Crash-Course for AIPMT & Other Medical Exams 2016Target pmt (2)

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CRASH COURSE for IIT-JEE,BITS,UPTU& AIPMT
Tips + Tricks + Time management
Training of more than 240 hrs. by highly experienced and best in class faculty.
Study material having concise chapterwise theory for clarity on key concepts & formulae.
Specialized Practice Booklets containing 3000 problems, forms the Course.
Expert's tips on time management and strategic planning will help students to focus and plan well.
10 full length tests on IIT‐Main pattern along with detail discussion.
Course Features
discount on
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till 10th March
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TARGET PMT
BIOLOGY
(class12th)
Registration Fee : 2000/-
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Batch Commencement Data : 15th, 22nd & 29th March
Boost your IIT-JEE / AIPMT Preparation

1. match column-I with column-II and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
I. Incomplete digestive system a. Sponges
II. cellular level of organisation B. coelenterates
III. radial symmetry c. annelids
IV. Pseudocoelomate D. Platyhelminthes
V. metamerism E. aschelminthes
(a) I - c, II - D, III - a, IV - B,V - E
(b) I - D, II - E, III - B, IV - c,V - a
(c) I - D, II - a, III - B, IV - E,V - c
(d) I - a, II - B, III - c, IV - D,V - E
2. Which of the following combinations is correct for
wheat?
(a) Genus : Triticum, Family : anacardiaceae, Order :
Poales, class : monocotyledonae
(b) Genus : Triticum, Family : Poaceae, Order : Poales,
class: Dicotyledonae
(c) Genus:Triticum,Family:Poaceae,Order:Sapindales,
class : monocotyledonae
(d) Genus : Triticum, Family : Poaceae, Order : Poales,
class: monocotyledonae
3. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris
and Ginkgo?
(a) Presence of archegonia
(b) Well developed vascular tissues
(c) Independent gametophyte
(d) Independent sporophyte
4. choose the wrong statement.
(a) Teeth in chondrichthyes are modified ctenoid
scales.
(b) air bladder in fishes regulates buoyancy.
(c) In amphibians, the tympanum represents the ear.
(d) Long bones in birds are pneumatic.
5. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched
with its characteristic and taxon?
Animal Characteristic Taxon
(a) millipede Ventral nerve cord arachnida
(b) Sea anemone Triploblastic cnidaria
(c) Silver fish Pectoral and pelvic chordata
fins
(d) Duck-billed Oviparous mammalia
platypus
6.
In the diagram given above, some of the algae have
been labelled as ‘a’,‘B’,‘c’,‘D’ and ‘E’.These algae are
respectively identified as:
(a) Dictyota, Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Fucus and
Laminaria
(b) Porphyra, Dictyota, Laminaria, Fucus and
Polysiphonia
(c) Dictyota, Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Laminaria and
Fucus
(d) Fucus, Porphyra, Dictyota, Polysiphonia and
Laminaria
7. Which of the following pteridophytes is heterosporous
in nature?
(a) Psilotum (b) Adiantum
(c) Equisetum (d) Salvinia
8. Which among these is not a homoiotherm ?
(a) Aptenodytes (b) Testudo
(c) Delphinus (d) Struthio
Useful for National and State Level PMTsAll

9. Which of the following is not matched correctly?
(a) Anabaena – cyanobacteria
(b) Gonyaulax – Dinoflagellates
(c) Thermoacidophils – archaebacteria
(d) Albugo – chrysophytes
10. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two
characters and its phylum are not correctly matched,
whereas the remaining three are correct?
(a) Pila (i) Body segmented
mollusca
(ii) mouth with radula
(b) Asterias (i) Spiny skinned
Echinodermata
(ii) Water vascular system
(c) Sycon (i) Pore bearing
Porifera
(ii) canal system
(d) Periplaneta (i) Jointed appendages
arthropoda
(ii) chitinous exoskeleton
11. a characteristic of Cycas that resembles ferns is
(a) circinate ptyxis
(b) sori in microsporophyll
(c) uniflagellated male gamete
(d) both (a) and (b).
