This document contains 99 multiple choice questions divided into easy, medium and descriptive categories about malaria and leishmaniasis. The questions cover topics like the species of parasites that cause the diseases, their transmission and life cycles, symptoms, diagnosis and treatment.

1. 64slide gby.k
Total Questions - 99
MCQ. Easy (30 Questions)
Q1. How is hemozoin linked to the induction of anaemia?
A. It acts as an inflammatory mediator
B. It stimulates the production of cytokines
C. It induces apoptosis (cell death)
D. It blocks the blood flow
Q2. What is the most severe disease caused due to Leishmaniasis?
A. Visceral Leishmaniasis
B. Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis
D. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis
Q3. Which method is used for early detection or forecasting of malaria epidemics?
A. Biological control
B. Remote sensing methods
C. Repellents
D. Plasmodium vivax uncomplicated malaria
Q4. In which countries are majority of Visceral Leishmaniasis cases reported?
A. Bangladesh, Brazil, Ethiopia, India, South Sudan and Sudan
B. Afghanistan, Algeria, Brazil, Colombia, Iran, Pakistan, Peru, Saudi Arabia and
Syrian
C. Bolivia, Brazil and Peru
D. Mediterranean Basin, Middle East
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2. Q5. Which method is used to kill larvae, pupa, and adult mosquitoes?
A. Environmental management
B. Biological control
C. Impregnated bed nets
D. Chemicals
Q6. What is the most common species of Anopheles mosquito that is responsible for malaria
transmission?
A. Anopheles arabiensis Patton
B. Anopheles funestus Giles
C. Anopheles nili Theobald
D. Anopheles maculipennis
Q7. What is the most common antimalarial drug used to treat uncomplicated P. falciparum
malaria?
A. Chloroquine
B. Artemether/Lumefantrine
C. Artesunate/Amodiaquine
D. Quinine
Q8. What species of Plasmodium is responsible for the majority of malaria cases in Africa?
A. P. knowlesi
B. P. brasilianum
C. P. falciparum
D. P. simium
Q9. What is the primary mechanism responsible for cerebral malaria?
A. Cytoadherence
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3. B. Retinal hemorrhage
C. Subconjuctival hemorrhage
D. Rosetting
Q10. What are the parasites that cause Human infection?
A. Leishmania donovani complex
B. Leishmania tropica complex
C. Leishmania braziliensis complex
D. All of the Above
Q11. Which of the following is the best treatment for cutaneous and mucocutaneous
leishmaniasis?
A. Intralesional antimonials
B. Pentavalent antimonials
C. Fluconazole
D. Pentamidine isethionate
Q12. What is the confirmatory diagnosis of Leishmaniasis?
A. ELISA Test
B. DAT Test
C. Microscopy examination
D. Rapid Antigen Detection Test
Q13. What is Post Kala Azar Dermal Leishmaniasis (PKDL) a complication of?
A. Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
B. Visceral Leishmaniasis
C. Mucocutaneous Leishmaniasis
D. Diffuse Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
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4. Q14. What is the Leishmanin skin test (LST)?
A. A test used to detect malaria
B. A test used to detect leishmaniasis
C. A dermal delayed hypersensitivity reaction
D. A test used to evaluate successful cure of the visceral leishmaniasis
Q15. What type of transmission is called anthroponotic?
A. Reservoir animals to humans
B. Humans to reservoir animals
C. Humans to sand fly
D. Sand fly to humans
Q16. What is the laboratory diagnosis used to detect parasites?
A. Indirect haemagglutination test
B. Dark field microscopy
C. Fluorescent microscope
D. Immunoprecipitation
Q17. What is the most severe form of Cutaneous Leishmaniasis?
A. Recidivans
B. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis
C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis
D. Ulcers
Q18. Which of the following is a symptom of uncomplicated malaria?
A. Deep coma
B. Multiple convulsions
C. Rigors (severe shivering)
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5. D. Pulmonary edema
Q19. What is the most common form of Leishmaniasis?
A. Visceral Leishmaniasis
B. Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
C. Mucocutaneous Leishmaniasis
D. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis
Q20. Which of the following is used as rapid diagnostic test (RDT) to detect antigens?
