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10036 120 MINUTES
1. In Wheat and rice
A) Pericarp is fused with seed coat
B) Fruits are multi seeded
C) Perisperm is fused with seed coat
D) Seed coat and pericarp are separate
2. In gymnosperms, the endosperm is
A) Polyploid B) Haploid
C) Triploid D) Diploid
3. ‘Gamma garden’ is used for
A) Growing plantlets produced by tissue culture
B) Eradicating pathogen from infected plants
C) Growing genetically engineered plants on trial basis
D) Mutation breeding for crop improvement.
4. Which one of the following is the botanical name of oil palm?
A) Olea europea B) Carthamus tinctorius
C) Elaeis guineensis D) Cocos nucifera
5. The solute most abundant in phloem sap is
A) Amino Acids B) Sugar
C) Hormones D) Minerals
6. The metal component of Nitrogenase enzyme is
A) Manganese B) Molybdenum
C) Copper D) Zinc
7. The random changes in gene frequency occurring by chance and the effect of
which is large in small populations is called
A) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium B) Pasteur effect
C) Genetic drift D) Haldane effect
8. In mosses, primary protonema is
A) Haploid and gametophytic B) Diploid and sporophytic
C) Haploid and sporophytic D) Diploid and gametophytic
9. “Red rot” of sugarcane is caused by
A) Fusarium B) Alternaria
C) Ustilago D) Colletorichum
10. RNA molecules that possess catalytic activity are known as
A) Ribozymes B) Ribosomes
C) Polyribosomes D) Polysomes
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11. Glycolysis and TCA Cycle operate in
A) Photorespiration B) β-oxidation
C) α-oxidation D) Dark respiration
12. ‘Senna’ is obtained from the plant
A) Cassia fistula B) Cassia alata
C) Cassia angustifolia D) Cassia tora
13. `Iris moss' is
A) Chondrus B) Hydrodictyon
C) Funaria D) Sphagnum
14. One of the following trees is endemic to India
A) Tectona grandis B) Artocarpus integrifolia
C) Ficus religiosa D) Azadirachta indica
15. Late blight of potato is caused by
A) Alternaria solani B) Phytophthora infestans
C) Pseudomonas solanacearum D) Albugo bliti
16. The only plant hormone that is not translocated from the cells producing it
A) Auxin B) Ethylene
C) Cytokinin D) Gibberellic acid
17. Nepenthes thaliana, a rare endangered pitcher plant occurs in India in
A) Madhya Pradesh B) Meghalaya
C) Himachal Pradesh D) Andhra Pradesh
18. One chambered dry dehiscent fruit that dehisces along both the sutures is
A) Siliqua B) Follicle
C) Capsule D) Legume
19. The roots of plant yielding Aswagandha which are used in the treatment of
rheumatism, inflammation and skin lesion is
A) Curcuma amada B) Rauwolfia serpentina
C) Cinchona officinalis D) Withania somnifera
20. The seven volumes of the “Flora of British India “was compiled by
A) William Hooker B) J. D. Hooker
C) Bentham D) Gamble
21. The use of gamma rays from a cobalt source for control of microorganisms in food
A) Radiation B) Radappertization
C) Radurzation D) Ionization
22. Botanical name of finger millet is
A) Poinsettum americanum B) Paspalum scorbiculatum
C) Setaria italica D) Eleucine coracana
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23. The production of fruits without fertilization is
A) Parthenogenesis B) Apomixis
C) Parthenocarpy D) Pseudocarpy
24. The family Lamiaceae is characterized by the inflorescence
A) Scorpiod cyme B) Helicoid cyme
C) Verticellaster D) Cyathium
25. Which of the following trait shows mendelian inheritance as a dominant gene in
man
A) Presence of dimples B) Colour blindness
C) Both D) None
26. Elators and pseudoelators in the capsules of bryophyte are meant for
A) Nutrient absorption B) Water conduction
C) Spore dispersal D) Mechanical support
27. In Smilax tendrils are
A) Modified stipules B) Modified leaf
C) Modified petiole D) Modified leaflet
28. Genes with intervening sequences
A) Introns B) Split genes
C) Exons D) Pseudo genes
29. A research technique to modify a gene in a predetermined way
A) Site directed mutagensis B) Cloning
C) rDNA technique D) Western blotting
30. In eukaryotes the ribosomal RNA genes are transcribed by
A) Reverse transcriptase B) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
C) RNA polymerase 1 D) RNA polymerase 2
31. Floral formula of Hibicus rosasinensis is
A) O ♀ Epi K6-8 K(5)C5A(∞)G5 B) O ♀ Epi(5) K(5)C5A(∞)G(5-∞)
C) O ♀ Epi 3 K(5)C5A(∞)G5 D) O ♀ Epi K3 K(5)C3A(∞)G∞
32. Vegetative propagating part of Sugarcane is called
A) Suckers B) Setts
C) Scion D) All of the above
33. Antibody diversity is generated by
A) Protein splicing B) Somatic recombination
C) Mutation D) Allelic exclusion
34. Example of an aggregate fruit
A) Pine apple B) Custard apple
C) Apple D) Orange
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35. FASTA program was first described by
A) Adach & Hasegawa B) Lipman & Pearson
C) Kyte and Dolittle D) Fitch & Margoliash
36. An important feature of the genetic code which allows the expression of a protein
in any host is its
A) Degeneracy B) Universality
C) Redundancy D) Triplet nature.
37. Muller’s CIB method was used to detect
A) Sex linked mutation
B) Sex linked lethal mutations
C) Autosomal dominant mutation
D) Autosomal recessive mutation
38. Gynostegium relates to
A) Fusion of stamens with gynoecium
B) Fusion of stamens with stigmatic disc
C) Fusion of gynoecium with anther
D) Fusion of gynoecium with filaments
39. Venketraman Ramakrishnan has got Nobel Prize for the detailed mapping of
A) Small subunit of ribosome from Thermos thermophilus.
B) Large ribosomal subunit of the ribosome of Geobacillus tearothermophilus.
C) Large ribosomal subunit of Pyrococcus abyssi.
D) Small subunit of ribosome of Pyrodictium occultum.
40. The transgenic plant which is developed by anit-sense RNA technology.
A) Golden rice B) Bt cotton
C) Flavr Savr tomato D) Both A and C
41. The non motile male spermatia are carried to the female by means of water
currents in
A) Fucus B) Polysiphonia
C) Chara D) Vaucheria
42. X-ray scattering from an atom depends on the number of
A) Electrons B) Protons
C) Neutrons D) All of these
43. The most famous X-helix polypeptide secondary structure is
A) Left handed B) Circular
C) Right handed D) Branched
44. RNA – DNA hybrid always adopt A form because of
A) Steric hindrance of – OH group in RNA
B) Steric hindrance of – OH group in DNA
C) Coiling of the molecule
D) Presence of Uracil base in RNA
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45. Chlorella will fulfill the need of all vitamins except
A) Ascorbic acid B) Biotin
C) Plamitic acid D) Pathonic acid
46. Which of the experiment is suitable to detect linkage?
A) aaBB x aaBB B) AaBb x aabb
C) AABB x aabb D) AAbb x AaBB
47. According to Rodley & Sasi Sekharan model, DNA is
A) Right handed
B) Left handed
C) Alternating right and left handed helix
D) None of these.
48. Which plant is efficient converter of solar energy?
A) Wheat B) Sugarcane
C) Rice D) Banana
49. The plant hormone used to induce parthenocarpy
A) Gibberellins B) Cytokinins
C) Auxins D) Ethylene
50. Quaternary structure of protein describes.
A) Conformational organization B) Functional organization
C) Amino acid sequence D) None of these.
51. Who among the following is known as father of biostatistics
A) Francis Galton B) Adolphe Queste
C) Neyman D) William Gosset
52. Which one is used for comparison between two or more variables
A) Pie chart B) Bar diagram
C) Line diagram D) All of these
53. The feeding of avidin may result in a deficiency of
A) Riboflavin B) Vitamin B12
C) Vitamin A D) Biotin
54. A fatty acid not synthesized in man is
A) Oleic acid B) Stearic acid
C) Linoleic acid D) Palmitic acid
55. Genomic imprinting is
A) Expression of genes depend on its paternal or maternal inheritance
B) Expression of genes linked with X chromosomes
C) Expression of genes linked with Y chromosomes
D) Expression of extrachromosomal genes
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56. Calyptrogen is needed in monocots to
A) Produce root cap B) Protect root tip
C) Abosorb water D) None of the above
57. Riboswitches are
A) Short RNA sequences that change their conformation on binding with small
molecules
B) Short RNA sequences that interact with DNA
C) Short RNA molecules that bind with proteins
D) Short RNA sequences degrade from mRNA
58. The O2 dissociation course of hemoglobin is shifted to right by
A) Decreased CO2 tension B) Increased pH
C) Increased CO2 tension D) Increased N2 tension
59. How many genetically different gametes can be made from an individual of
genotype of AaBbccDDEe
A) 8 B) 32 C) 10 D) 5
60. What component of the bacterial cell wall are attacked by pencillins?
A) Peptidoglycan B) Teichoic acid
C) Teichuronic acid D) Lipopolysaccharide
61. Daughter of a colour blind father and normal mother marries a colour blind person.
How the trait will express among their children?
A) 50 % sons and 50 % daughters
B) All sons only
C) All daughters only
D) All sons and Daughters
62. How many triplet codons can be made from four nucleotides A, U, G and C
containing no uracils?
A) 27 B) 64 C) 37 D) 6
63. Which of the following is not a method of genetic recombination in bacteria?
A) Translocation B) Transformation
C) Conjugation D) Transduction
64. Albinism is due to lack of
A) Tyrosinase B) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
C) Kynureninase D) Homogentisicase
65. Which of these is a pentasaccharide sugar?
A) Verbascose B) Raffinose C) Stachyose D) Threose
66. In men, the lipoprotein fraction with highest cholesterol contents is
A) α- lipopreotein B) β- lipoprotein
C) Chylomicrons D) Prealbumin
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67. Which of the following is the important reactive group of glutathione in its role as
antioxidant
A) Serine B) Sulf hydryl
C) Acetyl CoA D) Carboxyl
68. Bell-shaped normal distribution curve inheritance is an example of
A) Complementary genes B) Qualitative inheritance
C) Polygenic traits D) Pleiotropy
69. The distance between bacterial genes, as determined from interrupted conjugation
experiments are measured in units of
A) Recombination B) Micrometer
C) Minutes D) Percentage of genophgore
70. The first attempt to show linkage in plants was carried out in
A) Oenothera lamarckiana B) Pisum sativum
C) Lathyrus odoratus D) Zea mays
71. In prenatal diagnosis, the polymorphism used to determine genetic disorders
is
A) SNPs B) RFLPs C) RAPDs D) SCARs
72. A Drug resistance marker used for selection of recombinants is
A) NPT II B) SSP C) SSR D) AFLP
73. Colchicine induces polyploidy by
A) Inhibiting cell division B) Promoting cell division
C) Inhibiting spindle formation D) Doubling the Chromosome size
74. Which type DNA is found in M13 phages?
A) Single stranded and circular
B) Single stranded and linear
C) Double stranded and linear
D) Double stranded and circular
75. The regions of gene which do not form part of functional mRNA are called
A) Transposons B) Cistrons
C) Introns D) Exons
76. Overlapping genes
A) Are characteristics to eukaryotes
B) Code for over lapping amino acid sequences in Protein
C) Are split genes
D) Means that a gene can code for more than one polypeptide
77. Which one of the following carries dwarf gene with high protein and lysine
percentage in wheat.
A) Lerma safed B) Kalyan
C) Sharbati sonara D) Sonalika
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78. Which is the most short -lived RNA?
A) sRNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) mRNA
79. The DNA sequence cut by Eco RI is
A) GCAT /GCAT B) GAATTC/GAATTC
C) GAATTC/CTTAAG D) GAATTG/CTTTAAC
80. In Z-DNA, helix pitch is
A) 60 A0
B) 34 A0
C) 20 A0
D) 45A0
81. Triticale has been evolved by hybridization between
A) Rice and Maize B) Wheat and rice
C) Wheat and rye D) Ragi and Maize
82. During translation phase of protein synthesis, process of initiation, elongation
and termination involve
A) Protein factors and AMP B) Protein factors and CAMP
C) Protein factors and GTP D) Glycoxylation.
83. Shuffling of gene from one location to another is possible. Such genes are called
A) Mutons B) Recons
C) Exons D) Transposons
84. Andrew Fire and Craig Mello got Nobel Prize in Medicine for
A) PCR B) Protein Sequencing
C) RNA interference D) GFP
85. The holandric genes are located on
A) Polytene B) Y- chromosome
C) X- Chromosome D) Mitochondria
86. Mutagenic agents causing frame shift mutation are
A) 2-Amino purine B) EMS
C) Bromouracil D) Acridine dye
87. Kornberg with Ochoa received Nobel Price for the work of
A) Mechanism of biological synthesis of DNA and RNA
B) Co linearity hypothesis
C) Central Dogma
D) Artificial Synthesis of protein
88. The Hybrid variety cotton obtained by crossing two different strains of
Gossypium hirsutum is
A) Godhavari B) Varalaxmi
C) Savitri D) Jayalaxmi
89. BSI is located at
A) Lucknow B) Mysore C) Kolkatta D) Kerala
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90. Quanta required for assimilation of one molecule of CO2/O2 liberation in
photosynthesis are
A) 2 B) 8 C) 6 D) 4
91. Continuous variations are attributed to meiosis through
A) Polyploidy B) Crossing over
C) Mutation D) All of these
92. Oligogenes are
A) Quantitative genes B) Qualitative genes
C) Holandrinc genes D) Epistatic genes
93. The common bread wheat is
A) Allotetraploid B) Allohexaploid
C) Auto teraploid D) Diploid
94. RNA Polymerase enzyme is
A) Monocistronic only B) Polycistronic only
C) Monocistronic & Polycistronic D) Not a protein
95. Which sub unit of ribosome is attached to ER?
A) 50S B) 60S C) 30S D) 40S
96. Unidirectional replication takes place in
A) Coliphage P2 B) Escherichia
C) Pneumococcus D) Salmonella
97. Which phrase is not true about backcross breeding?
A) It is a practice that has been used by plant breeders for decades
B) Backcross breeding is repeated until the offspring has 99+% elite genes and
the transgene
C) Backcross breeding is a new technique developed for genetically
engineered plants
D) Backcross breeding is often used to reduce yield drag
98. Which of the following occurs in the sporangia of mosses?
A) Spores germinate into protonemata
B) Sperm cells are produced in rows just beneath the surface of the
antheridiophore
C) Sporocytes undergo meiosis to produce spores
D) The zygote develops into a multicellular embryo
99. Conservation hotspots are best described as
A) Areas with large numbers of endemic species that are disappearing
rapidly
B) Areas where people are particularly active supporters of biological diversity
C) Islands that are experiencing high rates of extinction
D) Areas where native species are being replaced with introduced species
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100. Which bacteria causes food poisoning
A) Escherichia B) Penicillium
C) Salmonella D) Candida
101. Which of the following statements about Marchantia sporophytes is true?
A) The capsule is attached directly to the foot without the development of a
seta.
B) An operculum forms on the apex of the mature capsule
C) The sporophyte hangs down from the underside of the archegonium.
D) None of the above
102. When a specific epithet exactly repeats the generic name it is known as
A) Neotype B) Priority
C) Taxa D) Tautonym
103. The seed known by the name ‘Chilgoza’, that is used as a dry fruit
A) Zamia B) Pinus gerardiana
C) Cedrus deodara D) Cycas racemosa
104. Quantitative PCR is
A) Real time PCR B) RT PCR
C) Inverse PCR D) Multiplex PCR
105. Percentage frequency distribution is represented by
A) Frequency polygon B) Ogive representation
C) Pie diagram D) Frequency table
106. Mode can be located graphically with the help of
A) Line diagram B) Bar
C) Histogram D) Pie diagram
107. The first artificial plant hybrid was made by
A) Thomas Fairchild B) De Viries
C) Borlaug D) M.S.Swaminathan
108. Somatic embryogenesis is:
A) Germ line cells developing into embryos
B) Non-germ line cells developing into embryos
C) Embryos developing from zygotes
D) Embryonic tissue becoming somatic
109. A CsCl gradient will separate DNA molecules by
A) Absorption B) Resorption
C) Density D) Adhesion
110. Klenow fragment without free nucleotides exhibits
A) Exonuclease activity B) Endonuclease activity
C) Nickase activity D) No activity
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111. The unwinding of the double helix of DNA prior to replication is carried out by
A) Topoisomerase B) Helicase
C) Restriction endoclease D) All of A, B and C
112. The non sister chromatids twist around and exchange segments with each other in
A) Leptotene B) Pachytene
C) Zygotene D) Diplotene
113. Line Weaver – Burk plot helps to find out
A) Rate of enzyme action B) Competitive inhibitor
C) Substrate composition D) Group specificity
114. Amyloplastids are plastids which store
A) Proteins B) Lipids
C) Starch D) Ergastic substances
115. When lactose is present
A) The regulator protein is unable to bind the operator and transcription turned
on
B) The regulator protein binds the operator and transcription turned off
C) The regulator protein is unable to bind the operator and transcription turned
off
D) The regulator protein binds the operator and transcription turned on
116. Which one of the following trees yield gum
A) Pinus B) Acacia
C) Eucalyptus D) Phyllanthus
117. Which amino acid is precursor of ethylene production
A) Alanine B) Threonine
C) Methionine D) Serine
118. Jute is
A) Corchorus capsularis B) Crotalaria juncea
C) Ceiba pentadra D) Calamus rotundus
119. Rose wood belongs to the family
A) Leguminosae B) Verbenaceae
C) Liliaceae D) Cruciferae
120. Marginal placentation and monocarpellary pistil are found in
A) Poaceae B) Asteraceae
C) Fabaceae D) Liliaceae
................................
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91103 120 MINUTES
1. Antimicrobial proteins that inhibit the synthesis of outer membrane proteins of
gram negative bacteria
A) Dystrophin B) Attacins
C) Phytoanticipins D) Fungistatic
2. Which alga is known as sea lettuce?
A) Fucus B) Caulerpa
C) Ulva D) Padina
3. The peat moss belongs to the order
A) Sphagnales B) Andreaeales
C) Bryales D) Anthocerotales
4. Pyrenolichens fall under
A) Discolichens B) Ascolichens
C) Basidiolichens D) Deuterolichens
5. The most advanced parallel-banded stele in the Pterdophyta
A) Haplostele B) Plectostele
C) Actinostele D) Mixed protostele
6. Which among the following is a tree fern?
A) Pteris B) Cyathea
C) Adiantum D) Dryopteris
7. Resting spores are called
A) Siderophore B) Statospore
C) Planospore D) Phialospore
8. Planktons smaller than 20µm but larger than 2µm are called
A) Nanoplanktons B) Picoplanktons
C) Periphyton D) Macroplankton
9. The genus Rhizopus belongs to the family
A) Mucoraceae B) Saccharomycetaceae
C) Pilobolaceae D) Rhodomycetaceae
10. Amanita toxins are
A) Ergotoxins B) Aflatoxins
C) Mushroom toxins D) Esterogonic toxins
11. A substance that increases the potency of an immunogen
A) Axoneme B) Adjuvant
C) Aptamer D) Agameon