12. match the following and select the correct combination
from the options given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Stem Modifications) (Found in)
a. Underground stem 1. Euphorbia
B. Stem tendril 2. Opuntia
c. Stem thorns 3. Potato
D. Flattened stem 4. Citrus
E. Fleshy cylindrical stem 5. cucumber
(a) a – 1, B – 2, c – 3, D – 5, E – 4
(b) a – 2, B – 3, c – 4, D – 5, E – 1
(c) a – 3, B – 4, c – 5, D – 1, E – 2
(d) a – 3, B – 5, c – 4, D – 2, E – 1
13. The old dicot root differs from old dicot stem in
(a) absence of secondary xylem
(b) possessing lenticel
(c) possessing protoxylem
(d) absence of secondary phloem.
14. Stereocilia occur in
(a) pseudostratified columnar epithelium of trachea
(b) columnar epithelium of stomach
(c) stratified columnar epithelium of pharynx
(d) pseudostratified columnar epithelium of epididymis.
15.
Plants having the above given floral diagram are
(a) leguminous
(b) dicots
(c) medicinal and perennial
(d) having pinnately compound leaves.
16. In the given diagram of the reproductive system of
earthworm what do a, B, c, D and E represent?
(a) a. seminal vesicle, B. spermathecae,
c. prostate gland, D. ovary E. accessory gland
(b) a. seminal vesicle, B. ovary, c. accessory gland,
D. spermathecae E. prostate gland
(c) a. spermathecae, B. seminal vesicle,
c. accessory gland, D. ovary E. prostate gland
(d) a. spermathecae, B. seminal vesicle, c. ovary,
D. accessory gland E. prostate gland
17. If the length of a double helical DNa is 1.7 meters, the
number of base pairs present in the DNa will be
(a) 5 × 109
(b) 1.7 × 109
(c) 3.4 × 109
(d) 1.7 × 105
.
18. The ingrowth of exoskeleton in the head of cockroach
is called
(a) notum (b) apodemes
(c) pleura (d) tentorium.

19. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type
of connective tissue. Identify the parts labelled a, B, c
and D, and select the right option about them.
A B C D
(a) macrophage Fibroblast collagen mast cell
fibres
(b) mast cell macrophage Fibroblast collagen
fibres
(c) macrophage collagen Fibroblast mast cell
fibres
(d) mast cell collagen Fibroblast macrophage
fibres
20. arrange the steps of catalytic action of an enzyme in
order and choose the right option.
I. Theenzymereleasestheproductsofthereactionand
the enzyme is free to bind to another substrate.
II. The active site of enzyme is in close proximity of
the substrate and breaks the chemical bonds of the
substrate.
III. The binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter
its shape fitting more tightly around the substrate.
IV. The substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme
fitting into the active site.
(a) IV, III, II, I
(b) III, II, I, IV
(c) IV, II, I, III
(d) II, I, IV, III
21. Select the incorrect statement.
(a) amino acids are substituted methanes.
(b) Glycerol is a trihydroxy propane.
(c) Lysine is a neutral amino acid.
(d) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
22. In cockroach the flow of haemolymph is
(a) heart → head → perineural sinus → perivisceral
sinus → pericardial sinus → ostia → heart
(b) heart → pericardial sinus → head → perineural
sinus → perivisceral sinus → ostia → heart
(c) heart → head → perineural sinus → perivisceral
sinus → ostia → pericardial sinus → heart
(d) heart → ostia → perivisceral sinus → pericardial
sinus → head → perineural sinus → heart.
23. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly
characterised?
(a) Lecithin - a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell
membrane.
(b) Palmitic acid - an unsaturated fatty acid with 18
carbon atoms.
(c) adenylic acid - adenosine with a glucose phosphate
molecule.
(d) alanine amino acid - contains an amino group and
an acidic group anywhere in the molecule.
24. Which of the following statements is incorrect about
G0
phase?
(a) mitosis occurs after G0
phase.
(b) Biocatalysts can be used to exit G0
phase.
(c) cell volume keeps on increasing during this phase.
(d) cell metabolism occurs continuously in G0
phase.
25. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Starch is a polymer of a-glucose.
(b) Starch is made up of amylose and amylopectin.
(c) amylose is linear structure consisting of several
glucose residues joined by 1,4-glycosidic linkages.
