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SOAL US BAHASA INGGRIS (PAKET 1)
SMK JAKARTA UTARA I
A. LISTENING SECTION
PART I. PICTURES. Questions 1 to 3.
Directions: There are three items in this part. For each item, you will see a picture on your test
paper and you will hear four short statements. The statements will be spoken
TWICE. They will not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen carefully to
understand what the speakers say. When you hear the four statements, look at the
picture on your test paper and choose the statement that best describes what you
see in the picture. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and
mark your answer.
Look at the sample below. Now listen to the four statements:
Sample Answer:
Statement (D), “The children are participating in the lesson”, best
describes what you see in the picture. Therefore, you should
choose answer (D).
Now let’s begin with the picture marked number one (1) on your test paper.
1. 2.
3.
A B C D
In this section of the test you will have the chance to show how well you understand
spoken English. There are four parts to this section with special directions for each part.
PART II. QUESTIONS – RESPONSES. Questions 4 to 7.
Directions: There are four items in this part of the test. For each item, you will hear a question or
statement spoken in English followed by four responses, also spoken in English.
They will be spoken TWICE. They will not be printed on your test paper, so you must
listen carefully to understand what the speakers say. You are to choose the best
response to each question or statement and mark it on your answer sheet.
Now listen to a sample question.
You will hear : Sample Answer:
You will also hear :
The best response to the question, “When should I call back?” is choice (C), “Anytime after lunch
is fine.” Therefore you should choose answer (C).
Now let’s begin with question number four (4) on your test paper.
4. Mark your answer on your answer sheet 6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet
5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet 7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet
PART III. SHORT CONVERSATIONS. Questions 8 to 11.
Directions: There are four items in this part of the test. For each item you will hear a short
conversation between two people. You will hear the conversations TWICE. They will
not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen carefully to understand what the
speakers say. On your test paper, you will read a question about each conversation.
The question will be followed by four answers. You are to choose the best answer to
each question and mark it on your answer sheet.
Now, let’s begin with question number eight (8) on your test paper.
8. What is the relationship between the
speakers?
A. Manager-applicant
B. Colleague-colleague
C. CEO-manager
D. Buyer-client
10. What happened to John’s car?
A. It was stolen.
B. It had a flat tire.
C. It was in an accident.
D. It was sent to the shop for repairs.
9. What are they talking about?
A. How to leave at the Gate 4 in Surabaya.
B. How to go to Surabaya in 15 minutes.
C. Bus schedule to Surabaya.
D. Trip to Surabaya by bus.
11. What is the man probably going to do?
A. Call a real estate agent
B. Buy a new furniture
C. Write some papers
D. Sell the house
PART IV. SHORT TALKS. Questions 12 to 15.
Directions: In this part of the test you will hear two short talks. Each will be spoken TWICE. They
will not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen carefully to understand and
remember what is said. On your test paper, you will read two or more questions
about each short talk. Each question will be followed by four answers. You have to
choose the best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.
A B C D
Now let’s begin with the following short talk.
12. Who is most likely the speaker?
A. A recording studio manager.
B. A museum employee.
C. A security personnel.
D. A daily visitor.
14. What is mainly talked about?
A. Visitors to department stores.
B. Discounts at a supermarket.
C. New shopping regulations.
D. Daily shoppers at Frankie.
13. Where are the guards standing?
A. Next to one another.
B. At the entrance.
C. Under a poster.
D. Along the way.
15 What does the speaker suggest?
A. Having lunch at the store
delicatessen.
B. Getting two gallons of milk for $1.09.
C. Visiting the store's dairy section.
D. Buying flank steak for $5.50.
B. READING SECTION
PART V. Directions: From questions 16 – 26, four clauses/sentences, marked (A), (B), (C), or
(D), are given beneath each incomplete dialog. Choose the one
clause/sentence that best completes the dialog. Then, on your answer
sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer.
16. Rahmat : ……. Sumbing mountain this weekend ?
Ishak : I am not sure. If the weather is good. I’ll do it.
Rahmat : Will you join me ?
Ishak : Sounds great !
A. Have you ever climbed
B. Are you going to climb
C. Didi you climb
D. We can climb
17. Windy : I am so surprised with the new ice cream that KFC just launched. I really love it.
What about you?
Dian : ….. It is too sweet and not suitable for a taste of dessert.
A. I can’t agree more with you.
B. I agree with you.
C. I am totally on your side.
D. I am afraid I have to disagree.
18. Ronald : Do you see the box that I put here?
Nielson : … She needed it to put something.
A. It was thrown away by Nancy.
B. It was recycled by the factory.
C. It was taken by Annie.
D. It was sold to John.
In this part of the test you will have the chance to show how well you understand written
English. There are four parts to this section, with special directions for each part.
19. Velly : Have you made any vacation plans?
Jelita : Yes. ... .
A. I’m going to go snorkeling
B. I was in London last month
C. I went to Dieng with my friends
D. I have been to Raja Ampat in Papua
20. Christ : How was your show last night ? Was it great ?
Angel : ….. We got a standing ovation from the audience.
Crist : You deserved it. Your choir is stunning. You are really a fabulous singer and your
friends as well.
A. It was terrible
B. We were nervous
C. Disappointed. I must say
D. Absolutely
21. Kanda : Have heard the newest policy announced by our governor ?
Dinda : What is it ?
Kanda : Indonesia is on the third rank in using plastic. It really damages the environment.
Dinda : I know. But plastic is lighter and durable.
Kanda : You’re right. Because they are durable, the world needs a hundred years to decay
them
Dinda : So, what should we do if we want to go to the market, supermarket, bookstore, etc?
