20- The theory of natural ieloction does not depend ce which of the fo.pdf
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20. The theory of natural ieloction does not depend ce which of the following? A. Heritability B. Purpose C. Keproductive sucees: 21. Phylogeny illustntes D. Variation A. Common ancestry, B. Genetic dritt. 22. Whisch of the following is an example of a converyest traic? B. The multiple hemogoblobia genes in the jawed ver C. The triangular denal fin in dharkx and dolphins 23. Phy logenctic trees may be used to dipplay relationstips among which of the follawing- 24. Chameten are refermed to as being homologous if A. They ewolved independeraty is two taxa because of a cowinon environment. B. They were acequired through horinotal gece trans fer. C. They are similar because they were inherited from a shured ascetor D. They evolved as the result of a gere duplication event. 25. Accondiag to the theory of natural selection, A. adeptations beneficial in one habiad should generally be beneficial in all cether habitas. B. differeat individuals occupying the same habiat will adapt to that babitat through the same genetie changes. C. Adeptations beneffial at one time should generally be beneficial during all other times. D. welladapted individuals leave more offspring and thus costribute more to the next generation's gene pool. than do poorly adepted individuals. 26. The studies of changes between black and light color in populations of the peppered moth show that A. natural selection ean quickly change allele frequencies and common phenotypes in a population B. species caa always adept to eavironmental changes C. predators aluays prefer light colored moths D. natural selection produces irreversible changes 27. How does artificial selection produce rapid changes in the phenotype of organisms? A. by changing the frequency of alleles and selecting for new combinations of traits. B. by stimalating the species to increase the production of new mutations. C. by changing the number of chromosomes. D. by selecting only dominant genotypes. 28. Selection at the level of is likely to be the most important because the numbers and turnover tates of these entities are greater than those of the other levels. A. genes B. populations C. species D. subspecies 29. Of the main mechanisms of evolutionary change. Which mechanism is the only one below that relies on only adaptive evolutionary change? A. Mutation. B. Gene flow, C. Genetic drift. D. Natural selection. 30. Darwin's Theory of evolution by natural selection is based on all of the following postulates except: A. some individuals are more successful in surviving and reproduction than others. B. at least in part, variations among individuals are passed on from parents to offspring. C. the survival and reproduction of individuals is always random..
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20- The theory of natural ueloction does not depend on whicb of the fo.pdf
20. The theory of natural ueloction does not depend on whicb of the following? A. Heriabibity B.
Marpone C. Repruductive nuccess D. Variation 21. Phylogery illistrates A. Comiman ancestry,
B. Genctie drift. C. Natural selection. D. Panticulate inheritance. 22. Which of the sollowing is
an ecample of a conkergent trair? A. The shancd five-digit character state in tetrapod vertebrates.
9. The multiple hemoglobin genes in she jawed vertebrates. 6. The triangaine doesal fin in tharks
and dolphins. D. All the sbeve mould be considered ceenergent traits. 23. Thylogenetic trees may
tw used to display relationships among which of the following A. Species B. Genes c. fells D.
All the above 24. Charastens ate tefernd to as being homologous if A. They evelved
independently in fwo tasa tecause of a common cavironment. B. Thoy bere acquired threugh
horizontal gene transfer. C. They are similar because they were inherited froma a shared ancestor
D. They evolved as the result of a geae duplication event. 25. Acsording to the theory of natural
selection, A. adaptations bencficial in otie habitat sheuld generally be beneficial in all other
habitats. B. different individuals occupying the sume habitat will adapt to that habitat through the
same genetic changes. C. adaptations beneficial at one time should generally be beneficial during
all other times. D. Heli-adapted individuals leave more offspring, and thus contribute more to the
next generation's gene pool. than do poorly adapted individaals. 26. The studies of changes
between black and light color in populations of the peppered moth show that A. aatural selection
cas quiekly ehange allele frequencies and common phenotypes in a population B. species ean
always adapt to environmental changes C. predators always prefer light colored moths D. natural
selection produces irreversible changes 27. How does artificial selection produce rapid changes
in the phenotype of organisms? A. by changing the frequency of alleles and selecting for new
combinations of traits. B. by stimulating the species to increase the production of new mutations.
C. by changing the number of chromosomes. D. by selecting only dominant genotypes. 28.
Selection at the level of is likely to be the most important because the numbers and tumover ra of
these entities are greater than those of the other levels. A. gencs B. populations C. species D.
subspecies 29. Of the main mechanisms of evolutionary change. Which mechanism is the only
one below that relies on or adaptive evolutionary change? A. Mutation. B. Gene flow. C. Genetic
drift. D. Natural selection. 30. Darwin's Theory of evolution by natural selection is based on all
of the following postulates except: A. some individuals are more successful in surviving and
reproduction than others. B. at least in part, variations among individuals are passed on from
parents to offspring. C . the survival and reproduction of individuals is always random..
21- Phylogeny illustrates D- Variation A- Common ancestry- B- Genctic.pdf
21. Phylogeny illustrates D. Variation A. Common ancestry. B. Genctic drift. 22. Which of the
following is an example of a convergent train? A. The shared five-digit character state in
tetrapod vertebrates. B. The multiple hemoglobin genes in the jawed vertebrates. C. The
triangular dorsal fin in sharks and dolphins. D. All the above would be considered convergent
traits. 23. Phylogenetic trees may be used to display relationships among which of the following.
A. Species B. Genes C. Cells D. All the above 24. Characters are referred to as being
homologous if A. They evolved independently in two taxa because of a common environment.
B. They were acquired through horizontal gene transfer. C. They are similar because they were
inherited from a shared ancestor D. They evolved as the result of a gene duplication event. 25.
According to the theory of natural selection, A. adaptations beneficial in one habitat should
generally be beneficial in all other habitats. B. different individuals occupying the same habitat
will adapt to that habitat through the same genetic changes. C. adaptations beneficial at one time
should generally be beneficial during all other times. D. well-adapted individuals leave more
offspring, and thus contribute more to the next generation's gene pool. than do poorly adapted
individuals. 26. The studies of changes between black and light color in populations of the
peppered moth show that A. natural selection can quickly change allele frequencies and common
phenotypes in a population B. species can always adapt to environmental changes C. predators
always prefer light colored moths D. natural selection produces irreversible changes.
multiple choice choose right answer1. After you study a populatio.pdf
multiple choice: choose right answer
1. After you study a population of a butterfly species over several generations, you observe that
its average wing size is steadily increasing and is significantly larger in the more recent
generations. This is most likely an example of
a. genetic drift.
b. non-random mating.
c. disruptive selection.
d. directional selection.
e. genetic variation.
2. A volcano has wiped out a significant part of a spider population on a small island. This would
be considered an example of
a. natural selection.
b. disruptive selection.
c. the bottleneck effect.
d. balanced polymorphism.
e. relative fitness.
3. All but one of the following is required for a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Which one doesn’t
meet the requirements?
a. random mating
b. no mutations
c. large populations
d. no natural selection
e. gene flow Principles of Biology IIB 5
4. Heterozygote advantage is an example of
a. inbreeding.
b. balanced polymorphism.
c. genetic drift.
d. genetic variation.
e. directional selection.
5. Which of the following terms would you associate with genetic drift?
a. small populations
b. natural selection
c. disruptive selection
d. mutations
e. non-random mating
6. Autopolyploidy is an example of
a. hybrid breakdown.
b. hybrid inviability.
c. allopatric speciation.
d. sympatric speciation.
e. genetic drift.
7. A plant species with a chromosome number 2n=12 hybridizes with another species (2n=4) in
the same genus to produce a hybrid through allopolyploidy. The resulting new species has a
chromosome number of
a. 2n=4.
b. 2n=8.
c. 2n=12.
d. 2n=16.
e. 2n=32.
8. Based on chromosome numbers, banding patterns, and inversions, orangutans are most closely
related to
a. humans.
b. both humans and gorillas.
c. gorillas.
d. chimpanzees.
e. none of the above.
9. Figure 18.4 shows two species of Warbler. Their difference is based on
a. the biological species concept.
b. the ecological species concept.
c. the morphological species concept.
d. the phylogenetic species concept.
e. none of the above.
10. A species of flowering plant receives pollen from a different species. The pollen germinates,
but it is too short to reach the female ovules. This is an example of
a. ecological isolation.
b. temporal isolation.
c. mechanical isolation.
d. gametic isolation.
e. a postzygotic isolation mechanism.
11. Two organisms belonging to the same class would also be in the same
a. order.
b. genus.
c. species.
d. kingdom.
e. family.
12. Paraphyletic taxa
a. include groups with different ancestors.
b. all have one common ancestor and include all taxa derived from that common ancestor.
c. all have one common ancestor but do not include all taxa derived from that common ancestor.
d. are not based on parsimonious principles.
e. none of the above
13. Traditional phylogenetic systematists consider birds as a separate class from reptiles because
a. of sufficient morphological difference from their reptile ancestors.
b. birds are closely related to dinosaurs.
c. they .
D the uievival and reproduction of incividuals is pot random- II- In a.pdf
D the uievival and reproduction of incividuals is pot random. II. In an eccuysteen, ficfors auch as
food supply. climate, and predator population are keown as which of the Follawiag? A.