(d) amylopectin is a straight chain with several glucose
residues joined only by 1,4-glycosidic linkages.
26. If a plant produces flowers when exposed only to
alternating periods of 5 hours light and 3 hours dark,
in a 24-hour cycle, then the plant should be a
(a) short-long day plant
(b) short day plant
(c) day neutral plant
(d) long day plant.
27. a red blood corpuscle (rBc) was kept in a solution and
treated so that it became inside-out. What will be the
polarity of the phospholipid bilayer in this cell?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

28. an anther has 1200 pollen grains. how many Pmcs
must have been there to produce them?
(a) 1200 (b) 300 (c) 150 (d) 2400
29. In onion root tip,during metaphase stage of mitosis,the
number of kinetochores will be
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32.
30. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNa in a
cell remains at 4c level if the initial amount is denoted
as 2c?
(a) G0
and G1
(b) G1
and S
(c) Only G2
(d) G2
and m
31. Out of 38 molecules of aTP produced upon aerobic
respiration of glucose, the break up in aTP production
in glycolysis (P), pyruvate to acetyl-coa formation (Q)
and Krebs’ cycle (r) is as follows :
(a) P = 2, Q = 6, r = 30
(b) P = 8, Q = 6, r = 24
(c) P = 8, Q = 10, r = 20
(d) P = 2, Q = 12, r = 24
32. match the mineral in column-I with the enzyme activated
by it in column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
a. magnesium I. alcohol
dehydrogenase
B. molybdenum II. Phosphoenol pyruvate
carboxylase
c. Zinc III. Nitrogenase
(a) a - II, B - III, c - I (b) a - I, B - II, c - III
(c) a - II, B - I, c - III (d) a - III, B - II, c - I
33. Which of the following statements regarding cyclic flow
of elelctrons during light reactions is false?
(a) This process takes place in the stromal lamella.
(b) aTP synthesis takes place.
(c) NaDPh + h+
is synthesised.
(d) It takes place only when light of wavelength beyond
680 nm is available for excitation.
34. Select the correct match of the digested products in
humans given in column-I with their absorption site and
mechanism in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodenum, move
as chylomicrons
(b) cholesterol, maltose Large intestine,
active absorption
(c) Glycine, glucose Small intestine,
active absorption
(d) Fructose, Na+
Small intestine,
passive absorption
35. Select the correct order of reactions in glycolysis.
a. conversion of 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde to 1,3-bis-
phosphoglycerate
B. conversion of 3-phosphoglyceric acid to 2-phospho-
glycerate
c. conversion of BPGa to 3-phosphoglyceric acid
D. Splittingoffructose1,6-bisphosphateintodihydroxy
acetone phosphate and 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde
(a) D, c,a, B (b) B, c,a, B
(c) B, D,a, c (d) D,a, c, B
36. In the clotting mechanism pathway, thrombin activates
factors
(a) XI,VIII,V (b) XI, IX, X
(c) VIII, X,V (d) IX,VIII, X.
37. The pressure gradient, to facilitate inspiration and
expiration in the human body, is generated using
(a) intercostal muscles and trachea
(b) diaphragm and bronchi
(c) intercostal muscles and the bronchioles
(d) intercostal muscles and diaphragm.
38. Which of the following factor(s) increase blood pressure?
(i) Increase of cardiac output
(ii) constriction of blood vessel
(iii) Increase of blood volume
(iv) activation of parasympathetic nervous system
(v) Inhibition of sympathetic nervous system
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
39. If osmolarity of nephric filtrate in relation to blood
plasma is represented as follows:
hypertonic Isotonic hypotonic
and different parts of nephron as follows:
PcT - a; Descending limb - B;
DcT - c; collecting duct - D; ascending limb - E;
Then, identify the correct option for the osmolarity of
nephric filtrate in different parts of the nephron?
(a) a ; B ; c ; D ; E
(b) a ; B ; c ; D ; E
(c) a ; B ; c ; D ; E
(d) a ; B ; c ; D ; E
40. In the resting muscle fibre, tropomyosin partially
covers
(a) calcium binding sites on troponin
(b) actin binding sites on myosin
(c) myosin binding sites on actin
(d) calcium binding sites on actin.