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12. Small non-antigenic molecules in an immunogen
A) Zymogens B) Haptens
C) Co-factors D) Aptamer
13. Bacterial cells that lack chromosomes are called
A) Microcells B) Minicells
C) Maxicells D) Midicells
14. Mycotoxin produced by Aspergillus flavus
A) Phytoalexin B) Amphylotoxin
C) Aflatoxin D) Dystrophin
15. ‘Boll rot’ of cotton is caused by
A) Agaricus B) Penicillium
C) Puccinia D) Rhizopus
16. Puccinia graminis tritici occurring on the wheat crop is also named as
A) Orange rust B) Black rust
C) Yellow rust D) Green rust
17. Blast disease of rice is caused by
A) Piricularia oryzae B) Pseudomonas oryzae
C) Scleroticum oryzae D) Helminthosporium oryzae
18. The antibiotic streptomycin was isolated from
A) Streptomyces griseus B) Streptomyces venezuele
C) Streptomyces aureofaciens D) Streptomyces rimosus
19. The ’tumour inducing’ plasmids are present in
A) Agrobacterium rhizogenes B) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
C) Acetobacter aceti D) Azotobacter sp.
20. The infectious agent of ‘scrapie’ is
A) Parvovirus B) Reovirus
C) Prion D) Retrovirus
21. A dead area in the bark or cortex of the stem especially of woody plants is called
A) Spot B) Canker
C) Scorch D) Die-back
22. Ratoon stunting disease of sugarcane is
A) Insect transmitted B) Soil transmitted
C) Sap transmitted D) Root transmitted

3
23. Red rot of Sugarcane is caused by
A) Piricularia oryzae B) Colletotrichum falcatum
C) Xanthomaonas Oryzae D) Phytophthora infestans
24. Level of taxonomic study concerned with the biological aspects of taxa, including
intraspecific populations, speciation, evolutionary rates and trends
A) Alpha taxonomy B) Beta taxonomy
C) Gamma taxonomy D) Theta taxonomy
25. The term ‘Unitegmic’ refers to
A) An ovule having a single integument
B) A filament with a single anther
C) A fruit with a single seed
D) A style with a single stigma
26. Labellum in Orchidaceae comes to anterior side by the twisting of the ovary
through 1800
. This process is called
A) Adnation B) Articulation
C) Resupination D) Attenuation
27. The Commelinaceae family is commonly known as the
A) Spiderwort family B) Aster family
C) Grass family D) Lilli family
28. Foeniculum vulgare belongs to the family
A) Rutaceae B) Meliaceae
C) Apiaceae D) Brassicaceae
29. When two or more authors publish a new species or propose a new name, their
names are linked using the epithet?
A) In B) ex C) et D) emend
30. Binomials with identical genus name and specific epithet are called
A) Homonym B) Tautonym C) Basionym D) Synonym
31. A document containing a comprehensive account of a specific taxonomic group,
generally a genus or family is
A) Manual B) Flora C) Monograph D) Revision
32. Which among the following is considered a demerit of the ‘Engler and Prantl’
system of classification?
A) Gymnosperms are placed between Monocotyledons and Dicotyledons
B) Gymnosperms are placed among Dicotyledons
C) Dicotyledons are placed before Monocotyledons
D) Dicotyledons are placed after Monocotyledons

4
33. The principles of Numerical taxonomy were developed by
A) Bentham and Hooker B) Engler and Prantl
C) Sneath and Sokal D) Takhtajan and Cronquist
34. The botanical name for ‘All spice’ is
A) Pimenta dioica B) Amaranthus cruentus
C) Aloe vera D) Brassica campestris
35. What is the botanical name of ‘Jute’?
A) Dalbergia sissoo B) Lagerstroemia speciosa
C) Cedrus deodara D) Corchorus capsularis
36. The rubber obtained from Manihot glaziovii is called
A) Para rubber B) Panama rubber
C) Ceara rubber D) India rubber
37. Endosperm formation is suppressed in
A) Orchidaceae B) Compositae
C) Aristolochiaceae D) Boraginaceae
38. The major alkaloid in Hemlock, which was used for the execution of Socrates, is
A) Sinigrin B) Strychnin
C) Coniine D) Quinine
39. The term ‘ethnobotany’ was introduced by
A) Powers B) Harshberger
C) Gilmour D) Martin
40. Ethnobotanical records are stored in --------database
A) PLANIMAL B) SEPASAL
C) NAPRALERT D) EMBL
41. The total botanical knowledge held by any non-industrial community and which
incorporates all utilitarian, ecological and cognitive aspects of both plant use and
vegetation management is called
A) ITK , Indigenous Technical Knowledge
B) IAK, Indigenous Agricultural Knowledge
C) TBK, Traditional Botanical Knowledge
D) TEK, Traditional Ecological Knowledge
42. Which of the following scientists is credited with the invention of the electron
microscope and awarded the Nobel Prize for the same?
A) J.J. Thompson B) Louise de Broglie
C) Otto van Borris D) Ernst Ruska

5
43. Why are thin sections of specimens necessary in Transmission Electron
Microscope?
A) Electrons are negatively charged
B) Electrons have a wave nature
C) Electrons have no mass
D) Electrons have a poor penetrating power
44. A linear monomer of D-galactose and 3,6 anhydro-L-galactopyranose is called
A) Dextran B) Agarose
C) Acrylamide D) Silica
45. Chromatography that involves the separation of isomers
A) Counter current chromatography
B) Chiral chromatography
C) Paper chromatography
D) Thin layer chromatography
46. The total volume of material, both solid and liquid in the column is known as
A) Void volume B) Bed volume
C) Elution volume D) Retension volume
47. Silica gel-G is used in
A) Thin layer chromatography B) Column chromatography
C) HPLC D) GLC
48. Labyrinthine cell wall enveloped by plasma membrane is characteristic of
A) Sieve tubes B) Lenticels
C) Transfer cells D) Guard cells
49. Ridged and furrowed xylem cylinder with phloem wedges is characteristic of
secondary growth in the stem of
A) Bignonia B) Serjania
C) Dracaena D) Boerhaavia
50. Nanometer is 1/1000th
of a
A) Millimeter B) Centimeter
C) Micrometer D) Picometer
51. Heavily cutinized leaves that show resistance to dessication under conditions of
extreme drought
A) Microsporophylls B) Megasporophylls
C) Sclerophylls D) Podophylls