Fivolutionary catatystc. B. Selestion prestures, C. Darwin'y tules: D. Survival of the fictest. 12. A
bacteriologist places an antibkic ifrut in a preni dish centaining a strain of F . colf bacierin, Hlow
is this. likely to affoct the bacterial populaticen? A. The Aacteria will sense the need to develop a
resiutance to the antitiotis, which they will pass on to the resultiog genctation. 8. The initial
sirain will be able to develop a resiitance, but since it will not change the geretic code, the next
yeneration wiat be vulnerable to it and die eut. C. The aatibiotie will always kill the entife
perpulation of bacteria. D. Existing variants that are more resistance to the antibsetle will savive
and maltiply, and eventually the revalting population will becume resistant. 33. A fish biologist
colkets guppies from a stream with predators that loyy in on bright coloring and place them in a
stream that lacks prodators. Which of the following codld be predicted to occur? A. Crippies
would bocome more colorful. 1i. Ginppies would becoune less colorflal. C. Geppics would not
change is coloration. D. Cuppies would evolve to have females prefer less colorful males. 34.
Which of these cotiditions should completely prevent the occurrence af natural selection in a
popalation ower tirtic? A. All variation between individuais is doe oaly to enviroumental factors.
B. The environment is changing at a relatively show rate. C. The population sive is large. D. The
population lives in a hathitat where there are few pecdators pecsent. 35. Given a population chat
contains genctic variation, what is the correct sequence of the followinge events, under the
influence of natural seloctioa? 1. Well-adapted individuals leave more oflspring than poorly
adapted individuals. 2. A change occurs in the emvironment. 3. Gehetic frequencies within the
popelation change. 4. Poorly adapted individuals have decreased survivorship. A , 2 4 1 3 B. 4 2
1 3 C : 4 1 2 3 D. 2 4 3 1 36. Neutraf alleles are those that do not alter fitness; the average
reproductive suceess does not differ between individuats that carry one neulral allele or another.
A. TrueB. False 37. Humans are among the most genetically diverse species on the planet. A.
True B. False 38. Which ot the following best describes somatic line mutations? A. Most are
beneficinl to the organism, but not the offspring, B. Most are passed on to the offspring. C. Most
do not pass on to the offispring. D. Most occur in plants, but not in animtats. 39. A single
mutation affects multiple traits through which process? A. Epistasis, B. Gene duplication. C.
Pleiotropy, D. Recombination. nitinatien 1) Surv nul of she fitent. A. Giegeres woplat bopume
move coloefial. 11. Cuppiesi woind hecone kesi colortit. timeit C. The porulation siotis Laree. 1).
The popul.
Which of the following is a renewable resourceA. Minerals.docx
Which of the following is a renewable resource?
A.
Minerals
B.
Fossil fuels
C.
Land
D.
Wind
2.
Which of the following examples of an ecological study involves the ecosystem level of organization?
A.
The effects of competition on survival
B.
The effects of a disease on population size
C.
The effects of an invasive plant species on bird nesting sites
D.
The effects of human activities on biogeochemical cycling
3.
The nitrogen utilized by
most
plants is derived from
A.
the atmosphere.
B.
nitrogen gas.
C.
soil.
D.
decayed organic matter.
4.
Which one of the following conditions is an example of resource partitioning?
A.
A species of butterfly and a species of bee that pollinate the same flower
B.
Two species of birds that eat fruit from the same tree
C.
Two species of squirrels—one that eats acorns from the branches and one that eats acorns that have fallen to the ground
D.
Two species of mice—one that eats seeds and the other that eats insects
5.
Which one of the following phrases describes many countries within Asia and Africa?
A.
LDCs experiencing rapid population growth
B.
LDCs experiencing slow population growth
C.
MDCs experiencing rapid population growth
D.
MDCs experiencing slow population growth
6.
A source from which organisms generally take elements is called a/an
A.
reservoir.
B.
biotic community.
C.
exchange pool.
D.
food web.
7.
Which of the following was one result of the Green Revolution?
A.
An increased reliance on polyculture agriculture
B.
The protection of species diversity
C.
An increase in the yield of crops for less-developed countries
D.
The conservation of topsoil
8.
Which one of the following interspecies relationships has a negative effect on both species?
A.
Predation
B.
Parasitism
C.
Competition
D.
Commensalism
9.
Which of the following factors will have a greater impact on a population as the density of that
population increases?
A.
Natural disaster
B.
Climate
C.
Weather
D.
Predation
10.
Study the following food chain:
grass → snakes → rabbits → hawks.
From this chain, you can
correctly assume that each population
A.
is a carnivore.
B.
is always larger than the one before it.
C.
is a species of herbivore.
D.
supports the next trophic level.
11.
The life history pattern in which population growth is logistic is called
A.
biotic potential.
B.
opportunistic pattern.
C.
equilibrium pattern.
D.
population density.
12.
Modern fishing practices threaten biodiversity mainly through the
A.
accidental capture of unwanted species.
B.
chemical poisoning of the water.
C.
physical destruction of marine habitats.
D.
removal of community food supplies.
13.
In which of the following relationships do both species benefit?
End of exam
A.
Mutualism
B.
Commensalism
C.
Parasitism
D.
Competition
14.
A complex of interconnected food chains in an ecosystem is called a/an
A.
food web.
B.
ecosys.
Recommended
20- The theory of natural ueloction does not depend on whicb of the fo.pdf
20. The theory of natural ueloction does not depend on whicb of the following? A. Heriabibity B.
Marpone C. Repruductive nuccess D. Variation 21. Phylogery illistrates A. Comiman ancestry,
B. Genctie drift. C. Natural selection. D. Panticulate inheritance. 22. Which of the sollowing is
an ecample of a conkergent trair? A. The shancd five-digit character state in tetrapod vertebrates.
9. The multiple hemoglobin genes in she jawed vertebrates. 6. The triangaine doesal fin in tharks
and dolphins. D. All the sbeve mould be considered ceenergent traits. 23. Thylogenetic trees may
tw used to display relationships among which of the following A. Species B. Genes c. fells D.
All the above 24. Charastens ate tefernd to as being homologous if A. They evelved
independently in fwo tasa tecause of a common cavironment. B. Thoy bere acquired threugh
horizontal gene transfer. C. They are similar because they were inherited froma a shared ancestor
D. They evolved as the result of a geae duplication event. 25. Acsording to the theory of natural
selection, A. adaptations bencficial in otie habitat sheuld generally be beneficial in all other
habitats. B. different individuals occupying the sume habitat will adapt to that habitat through the
same genetic changes. C. adaptations beneficial at one time should generally be beneficial during
all other times. D. Heli-adapted individuals leave more offspring, and thus contribute more to the
next generation's gene pool. than do poorly adapted individaals. 26. The studies of changes
between black and light color in populations of the peppered moth show that A. aatural selection
cas quiekly ehange allele frequencies and common phenotypes in a population B. species ean
always adapt to environmental changes C. predators always prefer light colored moths D. natural
selection produces irreversible changes 27. How does artificial selection produce rapid changes
in the phenotype of organisms? A. by changing the frequency of alleles and selecting for new
combinations of traits. B. by stimulating the species to increase the production of new mutations.
C. by changing the number of chromosomes. D. by selecting only dominant genotypes. 28.
Selection at the level of is likely to be the most important because the numbers and tumover ra of
these entities are greater than those of the other levels. A. gencs B. populations C. species D.
subspecies 29. Of the main mechanisms of evolutionary change. Which mechanism is the only
one below that relies on or adaptive evolutionary change? A. Mutation. B. Gene flow. C. Genetic
drift. D. Natural selection. 30. Darwin's Theory of evolution by natural selection is based on all
of the following postulates except: A. some individuals are more successful in surviving and
reproduction than others. B. at least in part, variations among individuals are passed on from
parents to offspring. C . the survival and reproduction of individuals is always random..
21- Phylogeny illustrates D- Variation A- Common ancestry- B- Genctic.pdf
21. Phylogeny illustrates D. Variation A. Common ancestry. B. Genctic drift. 22. Which of the
following is an example of a convergent train? A. The shared five-digit character state in
tetrapod vertebrates. B. The multiple hemoglobin genes in the jawed vertebrates. C. The
triangular dorsal fin in sharks and dolphins. D. All the above would be considered convergent
traits. 23. Phylogenetic trees may be used to display relationships among which of the following.
A. Species B. Genes C. Cells D. All the above 24. Characters are referred to as being
homologous if A. They evolved independently in two taxa because of a common environment.
B. They were acquired through horizontal gene transfer. C. They are similar because they were
inherited from a shared ancestor D. They evolved as the result of a gene duplication event. 25.
According to the theory of natural selection, A. adaptations beneficial in one habitat should
generally be beneficial in all other habitats. B. different individuals occupying the same habitat
will adapt to that habitat through the same genetic changes. C. adaptations beneficial at one time
should generally be beneficial during all other times. D. well-adapted individuals leave more
offspring, and thus contribute more to the next generation's gene pool. than do poorly adapted
individuals. 26. The studies of changes between black and light color in populations of the
peppered moth show that A. natural selection can quickly change allele frequencies and common
phenotypes in a population B. species can always adapt to environmental changes C. predators
always prefer light colored moths D. natural selection produces irreversible changes.
multiple choice choose right answer1. After you study a populatio.pdf
multiple choice: choose right answer
1. After you study a population of a butterfly species over several generations, you observe that
its average wing size is steadily increasing and is significantly larger in the more recent
generations. This is most likely an example of
a. genetic drift.
b. non-random mating.
c. disruptive selection.
d. directional selection.
e. genetic variation.