41. choose the right sequential phenomena among the
following during the delivery of O2
from blood to
tissue.
P : absorption of cO2
by the blood.
Q : reaction of absorbed cO2
with h2
O to form h2
cO3
within rBc and its conversion into h+
and hcO–
3
ions.
r : reaction of absorbed cO2
with h2
O in plasma to
form h2
cO3
and its conversion into h+
and hcO3
–
ions.
S : combination of h+
with heme portion of hbO2
to
release O2
.
T : combination of hcO3
–
with heme portion of hbO2
to form reduced hemoglobin and release of O2
.
(a) P, Q,T (b) P, r, S
(c) P, Q, S (d) P, r,T
42. If due to some injury, the chordae tendinae of the
tricuspid valve of the human heart are partially non-
functional, what will be the immediate effect?
(a) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed
down.
(b) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working.
(c) The blood will tend to flow back into the left
atrium.
(d) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be
reduced.
43. When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting
any impulse, the axonal membrane is
(a) comparatively more permeable to Na+
ions and
nearly impermeable to K+
ions
(b) equally permeable to both Na+
and K+
ions
(c) impermeable to both Na+
and K+
ions
(d) comparatively more permeable to K+
ions and nearly
impermeable to Na+
ions.
44. an X-ray of the lower abdomen, shows a shadow in the
region of the ureter suspected to be a ureteric calculus.
a possible clinical symptom would be
(a) acute renal failure (arF)
(b) anuria and haematuria
(c) motor aphasia
(d) chronic renal failure (crF).
45. Excessive stimulation of vagus nerve in humans may
lead to
(a) epilepsy
(b) peptic ulcers
(c) increased digestion of proteins
(d) irregular contractions of diaphragm.
46. The given graph shows an oxygen dissociation curve for
haemoglobin.
Where in the body will haemoglobin be saturated at
the percentages shown at points 1, 2 and 3 on the
graph?
Left ventricle Pulmonary vein Vena cava
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 2 1 3
(c) 2 3 1
(d) 3 2 1
47. The internal ear of humans,in comparison to that of frog
has
(a) smaller cochlea
(b) longer and coiled cochlea
(c) fused utriculus and sacculus
(d) No sacculus.
48. a person passes much urine and drinks much water but
his blood glucose level is normal.This condition may be
the result of
(a) reduction of insulin secretion from pancreas
(b) reduction in vassopressin secretion from posterior
pituitary
(c) increase in glucose concentration in urine
(d) increase in secretion of glucagon.
49. In a mammal, living in water______ as compared to a
mammal of similar size living on land.
(a) heart is smaller in size
(b) lungs are smaller in size
(c) lungs are larger in size
(d) heart is larger in size
50. Perisperm differs from endosperm in
(a) being a diploid tissue
(b) its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with
several sperms
(c) being a haploid tissue
(d) having no reserve food.
51. an immature male gametophyte differs from a mature
male gametophyte in that it
(a) has not yet left the pollen sac
(b) has not yet germinated and its generative cell has
not divided into two male gametes

(c) is a microspore that has not yet divided by mitosis
(d) still consists of microsporocyte.
52. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) IUI - semen collected from husband or donor is
artificially introduced into the uterus
(b) GIFT - transfer of embryos with more than 8
blastomeres into the Fallopian tube
(c) IcSI - sperm directly injected into the ovum
(d) ZIFT - transfer of embryos with upto 8 blastomeres
into the Fallopian tube
53. Nitsch was able to get strawberries of different shapes
by
(a) splitting the ovary
(b) removing the perianth
(c) selectively removing some carpels
(d) inserting an alcohol dipped needle into the ovary.
54. In angiosperms,female gametophyte is called as embryo
sac. Given figures represent different stages of embryo
sac development in angiosperms. arrange them in
correct order and select the correct option.
(a) V → I → IV → II → III → VII → VI → VIII
(b) VIII → V → II → IV → III → VII → VI → I
(c) I → II → IV → V → VIII → III → VII → VI
(d) VIII → I → V → II → IV → III → VI → VII
55. The given figure illustrates monthly changes in the
human ovary during the reproductive cycle.
Which of the following statements most accurately
describes each structure?
(a) Before puberty, the oocyte a does not start the
process of meiosis.