6
52. ------is an azodye
A) Safranin B) Haematoxylin
C) Aniline blue D) Orange G
53. Carnoy’s solution is a mixture of
A) Aqueous chromic acid, Aqueous acetic acid and distilled water
B) Ethyl alcohol, Glacial acetic acid and commercial formalin
C) Ethanol, Glacial acetic acid and Chloroform
D) Aqueous alcohol, Aqueous acetic acid and distilled water
54. Inactive precursors of certain proteolytic enzymes
A) Abzymes B) Allozymes
C) Isozymes D) Zymogens
55. Vincristine and vinblastine are
A) Phenolics B) Terpenoids
C) Alkaloids D) Saponins
56. In aqueous solution glucose exists as a
A) Furanose B) Pyranose
C) Pentose D) None of the above
57. In a normal metabolic pathway substance Z is produced from X through the
intermediate Y and involvement of two enzymes, A and B respectively. If both
enzymes are functional, what would be the most possible consequence?
A) Substance Z accumulates B) Substance X accumulates
C) Enzyme A accumulates D) Enzyme B accumulates
58. A group of red or yellow compounds found only in the plants of order
Caryophyllales
A) Anthocyanins B) Xanthophylls
C) Betacyanins D) Betalains
59. Amino acid which accumulates as a result of stress
A) Proline B) Cysteine
C) Methionine D) Histidine
60. The biochemical pathway from phosphenol pyruvic acid to tyrosine is commonly
called
A) Hatch and Slack pathway B) Glycolate pathway
C) Shikimic acid pathway D) EMP pathway
61. A plant capable of utilizing saline ground water
A) Hylophyte B) Hylodad
C) Halophreatophyte D) Hemerophyte

7
62. Organelles involved in photorespiration are
A) Mitochondria, chloroplasts and ribosomes
B) Mitochondria, chloroplasts and peroxisomes
C) Mitochondria, nucleus and ribosomes
D) Mitochondria, peroxisomes and glyoxisomes
63. A system of growing plants with their roots supplied with moisture in the air
A) Hydroponics B) Aeroponics
C) Bionomics D) Geonomics
64. Deficiency of which of these leads to interveinal chlorosis
A) Magnesium B) Calcium
C) Cobalt D) Nitrogen
65. Little leaf disease is due to the deficiency of
A) Nitrogen B) Sodium
C) Zinc D) Manganese
66. Phytochrome is a ------chromoprotein
A) Red/Orange B) Blue/Yellow-green
C) Purple/Black D) Brown/Yellow
67. Small particles present on the inner mitochondrial membrane are called
A) Ergosomes B) Peroxisomes
C) Elementary particles D) Core particles
68. Branch of soil science which deals with the survey, genesis and classification of
soils for land use-planning
A) Serology B) Rheology
C) Pedology D) Kymatology
69. Forests that occur in eastern and western Himalayas and in the Nilgiri hills at an
altitude of 1,600 – 3,500m are
A) Tropical evergreen or rain forests
B) Temperate evergreen or Coniferous forests
C) Tropical deciduous or monsoon forests
D) Tropical Thorn forests
70. An interspecific interaction in which one species population is inhibited typically
by toxins produced by the other which remains unaffected
A) Amensalism B) Mutualism C) Altruism D) Tropism
71. The physical space occupied by an organism in an eco system is called
A) Niche B) Sere
C) Deme D) Cline

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72. The study of an organism in relation to its environment
A) Autecology B) Palynology
C) Pedology D) Gerantology
73. One of the following steps is not involved in cryopreservation
A) Air-drying B) Slow freezing
C) Encapsulation D) Shadow casting
74. Which of the following biomes has the highest biodiversity?
A) Savannas B) Tundra
C) Tropical rain forest D) Temperate grasslands
75. ‘Harmful Algal bloom’ is the result of accumulation of species of
A) Lemna B) Pistia
C) Alexandrium D) Volvox
76. Pick out the mangrove plant from the following list
A) Solanum surattense B) Excoecaria agallocha
C) Saccharam spontaneum D) Euphorbia tirucalli
77. Ozone (O3) is formed mainly in which layer of the atmosphere
A) Troposhere B) Ozone layer
C) Stratosphere D) Ionosphere
78. The ‘mutation theory’ of organic evolution was put forward by
A) Hugo deVries B) Weismann
C) Darwin D) Lamarck
79. Changing climate may isolate populations on mountain peaks or in remnant lakes
or islands. This is called ------- speciation
A) Allopatric B) Sympatric
C) Parapatric D) None of the above
80. The term ‘muton’ was coined by
A) Barbara McClintock B) Muller
C) Seymour Benzer D) Jacob and Monad
81. The genetic codes for ochre, amber and opal are-----,---- and---- respectively
A) UGA, UAG, UAA B) UAG, UAA, UGA
C) UAG, UGA, UAA D) UAA, UAG, UGA
82. Intron sequences in DNA always begin and end with
A) AG, GT B) GT, AG
C) TG, GA D) GA, TG

9
83. Any one of a group of restriction enzymes that recognizes the same nucleotide
sequences
A) Isozyme B) Ribozyme
C) Isoschizomer D) Isomer
84. The length of the DNA associated with a protein is determined using the technique
A) DNA replication B) DNA fingerprinting
C) DNA footprinting D) DNA priming
85. A cell or tissue culture in which single cells or small clumps are grown in an
agitated liquid medium
A) Slop culture B) Suspension culture
C) Retroculture D) Sericulture
86. About 75% of all white North Americans can taste the chemical
phenylthiocarbamide and the remainder cannot. The ability to taste is governed by
dominant allele ‘T’ and inability to taste by the allele ‘t’. (The population is in
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium). Then the genotypic frequencies are
A) TT–0.5, Tt – 0.3, tt– 0.2 B) TT–0.25, Tt – 0.5, tt– 0.25
C) TT–0.5, Tt – 0.2, tt– 0.3 D) TT–0.3, Tt – 0.5, tt– 0.3
87. Avena abyssinica is a tetraploid with 28 chromosomes. The cultivated oats
(A. sativa) appears to be a hexaploid in the same series with the chromosome
number:
A) 168 B) 84
C) 42 D) 56
88. A normal chromosome with the gene sequence ABCD o EFGH (Small ‘o’
represents centromere).The chromosomal mutation represented by the gene
sequence ABCFE o DGH is
A) Pericentric inversion B) Paracentric inversion
C) Reciprocal translocation D) Non-reciprocal translocation
89. Philadelphia chromosome seen in many leukemia patients is the result of reciprocal
translocation between chromosomes:
A) 9 and 22 B) 2 and 9
C) 2 and 13 D) 9 and 13
90. Dietary restrictions can essentially eliminate the severe mental retardation that is
associated with this disorder
A) Phenylketonuria B) Familial hypercholesterolemia
C) Tay-Sachs disease D) Haemophilia
91. The genetic abnormality produced by XXY condition in humans is
A) Down’s syndrome B) Kline felter’s syndrome
C) Turner’s syndrome D) Lesch-Nyhan disease

10
92. The sry gene is located on the
A) X-chromosome B) Y-chromosome
C) Autosome D) Nucleosome
93. Chiasma is a greek word meaning
A) Cross B) Ring
C) Chain D) Straight line
94. In sweet peas the genes for flower colour and pollen length were studied. The
double heterozygote showed a preponderance of the parental combinations. This
could be due to
A) Independant assortment B) Linkage
C) Crossing over D) Incomplete Dominance
95. RNA polymerase binds to genes at the
A) Operator B) Enhancer
C) Promoter D) Inducer
96. The enzyme reverse transcriptase is an
A) RNA directed DNA polymerase
B) RNA directed RNA polymerase
C) DNA directed DNA polymerase
D) DNA directed RNA polymerase
97. Puffs or balbiani rings in salivary gland chromosomes are sites of
A) DNA replication B) RNA synthesis
C) DNA duplication D) Protein synthesis
98. Chromosome theory of inheritance was proposed by
A) Watson and Crick B) Jacob and Monad
C) Beadle and Tatum D) Sutton and Boveri
99. Deposition of material between the microfibrils of the cell wall is called
A) Intersusception B) Intussusception
C) Interference D) Integration
100. The first man-made cereal ‘Triticale’ has been developed from a cross between
A) Wheat and Oat B) Wheat and Maize
C) Maize and Rice D) Wheat and Rye
101. Which is the hexaploid species of Wheat?
A) Triticum monococcum B) Triticum durum
C) Triticum aestivum D) Triticum turgidum
102. A ‘trisomic’ individual has
A) An extra chromosome B) One less chromosome
C) Two extra chromosomes D) One pair of extra chromosome

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103. Kappa particles are present in
A) Plastids B) Plasmids
C) Mitochondria D) Cytoplasm
104. Phage ØX-174 has
A) Double stranded DNA B) Double stranded RNA
C) Single stranded RNA D) Single stranded DNA
105. The first codon discovered by Nirenberg Mathaei was
A) GGG B) CCC
C) UUU D) AAA
106. Khorana first deciphered the triplet codon of
A) Serine and isoleucine B) Cysteine and valine
C) Tyrosine and tryptohan D) Phenylalanine and methionine
107. RNA polymerase III makes
A) rRNA B) hnRNA
C) tRNA, 5SrRNA D) sn RNA
108. The headquarters of the National Horticulture Board is situated at
A) New Delhi B) Thiruvananthapuram
C) Gurgaon D) Bhopal
109. An evolutionary event in which a significant percentage of a population or species
is killed or otherwise prevented from reproducing
A) Bottle-neck B) Genetic load
C) Founder effect D) Segregational load
110. The equilibrium attained between the electric potential and concentration gradient
in a closed system with two compartments separated by a semi-permeable
membrane
A) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
B) Donnan equilibrium
C) Maxwell-Boltzmann equilibrium
D) Michaelis-Menten equilibrium
111. Dispersion force or London force is a type of .................. force
A) Van der Waals B) Hydrophobic-hydrophilic
C) Ionic D) Covalent
112. The particle associated with bioluminescence
A) Photon B) Electron
C) Scintillon D) Phytotron

12
113. The average fleece weight in a large band of sheep together with its standard
deviation was calculated to be 10.3±1.5lb. The statistics for fleece grade was 5.1±
0.7. Which trait is relatively more variable?
A) Fleece weight B) Fleece grade
C) Both traits D) None of the traits
114. A common digital sound file existing in personal computers is known as
A) JPEG file B) ZIP file
C) WAV file D) BMP file
115. A translator that converts a programme written in assembly level language into a
machine level language
A) Compiler B) Assembler
C) Algorithm D) Interpreter
116. The largest order among the Gymnosperms
A) Cycadales B) Coniferales
C) Ginkgoales D) Gnetales
117. In eukaryotes ATP-Synthase enzyme involved in respiration is in the
A) Cytoplasam B) Mitochondrial matrix
C) Oxysomes D) Quantasomes
118. One of the following sterols is less prevalent in plants
A) Campesterol B) Sitosterol
C) Stigmasterol D) Cholesterol
119. Oxidative phosphorylation is a process that
A) Occurs during respiration
B) Occurs during photosynthesis
C) Occurs in the thylakoid membrane
D) Involves PS I and PS II
120. BLAST programme is used in
A) DNA sequencing B) Amino acid sequencing
C) DNA bar coding D) Bioinformatics
************

12903 120 MINUTES
1. The plant part from which colchicine is isolated
A) Fruit &seeds B) Stem& leaf
C) Seeds & corms D) Fruit & bulb
2. Albuminous cells are present in
A) Monocotyledonous plants B) Hydrophytes
C) Gymnosperms D) Bryophytes
3. The Casparian strip is usually composed of
A) Pectin B) Lignin
C) Suberin D) Chitin
4. Histochemical localization of proteins is performed by using
A) Sudan black
B) Mercuric bromophenol blue
C) Periodic acid Schiffs (PAS) reagent
D) Iodine potassium iodide (IKI) solution
5. Orcein is obtained from
A) Fractionation of coal tar
B) Heartwood of Caesalpinia
C) Roccella tinctoria.
D) Abdominal part of insects Dactylopius coccus
6. Janus green B is used to stain
A) Chloroplast B) Golgi complex
C) Vacuoles D) Mitochondria
7. The sectioning of woody materials for histo enzymological study is made
through----
A) Rotary microtome B) Sledge microtome
C) Cryotome D) Rocking microtome
8. Molecular formula of chlorophyll a is
A) C55H70O5N4Mg B) C55H72O6N4Mg
C) C55H70O6N4Mg D) C55H72O5N4Mg
9. RQ value of protein is
A) Higher than 1 B) 1
C) Less than 1 D) Infinite
10. Recombination nodules are present in
A) Kinetochore B) Centriole
C) Synaptonemal complex D) Nucleolar organizing region