2. A volcano has wiped out a significant part of a spider population on a small island. This would
be considered an example of
a. natural selection.
b. disruptive selection.
c. the bottleneck effect.
d. balanced polymorphism.
e. relative fitness.
3. All but one of the following is required for a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Which one doesn’t
meet the requirements?
a. random mating
b. no mutations
c. large populations
d. no natural selection
e. gene flow Principles of Biology IIB 5
4. Heterozygote advantage is an example of
a. inbreeding.
b. balanced polymorphism.
c. genetic drift.
d. genetic variation.
e. directional selection.
5. Which of the following terms would you associate with genetic drift?
a. small populations
b. natural selection
c. disruptive selection
d. mutations
e. non-random mating
6. Autopolyploidy is an example of
a. hybrid breakdown.
b. hybrid inviability.
c. allopatric speciation.
d. sympatric speciation.
e. genetic drift.
7. A plant species with a chromosome number 2n=12 hybridizes with another species (2n=4) in
the same genus to produce a hybrid through allopolyploidy. The resulting new species has a
chromosome number of
a. 2n=4.
b. 2n=8.
c. 2n=12.
d. 2n=16.
e. 2n=32.
8. Based on chromosome numbers, banding patterns, and inversions, orangutans are most closely
related to
a. humans.
b. both humans and gorillas.
c. gorillas.
d. chimpanzees.
e. none of the above.
9. Figure 18.4 shows two species of Warbler. Their difference is based on
a. the biological species concept.
b. the ecological species concept.
c. the morphological species concept.
d. the phylogenetic species concept.
e. none of the above.
10. A species of flowering plant receives pollen from a different species. The pollen germinates,
but it is too short to reach the female ovules. This is an example of
a. ecological isolation.
b. temporal isolation.
c. mechanical isolation.
d. gametic isolation.
e. a postzygotic isolation mechanism.
11. Two organisms belonging to the same class would also be in the same
a. order.
b. genus.
c. species.
d. kingdom.
e. family.
12. Paraphyletic taxa
a. include groups with different ancestors.
b. all have one common ancestor and include all taxa derived from that common ancestor.
c. all have one common ancestor but do not include all taxa derived from that common ancestor.
d. are not based on parsimonious principles.
e. none of the above
13. Traditional phylogenetic systematists consider birds as a separate class from reptiles because
a. of sufficient morphological difference from their reptile ancestors.
b. birds are closely related to dinosaurs.
c. they .
D the uievival and reproduction of incividuals is pot random- II- In a.pdf
D the uievival and reproduction of incividuals is pot random. II. In an eccuysteen, ficfors auch as
food supply. climate, and predator population are keown as which of the Follawiag? A.
Fivolutionary catatystc. B. Selestion prestures, C. Darwin'y tules: D. Survival of the fictest. 12. A
bacteriologist places an antibkic ifrut in a preni dish centaining a strain of F . colf bacierin, Hlow
is this. likely to affoct the bacterial populaticen? A. The Aacteria will sense the need to develop a
resiutance to the antitiotis, which they will pass on to the resultiog genctation. 8. The initial
sirain will be able to develop a resiitance, but since it will not change the geretic code, the next
yeneration wiat be vulnerable to it and die eut. C. The aatibiotie will always kill the entife
perpulation of bacteria. D. Existing variants that are more resistance to the antibsetle will savive
and maltiply, and eventually the revalting population will becume resistant. 33. A fish biologist
colkets guppies from a stream with predators that loyy in on bright coloring and place them in a
stream that lacks prodators. Which of the following codld be predicted to occur? A. Crippies
would bocome more colorful. 1i. Ginppies would becoune less colorflal. C. Geppics would not
change is coloration. D. Cuppies would evolve to have females prefer less colorful males. 34.
Which of these cotiditions should completely prevent the occurrence af natural selection in a
popalation ower tirtic? A. All variation between individuais is doe oaly to enviroumental factors.
B. The environment is changing at a relatively show rate. C. The population sive is large. D. The
population lives in a hathitat where there are few pecdators pecsent. 35. Given a population chat
contains genctic variation, what is the correct sequence of the followinge events, under the
influence of natural seloctioa? 1. Well-adapted individuals leave more oflspring than poorly
adapted individuals. 2. A change occurs in the emvironment. 3. Gehetic frequencies within the
popelation change. 4. Poorly adapted individuals have decreased survivorship. A , 2 4 1 3 B. 4 2
1 3 C : 4 1 2 3 D. 2 4 3 1 36. Neutraf alleles are those that do not alter fitness; the average
reproductive suceess does not differ between individuats that carry one neulral allele or another.
A. TrueB. False 37. Humans are among the most genetically diverse species on the planet. A.
True B. False 38. Which ot the following best describes somatic line mutations? A. Most are
beneficinl to the organism, but not the offspring, B. Most are passed on to the offspring. C. Most
do not pass on to the offispring. D. Most occur in plants, but not in animtats. 39. A single
mutation affects multiple traits through which process? A. Epistasis, B. Gene duplication. C.
Pleiotropy, D. Recombination. nitinatien 1) Surv nul of she fitent. A. Giegeres woplat bopume
move coloefial. 11. Cuppiesi woind hecone kesi colortit. timeit C. The porulation siotis Laree. 1).
The popul.
Which of the following is a renewable resourceA. Minerals.docx
Which of the following is a renewable resource?
A.
Minerals
B.
Fossil fuels
C.
Land
D.
Wind
2.
Which of the following examples of an ecological study involves the ecosystem level of organization?
A.
The effects of competition on survival
B.
The effects of a disease on population size
C.
The effects of an invasive plant species on bird nesting sites
D.
The effects of human activities on biogeochemical cycling
3.
The nitrogen utilized by
most
plants is derived from
A.
the atmosphere.
B.
nitrogen gas.
C.
soil.
D.
decayed organic matter.
4.
Which one of the following conditions is an example of resource partitioning?
A.
A species of butterfly and a species of bee that pollinate the same flower
B.
Two species of birds that eat fruit from the same tree
C.
Two species of squirrels—one that eats acorns from the branches and one that eats acorns that have fallen to the ground
D.
Two species of mice—one that eats seeds and the other that eats insects
5.
Which one of the following phrases describes many countries within Asia and Africa?
A.
LDCs experiencing rapid population growth
B.
LDCs experiencing slow population growth
C.
MDCs experiencing rapid population growth
D.
MDCs experiencing slow population growth
6.
A source from which organisms generally take elements is called a/an
A.
reservoir.
B.
biotic community.
C.
exchange pool.
D.
food web.
7.
Which of the following was one result of the Green Revolution?
A.
An increased reliance on polyculture agriculture
B.
The protection of species diversity
C.
An increase in the yield of crops for less-developed countries
D.
The conservation of topsoil
8.
Which one of the following interspecies relationships has a negative effect on both species?
A.
Predation
B.
Parasitism
C.
Competition
D.
Commensalism
9.
Which of the following factors will have a greater impact on a population as the density of that
population increases?
A.
Natural disaster
B.
Climate
C.
Weather
D.
Predation
10.
Study the following food chain:
grass → snakes → rabbits → hawks.
From this chain, you can
correctly assume that each population
A.
is a carnivore.
B.
is always larger than the one before it.
C.
is a species of herbivore.
D.
supports the next trophic level.
11.
The life history pattern in which population growth is logistic is called
A.
biotic potential.
B.
opportunistic pattern.
C.
equilibrium pattern.
D.
population density.
12.
Modern fishing practices threaten biodiversity mainly through the
A.
accidental capture of unwanted species.
B.
chemical poisoning of the water.
C.
physical destruction of marine habitats.
D.
removal of community food supplies.
13.
In which of the following relationships do both species benefit?
End of exam
A.
Mutualism
B.
Commensalism
C.
Parasitism
D.
Competition
14.
A complex of interconnected food chains in an ecosystem is called a/an
A.
food web.
B.
ecosys.
EXAM 1 STUDY GUIDE CONSIDER LECTURES UP TO 26 FEB and TEXT B
EXAM 1 STUDY GUIDE
CONSIDER LECTURES UP TO 26 FEB and TEXT BOOK CHAPTERS UP THOURGH MODULE 4.1 (Through HUMAN POPULATIONS)
1.
Give a basic definition of biodiversity.
2.
Which of the following accurately reflects the connection between science, decision-making, and environmental science? a. Science and environmental science rely on evidence; good decision-making only sometimes relies on evidence.
b. Science and good decision-making rely on evidence; environmental science does not always rely on evidence.
c. Science relies on good decision-making and environmental science relies on evidence.
d. Science and good decision-making relies on evidence; environmental science relies on good decision-making.
e. Science and good decision-making rely on evidence; environmental science relies on evidence.
3.
Compare the life history strategy of a deer mouse with that of a bear, and identify each as either an r- or K-selected species.