(b) The hormone produced by structure B causes
thinning of the uterine cervical mucus to allow
passage of sperms.
(c) During ovulation, structure c stays at the interphase
between meiosis I and meiosis II.
(d) The hormone produced by structure D stimulates
the pituitary gland to secrete luteinizing hormone.
56. The main function of the fimbriae of the Fallopian tube
in females is to
(a) release ovum from the Graafian follicle
(b) make necessary changes in the endometrium for
implantation
(c) help in the development of corpus luteum
(d) help in the collection of the ovum after ovulation.
57. The graph below shows the relationships of per capita
population growth rate (r), fecundity (f) and age at first
reproduction (a) in an animal species.
What is the most important conclusion to be drawn from
the graph?
(a) The later the age of first reproduction, the lower is
the population growth rate achieved.
(b) The population growth rate decreases as first
reproductionispostponedtoalaterstage,regardless
of the fecundity.
(c) at any a, the higher the fecundity, the higher is the
population growth rate achieved.
(d) as the age at first reproduction is postponed
further, the benefits of increasing fecundity on
the population growth rate become progressively
negligible.
58. The foetal ejection reflex in humans triggers the release
of
(a) oxytocin from foetal pituitary
(b) human chorionic gonadotropin (hcG) from placenta
(c) human placental lactogen (hPL) from placenta
(d) oxytocin from maternal pituitary.

59. how many secondary spermatocytes will be required to
form 400 spermatozoa?
(a) 40 (b) 100
(c) 200 (d) 400
60. The ‘cells of rauber’ are
(a) secretory cells of endometrium in uterus
(b) inner cell mass of blastocoel
(c) outer cells of trophoblast in contact with uterine
wall
(d) cells of trophoblast, in contact with inner cell mass
of blastocyst.
61. Why cannot a woman get pregnant again during
pregnancy?
(a) a woman ovulates during pregnancy, but the
oviducts are plugged with protective mucus to
prevent sperm from entering.
(b) high levels of hcG in woman’s body kill sperm.
(c) a woman cannot have intercourse during pregnancy.
(d) high levels of estrogen and progesterone, secreted
by the corpus luteum or placenta during pregnancy,
inhibit the secretion of gonadotropins and prevent
ovulation.
62. The correct floral formula of soyabean is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
63. match the following and choose the correct combination
from the options given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Population (Examples)
interaction)
a. mutualism 1. Ticks on dogs
B. commensalism 2. Semibalanus and Chthamalus
c. Parasitism 3. Sparrow and any seed
D. competition 4. Epiphyte on a mango branch
E. Predation 5. Fig and wasp
(a) a – 1, B – 5, c – 4, D – 3, E – 2
(b) a – 2, B – 1, c – 5, D – 4, E – 3
(c) a – 3, B – 2, c – 1, D – 5, E – 4
(d) a – 5, B – 4, c – 1, D – 2, E – 3
64. The Bt toxin is not toxic to human beings because
(a) the pro Bt toxin activation requires temperature
above human body temperature
(b) the Bt toxin recognizes only insect-specific targets
(c) the Bt toxin formation from pro Bt toxin requires ph
lower than that present in human stomach
(d) conversion of pro Bt toxin to Bt toxin takes place
only in highly alkaline conditions.
65. If S = species richness, a = area, Z = slope of the line
(regression coefficient),c=Y-intercept,then the relation
between species richness and area is described on a
logarithmic scale by the equation
(a) log S = log c – Z log a
(b) log S = Z log a
(c) log S = log c + Z log a
(d) log c = log S + Z log a.
66. Given pie diagram represents the proportionate number
of species of major taxa of plants. Select the incorrect
statements regarding a and B.
(i) a represents the achlorophyllous, heterotrophic,
eukaryotic organisms with chitinous cell walls.
(ii) B represents the members of Kingdom monera e.g.,
bacteria and cyanobacteria.
(iii) B represents those seed plants in which seeds are
enclosed inside fruits.
(iv) a and B represent gymnosperms and angiosperms
respectively.
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
67. The graph below represents changes in different
ecological parameters due to effluent mixing in a stream.