2
11. The movement of solutes in the phloem is mainly
A) Lateral B) Acropetal
C) Basipetal D) Centripetal
12. The first stable compound in Hatch and Slack cycle is
A) Pyruvic acid B) Malic acid
C) Citric acid D) Oxalo acetic acid
13. ------------ is an example for sulphur containing amino acid
A) Aspartic acid B) Methionine
C) Glycine D) Isoleucine
14. Microevolution means
A) Evolution at geographical level
B) Evolution in a small community
C) Changes in gene frequency within a population
D) Spatial evolution
15. When a population formerly continuous in range, splits into two or more
geographically isolated populations and form new species, the mode of speciation
is
A) Sympatric speciation B) Polytypic speciation
C) Allopatric speciation D) Evolutionary speciation
16. Endosperm is absent in
A) Orchidaceae B) Compositae
C) Poaceae D) Malvaceae
17. Tyloses are
A) Composite sieve plate B) Specialized laticeferous canals
C) Tracheal plugs D) Resin ducts
18. In Dracaena, secondary vascular bundle is
A) Bicollataral B) Amphicribral
C) Collateral D) Amphivasal
19. Osmium tetra oxide is used in electron microscopy as a
A) Fixing agent B) Mordant
C) Staining agent D) Precipitator
20. The pH of phloem sap is about------------------
A) 5.5-6.5 B) 6.5 -7.5
C) 8.0-8.5 D) 4.5-5.5

3
21. Q10 refers to
A) Quantum recharge
B) Respiratory coefficient
C) A temperature coefficient
D) Photosynthetic active radiation (PAR) coefficient
22. Warburg effect explains decreased rate of photosynthesis due to
A) High concentration of CO2 B) Low concentration of CO2
C) High concentration of O2 D) Low concentration of O2
23. Fruit drop is caused by
A) Accumulation of more auxin in fruit than in stem
B) Accumulation of less auxin in fruit than in stem
C) Absence of auxin in stem and roots
D) Accumulation of auxin in roots
24. The closure of lid of pitcher in Nepenthes is
A) A turgor movement B) A paratonic movement
C) A tropic movement D) An autonomic movement
25. National park is an example of
A) In vitro conservation B) Ex situ conservation
C) In situ conservation D) All of these
26. In Funaria capsule, the peristome consist of
A) 16 teeth B) 32 teeth
C) 64 teeth D) 128 teeth
27. Protonema is found in
A) Riccia B) Anthoceros
C) Marchantia D) Funaria
28. Western Ghats passes through ------------ states in India
A) 6 B) 4
C) 7 D) 5
29. Partial or complete loss of virulence in pathogen is called
A) Abortive parasitism B) Attenuation
C) Neutralism D) Susceptibility
30. Phytoalexins are produced
A) During infection B) During flowering
C) Throughout the lifecycle D) By seedlings only

4
31. Katte disease of cardamom is caused due to
A) Colletotrichum elettariae B) Phytophthora medii
C) Cardamom mosaic virus D) Fusarium sp.
32. If the probability of being blood type A is 1/8 and the probability of blood type O
is ½ , what is the probability of being either blood type A or blood type O?
A) 5/8 B) 1/16
C) 1/8 D) 1/2
33. An animal has a diploid number of 8 chromosomes. During meiosis how many
chromatids are present in metaphase of second meiotic stage?
A) 16 B) 8
C) 4 D) 32
34. What is the sexual phenotype of a diploid fruit fly that has XXYYY sex
chromosome?
A) Male B) Female
C) Intersex D) Metamale
35. Betty has normal vision but her mother is color blind. Sam is color blind. If Betty
and Sam are married and have a girl child, what is the probability that the child
will be color blind?
A) 1/4 B) 1/2 C) 1/3 D) 2/3
36. How many genotypes are present at a locus with four alleles?
A) 15 B) 10 C) 8 D) 16
37. An organism has 10 pairs of independent genes. Aa BB cc Dd Ee Ff Gg HH II Jj.
How many types of gametes with respect to gene content can this individual
produce?
A) 16 B) 32 C) 64 D) 128
38. Which process of DNA transfer in bacteria require a virus
A) Conjugation B) Transduction
C) Transformation D) All of these
39. Species A has 2n=16 chromosomes and species B has 2n=14 chromosomes. How
many chromosomes would be found in an allotriploid of these two species?
A) 21 or 24 B) 42 or 48
C) 22 or 23 D) 45
40. The percentage of cytosine in double stranded DNA molecule is 40%. What is the
percentage of Thiamine?
A) 40% B) 60%
C) 20% D) 10%

5
41. What type of replication require a break in the nucleotide strand to get started
A) Theta replication B) Rolling cycle replication
C) Linear eukaryotic replication D) All of these
42. If two loci are 10 map units apart, what proportion of the meiotic events will
contain a single cross over in the region between these two loci, assuming that no
multiple cross over occur?
A) 10% B) 15%
C) 5% D) 20%
43. What is the effect of high level glucose in lac operon
A) Transcription is stimulated
B) Little transcription takes place
C) Transcription not affected
D) Transcription may be stimulated or inhibited depending upon the level of
lactose.
44. In RNA silencing, si RNAs and mi RNAs usually bind to which part of the mRNA
molecule that they control
A) 5’UTR B) Segments that encodes aminoacids
C) 3’poly(A) tail D) 3’UTR
45. DNA binding regulatory proteins are grouped into distinct classes based on the
motif found within the binding domains. In the following group which are
common bacterial regulatory proteins
A) Helix –turn- helix B) B.zinc finger
C) Leucine zipper D) Helix –loop -helix
46. In a group of students, about 36% could roll their tongues, a trait determined by a
dominant gene (R). The other 64% of the students were nonrollers (r) . The
population is in Hardy-Wienberg equilibrium. What is the frequency of the gene R
and its recessive allele r?
A) R=0.3 and r=0.1 B) R=0.64 and r=0.36
C) R=0.8 and r=0.2 D) R=0.2 and r=0.8
47. Which of the following changes is a transition base substitution?
A) Adenine replaced by thymine
B) Cytosine replaced by adenine
C) Guanine replaced by adenine
D) Three nucleotide pairs are inserted into DNA
48. A genetically engineered squash called Freedom II carries genes from
A) Watermelon mosaic virus B) Zucchini virus
C) Cauliflower mosaic virus D) Both A & B

6
49. Which gene is inserted to the target gene to create knockout mice?
A) ‘tk’ gene B) ‘neo’ gene
C) Both A & B D) Neither A & B
50. In the following common bioinformatic data bases, which contains protein
sequence data?
A) Gene Bank B) EMBL-Bank
C) dbEST D) UniProt
51. Genes found in different species that evolved from same gene in a common
ancestor is called
A) Homologs B) Paralogs
C) Orthologs D) Homeologs
52. Which lichen is known as “Reindeer moss?”
A) Cladonia rengiferina B) Peltigera canina
C) Lobaria pulmonaria D) Rocella montaignei
53. Proflavin and acridine oranges are chemicals that cause mutations because
A) They distort the structure of DNA
B) They chemically modify the normal bases
C) They are similar in structure to the normal bases
D) They sandwich between adjacent bases in DNA
54. A codon that specifies aminoacid Tryptophan undergoes a single base substitution
that yields a nonsense codon. What is the mutated codon?
A) UUG B) UGA
C) UAA D) UGG
55. The retrovirus genome is
A) RNA
B) DNA
C) RNA in free virus but converted to DNA inside the host cell
D) DNA in free virus but converted to RNA inside the host cell
56. A recombinant cross is performed between two organisms producing a total of
400 offspring. There were two distinct types of recombinants, with 36 of the first
type and 58 of the second type present. The recombination frequency of the gene
is
A) 0.145 B) 0.235
C) 0.345 D) 0.445
57. What are known as “safe havens” during insertion of transposable elements?
A) Centromere regions B) Retrotransposon regions
C) Heterochromatin regions D) All these

7
58. Total length of life cycle in yeast
A) 90 minutes B) 1 hour C) 12 hours D) 24 hours
59. P elements are transposable elements found in
A) Maize B) Yeast
C) Drosophila D) Arabdiopsis
60. Hammerling performed experiments to prove that nucleus is the physical basis of
heredity by working on
A) Neurospora crassa B) Drosophila melanogaster
C) Acetabularia crenulata D) Saccharomyces pombi
61. Minute granular structures found on the inner face of the thyalakoid membrane
A) Quantasomes B) Diplosomes
C) Oxysomes D) Lysosomes
62. When a cell with 2n = 60 chromosomes undergoes meiosis, each of the four
resulting cells has ------ chromosomes
A) 30 B) 60 C) 40 D) 10
63. The somatic chromosome number (2n) of Arabidopsis thaliana is
A) 20 B) 10 C) 5 D) 30
64. The normal sequence of markers on a certain Drosophila chromosome is
123.456789, where the dot represents the centromere. One fly was isolated with
the following aberration, 1654.32789. What could be the structural aberration
involved?
A) Paracentric inversion B) Deletion
C) Duplication D) Pericentric inversion
65. If the somatic chromosome number for an organism is 2n = 16, the hexaploid
number would be
A) 16 B) 32
C) 48 D) 64
66. --------------- is a drooping pendant fruticose lichen
A) Physcia B) Cladonia
C) Usnea D) Haematomma
67. Cyphellae in lichens are analogous to ----------------- in higher plants
A) Palisade tissue B) Epidermis
C) Bundle sheath D) Stomata
68. Which of the following is called ‘walking fern’?
A) Selaginella rupestris B) Selaginella bryopteris
C) Adiantus incisum D) Adiantum caudatum

8
69. Which of the following has amphiphloic siphonostele?
A) Marsillea B) Lycopodium
C) Pteris D) Dryopteris
70. The fossil fern, Rhynia was discovered by
A) Sir William Dawson B) Kidson and Lang
C) De Bary D) Captain Cooke
71. Smallest fern among the following is
A) Drynaria B) Anogramma
C) Cyathea D) Woodsia
72. Endosperm in gymnosperm is
A) Generally diploid B) Always haploid
C) Triploid D) With different ploidy levels
73. Characters of both conifer and cycads are found in
A) Ginkgo B) Ephedra
C) Cupress D) Thuja
74. The number of neck canal cells in the archegonium of Cycas is
A) 2 B) 4
C) 6 D) 0
75. The dwarf shoots of Pinus wallichiana are
A) Monofoliar B) Bifoliar
C) Trifoliar D) Pentafoliar
76. Species that occur in different geographical regions separated by special barrier
are
A) Autogenic B) Allogenic
C) Allopatric D) Sympatric
77. Area within the centre of diversity protected from human interference.
A) Gene sanctuary B) Gene bank
C) Biosphere D) Microcentre
78. Which is the age of ‘higher gymnosperms’?
A) Mesozoic B) Palaeozoic
C) Archaeozoic D) Proterozoic
79. The storage of energy at consumer’s level is
A) Gross primary productivity B) Secondary productivity
C) Net primary productivity D) Primary productivity

9
80. Ozone in the atmosphere absorbs:
A) All UV-C B) All UV-C and most of UV-B
C) All UV-A and UV-B D) All UV-A and UV-C
81. The taxa which is believed likely to join the endangered category in near future is
called:
A) Extinct B) Rare
C) Vulnerable D) Living fossil
82. Total soluble salts in soil are measured by
A) Tensiometer B) Conductivity meter
C) pH meter D) None of these
83. Yeast is an important source of
A) Vitamin C B) Riboflavin
C) Sugar D) Fat
84. Powdery mildews of crops are caused by
A) Bacteria B) Ascomycetes
C) Phycomycetes D) Basidiomycetes
85. A fungus with hyphae containing nuclei from different genomes, the nuclei do not
fuse but divide independently and simultaneously as new cells are formed is
A) Phycomycetes B) Zygomycetes
C) Deuteromycetes D) Basidiomycetes
86. The type of ovule in which micropyle and funicle lie in one line
A) Orthotropous B) Anatropous
C) Amphitropous D) Campylotropus
87. Study of pollen grains in honey is known as
A) Iatropalynology B) Aeropalynology
C) Melissopalynology D) Pharmacopalynology
88. Sporopollinin is seen in
A) Intine B) Exine
C) Endocarp D) Mesocarp
89. The common bread wheat is called:
A) Triticum aestivum B) Triticum turgidum
C) Triticum monococcum D) None of these
90. Major component of ‘Jeevani’ is
A) Ocimum basilicum B) Acorus calamus
C) Trichopus zeylanicus D) Bacopa monnieri