A. ELISA test
B. Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA) test
C. Immunoprecipitation
D. Polyclonal or monoclonal antibodies
Q21. What is the most common cause of death associated with malaria?
A. Fever
B. Seizures
C. Anemia
D. Plasmodium falciparum
Q22. What is the most effective and safe antimalarial drug for children?
A. Artemether/Lumefantrine
B. Artesunate/Mefloquine
C. Chloroquine
D. Artesunate/Sulfadoxine pyrimethamine
Q23. Which of the following is not an antimalarial drug?
A. Fluconazole
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6. B. Paromomycin sulphate
C. Allopurinol
D. Pentamidine isethionate
Q24. Which indicator is used to detect severe malaria?
A. Blood sugar < 2.2mmol/l
B. Arterial PH < 7.25
C. Peripheral blood PMNL > 12 000/ l
D. All of the above
Q25. What is the peak of malaria incidence in Ethiopia?
A. January - April
B. May - August
C. September - December
D. November - February
Q26. What is the target for Artemisinin drugs?
A. PfHRP II
B. PfATPase6 enzyme
C. Lactic dehydrogenase
D. Histidine rich protein II
Q27. How can malaria control/prevention be implemented?
A. Killing of larva, pupa, adult by chemicals
B. Making human dwellings away from mosquito breeding area
C. Protection of people with Impregnated bed nets, repellents, clothing
D. All of the above
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7. Q28. What is the most sensitive test for the serodiagnosis of Visceral Leishmaniasis?
A. Direct Agglutination Test
B. Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay
C. Rapid Antigen Detection Test
D. Rapid Antibody Detection Test
Q29. Which of the following is true about malaria in pregnant mothers?
A. Risk of abortion, still birth, premature labour, low birth weight infant, fetal
distress
B. Intense placental parasitaemia
C. More susceptible to hypoglycaemia
D. All of the above
Q30. What type of response results susceptibility in VL?
A. Th1 response
B. Th2 response
C. Th3 response
D. Th4 response
MCQ. Medium (10 Questions)
Q1. What are the indicators of severe anaemia?
I. Hct < 15%
II. Systolic BP < 70mmHg in adult or <50mmHg in children
III. Blood sugar < 2.2mmol/l (40ml/dl)
IV. Plasma HCO 3 < 15
Which of the options given above is correct:
A. II only.
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8. B. I and II only.
C. I, II and III only.
D. All of the above.
Q2. What are the treatment options for uncomplicated P. falciparum malaria?
I. Quinine
II. ACT drugs
III. 4 Aminoquinolines
IV. Arylaminoalcohols
Which of the options given above is correct:
A. II only.
B. I and II only.
C. I, II and III only.
D. All of the above.
Q3. What are the target for Artemisinin drugs?
I. Calcium ion
II. Refilling of calcium ion
III. PfATPase6 enzyme
IV. Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stores of the parasite
Which of the options given above is correct:
A. II only.
B. I and II only.
C. I, II and III only.
D. All of the above.
Q4. What are the laboratory and physical indicators of severe malaria?
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9. I. Systolic BP < 70mmHg in adult or <50mmHg in children
II. Hct < 15%
III. No urine or < 400ml in 24 hr or 12ml/kg/24 hr after rehydration or serum
creatinine n> 265 mol/l (> 3 mg/dl)
IV. Blood sugar < 2.2mmol/l (40ml/dl)
Which of the options given above is correct:
A. II only.
B. I and II only.
C. I, II and III only.
D. All of the above.
Q5. What are the Malaria Control/Prevention Methods?
I. Environmental managment
II. Protection of people with Impregnated bed nets, repellents, clothing, good
house with insect screen
III. Making human dwellings away from mosquito breeding area
IV. Killing of larva, pupa, adult by chemicals
Which of the options given above is correct:
A. II only.
B. I and II only.
C. I, II and III only.
D. All of the above.
Q6. What can be detected by Fluorescent microscope?