The three lines a, B and c represent:
(a) a: oxygen concentration
B: biological O2
demand
c: pollution resistant species

(b) a: pollutant
B: aerobic process
c: anaerobic process
(c) a: oxygen concentration
B: cO2
concentration
c: temperature
(d) a: phosphate concentration
B: nitrate concentration
c: rate of photosynthesis
68. rNa interference which is employed in making tobacco
plant resistant to Meloidogyne incognita is essentially
involved in
(a) preventing the process of replication of DNa
(b) preventing the process of translation of mrNa
(c) preventing the process of splicing of hnrNa
(d) preventing the process of transcription.
69. match the entries in column-I with those of column-II
and choose the correct answer.
Column-I Column-II
a. restriction endonucleases (p) Kohler and milstein
B. Polymerase chain reaction (q) alec Jeffreys
c. DNa fingerprinting (r) arber
D. monoclonal antibodies (s) Kary mullis
(a) a - (r), B - (s), c - (q), D - (p)
(b) a - (r), B - (q), c - (s), D - (p)
(c) a - (q), B - (r), c - (s), D - (p)
(d) a - (q), B - (s), c - (r), D - (p)
70. The basic procedure involved in the synthesis of
recombinant DNa molecule is depicted below. The
mistake in the procedure is
Mammalian DNA
Cut with
restriction
endonuclease 2
Cut with
restriction
endonuclease 1
Recombinant
molecule
(a) enzyme polymerase is not included
(b) the mammalian DNa is shown double stranded
(c) two different restriction enzymes are used
(d) only one fragment is inserted.
71. Identify the desirable characteristics for a plasmid used
in rDNa technology from the following.
a. ability to multiply and express outside the host in a
bioreactor
B. a highly active promoter
c. a site at which replication can be initiated
D. One or more identifiable marker genes
E. One or more unique restriction sites
(a) a, c, D and E only (b) a, c and E only
(c) B, c, D and E only (d) B, c and E only
72. an ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can
recover after some time if damaging effect stops will
be having
(a) low stability and high resilience
(b) high stability and low resilience
(c) low stability and low resilience
(d) high stability and high resilience.
73. The correct sequence of seral stages in hydrosere is
(a) plankton, submerged, floating, reed swamp, sedge
meadow, woodland
(b) plankton, floating, submerged, reed swamp, sedge
meadow, woodland
(c) plankton, submerged, floating, sedge meadow, reed
swamp, woodland
(d) plankton, submerged, floating, sedge meadow,
woodland, reed swamp.
74. In a particular climatic condition, decomposition rate is
slower if
(a) detritus is rich in nitrogen
(b) detritus is rich in humus
(c) detritus is rich in sugars
(d) detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
75. Given below is an imaginary pyramid of numbers.What
could be one of the possibilities about certain organisms
at some of the different levels?
TC
SC
PC
PP 1
500
50
10
(a) Level Pc is “insects” and level Sc is “small
insectivorous birds”.
(b) Level PP is “phytoplanktons” in sea and “whale” on
top level Tc.
(c) Level PP is “pipal trees” and the level Sc is
“sheep”.
(d) Level Pc is “rats” and level Sc is “cats”.

76. Which one of the following refers to allen’s rule?
(a) an organism can move from a stressful habitat to a
more hospitable area and return when the stressful
period is over.
(b) If the stressful conditions are localized or remain only
for a short duration, an organism either migrates or
suspends itself.
(c) Low atmospheric pressure in higher altitudes results
in altitude sickness.
(d) mammals from colder climates have shorter ears
and limbs to minimise heat loss.
77. match column-I (crop) with column-II (corresponding
insect pests resistant variety) and select the correct
option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
a. Flat bean (i) Pusa Gaurav
B. Okra (Bhindi) (ii) Pusa Sem-2
c. Brassica (iii) Pusa Sawani
(a) a-(ii), B-(i), c-(iii) (b) a-(ii), B-(iii), c-(i)
(c) a-(iii), B-(ii), c-(i) (d) a-(i), B-(iii), c-(ii)
78. Baculoviruses (Nucleopolyhedrovirus) do not show
(a) host specificity
(b) narrow spectrum applications
(c) effects on non-target pathogens
(d) utility in IPm programme.