10
91. Predominant ethnic group in Thiruvananthapuram district is:
A) Kani B) Malavedan
C) Malapandaram D) Cholanaikan
92. X2
test is used to
A) Measure the degree of deviation of the experimental result from the
expected result
B) To test the closeness of observed and expected frequency
C) To test the population variance and sample variance
D) All of the above
93. Mode can be located graphically with the help of
A) Line diagram B) Bar diagram
C) Histogram D) Pie diagram
94. X-ray diffraction analysis is based on
A) Beer-Lambert’s law B) Bragg’s equation
C) Partition coefficient D) Sedimentation coefficient
95. Sudan Black B is often used for visualization of
A) Protein B) Carbohydrates
C) Aminoacids D) Lipids
96. Which instrument is more useful to study the surface details of a specimen?
A) Phase contrast microscope B) Scanning electron microscope
C) Light microscope D) Transition electron microscope
97. Stock and scion are needed for doing
A) Budding B) Grafting
C) Layering D) None of these
98. Insecticide that remains active in environment for the longest period of time
A) Organophosphates B) Chlorinated hydrocarbons
C) Carbonyles D) None of these
99. The large center root of plant used in bonsai is cut off
A) To dwarf the plant
B) To cause root brancing
C) To make the root system shallow enough to fit in the container
D) To simplify the root pruning job
100. Which vegetable crops use large amounts of nitrogen fertilizer?
A) Leaf B) Root
C) Fruit D) All of these

11
101. Rhinoviruses are the causative organism for
A) Tuberculosis B) Whooping cough
C) Diphtheria D) Common cold
102. Bacterial cell divides once in every minute. It takes I hour to fill a petri plate. How
much time is taken to fill half of the plate?
A) 59 minutes B) 49 minutes
C) 30 minutes D) 29 minutes
103. Infective RNA particles without protein sheath are:
A) Rickettse B) Mycoplasma
C) Virus D) Viroid
104. Operating system is
A) A collection of hardware components
B) A collection of input-output devices
C) A collection of software routines
D) All of the above
105. A data base of current sequence map of the human genome is called
A) OMIM B) HGMD
C) Golden path D) GeneCards
106. Laminarin is the reserve food material of
A) Chlorophyta B) Rhodophyta
C) Phaeophyta D) Cyanophyta
107. Chlamydomonas and Volvox are similar because
A) Both of them are motile B) They are filamentous
C) They are colonial D) They have diploid thallus
108. Which of the following algal group never produces motile, flagellated cells
among any of its members?
A) Chrysophyta B) Phaeophyta
C) Chlorophyta D) Rhodophyta
109. The most primitive algal group is
A) Green algae B) Brown algae
C) Red algae D) Blue-green algae
110. The newly collected specimen which is used as a substitute, when the original
type material is missing in a herbarium, is designated as
A) Lectotype B) Holotype
C) Neotype D) Isotype

12
111. Hypanthodium is the characteristic of
A) Amorphophallus B) Acrocephalus
C) Ficus D) Euphorbia
112. A single seeded fruit with inseparably fused testa and pericarp is
A) Achene B) Caryopsis
C) Cypsella D) Cremocarp
113. A family having unisexual flowers with parietal placentation is
A) Cruciferae B) Euphorbiaceae
C) Orchidaceae D) Cucurbitaceae
114. The family Lythraceae belongs to the series
A) Disciflorae B) Calyciflorae
C) Heteromerae D) Inferae
115. The family Amaryllidaceae differs from Liliaceae in having
A) Actinomorphic to slightly zygomorphic flowers
B) Inferior ovary
C) Axile placentation
D) Perianth of six tepals
116. The lowest ranking taxa in numerical taxonomy is
A) Species B) Operational taxonomic unit
C) Character states D) Variety
117. Cladistic relationship is expressed in terms of correlation amongst individuals
with regard to
A) Phenotypic characters
B) Their evolutionary history
C) Relationship between operational taxonomic unit
D) Their chromosomal behaviour
118. Primary centre of origin of rice is
A) Asia minor centre B) Central Asia centre
C) Hindustan centre D) Mediterranean centre
119. Heterosis results from
A) Harmfull effects of recessive alleles and heterozygosity
B) Homozygosity
C) Heterozygosity
D) Heterozygosity and masking of harmfull effects of recessive alleles
120. Production of a double cross hybrid involves
A) Two inbreds B) Four inbreds
C) Six inbreds D) Three inbreds
……………

14203 120 MINUTES
1. Which of the following is not a domain in the three domain classification?
A) Eukarya B) Bacteria
C) Cyanobacteria D) Archaea
2. Teminism is the phenomenon of synthesis of
A) DNA depending RNA B) RNA depending DNA
C) RNA depending Proteins D) RNA depending RNA
3. Nodules with nitrogen fixing bacteria are present in
A) Oriza sativa B) Triticumestivum
C) Pisumsativum D) Zea mays
4. Bioluminescence is usually associated with
A) Chrysophyta B) Pyrrophyta
C) Chlorophyta D) Phaeophyta
5. Name the Irish moss which produces carageenin?
A) Octoblepharum albidum B) Leucobryumbowringii
C) Porphyra tenera D) Chondruscrispus
6. Which of the following are not algae in the true sense?
A) Spirogyra and Chlorella B) Nostoc and Spirogyra
C) Ulva and Chlorella D) Nostocand Chlorella
7. The following is not a vegetative mode of reproduction in fungi
A) Fragmentation B) Rhizomorph
C) Sclerotia D) Somatogamy
8. Rhizopus, Pencillium and Aspergillus are examples of
A) Parasitic fungi B) Symbiotic fungi
C) Saprophytic fungi D) Predacious fungi
9. The following is not cultivated asan edible fungi
A) Coprinuscomatus B) Agaricusbispora
C) Volvariellavolvacea D) Pleurotussajorcaju
10. Parmeliais known as
A) Iceland moss B) Orchil
C) Rock flower D) Reindeer moss

2
11. In Lichens following special vegetative structure is formed as respiratory organs
A) Soredia B) Isdia
C) Cyphellae D) Medulla
12. When a big fish eats a small fish, which eats water fleas supported by
phytoplankton, the water fleas are
A) Producers B) Primary consumers
C) Secondary consumers D) Tertiary consumers
13. Match the following
A) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4 B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
C) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3 D) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1
14. Red rust in tea is caused by
A) Fungi B) Bacteria C) Algae D) Virus
15. Basidospores differ from ascospores in which of the following characters?
A) Four spores and are exogenously produced
B) Eight spores and are exogenously produced
C) Four spores and are endogenously produced
D) Eight spores and are endogenously produced
16. Cyanobacteria form a variety of associations with bryophytes ranging from the
almost accidental to close symbioses. Name the bryophyte that possesses this
property
A) Marchantia B) Anthoceros
C) Porella D) Polytrichum
17. When moss spore germinate they form
A) Leafy gamaetophyte directly
B) Capsule directly
C) Protonema , then a leafy gametophyte
D) Protonema which bears archegonia and antheridia
a. Apothecium 1. Erysiphe
b. Perithecium 2. Peziza
c. Cleistothecium 3. Claviceps
d. Ascostroma 4. Loculoascomycetidae

3
18. The conducting tissues do not consists Xylem and Phloem tissues in
A) Pinus B) Cycas
C) Brassica D) Funaria
19. The sporophyte containspseudoelators in
A) Riccia B) Marchatia
C) Anthoceros D) Funaria
20. The protostele of --------------species shows variations with respect to its shape
and arrangement of vascular tissue such as actinostele, plectostele, mixed
protostels and plectosteles
A) Marsilea B) Salvinia
C) Equisetum D) Lycopodium
21. Dehiscence of sporangia takes place by a vertical splitting in
A) Lycopodium B) Selaginella
C) Equisetum D) Marselia
22. In theprothallus of the fern plant
A) The nuclei of all cells including sex organs and gametes have monoploid
number
B) Only the sex organs and gametes have monoploid number
C) Only the gametes have monoploid number
D) The cells have mixploid condition
23. Winged seeds are present in
A) Cycas B) Pinus
C) Gnetum D) Ephedra
24. Deodar wood, the strongest coniferous wood is obtained from
A) Cryptomeria B) Cedrus
C) Taxodium D) Sequoia
25. The gymnosperm Ginkgo bilobais considered as living fossil because it retains
primitive characters and
A) It originated in the Triassic period of Mesozoic era
B) It originated in the Jurassic period of Mesozoic era
C) It originated in the Cretaceous period of Mesozoic era
D) It originated in the Triassic period of Paleozoic era
26. In the system of classification by Bentham & Hooker dicotyledonous plants have
been classified as
A) Polypetalae, Gamopetalae, Monochlamydae
B) Polypetalae, Gamopetalae, Dichlamydae
C) Archechlamydae, Polypetalae, Monochlamydae
D) None of these

4
27. In the plant name Capparislasiantha R.Br..ex.DC. The author citation indicated
that
A) Robert Brown published the name
B) De candolle named it
C) Robert Brown has more status than de Candolle
D) Robert Brown and de Candolle have equal status
28. Gynobasic style is characteristic to the family
A) Liliaceae B) Loranthaceae
C) Lauraceae D) Labiatae
29. In a heaxaploid plant 2n=42. The base chromosome number x =
A) 21 B) 7 C) 14 D) 12
30. Triticumaestivum is a polyploidy with genomes from
A) Triticummonococum&Aegilopsspeltoedus
B) Aegilopsspeltoedus&Aegilopsissquarrosa
C) Aegilopsissquarrosa&Triticummonococum
D) Triticummonococum ,Aegilopsspeltoedus&Aegilopsissquarrosa
31. The fruit in the family cruciferae is
A) Siliqua B) Achene
C) Berry D) Follicle
32. Cincinnus inflorescence is a distinguishing feature of family
A) Rutaceae B) Metastomaceae
C) Caryophyllaceae D) Lythraceae
33. Quinine is obtained from the plant that belongs to the family
A) Rutaceae B) Rhamnaceae
C) Rosaceae D) Rubiaceae
34. The fleshy edible fruit of cashew nut is the modified
A) Ovary B) Thalamus
C) Mesocarp D) Epicarp
35. A species confined to a small area is known as
A) Rare B) Key stone
C) Endemic D) Endangered
36. For preservation in the herbarium, the specimens are treated with
A) Heating B) Repellents
C) Fumigants D) All the above

5
37. Which among the following system is not a phylogenetic system of classification?
A) Charles Bessey B) Robert Thorne
C) Engler&Prantl D) De Candolle
38. A taxon should have a single correct name if the same name to be used for
different species or taxa is known as
A) Tautonym B) Basionym
C) Homonym D) Nomennudum
39. The pollen tube that enters the ovule by piercing the integuments is known as
A) Porogamy B) Chalazogamy
C) Mesogamy D) Syngamy
40. Endosperm development is completely absent in
A) Orchidaceae B) Podostemaceae
C) Both in A&B D) None of the above
41. Monosporicembryosac with eight nuclei is found in
A) Adoxa B) Polygonum
C) Allium D) Fritillaria
42. Indian rubber plant is
A) Ficuselastica B) Ficusaltissima
C) Ficuscarica D) Ficuspalmate
43. Saffron is obtained from
A) The stigma B) The stamens
C) The petals D) The seeds
44. Ragi is obtained from
A) Oryza sativa B) Eleusinecoracana
C) Panicummiliaceum D) Sorghum vulgare
45. Chlorofluorocarbons rise to the stratosphere and
A) React directly with stratospheric ozone to destroy it.
B) Become free radicals that react with oxygen to create ozone.
C) React with free radicals to remove carbon dioxide.
D) After interacting with UV energy, become free radicals, which destroy
ozone.
46. “Jeevani” made by using ethanobotanical lead from the tribe
A) Kani B) Kurumar
C) Vellan D) Naikkan

6
47. Generally the tribal people are non- vegetarians except
A) Todas B) Kora
C) Paniyan D) Kurichiyar
48. The fibers of Flax and Hemp originated from
A) Xylem B) Pericycle
C) Phloem D) Endodermis
49. During secondary thickening, the epidermis ruptured and the protective function
is taken by
A) Phellum B) Phellogen
C) Periderm D) Phelloderm
50. In higher plants, parts get detached from mother plant by forming
A) Callus B) Separation layer
C) Protective layer D) Abscission zone
51. Calorimeters functions only in the visible light of frequency ranging from
A) 400-700nm B) 200-400nm
C) 700-800nm D) 100-400nm
52. Which of the following is not a natural dye?
A) Brazilin B) Hematoxylin
C) Colchineal D) Aniline blue
53. Which of the following can be used to stain DNA?
i. Feulgen ii. Ethidium bromide iii.Acetocarmineiv. Orcein
A) i and ii only B) i and iii only
C) i and iv only D) ii and iv only
54. The vital evidence to discover DNA structure wasprovided by
A) Atomic Force Microscopy
B) Spectrophotometry
C) X-ray Diffraction
D) Mass Spectrometry
55. All of the following are true for both TEM and SEM except:
A) The illuminating source is an electron beam
B) The microscope is focused using electromagnetic lenses
C) Can be used to view specimens smaller than 0.2 micrometers
D) The specimen must be sectioned prior to viewing