4.
Why are tertiary information sources considered less reliable than primary and secondary sources? What is a primary source?
5.
What is an environmental footprint? How is this used to measure sustainability?
6.
Scientists have studied the impact of clear cutting forests on erosion and waterways. They know that clear cutting will cause erosion and waterways will suffer the impact of sediment loading. Evaluate the situation and choose the statement that best explains how humans may perceive the risks involved.
a. Since the chance of disaster is low humans will not have biases about this situation.
b. Although the seriousness of the impact is well known people’s judgment may still vary dramatically.
c. All people understand this situation and will work together on a solution. d. Both a and c
e. None of the above
7.
Why are some people more vulnerable to toxic substances than other people, even if exposed to the same dose?
8.
Explain how a composting toilet works. Use a diagram to explain the cycling of water and organic matter.
9.
Distinguish between chronic and acute effects cuased by exposure to toxic substances.
10.
List THREE abiotic parameters and THREE biotic parameters: ABIOTIC
1
2
3
BIOTIC
1
2
3
11.
Which of the following best describes ecosystem capital? a. mineral and living resources of the earth.
b. living organisms and other renewable resources of the earth.
c. natural resources such as forests and fisheries.
d. natural resources (goods) and services provided by ecosystems
e. ecosystem services that support life on earth
12.
Refer to the figure below to determine which country has the lowest population size but the highest density?
a. Asia
b. South Africa
c. Eastern Europe
d. Western Europe
e. Oceania
13.
List three of the things you might measure to determine your ecolo ...
BIO101 Midterm - Sacramento Valley Campus- June 2014TEST MName.docx
BIO101 Midterm - Sacramento Valley Campus- June 2014
TEST M
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Homologous chromosomes ______.
A) include only the autosomes
B) separate during interphase
C) include only the sex chromosomes
D) are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parent
E) carry the same genes
1)
2) Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example,
the sperm are changing ______.
A) kinetic energy into chemical energy
B) chemical energy into potential energy
C) kinetic energy into potential energy
D) chemical energy into kinetic energy
E) none of the above
2)
3) Examine the genetic code table, shown below. The codon AGC codes for the amino acid ______. 3)
1
A) serine
B) alanine
C) glycine
D) threonine
E) arginine
4) Hypophosphatemia (vitamin D-resistant rickets) is inherited as an sex-linked dominant trait.
The relevant gene is found on the X chromosome. What is the expected outcome of a cross
between a homozygous recessive woman and a man with hypophosphatemia?
A) Seventy-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
B) Twenty-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
C) Fifty percent of their daughters and fifty percent of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
D) All of their daughters and none of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
E) All of their sons and none of their daughters exhibit hypophosphatemia.
4)
Please read the following paragraph and answer the following question(s).
Amanda's parents realized that her body was not developing properly about the time she was 12 years old. She was
shorter than most of her friends and was not going through changes normally associated with female puberty. They took
her to a doctor who initially diagnosed Amanda with Turner Syndrome because of her physical features. He ordered a
karyotype that confirmed his diagnosis. Amanda was born with only one X chromosome. Although there is no specific
cure, the doctor was able to treat her and correct some of the problems associated with the condition. For example, she
received growth hormone to improve her growth and estrogen to help her develop the physical changes of puberty.
5) Amanda's abnormal number of sex chromosomes resulted from ______.
A) random fertilization
B) independent assortment of chromosomes
C) cytokinesis
D) nondisjunction
E) crossing over
5)
6) Speciation requires ______.
A) long periods of time
B) geographic isolation
C) periods of rapid evolutionary change
D) a mass extinction so that new environmental opportunities will be available to the
survivors
E) genetic isolation
6)
7) The ability to tolerate lactose throughout life is most likely to be seen in ______.
A) Native Americans
B) East Asian populations
C) populations that live in cold climates
D) cultures that keep dairy herds
E) populations that live in wet climates
7)
2
8) Which of the foll ...
BIOL 101 EXAM The following general directions apply to thi.docx
BIOL 101 EXAM
The following general directions apply to this exam: This exam is worth a total of 125 points. Multiple choice questions #1-50 are worth 1 point each. Multiple choice questions #51-57 are worth 2 points each. Choose 6 of 7 essay questions #58-64, which are worth 10 points each. Please provide answers on the answer sheets provided at the end of the exam. I recommend that you print out the exam, answer the questions, then copy the answers onto the answer sheets. Please submit only the answer sheets into your assignment folder
GOOD LUCK! Thanks for taking the course,
********************************************************************** MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS – 1 POINT EACH – 50 POINTS TOTAL: On the answer sheet, indicate the letter that represents the best answer to each of the multiple choice questions below.
1. In science, a hypothesis must be A) a known fact B) testable C) derived from a theory
D) able to be proven absolutely true
2. Which of the following includes all the others?
A) atom B) cell C) organism D) ecosystem
3. A carbon atom of mass number 12 and a carbon atom of mass number 14 are
A) covalent B) compounds C) ions D) isotopes
4. A chlorine atom has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 17 electrons. The atomic number of
chlorine isA) 8 B) 17 C) 35 D) 52
5. If you place the probe of a pH meter in lye or sodium hydroxide (NaOH), it will read
pH 14. Sodium hydroxide is A) an acid B) neutralC) a base
6. This polysaccharide forms fibers that are a major component of plant cell walls:
A) glucose B) starch C) cellulose D) glycogen
7. Glycerol is a building block of A) starch B) enzymes C) vegetable oil D) DNA
8. Which of these types of molecules contain nitrogen?
A) polysaccharides B) proteins C) steroids
9. Prokaryotic cells, with no nucleus or membranous organelles, are found in
A) animals B) bacteria C) fungi D) plants
10. The main function of a ribosome is to A) extract energy from glucose
B) synthesize glucose C) store food in the form of fat
D) synthesize proteins
11. Mitochondria A) package proteins for secretion from cell B) contain chromosomes
C) are sites of oxidation of glucose to generate ATP D) synthesize proteins
12. The plasma membrane consists of A) a single layer of phospholipid molecules
B) a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which proteins are embedded
C) several layers of protein and carbohydrate molecules
D) a triple layer of phospholipids and carbohydrates
13. The movement of molecules from a region of low concentration across a membrane
to a region of high concentration by use of ATP energy is A) active transport
B)diffusion C) passive transport D) osmosis
14. The oxygen in our atmosphere is produced by A) greenhouse effect
B) cellular respiration C) photosynthesis D) volcanic ...
21- What are arbuscles- a- sexual structures of basidiomycetes b- sexu.pdf
21. What are arbuscles? a. sexual structures of basidiomycetes b. sexual structures of
ascomycetes c. symbiotic structures found in many lichens d. parasitic structures e. none of the
above 22. In which group would you expect budding cells? a. Ascomycota b. Basidiomycota c.
Zygomycota d. Glomeromucata e. all of the above 23. What is one of the main differences
between mosses and ferns? a. In mosses, the gametophyte dominates. b. In mosses, the
sporophyte dominates. c. In ferns, the two generations remain fused together. d. Ferns have a
protonema stage. e. Moss sperms from the male gametophyte have to swim to the female
gametophyte. 24. What do conifers have? a. pollen, but no seeds b. embryos but no microspores
c. seeds but no fruits d. cones but no ovules e. none of the above 25. Which of the following is
not correct for mosses? a. They have an alternation of generations. b. They are vascular plants. c.
The gametophyte is the dominant generation. d. The gametophyte develops from a protonema. e.
Female gametophytes produce archegonia. 26. Anthers are found in which of the following
groups? a. monocots b. mosses c. ferns d. Svcadaphyta e. all of the above 27. Which of the
following groups have vascular tissue? a. monocots b. horsetails c. ferns d. Gveadaphyta e. all of
the above 28. Which of the following would you expect to find in an octopus? a. The mouth
forms after the blastopore develops into the anus. b. radial cleavage c. There is no mesoderm d.
determinate cleavage e. an incomplete digestive system 29. In which group would you expect to
find a medusa stage? a. Polychaeta b. Cnidaria c. centipedes d. Gastropoda e. tapeworms 30.
Which characters are shared by echinoderms and corals? a. no excretory system b. radial
symmetry c. no respiratory system d. no head e. all of the above 31. Most animals are a. both
triploblastic and with bilateral symmetry. b. both triploblastic and with radial symmetry. c. both
diploblastic and with radial symmetry. d. both diploblastic and with bilateral symmetry. e. none
of the above 32. Protostomes have both a. radial and spiral cleavage. b. determinate and spiral
cleavage. c. determinate and radial cleavage. d. indeterminate and spiral cleavage. e. triploblastic
and radial cleavage. 33. Which of the following would you not find in insects? a. Malpighian
tubules b. two pairs of antennae c. compound eyes d. a tracheal system e. an open circulatory
system 34. Spiders differ from insects by having a. segmentation b. an open circulatory system c.
an abdomen d. an exoskeleton e. book lungs 35. What is the gas exchange system in insects
called? a. Malpighian tubules b. book lungs c. external gills d. tracheal system e. complete
metamorphosis 36. Insects have the same number of antennae as a. spiders b. millipedes c.
centipedes d. crustaceans e. both b and c 37. Which arthropod groups have more legs than
insects? a. spiders b. crustaceans c. centipedes d. millipedes e. all of the above 38. In order to
become fully .