79. match the following list of bioactive substances and
their roles and select the correct option from the codes
given.
Bioactive Substance Role
a. Statin (i) removal of oil stains
B. cyclosporin a (ii) removal of clots from blood
vessels
c. Streptokinase (iii) Lowering of blood
cholesterol
D. Lipase (iv) Immuno-suppressive agent
(a) a-(ii), B-(iii), c-(i), D-(iv)
(b) a-(iv), B-(ii), c-(i), D-(iii)
(c) a-(iv), B-(i), c-(ii), D-(iii)
(d) a-(iii), B-(iv), c-(ii), D-(i)
80. Given below is the flowchart of sewage treatment.
Identify a, B, c and D and select the correct option.
(a) a-mechanical agitation; B-Increased BOD;
c-activated sludge; D-aerobic sludge digesters
(b) a-mechanical agitation; B-reduced BOD;
c-activated sludge; D-anaerobic sludge digesters
(c) a-microbial digestion; B-activated sludge;
c-reduced BOD; D-anaerobic sludge digesters
(d) a-microbial digestion; B-mechanical agitation;
c-reduced BOD; D-aerobic sludge digesters
81. Study carefully the following stages of life cycle of
malarial parasite Plasmodium. arrange these stages in
the correct sequence and select the correct option.
1. Sporozoites leave the blood stream and enter the
liver cells of man.
2. Sporozoites present in the salivary glands of female
Anopheles mosquito are injected into the blood
stream of man.
3. The parasite reproduces asexually in rBcs, resulting
in bursting of rBcs and causing the cycles of fever;
released parasites infect new rBcs.
4. The parasite reproduces asexually in liver cells,
ultimately causing the rupturing of cells and enters
the blood.
5. Two types of gametocytes i.e., microgametocytes
and macrogametocytes develop in the rBcs.
6. Female Anopheles mosquito takes up the
gametocytes with blood meal of an infected
person.
7. matureinfectivestageoftheparasitei.e.,sporozoites
escape from intestine and migrate to the mosquito’s
salivary glands.
8. Fertilisation and developmental stages of the
parasite take place in mosquito’s stomach.
(a) 2 → 1 → 4 → 3 → 5 → 6 → 8 → 7
(b) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3 → 5 → 6 → 7 → 8
(c) 1 → 2 → 4 → 3 → 5 → 6 → 8 → 7
(d) 6 → 8 → 7 → 4 → 5 → 2 → 3 → 1
82. In which one of the following options the two examples
are correctly matched with their particular type of
immunity?
Examples Type of immunity
(a) Polymorphonuclear leucocytes
and monocytes
cellular barriers
(b) anti-tetanus and
anti-snake bite injections
active immunity
(c) Saliva in mouth and tears in
eyes
Physical barriers
(d) mucous coating of epithelium
lining the urinogenital tract
and the hcI in stomach
Physiological barriers

83. an inter-breeding population of finches became
separated geographically, forming two isolated groups.
Each group then became subject to different selective
pressures. One group was then introduced into the
habitat of the other.
Which one of the following would determine whether
they now formed two distinct species?
(a) They had been separated for more than three million
years.
(b) They failed to produce fertile F1
hybrids.
(c) They showed marked differences in the shape of
their beaks.
(d) Their plumage had become markedly different.
84. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years
ago, in Europe and asia, with short stature, heavy eye
brows,retreating fore heads,large jaws with heavy teeth,
stocky bodies, a lumbering gait and stooped posture
was
(a) Homo habilis (b) Neanderthal man
(c) cro-magnon man (d) Ramapithecus.
85. In habitual alcohol drinkers,liver gets damaged because
of
(a) accumulation of excess glycogen
(b) accumulation of excess fat
(c) excess detoxification
(d) excess deamination.
86. The process of transformation is not affected by which
of the following enzymes?
a. DNase B. rNase
c. Peptidase D. Lipase
(a) a, B (b) a, B, c, D
(c) B, c, D (d) a, B, c
87. read the following statements and choose the correct
option.
a. Increase in melanised moths after industrialization
in Great Britain is a proof for natural selection.
B. When more individuals of a population acquire a
mean character value, it is called disruption.
c. changes in allelic frequency in a population will
lead to hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
D. Genetic drift changes the existing gene or allelic
frequency in future generations.