7
56. “Human cells contain DNA sequences that match the sequences found in bacterial
16SrDNA.” What is your response to this statement?
A) The statement is untrue, because healthy human cells should contain no
bacterial DNA
B) The statement is true, because mitochondria contain bacterial DNA
sequences
C) The statement is untrue, because there is no such thing as rDNA, only
rRNA
D) The statement is true, because the 16S sequences are part of the human
18S sequences
57. For transmission electron microscopy, thin sections have to be prepared by
A) Rotary microtome B) Sled microtome
C) Cryomicrotome D) Ultramicrotome
58. Haematoxylin is obtained from the
A) Heart wood of Haematoxylumcampechianum of the family Fabaceae
B) Leaf of Haematoxylumcampechianum of the family Fabaceae
C) Heart wood of Haematoxylumcampechianum of the family Malvaceae
D) Leaves of Haematoxylumcampechianum of the family Malvaceae
59. The fuelgen nuclear reaction included the following
A) Reaction of deoxyribose with leucofuschin to give purple colour to DNA
B) Reaction of ribose with leucofuschin to give purple colour to DNA
C) Removal of purine at purine deoxyriboseglycosidic bond of DNA by acid
hydrolysis.
D) All of the above
60. In humans, the Barr body is an
A) Active X chromosome in females
B) Active X chromosome in males
C) Inactive Y chromosome in males
D) Inactive X chromosome in females
61. Disease(s) caused by perturbation of protein conformation
A) Prion diseases only B) Alzheimer’sdisease only
C) Both A&B D) None of these
62. The following is not a carbohydrate.
A) Starch B) Glycogen
C) Inulin D) Prostaglandins
63. Kwashiorkor disease is caused by deficiency of
A) Starch B) Protein
C) Fatty acids D) Minerals

8
64. The anticodon loop of atRNA typically consists of
A) 3 codons B) 6 codons
C) 7 codons D) 5 codons
65. Transcription is specifically regulated by regulatory proteins of unique motifs -
A) Helix-turn Helix B) Zinc finger
C) Leucine Zipper D) All the above
66. Eco R1 is the restriction enzyme that recognizes the following DNA sequence
A) GGATCC
CCTAGG
B) GAATTC
CTTAAG
C) GCGC
CGCG
D) TCGA
AGCT
67. Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin?
A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin K D) Vitamin D
68. Which of the following is not listed as essential amino acid in humans?
A) Arginine B) Valine
C) Leucine D) Alanine
69. In higher plant leaves, the reduction of nitrate to ammonium takes place by the
combined action of nitrate reductase localized in cytosol and nitrite reductase
localized in
A) Peroxisomes B) Mitochondria
C) Chloroplasts D) Cytosol
70. The swelling of doors and windows during rainy season is due to
A) Adsorption of water B) Absorption of water
C) Imbibition of water D) Diffusion of water
71. Which of the following represents the sequence of electron flow in the light
reactions of photosynthesis in higher plants?
A) H2O  photosystem I  photosystem II  NADP
B) H2O  photosystem II  photosystem I  NADP
C) H2O  photosystem II  photosystem I  ATP
D) NADPH  photosystem I → photosystem II  O2

9
72. The atom within each cytochrome molecule that actually accepts and release
electron is
A) Carbon B) Iron
C) Zinc D) Oxygen
73. Which of the following statements are associated with the process of
photorespiration in plants?
(P) Photorespiration takes place in only C3 plants.
(Q) Photorespiration takes place in only C4 plants.
(R) Photorespiration takes place in both C3 and C4 plants.
(S) Glycolate is oxidized to glyoxylate in the peroxisome.
(T) Glycolate is oxidized to glyoxylate in the mitochondria.
A) (P) and (S) B) (R) and (S)
C) (Q) and (T) D) (R) and (T)
74. How many distinct photosynthetic mechanisms exist in vascular plants?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 1
75. In the following crops, which produces maximum carbohydrate/unit land?
A) Rice B) Wheat
C) Potato D) Sugarcane
76. The treatment that induces rapid growth and development in the plants of
temperate or polar region is
A) Vernalization B) Grating
C) Scarification D) Soaking of seeds
77. Movement of pollen tube towards micropyle of ovule depends on
A) Thigmotropism B) Thermotropism
C) Chemotropism D) Hydrotropism
78. Which of the following groups of enzymes are unique to the Calvin cycle?
A) Ribulosebisphosphate carboxylase, phosphoribulokinase, and
sedoheptulose1, 7-bisphosphatase
B) Ribose 5-phosphate isomerase, epimerase, and aldolase
C) Glyceraldehyde3-phosphate dehydrogenase, phosphofructokinase, and
phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase
D) Phosphoglycolate phosphatase, glycerol kinase, and serine synthetase
79. Biomass turnover time is the ratio between biomass and productivity of an
ecosystem. Which of the following forests should have highest biomass turnover
time?
A) Tropical dry forests
B) Tropical wet forests
C) Temperate deciduous forests
D) Boreal forests

10
80. A community dominated by shrubs and bushes is called
A) Steppe B) Prairie
C) Scrub D) Pampas
81. Population of individuals of a species having genetically fixed variations but are
interfertile and placed under same taxonomic species is called
A) Ecads B) Ecotypes
C) Endemic species D) Key stone species
82. Which among the following is not an organophosphates pesticide?
A) Parathion B) Malathion
C) Methyl parathion D) DDT
83. Tectonagrandis shed leaves during
A) Winter B) Summer
C) Before flowering D) After fruiting
84. Which of the following represents a food chain
A) Grasshopper-Green plants-Frog-Snake-Peacock
B) Green plants - Grasshopper- -Frog-Snake-Peacock
C) Grasshopper-Green plants- Snake- Frog –Peacock
D) Green plants -Grasshopper- Frog--Peacock- Snake
85. Match Column I Column II
a. Strontium (i) minamata
b. Mercury (ii) itai–itai
c. lead (iii) bone cancer
d. Cadmium (iv) anaemia
A) a- iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii B) a- ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
C) a- i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv D) a- iv, b-i c-iii, d-ii
86. The period known as Age of Giant Lycopods
A) Cretaceous B) Jurassic
C) Triassic D) Carboniferous
87. Gondwana land consists of
A) India, Africa, Australia, South America &Antartica
B) South America &Antartica
C) Africa, America &Antartica
D) India & Australia

11
88. Which of the following best supports the endosymbiotic theory of the
evolutionary origin of mitochondria?
A) Mitochondria, chloroplasts, and prokaryotes contain electron carriers.
B) Genes for mitochondrial pyruvate dehydrogenase subunits are found in the
nuclear DNA
C) Mitochondrial and bacterial ribosomal functions are inhibited by the same
antibiotics
D) The outer mitochondrial membrane contains the protein porin.
89. The organism which requires priority of conservation according to the Red Data
Book published by IUCN is
A) Vulnerable B) Endangered
C) Rare D) Threatened
90. The following biofertilizer is not a nitrogen source
A) Rhizobium B) Azolla
C) Pseudomonas D) Azospirillum
91. Biosphere reserve in Madhya Pradesh
A) Gulf of Mannar B) Sundarbans
C) Nandadevi D) Panchmarhi
92. Diploid organisms in which one chromosome of a single pair is missing are called
A) Trisomic B) Nullisomic
C) Monosomic D) Tetrasomic
93. Abnormal males possessing an extra X chromosome develop
A) Klinefelter Syndrome B) Turner Syndrome
C) Down syndrome D) Patau Syndrome
94. In meiosis, an inversion in one member of a pair of homologous chromosomes
will most likely lead to which of the following?
A) Nondisjunction of the affected chromosome
B) Chromosomes with duplications and deficiencies
C) Increased recombination frequency in the inverted region
D) Mispairing of the affected chromosome with a nonhomologous
chromosome
95. Smallest unit in the cell wall is
A) Fibril B) Microfibril
C) Micelle D) Cutin
96. The following crystalline DNA helix structure is left handed
A) A- DNA B) B –DNA
C) Z -DNA D) D –DNA

12
97. During meiosis, crossing over between two non-sister chromatids occurs at
A) Leptotene B) Zygotene
C) Pachytene D) Diplotene
98. If an organism of genotype AaBbCcDd are test crossed, how many different
phenotypes can appear in the progeny
A) 4 B) 8 C) 12 D) 16
99. The genotype Ab/aB produces 8% each of cross over type gametes. The distance
between A and B is estimated as
A) 8cM B) 16cM
C) 4cM D) None of the above
100. A class of mutations caused by addition or deletion of one or two nucleotides is
called
A) Silent Mutation B) Transition
C) Frame shift D) Transversion
101. Chloroplast based DNA markers are now being used for the taxonomic
identification of plants. This method is called
A) RAPD B) RFLP
C) AFLP D) DNA barcoding
102. Suppose that in a sample of 900 sheep, 891 are white and 9 are black. White
wool is dominant over black wool. Estimate the frequency of recessive allele
A) 0.7 B) 0.3 C) 0.9 D) 0.1
103. Individuals born with a condition known as phenylketonuria must control their
intake of phenylalanine or suffer developmental problems. Because of this they
must avoid foods rich in what?
A) Proteins and lipids B) Fats and oils
C) Proteins D) Simple sugars
104. The mRNA codon GUC will be recognized by the anticodon of tRNA
A) CAG B) GUC C) GAC D) CTG
105. The radioisotope used to label protein differently from nucleic acid is
A) 32
P B) 14
C C) 35
S D) 15
N
106. There are three kinds of RNA polymerase, each specific for one class of RNA.
Which of the following is the correct match?
A) RNA I-rRNA, RNA II –mRNA, RNA III-tRNA
B) RNA I-rRNA, RNA II-tRNA, RNA III-mRNA
C) RNA I-mRNA, RNAII-tRNA, RNAIII-rRNA
D) RNA I-tRNA, RNA II-tRNA, RNA III- r RNA

13
107. The terminator codons are
A) UAA, UAG, UGA B) UUU, UUC, UUG
C) UUA, UGG, UGA D) UGC, UGG, UAG
108. A base change in DNA that would not affect the amino acid sequence in the
protein is known as
A) Missense mutation B) Nonsense mutation
C) Silent Mutation D) Neutral mutation
109. Electrophoresis of histones and myoglobin under non-denaturing conditions (pH =
7.0) results in
A) Both proteins migrate to the anode
B) Histones migrate to the anode and myoglobin migrates to the cathode
C) Histones migrate to the cathode and myoglobin migrates to the anode
D) Both proteins migrate to the cathode
110. Formation of what type of chemical bond is catalyzed by DNA ligase
A) Phosphoester B) Hydrogen
C) Glycosidic D) Ester
111. The following crop is used in phytoremediation
A) Mustard B) Wheat
C) Rice D) Sugarcane
112. Freeze preservation of living plant cells involves the following steps
A) Freezing- thawing – storage- reculture
B) Freezing-storage- reculture –thawing
C) Freezing-storage-thawing-reculture
D) Freezing--reculture -storage-thawing
113. The cDNA library of the organism will be
A) Tissue specific B) Growth specific
C) Organ specific D) Cell specific
114. Drought tolerance in plants is strongly correlated with the accumulation of
aminoacid
A) Serine B) Lysine
C) Tryptophan D) Proline
115. If male plant is diploid and female plant is tetraploid , the endosperm will be
A) Haploid B) Pentaploid
C) Triploid D) Tetraploid

14
116. The tool used for pairwise analysis of DNA sequences
A) ClustalW B) PROBCONS
C) MUSCLE D) BLAST
117. Which of the following public domain is/are open access data bases?
A) NCBI B) ExPASy
C) PDB D) All the above
118. Emasculation in coconut tree is done by
A) Removing anthers from the male flowers
B) Removing anthers from the bisexual flowers
C) Removing the male flowers from the inflorescence
D) Removing anthers from the male flowers before anthesis
119. When light is irradiated into a rapidly flowing solution containing cells, a
scattered light is released from the cells and cells can be separated based on the
properties of the scattered light. This principle is used in
A) Radioimmunoassay B) Flow cytometry
C) Immunoprecipitation D) Fluorescence microscopy
120. The standard deviation of the data is 6. When each observation is increased by 1,
the standard deviation of the new data is
A) 6 B) 8 C) 5 D) 7
******************