I. Histidine rich protein II (PfHRP II)
II. Lactic dehydrogenase (LDH)
III. Malaria pigment
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10. IV. Parasites
Which of the options given above is correct:
A. II only.
B. I and II only.
C. I, II and III only.
D. All of the above.
Q7. What are the Microscopy methods used to detect parasites?
I. Immunodignostic methods
II. Light Microscope
III. Dark field microscopy
IV. Fluorescent microscope
Which of the options given above is correct:
A. II only.
B. I and II only.
C. I, II and III only.
D. All of the above.
Q8. What are the antimalarial drugs with different biological activities?
I. Quinine
II. Arylaminoalcohols
III. 4 Aminoquinolines
IV. ACT drugs
Which of the options given above is correct:
A. II only.
B. I and II only.
C. I, II and III only.
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11. D. All of the above.
Q9. What are the symptoms of Congenital Malaria?
I. Intense placental parasitaemia
II. Hypoglycaemia
III. Haemolytic anaemia
IV. Pulmonary oedema
Which of the options given above is correct:
A. II only.
B. I and II only.
C. I, II and III only.
D. All of the above.
Q10. What are the long term sequelae of malaria?
I. Mental retardation
II. Cerebellar ataxia
III. Blindness
IV. Heparesis
Which of the options given above is correct:
A. II only.
B. I and II only.
C. I, II and III only.
D. All of the above.
Descriptive (30 Questions)
Q1. What are the diseases/pathological features of Leishmania sis in Human?
Q2. What are the diagnostic methods for leishmaniasis?
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12. Q3. How does malaria affect the spleen?
Q4. What are the reservoir hosts of the Leishmania parasites?
Q5. What is Leishmaniasis?
Q6. What is the cause of malaria?
Q7. Where does Visceral Leishmaniasis occur?
Q8. How does malaria affect the placenta?
Q9. What is the Th1 response that is protective against Visceral Leishmaniasis?
Q10. What are the symptoms of uncomplicated malaria?
Q11. What is algid malaria and what causes it?
Q12. What are the treatments for cutaneous and mucocutaneous leishmaniasis?
Q13. How does malaria affect the gastrointestinal (GI) tract?
Q14. What are the clinical signs of severe (fatal) malaria?
Q15. What is the global burden of malaria?
Q16. What are the different forms of Leishmaniasis?
Q17. What are the insect vectors of Leishmania parasites?
Q18. How does malaria affect the liver?
Q19. What is the Leishmanin skin test?
Q20. What are the symptoms of severe (fatal) malaria in children?
Q21. What are the pathogenesis mechanisms associated with cerebral malaria?
Q22. What are the causes of brain swelling in malaria?
Q23. How does malaria affect the bone marrow?
Q24. What are the laboratory and physical indicators of severe malaria?
Q25. What are the long-term sequelae of malaria?
Q26. What is the transmission of malaria in Ethiopia?
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13. Q27. What is Post kala azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL)?
Q28. How does malaria affect the kidneys?
Q29. What are the aetiology and pathogenesis of malaria?
Q30. What are the different Leishmania parasites that cause human infection?
Fillups (29 Questions)
Q1. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis (DCL) is caused by _______
A. Leishmania tropica
B. Leishmania mexicana complex
C. Leishmania braziliensis complex
D. Leishmania aethiopica or L. amazonensis
Q2. Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is most sensitive test for the serodiagnosis
of ______
A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
B. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis
C. Visceral leishmaniasis
D. Post kala azar dermal leishmaniasis
Q3. Visceral leishmaniasis (VL) is mainly caused by _______
A. Leishmania donovani complex
B. Leishmania braziliensis complex
C. Leishmania tropica
D. Leishmania aethiopica
Q4. The laboratory diagnosis of malaria includes _____ microscopy and immunodiagnostic
methods
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14. A. Light
B. Dark Field
C. Fluorescent
D. X-Ray
Q5. Post kala azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) is a complication of ______
A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
B. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis
C. Visceral leishmaniasis
D. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis
Q6. Leishmanin skin test (LST) is also known as _______
A. Dermal Delayed Hypersensitivity Reaction
B. Montenegro reaction
C. Cutaneous and Mucocutaneous Leshmaniasis
D. Cryotherapy
Q7. Treatment for Cutaneous and Mucocutaneous Leshmaniasis includes ______
A. Miltefosine
B. Cryotherapy
C. Pentavalent Antimonials
D. All of the above
Q8. Human malaria is caused by ________
A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Plasmodium malariae
C. Plasmodium ovale
D. All of the above
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15. Q9. The methods used for monitoring and forecasting malaria epidemics include _____
A. Remote Sensing
B. Physical Indicators
C. Laboratory Indicators
D. All of the above
Q10. In pregnant women, the risk of severe malaria is more commonly observed with _____
infection
A. P. falciparum
B. P. vivax
C. P. malariae
D. P. ovale
Q11. The antimalarial drugs used for treating Plasmodium vivax uncomplicated malaria
include _____
A. Chloroquine
B. Artesunate
C. Quinine
D. Amodiaquine
Q12. The primary purpose of using hostile bacteria like Bacillus sphaericus and B.
