
sin sin sin sin sin sin sin sin
n n n n n n n n
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24. IITJEE2011-Paper 1-CPM-24
4π 3π 4π 3π
⇒ sin = sin ⇒ + = π ⇒ n = 7.
n n n n
p
67. Let a1, a2, a3, …, a100 be an arithmetic progression with a1 = 3 and Sp = ∑a
i =1
i , 1 ≤ p ≤ 100. For any integer
Sm
n with 1 ≤ n ≤ 20, let m = 5n. If does not depend on n, then a2 is
Sn
Sol. (9)
a1, a2, a3, … a100 is an A.P.
p
a1 = 3, Sp = ∑a
i =1
i , 1 ≤ p ≤ 1 00
Sm S5n
5n
( 6 + ( 5n − 1) d )
= = 2
n
Sn Sn
( 6 − d + nd )
2
Sm
is independent of n of 6 − d = 0 ⇒ d = 6.
Sn
68. If z is any complex number satisfying |z – 3 – 2i| ≤ 2, then the minimum value of |2z – 6 + 5i| is
Sol. (5)
5 C (3, 2)
Length AB =
2
⇒ Minimum value = 5.
(0, 0) B (3, 0)
A(3, −5/2)
69. The minimum value of the sum of real numbers a–5, a–4, 3a–3, 1, a8 and a10 with a > 0 is
Sol. (8)
a −5 + a −4 + a −3 + a −3 + a −3 + a 8 + a10 + 1
≥1
8
minimum value = 8.
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