22- 14 - ine tha diaoram below Testif- 23- The diagram on the previous.pdf
22. 14 . ine tha diaoram below Testif: 23. The diagram on the previous page shens a macrophage
"eating" or destroying a pathogen. Which of the following statements best describes how this
function will be carried out? A. The pathogen will be placed in a vesicle, a ribosome will bind
with that vesiele filing it with tydrolytic eneymes B. The pathogen will be placed in a veside, a
mitochondrla wal bind with that vesicle filling it with hydrophilic enrymes C. The pathogen will
be placed in a Golg body.alyosome will bind with that vesiclo filling it: with tydrolvtic enrymes
D. The pathopen will be placed in a vesicle, a ysosome will bind with that vesicle filing it with
trdtolytic entymes 24. If you look at the diagram on the previous pase, the plasma call (Make
make antibadies) and the memory cells (Dormant untill secondary infection) seem nearly
ldentical. The one noticeable difference is that the plasma ceil has sippificertly more reugh
endeplasmic reticulum. This is because ild A. Memory cells will make antibodies which are
lipids B, Memory cells will make antibodies which are liplds C. Flauma cells will make
antibodies which are lpids D. Plasma cells will make antibodies which are protrins musde. If
acetyichoiline was replaced with a dfferent neurotransmitts l be secotonin, what would the ikeby
result be and why? A. The mesage witl not pass across the sycupse because the serotonit will not
tr oxor the thilorine channels of the pert anaptic neuron B. The message will not pass across the
gropse because the seretorin wil not ur cart the ligand eated chennely C. The message wit pass
across the spapse because the serotonin will triggor the chlorine channels of the pogs mopatec
neursta 0. The masiag will pait acrous the mragse becavie the sertotorin will triager the igand
gated channels 26. A change in the structure of a Bene matters in terms of evolution because... A.
Genes code for lipls and lipids generally determine phenotype B. Genes code for carbohydrates
and carbohydrates generaly determine phenotype C. Genes code for proteins and proteins
generally determine abenotype D. Genes code for peoteins and proteins generally determine
genotype 27. In order for a mutation to be acted upon by natural selection, it must... A. Increase
or Decrease the sarvival of an organism B. Increase of decrease the reproductive success of an
organism C. Both A and be will cause a mutation to be acted upon by natural selection D. There
is no criteria, natural selection works on all mutations. 28. Many organisms have evoived
eatreme structures that seem detrinental to survival. For example, the male peacock is beiche
blue, and it grows a cumbersome tal. Both of these iosure hisher predation rates. Which of the
following natural processes nould explain the functional benefits af these structures outneich the
obvious dowatalls: A. Predyeotic isolotion (eer and sperm never mees) 3. Sevcal selection
(Females prefer muler with a certain chardecteristic more than bethers).
1. To understand how Mendelian genetics helps to explain evolution, .pdf
1. To understand how Mendelian genetics helps to explain evolution, we need to look closely at
what happens to genes in populations that are undergoing natural selection. This is the domain of
a. primatology.
b. evolutionary ecology.
c. human variation.
d. population genetics.
2. Natural selection cannot make an elephant run as fast as a cheetah and fly like a bird. This is
an example of
a. a correlated response to selection.
b. disequilibrium.
c. physical constraints on natural selection.
d. fixation.
3.Mutation can maintain variation because
a. every mutation results in adaptation.
b. directional selection is constantly working.
c. a considerable amount of variation is protected from selection.
d. the rates of mutation are very high.
4.Which of the following decreases genetic variation?
a. Mutation
b. Selection
c. Recombination
d. Gene flow
5.When genes at many loci affect a character,
a. the trait is more likely to occur in a smooth distribution.
b. natural selection cannot act on the character.
c. the environment is less likely to affect the character.
d. both a and c are correct.
6.Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Hidden variation is not always present in continuously evolving traits.
b. Selection causes genotypic frequencies to reach equilibrium in one generation, and the
distribution of phenotypes does not change.
c. Selection can lead to cumulative, long-term change.
d. Genetic variation is always expressed as phenotypic variation.
7.The character of “behavioral flexibility” evolved in the soapberry bug because it
a. affected reproductive success.
b. occurs only in stable environments.
c. was not passed down from father to son.
d. made behaviorally flexible males stronger.
8.Which of the following is correct?
a. Selection can produce change when no variation is present in a population.
b. Selection cannot change the frequency of different phenotypes.
c. The strength and direction of selection depend on the environment.
d. The strength of selection is determined by dominant alleles.
9.Behaviors are more likely to be canalized if
a. there is no genetic control of the behavior.
b. the behavior is seen in a variety of environments.
c. the behavior is seen in environments that are the same.
d. phenotypes vary.
10.Humans have a nearly insatiable appetite for sugar, fat, and salt because
a. we are in perfect equilibrium with regard to such appetites.
b. these appetites are always adaptive.
c. such appetites were adaptive in ancient environments.
d. these appetites are adaptive in our modern environment.
Solution
1ANS:) d.population genetics.
2ANS:) c.physical constraints on natural selection.
3ANS:) d. the rates of mutation ae very high
4ANS:) b.selection
5ANS:) a. the trait is more likely to occur in a smooth distribution.
6ANS:) d. genetic variation is always expressed as phenotypic variation.
7ANS:)
8ANS:) c. the strenght and direction of selection depend o the environment.
10ANS:) a. we are in perfect equilibrium with reg.
MULTIPLE CHOICE CHOOSE RIGHT ANSWER. I GOT MOSTLY WRONG ANSWERS PL.pdf
MULTIPLE CHOICE : CHOOSE RIGHT ANSWER. I GOT MOSTLY WRONG ANSWERS
PLEASE HELP ME
15. Which of the following is an advantage of using molecular characters over others when
studying phylogenetic relationships?
a. There are four character states of DNA.
b. DNA base substitutions may evolve independently in different species.
c. Some DNA sequences are strongly conserved by natural selection.
d. Even if there are few morphological differences, molecular characters can still be used.
e. Different molecules have the same rate of evolutionary change.
16. Uniformitarianism means that
a. geological processes are very slow and gradual.
b. biological processes are uniform.
c. geological processes that took place in the past continue to occur in the present, and at the
same rate.
d. evolution proceeds at a uniform speed.
e. natural selection is uniform across different groups.
17. You removed a Pax-6 gene from a mosquito larva and replaced it with a spider Pax-6 gene.
Most likely the mosquito larva will
a. not develop any eyes.
b. develop spider eyes.
c. develop eyes with some intermediate characters between those of spiders and those of
mosquitoes.
d. develop typical mosquito eyes.
e. develop eyes in unusual body parts.
18. Members of the cactus family resemble some Euphorbiaceae in many regards, both
morphologically and physiologically. The reason for this similarity is
a. that the two families are closely related.
b. that they possess identical Hox genes.
c. that they both live in a very similar environment.
d. that they both grow in Australia.
e. a coevolution of these two families.
19. The first person to suggest a comprehensive theory of evolution was
a. Darwin.
b. Wallace.
c. Lyell.
d. Lamarck.
e. Linnaeus.
20. Relatively old fossils will have
a. a high amount of 12C.
b. a low amount of 12C.
c. a low amount of both 12C and 14C.
d. a high amount of 14C compared to living organisms.
e. a low amount of 14C compared to living organisms.
21. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which bacteria cope with antibiotics?
a. The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria may prevent antibiotics from entering the cell.
b. Antibiotics are stored away in a vacuole.
c. A bacterial enzyme may break down the antibiotic.
d. A pump mechanism moves antibiotics out of the cell.
e. Bacteria produce molecules that bind to the antibiotic.
22. Which of the following terms would you associate with quorum sensing?
a. phototrophs
b. endotoxins
c. antibiotic resistance
d. nitrogen fixation
e. biofilms
23. Nitrification is the process by which
a. elementary nitrogen is converted to nitrates.
b. nitrates are converted to ammonium.
c. nitrites are converted to ammonium.
d. nitrites are converted to nitrates.
e. nitrates are converted to elementary nitrogen.
24. Bacteria that are poisoned by oxygen are called
a. aerobes.
b. facultative anaerobes.
c. obligate anaerobes.
d. chemotrophs.
e. none of the above.
25. Which of the following groups have no peptidoglycan in their cell .
256 207 175-160 152 He 146 14ic 146 What is the confiannce iniecvat es.pdf
256 207 175.160 152 He 146 14ic 146 What is the confiannce iniecvat esteruati of the populaton
mean p? (Rothe to one docimal place as noeded).
25- Tsunami Devastation - Sumatra- Check and double-click the Regional.pdf
25. Tsunami Devastation - Sumatra. Check and double-click the Regional Plate Tectonics map
overlay and the Epicenter placemark to fly to the Sumatra region that was devastated by a
tsunami in late 2004. Turn on the Earthquakes layer in the Places panel. Which tectonic plate
was subducted beneath which overriding tectonic plate at this locality to produce this massive
earthquake? Notes: subduction zones are delineated on geologic maps by a line with
triangles/teeth pointing toward the subduction zone. Recall from Chapter 2 of your textbook that
volcanoes form on the overriding plate.
a. Indian Plate is being subducted beneath the Burma Plate
b. Burma Plate is being subducted beneath the Indian Plate
c. Sunda Plate is being subducted beneath the Burma Plate
d. Burma Plate is being subducted beneath the Sunda Plate.