thuringiensis in malaria control is to _____
A. Kill mosquitoes
B. Reduce their breeding
C. Enhance their breeding
D. None of the above
Q13. Direct agglutination test (DAT) is a ______ and _______ test
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16. A. Rapid, sensitive
B. Rapid, specific
C. Sensitive, specific
D. Slow, specific
Q14. Malaria pigment is seen in _____ of polymorphonuclear leucocytes
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Q15. The primary purpose of environmental management for malaria control is to _______
breeding of mosquitoes
A. Enhance
B. Promote
C. Discourage
D. Encourage
Q16. Leishmaniasis is caused by ________
A. Insects
B. Protozoan parasites
C. Rodents
D. Primates
Q17. Cutaneous leishmaniasis in the Old World is caused by _______
A. Leishmania tropica, L. major, L. aethiopica and all species of the L. mexicana
complex
B. Leishmania braziliensis complex
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17. C. Leishmania panamensis
D. Leishmania guyanensis
Q18. The drugs used for treating severe malaria include _____
A. Artesunate
B. Amodiaquine
C. Quinine
D. Halofantrine
Q19. Artemisinin drugs target the _____ enzyme which is responsible for refilling of calcium
ion into the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stores of the parasite
A. Phosphatase
B. Histidine rich protein
C. Lactic dehydrogenase
D. PfATPase6
Q20. Pathogenesis of malaria depends on _________
A. Virulence of the parasite isolate
B. Hosts immunity
C. Genetic make up
D. All of the above
Q21. The main vectors for malaria transmission in Ethiopia are _______
A. Anopheles arabiensis Patton
B. Anopheles funestus Giles
C. Anopheles nili Theobald
D. All of the above
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18. Q22. Pathogenesis of severe malaria involves ________
A. Rosetting
B. Cytoadherence
C. Sequestration of infected erythrocytes
D. All of the above
Q23. Microscopy examination is used for the _______ of leishmaniasis
A. Prevention
B. Diagnosis
C. Treatment
D. Prognosis
Q24. Visceral Leishmaniasis (VL) is mainly caused by _____
A. Leishmania tropica
B. Leishmania donovani complex
C. Leishmania infantum
D. Leishmania major
Q25. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis is usually caused by _____
A. Leishmania braziliensis, L. panamensis and L. guyanensis
B. Leishmania tropica
C. Leishmania donovani complex
D. Leishmania aethiopica
Q26. Symptoms of mild malaria include _________
A. Seizure
B. Coma
C. Retinal hemorrhage
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19. D. Fever with headache, tiredness (fatigue), muscle pain, joint aches, abdominal
pains, rigors (severe shivering), perspiration, nausea, anorexia, vomiting and
diarrhea
Q27. Clinical signs of severe malaria include ________
A. Deep coma due to CM
B. Multiple convulsions
C. Acute renal failure
D. All of the above
Q28. Malaria in Ethiopia is caused by _____
A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Plasmodium ovale
D. All of the above
Q29. The chemcials used for killing larva, pupa and adult mosquitoes include _____
A. DDT
B. Pyrethrum
C. Pyrethrins
D. All of the above
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