13603 120 MINUTES
1. Mycoplasma are resistant to common antibiotics like penicillin because of
A) Sterols in the membrane
B) Lack of cell wall
C) Small genome size
D) Active repairing mechanism
2. The compound employed as a fusogen for plant protoplast fusion techniques?
A) Sodium chloride B) Potassium chloride
C) Polyethylene glycol D) Trehalose
3. Reverse transcriptases are encoded by retroviruses. One of the enzymes from the
mammalian cells which shows reverse transcriptase-like activity is
A) Telomerase B) Ribozyme
C) Caspase D) Ribonuclease
4. The frequency of an allele in a population can be changed by forces like
A) Dominance, family selection, fitness & diversification
B) Selection, mutation, migration, inbreeding & random genetic drift
C) Forward mutation, gene conversion, neutral evolution & recombination
D) Gene interaction, gene transfer, gene mutation & out breeding
5. The methodology for defining gene arrangement in very long stretches of DNA
(for example 50-100kb) is
A) Nick translation B) Chromosome walking
C) AFLP D) Southern blotting
6. Norman Borlaug, the Father of Green Revolution, revolutionized agriculture by
developing new varieties of
A) Wheat B) Rice
C) Maize D) Corn
7. Theory of Continental Drift was proposed by
A) Du Tolit B) Charles Darwin
C) Alfred Wegener D) Weisman
8. For a population in which mortality rate is low until the end of life span, the mode
of survivorship graph is
A) Highly convex curve B) Highly Diagonal curve
C) Concave curve D) Linear curve

2
9. The mechanism that best describes the opening of stomata in plants?
A) Influx of K+ into the guard cells followed by endosmosis, making the cells
turgid
B) K+ triggers the water pumps in the guard cell membrane that make them
turgid
C) Efflux of K+ from the guard cells followed by water, making the cells
flaccid
D) Loss of K+ from guard cells creates positive pressure leading to turgidity
of the guard cells
10. How many ATP molecules or ATP equivalents are required to synthesize a
protein which contains 100 amino acids?
A) 600 B) 400 C) 200 D) 300
11. Polygonum type embryo sac is
A) Monosporic B) Bisporic
C) Trisporic D) Tetrasporic
12. In a frequency distribution, if the mean is less than the mode, and the median is
greater than the mean but less than the mode, the distribution is considered to be:
A) Negatively skewed B) Positively skewed
C) Symmetrical D) Open ended
13. Which of the following computer language is used for artificial intelligence?
A) FORTRAN B) COBOL C) PROLOG D) C
14. Cell cycle check points form a mechanism to ensure
A) Proper DNA replication
B) Proper chromosome separation
C) Proper completion of each stage in cell cycle
D) Proper termination of cell cycle
15. Which of the following type of microscopy is most useful for viewing the internal
structures of unstained specimens?
A) Phase-contrast B) Bright field
C) Electron D) Confocal
16. Which of the following techniques would give you the most precise and accurate
information about where and when a given gene is expressed?
A) In situ hybridization
B) DNA microarray
C) Promoter gene fusion including introns
D) Reporter gene fusion including introns
17. The spore of diatoms resulting from syngamy are called
A) Autospore B) Auxospore
C) Androspore D) Zygospore

3
18. Infectious single stranded RNA in plants that are not associated with any protein
is known as
A) Viruses B) Viroids
C) Priones D) Satellite viruses
19. Powdery lesions on the underside of the coffee leaves appear as orange yellow to
red orange in colour known as coffee rust is caused by
A) Hemileia vastatrix B) Puccinia graminis
C) Cronartium ribicola D) Uromyces phaseoli
20. Which of these spores are characteristic of the black bread mold Rhizopus?
A) Basidospores B) Arthrospores
C) Sporangiospores D) Ascospores
21. Litmus, a dye used in laboratories as an indicator of acid-base, is obtained from
A) Rocella B) Usnea
C) Peltigera D) Everina
22. Sporophyte with Synangium, homosporous with eusporangite development is seen
in the pteridophyte
A) Psilotum B) Lycopodium
C) Isoetes D) Marselia
23. Birbal Sahni (1948) made the first collection of fossilized pteridophyte
Pentoxylales from the village Nipania of
A) Bihar B) Assam
C) Utter Pradesh D) Kashmir
24. Who among the following proposed a phylogenetic system of classification?
A) Carl Linnaeus B) Bentham and Hooker
C) John Hutchinson D) Charles Darwin
25. Plants with stellate hairs, mucilaginous, free lateral stipule, solitary flowers, free
petals with contorted aestivation, monoadelphous stamen, ovules with axile
placentation is seen in the family
A) Malvaceae B) Rutaceae
C) Caryophyllacea D) Meliaceae
26. Pavement tissue, a unique region occurs in the ovule of the gymnosperm
A) Gnetum B) Taxus
C) Agathis D) Ephedra
27. Study of medical aspects of pollen grains is known as
A) Latropalynology B) Mellitopalynology
C) Aeropalynology D) Copropalynology

4
28. Strip of parenchyma cells, polygonal or radially elongated, lying in between
vascular bundle is known as
A) Cambium B) Bundle sheath
C) Medullary rays D) Endodermis
29. Feulgen staining of DNA is based on the reaction of Schiffs reagent with
A) Free aldehyde group of pentose sugar
B) Purines at N-7 position
C) Pyrimidines at N-1 position
D) Phosphate moiety of nucleotide
30. Winged bean is the common name of
A) Psophocarpus tetragonolobus
B) Viccia angularis
C) Lens culinaris
D) Cyamopsis tetragonoloba
31. The chemistry of raphide crystal is
A) Silica B) Calcium oxalate
C) Calcium carbonate D) Ferric sulphate
32. In a competitive inhibition the Km and Vmax values of an enzyme
A) Km and Vmax values decrease
B) Km value increases whereas Vmax remains unchanged
C) Km and Vmax values increase
D) Km value remains unchanged and Vmax value decreases
33. The proteins in the native PAGE are separated on the basis of
A) Molecular mass B) Net charge and size
C) Net charges D) Based on isoelectric value
34. Which is the strongest reducing agent in photosynthetic electron transport cycle in
chloroplast?
A) P700* B) P680*
C) Plastoquinone D) Plasocyanin
35. If a carotenoid-less mutant plant was grown under normal sunlight, then …….
occurs
A) Increased chlorophyll oxidation and necrosis
B) Increased chlorophyll synthesis
C) Increased photosynthetic rate
D) Reduced photorespiration
36. Plasma membrane infoldings are characteristic of
A) Transfer cells
B) Transfusion tissue
C) Mitochondria
D) Companion cells

5
37. The antibody that binds to mast cells, promote the release of histamine and other
agents that produce allergic symptoms
A) Ig M B) Ig G C) Ig E D) Ig D
38. Deinococcus radiodurans an extremophilic bacterium is able to survive even
exposure to massive radiation?
A) Because it possess a thick shell which acts as a shield from the radiation
B) Because it has unique repair mechanisms
C) Because its cell wall contains radioactive neutralizing elements
D) Because it has many copies of genes encoding DNA repair
39. The presence of pyrenoid in the middle of the chloroplast in a bryophyte, a unique
feature, makes it apparently resemble with algae is seen in
A) Funaria B) Riccia
C) Anthoceros D) Porella
40. Canada balsam is obtained from
A) Podocarpus acutifolius B) Taxus baccata
C) Agathis alba D) Abies balsamea
41. Taxonomy, when it is strengthened by incorporating data from semantides and
non semantides is called
A) Numerical taxonomy B) Cytotaxonomy
C) Chemotaxonomy D) Alpha taxonomy
42. Botanical Survey of India was established in 1890 under the Ex-officio Director
A) Sir George King B) Sir Arthur James
C) J.D. Hooker D) Robert Kyd
43. A fossil bryophyte identified from Rhaetic, Upper Triassic is
A) Naiadita B) Plagiochasma
C) Leucobryum D) Plagiochila
44. Carnoy’s fluid employed in cytological preparations consists of the following
A) Absolute alcohol + chloroform + glacial acetic acid
B) Absolute alcohol + chloroform + distilled water
C) Absolute alcohol + Formalin + glacial acetic acid
D) Absolute alcohol + Chromic acid + glacial acetic acid
45. Abnormal functioning of cambium and multiple cambial ring formation leads to
anomalous secondary growth in
A) Bignonia B) Bauhinia
C) Boerhavia D) Eupatorium
46. The chemotherapeutic drug derived from Taxus species which is used to treat
breast cancer is
A) Vincristin B) Vinblastin
C) Paclitaxel D) Taxine

6
47. Melting of DNA molecule leads to
A) Decrease in optical density B) Increase in optical density
C) No change in optical density D) Fluctuation in optical density
48. When the cell is Plasmolyzed, its
A) DPD = OP B) DPD = 0
C) DPD = OP + TP D) DPD = OP – TP
49. A transitional zone between two ecosystems is called
A) Fragile ecosystem B) Biome
C) Ecotone D) Buffer zone
50. Whose name is most closely associated with molecular evolution?
A) Theodosius Dobzhansky B) Motoo Kimura
C) Frederick Sanger D) Stephen Jay Gould
51. International Conservation for Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) headquarters
is located at
A) Morges, Switzerland B) Paris, France
C) Vienna, Austria D) New York, USA
52. The Gangetic estuary of Sunderban region is rich in
A) Deciduous forests B) Evergreen forests
C) Subtropical forests D) Mangrove vegetation
53. A gene inherited from female is not recognized in either male or female
offspring, but the same gene is expressed in both male and female offspring when
inherited from male. This can be aptly explained by
A) Repression B) Deletion
C) Recombination D) Imprinting
54. Chromosomal puffs are active sites of
A) RNA synthesis B) DNA replication
C) Lipid synthesis D) Polysaccharide synthesis
55. Satellite DNA is
A) Short repetitive nucleotide sequence
B) Single gene regions
C) Ribosomal RNA genes
D) Extra chromosomal DNA
56. The factor involved in the control of epigenetic gene expression in eukaryotes is?
A) RNA polymerase II B) DNA methyltransferase
C) TF II D D) TF II H
57. In a population, 75% are with dominant phenotype and the rest are with the
recessive phenotype. If the population is in equilibrium with respect to this locus,
what is the frequency of the dominant allele?
A) 0.5 B) 0.25 C) 0.75 D) 0.40

7
58. Xeroderma pigmentosum is an autosomal recessive genetic disease that causes a
variety of phenotypic changes in skin cells on exposure to light like freckles on
face, arms, and legs. What is the most likely disorder of this DNA repair
mechanism?
A) Base excision repair
B) Nucleotide excision repair
C) Defective RNA transcription from TATA- less promoter
D) Impaired DNA repair by photo reactivation
59. Which was the first eukaryotic chromosome sequenced with 315 kb?
A) Yeast chromosome III B) Yeast chromosome XI
C) Arabidopsis chromosome IV D) Arabidopsis chromosome III
60. Elite plants of a population are selected at the time of harvest and their seeds are
bulked for sowing in the next season is termed as
A) Pure line selection B) Mass selection
C) Line breeding D) Recurrent selection
61. First genetically modified plant produced in 1982 was
A) Transgenic tobacco B) Transgenic maize
C) Transgenic tomato D) Transgenic cotton
62. The mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another
is
A) Translocation B) Inversion
C) Crossing over D) Duplication
63. A mouse in which one particular gene has been replaced by its inactivated form
generated in vitro is called
A) Transgenic mouse B) Knockout mouse
C) Humouse D) Recombinant mouse
64. The field of horticulture involved in fruit growing and study of all fruits and nuts
is
A) Pomology B) Olericulture
C) Arboriculture D) Floriculture
65. Which among the following tribal community receives benefit of the use of
Trichopus zeylanicus as per benefit sharing system?
A) Kuruchiyar B) Kaatunaikan
C) Kani D) Mullukurumba
66. Bacterial artificial chromosome, cosmid, P1phage and plasmid are common
cloning vectors with a range from 1 to 300k. Which of the following is the
proper order for these vectors in terms of cloning capacity?
A) Bacterial artificial chromosome, cosmid, P1 phage, plasmid
B) Cosmid, Bacterial artificial chromosome, P1 phage, plasmid
C) P1 Phage, cosmid, Bacterial artificial chromosome, plasmid
D) Plasmid, cosmid, P1 phage, Bacterial artificial chromosome