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EXAM 1 STUDY GUIDE CONSIDER LECTURES UP TO 26 FEB and TEXT B
EXAM 1 STUDY GUIDE
CONSIDER LECTURES UP TO 26 FEB and TEXT BOOK CHAPTERS UP THOURGH MODULE 4.1 (Through HUMAN POPULATIONS)
1.
Give a basic definition of biodiversity.
2.
Which of the following accurately reflects the connection between science, decision-making, and environmental science? a. Science and environmental science rely on evidence; good decision-making only sometimes relies on evidence.
b. Science and good decision-making rely on evidence; environmental science does not always rely on evidence.
c. Science relies on good decision-making and environmental science relies on evidence.
d. Science and good decision-making relies on evidence; environmental science relies on good decision-making.
e. Science and good decision-making rely on evidence; environmental science relies on evidence.
3.
Compare the life history strategy of a deer mouse with that of a bear, and identify each as either an r- or K-selected species.
4.
Why are tertiary information sources considered less reliable than primary and secondary sources? What is a primary source?
5.
What is an environmental footprint? How is this used to measure sustainability?
6.
Scientists have studied the impact of clear cutting forests on erosion and waterways. They know that clear cutting will cause erosion and waterways will suffer the impact of sediment loading. Evaluate the situation and choose the statement that best explains how humans may perceive the risks involved.
a. Since the chance of disaster is low humans will not have biases about this situation.
b. Although the seriousness of the impact is well known people’s judgment may still vary dramatically.
c. All people understand this situation and will work together on a solution. d. Both a and c
e. None of the above
7.
Why are some people more vulnerable to toxic substances than other people, even if exposed to the same dose?
8.
Explain how a composting toilet works. Use a diagram to explain the cycling of water and organic matter.
9.
Distinguish between chronic and acute effects cuased by exposure to toxic substances.
10.
List THREE abiotic parameters and THREE biotic parameters: ABIOTIC
1
2
3
BIOTIC
1
2
3
11.
Which of the following best describes ecosystem capital? a. mineral and living resources of the earth.
b. living organisms and other renewable resources of the earth.
c. natural resources such as forests and fisheries.
d. natural resources (goods) and services provided by ecosystems
e. ecosystem services that support life on earth
12.
Refer to the figure below to determine which country has the lowest population size but the highest density?
a. Asia
b. South Africa
c. Eastern Europe
d. Western Europe
e. Oceania
13.
List three of the things you might measure to determine your ecolo ...
BIO101 Midterm - Sacramento Valley Campus- June 2014TEST MName.docx
BIO101 Midterm - Sacramento Valley Campus- June 2014
TEST M
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Homologous chromosomes ______.
A) include only the autosomes
B) separate during interphase
C) include only the sex chromosomes
D) are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parent
E) carry the same genes
1)
2) Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example,
the sperm are changing ______.
A) kinetic energy into chemical energy
B) chemical energy into potential energy
C) kinetic energy into potential energy
D) chemical energy into kinetic energy
E) none of the above
2)
3) Examine the genetic code table, shown below. The codon AGC codes for the amino acid ______. 3)
1
A) serine
B) alanine
C) glycine
D) threonine
E) arginine
4) Hypophosphatemia (vitamin D-resistant rickets) is inherited as an sex-linked dominant trait.
The relevant gene is found on the X chromosome. What is the expected outcome of a cross
between a homozygous recessive woman and a man with hypophosphatemia?
A) Seventy-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
B) Twenty-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
C) Fifty percent of their daughters and fifty percent of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
D) All of their daughters and none of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
E) All of their sons and none of their daughters exhibit hypophosphatemia.
4)
Please read the following paragraph and answer the following question(s).
Amanda's parents realized that her body was not developing properly about the time she was 12 years old. She was
shorter than most of her friends and was not going through changes normally associated with female puberty. They took
her to a doctor who initially diagnosed Amanda with Turner Syndrome because of her physical features. He ordered a
karyotype that confirmed his diagnosis. Amanda was born with only one X chromosome. Although there is no specific
cure, the doctor was able to treat her and correct some of the problems associated with the condition. For example, she
received growth hormone to improve her growth and estrogen to help her develop the physical changes of puberty.
5) Amanda's abnormal number of sex chromosomes resulted from ______.
A) random fertilization
B) independent assortment of chromosomes
C) cytokinesis
D) nondisjunction
E) crossing over
5)
6) Speciation requires ______.
A) long periods of time
B) geographic isolation
C) periods of rapid evolutionary change
D) a mass extinction so that new environmental opportunities will be available to the
survivors
E) genetic isolation
6)
7) The ability to tolerate lactose throughout life is most likely to be seen in ______.
A) Native Americans
B) East Asian populations
C) populations that live in cold climates
D) cultures that keep dairy herds
E) populations that live in wet climates
7)
2
8) Which of the foll ...
BIOL 101 EXAM The following general directions apply to thi.docx
BIOL 101 EXAM
The following general directions apply to this exam: This exam is worth a total of 125 points. Multiple choice questions #1-50 are worth 1 point each. Multiple choice questions #51-57 are worth 2 points each. Choose 6 of 7 essay questions #58-64, which are worth 10 points each. Please provide answers on the answer sheets provided at the end of the exam. I recommend that you print out the exam, answer the questions, then copy the answers onto the answer sheets. Please submit only the answer sheets into your assignment folder
GOOD LUCK! Thanks for taking the course,
********************************************************************** MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS – 1 POINT EACH – 50 POINTS TOTAL: On the answer sheet, indicate the letter that represents the best answer to each of the multiple choice questions below.
1. In science, a hypothesis must be A) a known fact B) testable C) derived from a theory
D) able to be proven absolutely true
2. Which of the following includes all the others?
A) atom B) cell C) organism D) ecosystem
3. A carbon atom of mass number 12 and a carbon atom of mass number 14 are
A) covalent B) compounds C) ions D) isotopes
4. A chlorine atom has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 17 electrons. The atomic number of
chlorine isA) 8 B) 17 C) 35 D) 52
5. If you place the probe of a pH meter in lye or sodium hydroxide (NaOH), it will read
pH 14. Sodium hydroxide is A) an acid B) neutralC) a base
6. This polysaccharide forms fibers that are a major component of plant cell walls:
A) glucose B) starch C) cellulose D) glycogen
7. Glycerol is a building block of A) starch B) enzymes C) vegetable oil D) DNA
8. Which of these types of molecules contain nitrogen?
A) polysaccharides B) proteins C) steroids
9. Prokaryotic cells, with no nucleus or membranous organelles, are found in
A) animals B) bacteria C) fungi D) plants
10. The main function of a ribosome is to A) extract energy from glucose
B) synthesize glucose C) store food in the form of fat
D) synthesize proteins
11. Mitochondria A) package proteins for secretion from cell B) contain chromosomes
C) are sites of oxidation of glucose to generate ATP D) synthesize proteins
12. The plasma membrane consists of A) a single layer of phospholipid molecules
B) a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which proteins are embedded
C) several layers of protein and carbohydrate molecules
D) a triple layer of phospholipids and carbohydrates
13. The movement of molecules from a region of low concentration across a membrane
to a region of high concentration by use of ATP energy is A) active transport
B)diffusion C) passive transport D) osmosis
14. The oxygen in our atmosphere is produced by A) greenhouse effect
B) cellular respiration C) photosynthesis D) volcanic ...
21- What are arbuscles- a- sexual structures of basidiomycetes b- sexu.pdf
21. What are arbuscles? a. sexual structures of basidiomycetes b. sexual structures of
ascomycetes c. symbiotic structures found in many lichens d. parasitic structures e. none of the
above 22. In which group would you expect budding cells? a. Ascomycota b. Basidiomycota c.
Zygomycota d. Glomeromucata e. all of the above 23. What is one of the main differences
between mosses and ferns? a. In mosses, the gametophyte dominates. b. In mosses, the
sporophyte dominates. c. In ferns, the two generations remain fused together. d. Ferns have a
protonema stage. e. Moss sperms from the male gametophyte have to swim to the female
gametophyte. 24. What do conifers have? a. pollen, but no seeds b. embryos but no microspores
c. seeds but no fruits d. cones but no ovules e. none of the above 25. Which of the following is
not correct for mosses? a. They have an alternation of generations. b. They are vascular plants. c.
The gametophyte is the dominant generation. d. The gametophyte develops from a protonema. e.
Female gametophytes produce archegonia. 26. Anthers are found in which of the following
groups? a. monocots b. mosses c. ferns d. Svcadaphyta e. all of the above 27. Which of the
following groups have vascular tissue? a. monocots b. horsetails c. ferns d. Gveadaphyta e. all of
the above 28. Which of the following would you expect to find in an octopus? a. The mouth
forms after the blastopore develops into the anus. b. radial cleavage c. There is no mesoderm d.
determinate cleavage e. an incomplete digestive system 29. In which group would you expect to
find a medusa stage? a. Polychaeta b. Cnidaria c. centipedes d. Gastropoda e. tapeworms 30.