(a) B alone is correct.
(b) D alone is correct.
(c) a and D alone are correct.
(d) a and c alone are correct.
88. refer the given statements.
(i) Incomplete or mosaic inheritance is an example of
pre-mendelian concept of blending inheritance.
(ii) Test cross is a special type of back cross.
(iii) chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed
in cancer cells.
(iv) Thalassaemia is a mendelian disorder.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv) only (d) (i) and (iv) only
89. Study the given pedigree chart showing the inheritance
of an X-linked trait controlled by gene ‘r’.
A B
C D
P
F1
F2
What will be the genotypes of individuals a, B, c and D
respectively?
(a) XX, Xr
Y, Xr
X, XY
(b) Xr
Xr
, XY, XX, XY
(c) Xr
X, Xr
Yr
, Xr
Xr
, Xr
Y
(d) XX, Xr
Yr
, XX, XY
90. read the following statements and choose the incorrect
option.
(a) Phosphate group is linked to 5’-Oh of a nucleoside
through phosphoester linkage.
(b) Two nucleosides are linked through 3’ – 5’
N-glycosidic linkage.
(c) Negatively charged DNa is wrapped around
positively charged histone hectamer to form
nucleosome.
(d) The chromatin that is more densely packed and
stains dark is called heterochromatin.
91. The following table shows the base ratios for DNa
collected from four different animals species a, B, c, D.
Which species is likely to contain DNa with an adenine
concentration of 21.1%?
Species Cytosine Guanine Thymine
(a) a 31.6 32.4 18.0
(b) B 29.6 29.2 20.1
(c) c 24.8 28.9 25.4
(d) D 32.1 31.9 17.6

92. What proportion of the offsprings obtained from cross
aaBBcc ×aaBbcc will be completely heterozygous for
all the genes segregated independently?
(a) 1/8 (b) 1/4
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/16
93. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ in human
beings?
(a) rudimentary ear muscles and third molars
(b) coccygeal tail vertebrae and scalp muscles
(c) Vermiform appendix and nictitating membrane of
the eye
(d) Ear pinna, patella, olecranon process
94. Which of the following sequences will be produced
as a result of transcription of the DNa sequence
cGaTTacaG?
(a) GcUaaUGUc (b) cGUaaUcUG
(c) GcTaaTGTc (d) GcUaaTcTG
95. common cold differs from pneumonia in that
(a) pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the
common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease
(b) pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated
bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has no
effective vaccine
(c) pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common
cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus
influenzae
(d) pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the
common cold affects nose and respiratory passage
but not the lungs.
96. a normal-visioned man whose father was colour blind,
marries a woman whose father was also colour blind.
They have their first child as a daughter. What are the
chances that this child would be colour blind?
(a) 100% (b) zero percent
(c) 25% (d) 50%
97. read the following four statements (a-D).
(a) The first transgenic buffalo, rosie produced milk
which was human alpha-lactalbumin enriched.
(B) restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNa
from other macromolecules.
(c) Downstream processing is one of the steps of rDNa
technology.
(D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer
of rDNa into the host.
Which of the above statements have mistakes?
(a) B and c (b) c and D
(c) a and c (d) a and B
98. Which one of the following vectors is used to replace
the defective gene in gene therapy?
(a) adenovirus (b) cosmid
(c) ri plasmid (d) Ti plasmid
99. maximum species diversity is seen in latitudinal range
of
(a) 23.5° N to 66.5° N
(b) 23.5° N to 23.5° S
(c) 23.5° S to 66.5° N
(d) 66.5° N to 90° N.
100. ‘Floc’ is
(a) a mesh-like structure formed by the association of
bacteria and fungal filaments in sewage treatment
(b) the primary sludge produced in sewage treatment
(c) the effluent in primary treatment tank obtained
during sewage treatment
(d) a type of biofortified food.
Answer Key
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d)
6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c)
16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (d)
26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (d)
36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (c)
46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (a)
51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (b)
56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (c)
66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a)
76. (d) 77. (b) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80. (b)
81. (a) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (b) 85. (b)
86. (c) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (c)
91. (b) 92. (a) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (d)
96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (a)
nn

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