8
67. The first step of proof reading during protein synthesis is carried out by?
A) Ribosomes B) aminoacyl t-RNA synthetase
C) m-RNA D) t-RNA
68. Position effect is the result of
A) Mutations B) Deletions
C) Transversions D) Inversions
69. A taxonomic system based only on the traits that reflect the order in time in which
branches arose in a phylogenetic tree is called
A) Phylogeny
B) Cladistic
C) Classical evolutionary taxonomy
D) Phenetics
70. A keystone species is one that
A) Exhibits higher likelihood of extinction than a non keystone species
B) Exerts a strong influence on an ecosystem
C) Leads to extinction of other species
D) Has a weak influence on an ecosystem
71. Plant succession initiated on such areas where there is extreme scarcity of water is
known as
A) Lithosere B) Hydrosere
C) Xerosere D) Psammosere
72. The total biomass of photosynthetic autotrophs present in an ecosystem is known
as the
A) Net primary productivity B) Standing crop
C) Trophic efficiency D) Standing state
73. Paratracheal parenchyma may be found:
A) at the interface of spring and summer wood
B) around wood rays
C) around xylem vessels
D) in phloem
74. Endosperm haustoria with vermiform appendage is reported in
A) Grevillea B) Coconut
C) Adoxa D) Hyoscymus
75. Pseudostem with sheathing leaf base, thick midrib, spathaceous bracts, corolla two
lipped, stamens 5, ovary inferior with many ovules on axile placentation – these are
seen in
A) Arecaceae B) Aroideae
C) Poaceae D) Musaceae
76. Prokaryotes contain one RNA polymerase. How many are there in eukaryotes?
A) 1 B) 3 C) 2 D) 4

9
77. The gymnosperm wood which is densely packed with reduced pith and cortex is
known as
A) Pycnoxylic B) Monoxylic
C) Hard wood D) Light wood
78. Red rot of sugar cane is caused by
A) Colletotrichum falcatum B) Xanthomonas citri
C) Alternaria solani D) Fusarium oxysporum
79. The genetic effect seen in an isolated population formed by a few individuals of a
species is known as
A) Bottleneck effect B) Founder effect
C) Assortative effect D) Random mating
80. Which fungal group shows Clamp Formation?
A) Basidomycota B) Ascomycota
C) Chytridiomycota D) Deuteromycota
81. The algae possess a life cycle that switches between diploid sporophyte and
haploid gametophyte which are indistinguishable morphologically i.e. isomorphic
diplohaplontic?
A) Volvox B) Zygnema
C) Ulothrix D) Cladophora
82. The binding of the antigen to the antibody takes place through the interaction of
antigen with
A) Light chain of antibody
B) Light & heavy chain of antibody
C) Light & heavy chain and with Fc fragment of the antibody
D) Heavy chain of antibody
83. Student’s t-test was developed
A) As an easy statistical test for students
B) By the students of Oxford University
C) By W.S.Gosset
D) By R.A.Fisher
84. Teichoic acids are polysaccharides of glycerol phosphate typically found in
A) Cell walls of gram positive bacteria
B) Cell walls of gram negative bacteria
C) Cell membrane of gram positive bacteria
D) Cell membrane of gram negative bacteria
85. Of the three types of ecological pyramids, which pyramid gives the best overall
picture of the functional nature of communities?
A) Pyramid of number B) Pyramid of mass
C) Pyramid of energy D) Both A and C

10
86. Which of the following is incorrect?
A) Root apical meristem is the meristem of synthesis of cytokinin
B) Methionine is the precursor of Ethylene
C) Tryptophan is the precursor of IAA
D) Thidiazuron is the most abundant naturally occurring cytokinin of higher
plants
87. Agar is obtained from the algae
A) Gelidium B) Gracillaria
C) Both A & B D) Polysiphonia
88. The most common type of chromosome rearrangement involving acrocentric
chromosomes of humans is
A) Robertsonian translocation B) Inversion
C) Duplication D) Deletion
89. In amphivasal vascular bundles
A) Peripherally arranged xylem elements enclose a mass of phloem
B) Peripherally arranged phloem elements enclose a mass of xylem
C) Xylem and phloem are arranged side by side
D) Xylem is seen on either side of the phloem
90. A Pteridophyte member with ridged stem, consists of alternating vallecular and
carinal canal with V shaped poorly developed xylem
A) Selaginella B) Equisetum
C) Microsorium D) Marsilea
91. The Gymnosperm known as living fossil and represented worldwide distribution
in Jurassic is
A) Ginkgo B) Ephedra
C) Williamsonia D) Lyginopteris
92. The specimen collected from the same locality from where the holotype was
originally collected and is the contingent from the same population is known as
A) Tototype B) Neotype
C) Epitype D) Isotype
93. The family characterized by herbaceous plants, swollen nodes, dichasial cyme,
complete, actinomorphic, hypogynous flower, obdiplostemonous condition,
ovules on free central placentation.
A) Caryophyllaceae B) Ranunculaceae
C) Cruciferae D) Rutaceae
94. If a diploid cell contains six chromosomes, how many possible random
arrangements of homologous could occur during Metaphase- I
A) 4 B) 8 C) 6 D) 64
95. A plant of genotype AB/ab is test crossed to ab/ab. If the two loci are 10 map units
apart, what proportion of the progeny will be AB/ab?
A) 5% B) 45% C) 10% D) 20%

11
96. The genome of a typical bacterium contains about 5 × 106
base pairs and can be
replicated in about 41 minutes. The human genome is 600X larger (3 × 109
base
pairs) and at the rate of a bacterium would require 300 hours (~12 days) to be
replicated; yet the entire human genome can be replicated within a few hours.
How is this possible?
A) Eukaryotic DNA is simpler to replicate than prokaryotic DNA
B) Human DNA polymerases works much faster than that of prokaryotes
C) The nucleosomes of eukaryotic DNA allow for faster DNA replication
D) Human DNA contains more origins of replication than prokaryotic DNA
97. Choose the mismatch
A. DNase I 1.Cleaves only ds DNA
B. Maxam-Gilbert method 2.Chemical modification of bases
C. Dideoxy terminator 3. Sanger method
D. Biotin 4. Water soluble vitamin
98. The bacterial enzyme that changes positively supercoiled DNA into negatively
supercoiled DNA is
A) DNA helicase
B) DNA gyrase
C) Single stranded binding protein
D) Polymerase
99. In sheep, dominant allele B produces white wool and its recessive allele b
produces black wool. In a total of 900 sheep, 891 are white and 9 are black.
Estimate the frequency of the B allele
A) 0.1 B) 0.9 C) 0.3 D) 0.7
100. A bag contains 10 black and 20 white balls and a ball is drawn in random. What is
the possibility of drawing a black ball?
A) 0.33 B) 0.22 C) 0.55 D) 0.88
101. Rosalind Franklin’s pictures of DNA double helix were taken using the technique
known as
A) Diffraction B) X-ray crystallography
C) Fluorescence D) Transmission electron microscopy
102. An analysis of chromosomal DNA by Southern blot technique, involves the
following steps
1. Autoradiography 2. Blotting 3. Cleavage 4. Electrophoresis 5. Hybridization
Which of the following sequence of steps best illustrates this technique?
A) 1,2,3,4,5 B) 1,3,2,4,5
C) 3,5,2,4,1 D) 3,4,2,5,1

12
103. Axenic culture is best defined as
A) Cell culture B) Organ culture
C) Cell culture of microbes D) Cell culture free from other microbes
104. Binomial of a plant with no accompanying description is known as
A) Tautonym B) Nomen nudum
C) Late homonym D) Later isonym
105. Adventive polyembryony is due to
A) Cleavage of proembryo
B) Embryo from cells other than egg cell
C) Splitting of zygote
D) Embryos from nucellus
106. Henna dye is obtained from
A) Lawsonia inermis B) Lagerstroemia speciosa
C) Lythrum baeticum D) Indigofera tinctoria
107. Jeffreys maceration technique comprises the following chemical combination
A) Chromic acid + nitric acid
B) Potassium chlorate
C) Potassium chlorate + chromic acid
D) Sodium sulphite + chlorine water
108. Dicentric chromatids are produced when crossing over takes place in
chromosomes with
A) Heterozygous paracentric inversion
B) Heterozygous pericentric inversion
C) Homozygous inversions
D) Duplication
109. Fumaria type, Cucurbita type, Lathyrus type and Anemarrhena type are categories
of
A) Root stem transition B) Nodal anatomy
C) Stelar types D) Embryo sac types
110. Ribose and Deoxyribose differ in the structure around a single carbon namely
A) C1 B) C2 C) C3 D) C5
111. The key enzyme for nitrogen fixation namely Nitrogenase consists of
dinitrogenase and dinitrogen reductase. These differ from each other in the
presence of the following metal component
A) Iron B) Molybdenum
C) Zinc D) Manganese
112. Name the compound with greatest standard free energy
A) ATP B) Phosphocreatine
C) Phosphoenol pyruvate D) cAMP

13
113. One of the kinase enzymes in Glycolytic pathway is reversible
A) Hexokinase B) Phosphofructokinase
C) Pyruvate kinase D) Phosphoglycerate kinase
114. The aminoacid that does not participate in transamination
A) Lysine B) Glutamate
C) Alanine D) Tryptophan
115. The event leading to post translational modification
A) Hydroxylation B) Glycosylation
C) Phosphorylation D) All of these
116. Ribosomes are attached to endoplasmic reticulum so as to form rough
endoplasmic reticulum mediated by
A) Ribophorin I B) Ribophorin II
C) Both (A) and (B) D) Magnesium linked protein
117. The largest cell organelle is
A) Chloroplast B) Mitochondrion
C) Peroxisome D) Golgi cisternae
118. In Ectocarpus, gametangia are sexual bodies which are
A) Plurilocular B) Unilocular
C) Monosporangia D) Nucule
119. What characteristic domain is found in eukaryotic proteins that enable them to
enter the endoplasmic reticulum?
A) Stop transfer domain B) Signal sequence
C) Signal sequence receptor D) Signal recognition protein
120. Cryptochromes are pigments involved in the circadian rhythms of plants, sensing
of magnetic fields in a number of species and are sensitive to
A) Red light B) Blue light
C) Far red light D) Both blue & red light
………………

A
16103 120 MINUTES
1. The consensus sequence of Pribnow box is
A) TATATA B) TATAAT
C) TTAATT D) TATTAT
2. The topological form of DNA that does not occur in biological systems is
A) A-DNA B) B-DNA
C) C-DNA D) Z-DNA
3. The enzymes that induce slight negative supercoiling in natural DNA is
A) DNA topoisomerase B) DNA helicase
C) DNA primase D) DNA ligase
4. Non-covalent chemical bonds that stabilize the DNA double helix by connecting
the adjacent aromatic rings of base pairs is
A) Sigma bonds B) Delta bonds
C) Gamma bonds D) Pi bonds
5. In DNA triple helix, the third strand is attached to the double helix by
A) Watson & Crick pairing B) Hoogsteen pairing
C) Agostic pairing D) Ionic pairing
6. RNA polymerase binds to a gene on the 3' end of a DNA template strand, termed
A) Repressor B) Promoter
C) Attenuator D) Operator
7. Intron homing is
A) Removal of introns from the exon sequences
B) Splicing of introns in the hnRNA
C) Insertion of intron to an intron-less site
D) Deletion of introns from a homologous site
8. The snRNPs are found in
A) Ribosome B) Lysosome
C) Replisome D) Spliceosome
9. In humans, the gene with the greatest number of introns is for
A) Globin B) Titin
C) Insulin D) Cyclin
10. The 1993 Nobel prize in Physiology and Medicine for the discovery of gene-
splicing was awarded to
A) Philip Allen Sharp & Richard J. Roberts
B) Elizabeth H. Blackburn & Carol W. Greider
C) Mario Capecchi, Martin Evans & Oliver Smithies
D) Selman Waksman & Albert Schatz

2
11. In which of the following families is pseudo embryo sac present?
A) Podostemaceae B) Amaranthaceae
C) Malvaceae D) Poaceae
12. Single letter code of tryptophan
A) W B) F C) Y D) Z
13. Which of the following is not an osmolyte?
A) Proline B) Sucrose
C) Plastoquinone D) Trehalose
14. Which one of the following terms describes the repeated selection on intervening
populations derived from interbreeding of selected individuals to accumulate the
desirable genes for a particular quantitative character without loss of genetic
variability?
A) Mater line selection B) Recurrent selection
C) Mass selection D) Pure line selection
15. Which statement is correct regarding Melbourne Code – 2011?
A) Latin diagnosis is not mandatory for names published on or after
01/01/ 2012.
B) Publication of taxa in electronic media is effective on or after 01/01/ 2012.
C) The Code is named as International Code of Nomenclature for algae, fungi
and plants.
D) All of the above
16. Ames test is a test for:
A) Coliforms B) Carbohydrates
C) Mutagenecity D) Lipids
17. The basic unit of numerical taxonomy is called
A) PTU B) OTU
C) CTU D) KTU
18. What is the difference between a threatened species and an endangered species?
A) A threatened species means that the population is likely to become
endangered; an endangered species has population numbers too low that it
is likely to become extinct
B) A threatened species is already extinct; an endangered species means that
the population’s numbers have increased greatly over the last 5 years
C) A threatened species means that the population is likely to become
endangered; an endangered species is already extinct
D) A threatened species and an endangered species are the same thing
19. Which among the following is not a nucleic acid database?
A) EMBL B) GenBank
C) DDBJ D) SWISS-PROT

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