Which characters are shared by echinoderms and corals? a. no excretory system b. radial
symmetry c. no respiratory system d. no head e. all of the above 31. Most animals are a. both
triploblastic and with bilateral symmetry. b. both triploblastic and with radial symmetry. c. both
diploblastic and with radial symmetry. d. both diploblastic and with bilateral symmetry. e. none
of the above 32. Protostomes have both a. radial and spiral cleavage. b. determinate and spiral
cleavage. c. determinate and radial cleavage. d. indeterminate and spiral cleavage. e. triploblastic
and radial cleavage. 33. Which of the following would you not find in insects? a. Malpighian
tubules b. two pairs of antennae c. compound eyes d. a tracheal system e. an open circulatory
system 34. Spiders differ from insects by having a. segmentation b. an open circulatory system c.
an abdomen d. an exoskeleton e. book lungs 35. What is the gas exchange system in insects
called? a. Malpighian tubules b. book lungs c. external gills d. tracheal system e. complete
metamorphosis 36. Insects have the same number of antennae as a. spiders b. millipedes c.
centipedes d. crustaceans e. both b and c 37. Which arthropod groups have more legs than
insects? a. spiders b. crustaceans c. centipedes d. millipedes e. all of the above 38. In order to
become fully .
22- 14 - ine tha diaoram below Testif- 23- The diagram on the previous.pdf
22. 14 . ine tha diaoram below Testif: 23. The diagram on the previous page shens a macrophage
"eating" or destroying a pathogen. Which of the following statements best describes how this
function will be carried out? A. The pathogen will be placed in a vesicle, a ribosome will bind
with that vesiele filing it with tydrolytic eneymes B. The pathogen will be placed in a veside, a
mitochondrla wal bind with that vesicle filling it with hydrophilic enrymes C. The pathogen will
be placed in a Golg body.alyosome will bind with that vesiclo filling it: with tydrolvtic enrymes
D. The pathopen will be placed in a vesicle, a ysosome will bind with that vesicle filing it with
trdtolytic entymes 24. If you look at the diagram on the previous pase, the plasma call (Make
make antibadies) and the memory cells (Dormant untill secondary infection) seem nearly
ldentical. The one noticeable difference is that the plasma ceil has sippificertly more reugh
endeplasmic reticulum. This is because ild A. Memory cells will make antibodies which are
lipids B, Memory cells will make antibodies which are liplds C. Flauma cells will make
antibodies which are lpids D. Plasma cells will make antibodies which are protrins musde. If
acetyichoiline was replaced with a dfferent neurotransmitts l be secotonin, what would the ikeby
result be and why? A. The mesage witl not pass across the sycupse because the serotonit will not
tr oxor the thilorine channels of the pert anaptic neuron B. The message will not pass across the
gropse because the seretorin wil not ur cart the ligand eated chennely C. The message wit pass
across the spapse because the serotonin will triggor the chlorine channels of the pogs mopatec
neursta 0. The masiag will pait acrous the mragse becavie the sertotorin will triager the igand
gated channels 26. A change in the structure of a Bene matters in terms of evolution because... A.
Genes code for lipls and lipids generally determine phenotype B. Genes code for carbohydrates
and carbohydrates generaly determine phenotype C. Genes code for proteins and proteins
generally determine abenotype D. Genes code for peoteins and proteins generally determine
genotype 27. In order for a mutation to be acted upon by natural selection, it must... A. Increase
or Decrease the sarvival of an organism B. Increase of decrease the reproductive success of an
organism C. Both A and be will cause a mutation to be acted upon by natural selection D. There
is no criteria, natural selection works on all mutations. 28. Many organisms have evoived
eatreme structures that seem detrinental to survival. For example, the male peacock is beiche
blue, and it grows a cumbersome tal. Both of these iosure hisher predation rates. Which of the
following natural processes nould explain the functional benefits af these structures outneich the
obvious dowatalls: A. Predyeotic isolotion (eer and sperm never mees) 3. Sevcal selection
(Females prefer muler with a certain chardecteristic more than bethers).
1. To understand how Mendelian genetics helps to explain evolution, .pdf
1. To understand how Mendelian genetics helps to explain evolution, we need to look closely at
what happens to genes in populations that are undergoing natural selection. This is the domain of
a. primatology.
b. evolutionary ecology.
c. human variation.
d. population genetics.
2. Natural selection cannot make an elephant run as fast as a cheetah and fly like a bird. This is
an example of
a. a correlated response to selection.
b. disequilibrium.
c. physical constraints on natural selection.
d. fixation.
3.Mutation can maintain variation because
a. every mutation results in adaptation.
b. directional selection is constantly working.
c. a considerable amount of variation is protected from selection.
d. the rates of mutation are very high.
4.Which of the following decreases genetic variation?
a. Mutation
b. Selection
c. Recombination
d. Gene flow
5.When genes at many loci affect a character,
a. the trait is more likely to occur in a smooth distribution.
b. natural selection cannot act on the character.
c. the environment is less likely to affect the character.
d. both a and c are correct.
6.Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Hidden variation is not always present in continuously evolving traits.
b. Selection causes genotypic frequencies to reach equilibrium in one generation, and the
distribution of phenotypes does not change.
c. Selection can lead to cumulative, long-term change.
d. Genetic variation is always expressed as phenotypic variation.
7.The character of “behavioral flexibility” evolved in the soapberry bug because it
a. affected reproductive success.
b. occurs only in stable environments.
c. was not passed down from father to son.
d. made behaviorally flexible males stronger.
8.Which of the following is correct?
a. Selection can produce change when no variation is present in a population.
b. Selection cannot change the frequency of different phenotypes.
c. The strength and direction of selection depend on the environment.
d. The strength of selection is determined by dominant alleles.
9.Behaviors are more likely to be canalized if
a. there is no genetic control of the behavior.
b. the behavior is seen in a variety of environments.
c. the behavior is seen in environments that are the same.
d. phenotypes vary.
10.Humans have a nearly insatiable appetite for sugar, fat, and salt because
a. we are in perfect equilibrium with regard to such appetites.
b. these appetites are always adaptive.
c. such appetites were adaptive in ancient environments.
d. these appetites are adaptive in our modern environment.
Solution
1ANS:) d.population genetics.
2ANS:) c.physical constraints on natural selection.
3ANS:) d. the rates of mutation ae very high
4ANS:) b.selection
5ANS:) a. the trait is more likely to occur in a smooth distribution.
6ANS:) d. genetic variation is always expressed as phenotypic variation.
7ANS:)
8ANS:) c. the strenght and direction of selection depend o the environment.
10ANS:) a. we are in perfect equilibrium with reg.
MULTIPLE CHOICE CHOOSE RIGHT ANSWER. I GOT MOSTLY WRONG ANSWERS PL.pdf
MULTIPLE CHOICE : CHOOSE RIGHT ANSWER. I GOT MOSTLY WRONG ANSWERS
PLEASE HELP ME
15. Which of the following is an advantage of using molecular characters over others when
studying phylogenetic relationships?
a. There are four character states of DNA.
b. DNA base substitutions may evolve independently in different species.
c. Some DNA sequences are strongly conserved by natural selection.
d. Even if there are few morphological differences, molecular characters can still be used.
e. Different molecules have the same rate of evolutionary change.
16. Uniformitarianism means that
a. geological processes are very slow and gradual.
b. biological processes are uniform.
c. geological processes that took place in the past continue to occur in the present, and at the
same rate.
d. evolution proceeds at a uniform speed.
e. natural selection is uniform across different groups.
17. You removed a Pax-6 gene from a mosquito larva and replaced it with a spider Pax-6 gene.
Most likely the mosquito larva will
a. not develop any eyes.
b. develop spider eyes.
c. develop eyes with some intermediate characters between those of spiders and those of
mosquitoes.
d. develop typical mosquito eyes.
e. develop eyes in unusual body parts.
18. Members of the cactus family resemble some Euphorbiaceae in many regards, both
morphologically and physiologically. The reason for this similarity is
a. that the two families are closely related.
b. that they possess identical Hox genes.
c. that they both live in a very similar environment.
d. that they both grow in Australia.
e. a coevolution of these two families.
19. The first person to suggest a comprehensive theory of evolution was
a. Darwin.
b. Wallace.
c. Lyell.
d. Lamarck.
e. Linnaeus.
20. Relatively old fossils will have
a. a high amount of 12C.
b. a low amount of 12C.
c. a low amount of both 12C and 14C.
d. a high amount of 14C compared to living organisms.
e. a low amount of 14C compared to living organisms.
21. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which bacteria cope with antibiotics?
a. The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria may prevent antibiotics from entering the cell.
b. Antibiotics are stored away in a vacuole.
c. A bacterial enzyme may break down the antibiotic.
d. A pump mechanism moves antibiotics out of the cell.
e. Bacteria produce molecules that bind to the antibiotic.
22. Which of the following terms would you associate with quorum sensing?
a. phototrophs
b. endotoxins
c. antibiotic resistance
d. nitrogen fixation
e. biofilms
23. Nitrification is the process by which
a. elementary nitrogen is converted to nitrates.
b. nitrates are converted to ammonium.
c. nitrites are converted to ammonium.
d. nitrites are converted to nitrates.
e. nitrates are converted to elementary nitrogen.
24. Bacteria that are poisoned by oxygen are called
a. aerobes.
b. facultative anaerobes.
c. obligate anaerobes.
d. chemotrophs.
e. none of the above.
25. Which of the following groups have no peptidoglycan in their cell .
Similar to 20- The theory of natural ieloction does not depend ce which of the fo.pdf (20)
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BIOL 101 EXAM The following general directions apply to thi.docx
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21- What are arbuscles- a- sexual structures of basidiomycetes b- sexu.pdf
22- 14 - ine tha diaoram below Testif- 23- The diagram on the previous.pdf
22- 14 - ine tha diaoram below Testif- 23- The diagram on the previous.pdf
1. To understand how Mendelian genetics helps to explain evolution, .pdf
1. To understand how Mendelian genetics helps to explain evolution, .pdf
MULTIPLE CHOICE CHOOSE RIGHT ANSWER. I GOT MOSTLY WRONG ANSWERS PL.pdf
MULTIPLE CHOICE CHOOSE RIGHT ANSWER. I GOT MOSTLY WRONG ANSWERS PL.pdf
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Artificial Intelligence (AI) technologies such as Generative AI, Image Generators and Large Language Models have had a dramatic impact on teaching, learning and assessment over the past 18 months. The most immediate threat AI posed was to Academic Integrity with Higher Education Institutes (HEIs) focusing their efforts on combating the use of GenAI in assessment. Guidelines were developed for staff and students, policies put in place too. Innovative educators have forged paths in the use of Generative AI for teaching, learning and assessments leading to pockets of transformation springing up across HEIs, often with little or no top-down guidance, support or direction.
This Gasta posits a strategic approach to integrating AI into HEIs to prepare staff, students and the curriculum for an evolving world and workplace. We will highlight the advantages of working with these technologies beyond the realm of teaching, learning and assessment by considering prompt engineering skills, industry impact, curriculum changes, and the need for staff upskilling. In contrast, not engaging strategically with Generative AI poses risks, including falling behind peers, missed opportunities and failing to ensure our graduates remain employable. The rapid evolution of AI technologies necessitates a proactive and strategic approach if we are to remain relevant.
Natural birth techniques - Mrs.Akanksha Trivedi Rama University
Natural birth techniques - Mrs.Akanksha Trivedi Rama UniversityAkanksha trivedi rama nursing college kanpur.
Natural birth techniques are various type such as/ water birth , alexender method, hypnosis, bradley method, lamaze method etcOverview on Edible Vaccine: Pros & Cons with Mechanism
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This slide is prepared for master's students (MIFB & MIBS) UUM. May it be useful to all.Acetabularia Information For Class 9 .docx
Acetabularia acetabulum is a single-celled green alga that in its vegetative state is morphologically differentiated into a basal rhizoid and an axially elongated stalk, which bears whorls of branching hairs. The single diploid nucleus resides in the rhizoid.
June 3, 2024 Anti-Semitism Letter Sent to MIT President Kornbluth and MIT Cor...
Letter from the Congress of the United States regarding Anti-Semitism sent June 3rd to MIT President Sally Kornbluth, MIT Corp Chair, Mark Gorenberg
Dear Dr. Kornbluth and Mr. Gorenberg,
The US House of Representatives is deeply concerned by ongoing and pervasive acts of antisemitic
harassment and intimidation at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT). Failing to act decisively to ensure a safe learning environment for all students would be a grave dereliction of your responsibilities as President of MIT and Chair of the MIT Corporation.
This Congress will not stand idly by and allow an environment hostile to Jewish students to persist. The House believes that your institution is in violation of Title VI of the Civil Rights Act, and the inability or
unwillingness to rectify this violation through action requires accountability.
Postsecondary education is a unique opportunity for students to learn and have their ideas and beliefs challenged. However, universities receiving hundreds of millions of federal funds annually have denied
students that opportunity and have been hijacked to become venues for the promotion of terrorism, antisemitic harassment and intimidation, unlawful encampments, and in some cases, assaults and riots.
The House of Representatives will not countenance the use of federal funds to indoctrinate students into hateful, antisemitic, anti-American supporters of terrorism. Investigations into campus antisemitism by the Committee on Education and the Workforce and the Committee on Ways and Means have been expanded into a Congress-wide probe across all relevant jurisdictions to address this national crisis. The undersigned Committees will conduct oversight into the use of federal funds at MIT and its learning environment under authorities granted to each Committee.
• The Committee on Education and the Workforce has been investigating your institution since December 7, 2023. The Committee has broad jurisdiction over postsecondary education, including its compliance with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act, campus safety concerns over disruptions to the learning environment, and the awarding of federal student aid under the Higher Education Act.
• The Committee on Oversight and Accountability is investigating the sources of funding and other support flowing to groups espousing pro-Hamas propaganda and engaged in antisemitic harassment and intimidation of students. The Committee on Oversight and Accountability is the principal oversight committee of the US House of Representatives and has broad authority to investigate “any matter” at “any time” under House Rule X.
• The Committee on Ways and Means has been investigating several universities since November 15, 2023, when the Committee held a hearing entitled From Ivory Towers to Dark Corners: Investigating the Nexus Between Antisemitism, Tax-Exempt Universities, and Terror Financing. The Committee followed the hearing with letters to those institutions on January 10, 202
The French Revolution Class 9 Study Material pdf free download
The French Revolution, which began in 1789, was a period of radical social and political upheaval in France. It marked the decline of absolute monarchies, the rise of secular and democratic republics, and the eventual rise of Napoleon Bonaparte. This revolutionary period is crucial in understanding the transition from feudalism to modernity in Europe.
For more information, visit-www.vavaclasses.com
Unit 8 - Information and Communication Technology (Paper I).pdf
This slides describes the basic concepts of ICT, basics of Email, Emerging Technology and Digital Initiatives in Education. This presentations aligns with the UGC Paper I syllabus.
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Presentation required for the master in Education.
2024.06.01 Introducing a competency framework for languag learning materials ...
http://sandymillin.wordpress.com/iateflwebinar2024
Published classroom materials form the basis of syllabuses, drive teacher professional development, and have a potentially huge influence on learners, teachers and education systems. All teachers also create their own materials, whether a few sentences on a blackboard, a highly-structured fully-realised online course, or anything in between. Despite this, the knowledge and skills needed to create effective language learning materials are rarely part of teacher training, and are mostly learnt by trial and error.
Knowledge and skills frameworks, generally called competency frameworks, for ELT teachers, trainers and managers have existed for a few years now. However, until I created one for my MA dissertation, there wasn’t one drawing together what we need to know and do to be able to effectively produce language learning materials.
This webinar will introduce you to my framework, highlighting the key competencies I identified from my research. It will also show how anybody involved in language teaching (any language, not just English!), teacher training, managing schools or developing language learning materials can benefit from using the framework.
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International FDP on Fundamentals of Research in Social Sciences
at Integral University, Lucknow, 06.06.2024
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- 1. 20. The theory of natural ieloction does not depend ce which of the following? A. Heritability B. Purpose C. Keproductive sucees: 21. Phylogeny illustntes D. Variation A. Common ancestry, B. Genetic dritt. 22. Whisch of the following is an example of a converyest traic? B. The multiple hemogoblobia genes in the jawed ver C. The triangular denal fin in dharkx and dolphins 23. Phy logenctic trees may be used to dipplay relationstips among which of the follawing- 24. Chameten are refermed to as being homologous if A. They ewolved independeraty is two taxa because of a cowinon environment. B. They were acequired through horinotal gece trans fer. C. They are similar because they were inherited from a shured ascetor D. They evolved as the result of a gere duplication event. 25. Accondiag to the theory of natural selection, A. adeptations beneficial in one habiad should generally be beneficial in all cether habitas. B. differeat individuals occupying the same habiat will adapt to that babitat through the same genetie changes. C. Adeptations beneffial at one time should generally be beneficial during all other times. D. welladapted individuals leave more offspring and thus costribute more to the next generation's gene pool. than do poorly adepted individuals. 26. The studies of changes between black and light color in populations of the peppered moth show that A. natural selection ean quickly change allele frequencies and common phenotypes in a population B. species caa always adept to eavironmental changes C. predators aluays prefer light colored moths D. natural selection produces irreversible changes 27. How does artificial selection produce rapid changes in the phenotype of organisms? A. by changing the frequency of alleles and selecting for new combinations of traits. B. by stimalating the species to increase the production of new mutations. C. by changing the number of chromosomes. D. by selecting only dominant genotypes. 28. Selection at the level of is likely to be the most important because the numbers and turnover tates of these entities are greater than those of the other levels. A. genes B. populations C. species D. subspecies 29. Of the main mechanisms of evolutionary change. Which mechanism is the only one below that relies on only adaptive evolutionary change? A. Mutation. B. Gene flow, C. Genetic drift. D. Natural selection. 30. Darwin's Theory of evolution by natural selection is based on all of the following postulates except: A. some individuals are more successful in surviving and reproduction than others. B. at least in part, variations among individuals are passed on from parents to offspring. C. the survival and reproduction of individuals is always random.