Kanda : ……, it means that we keep our environment save and healthy
A. Why don’t you use my own plastic box
B. You may go to another store which provides free plastic bag
C. It’s better we bring ‘spunbond’ bag everywhere
D. Let us campaign the students to bring mineral drink from home
22. Agung : Look at the drain ! It’s full of garbage and mud.
Herman : Yes, many people throw garbage in the river. They don’t have any awareness
how to make the environment healthy. Flood and dengue fever will be endanger
them, …..
Agung : You are right.
A. If they threw more garbage.
B. If it rains continuously.
C. If the government had made a bigger garbage Dump.
D. If we don’t call the doctors soon.
PART VI. Directions: Questions 23 – 28 are based on short dialogs of certain situation, such as
invitation, daily activity, opinion, etc. Choose the one best answer, (A), (B),
(C), or (D), to each question. Answer all the questions following each short
dialog on the basis of what is stated or implied in the dialog. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer.
Questions 23 - 25 are based on the following short dialog.
Faridah : Can you give me a little more information about your apartment?
Husein : Sure, what can I help you with?
Faridah : What kind of public transportation is near your apartment?
Husein : I'm not sure, but I believe there is a bus stop about three blocks away.
Faridah : Do you know what direction that bus travels?
Husein : I'm sorry. If you check online, you can get that kind of information.
Faridah : Okay, I'll just go online.
Husein : Okay. Good luck with your search.
23. What made Faridah ask to Husein ?
A. Faridah prefers taking off line transportation than ordering on line transportation
B. There is no bus stop around their apartment
C. Husein is a new comer
D. Faridah wants to know a kind of transportation available there
24. What will Faridah do next ?
A. Husein will accompany her to wait for the bus
B. She will search the transportation through on line application
C. Husein will drive her to bus station
D. Faridah cancels to go
25.’ If you check online, you can get that kind of information’.
The word ‘on line’ has the closest meaning to …..
A. Connected
B. Un accessible
C. Detected
D. Recorded
Questions 28 - 30 are based on the following short dialog.
Andy : Hey Teresa, how are you going ?
Teresa : Not bad. How are you ?
Andy : Going well, thanks. What have you been up lately ?
Teresa : I’ve just been flat out with work. We’ve had so much to sort out with our
account department. Today was crazy though because I missed my alarm
and slept in !
Andy : Oh no ! What time do you usually have to get up ?
Teresa : Usually around 5.30 am, because it takes an hour to get to work on train.
Andy : That’s early ! I don’t usually get up until 7.30 am and then I just throw on
my clothes , grab some toast and shoot off.
Teresa : Ahh. I can’t do that. I like to take my time in the morning to get ready. I
always plan to have a big breakfast and cup of tea but I usually just run out
of time and end up grabbing a coffee and croissant on the way to work.
Andy : yeah, me too
26. What are they talking about ?
A. Their plan for holiday
B. Their activity in their spare time
C. Their business in the morning
D. Their preparation before facing last examination
27. Where does Teresa usually have her breakfast ?
A. In the car
B. In the bus
C. On the train
D. At home
28. ‘ … I’ve just flat out with work’ Line 4
The word ‘flat out’ has closest meaning to …..
A. feel bored
B. should be in hurry
C. want to finish
D. think to resign
PART VI. Directions: Questions 29 – 40 are based on a selection of reading materials, such as
notices, letters, forms, articles, advertisements, etc. Choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or
(D), to each question. Answer all the questions following each reading selection on the basis of
what is stated or implied in the selection. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and mark your answer.
Questions 29 – 31 are based on the following short dialog.
29. Who mostly use this electronic?
A. Flight attendant and plumber
B. Carpenter and Milkman
C. Fishery and housewives
D. Cook – Technician
30. What should we do after turn the temperature control "defrost"?
A. Scrape the ice with a sharp instrument
B. Remove all frozen foods and ice cube trays
C. Remove all other food stuff
D. Allow the ice to melt
HOW TO CLEAN A REFRIGERATOR
1. Remove all frozen foods and ice cube trays. If you have a second refrigerator,
use it to temporary store these items. If not, put the food in a cardboard box and
cover it with newspaper. Dump the ice cubes.
2. Removes all other food stuff and place on your kitchen counter or in cardboard
boxes.
3. Either turn the temperature control "defrost" or unplug the electricity to the
refrigerator (or both).
4. Never scrape or jab at the ice with a sharp instrument. You may cause serious
damage to the freezing unit. Allow it to melt.
5. Either put a flat pan under the freezer to catch the drips or put a large towel in
the bottom of the refrigerator.
31. "Allow it to melt" (step 4). The word "it" refers to ....
A. The food
B. The refrigerator
C. The ice
D. The freezing unit
Questions 32 – 34 refer to the following information.
32. What is the purpose of the text?
A. Informing people the reason and the way to visit Raja Ampat.
B. Telling people the complete information about flight schedule.
C. Giving exact details about the coral conservation in Raja Ampat.
D. Notifying readers how to contact professional diving organizers.
33. What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. A report about the coral reef.
B. Several ways to visit a location.
C. Diving organizers in Raja Ampat.
D. An information about Raja Ampat.
34. “… arrive here their excitement is palpable.”
The word ‘ palpable’ has the closest meaning to …..
A. uncertain
B. doubtful
C. obvious
D. fading
The territory within the islands of the Four Kings (Raja Ampat) is enormous, covering 9.8 million acres
of land and sea, home to 540 types of corals, more than 1,000 types of coral fish and 700 types of
mollusks. This makes it the most diverse living library for world's coral reef and underwater biota.
According to a report developed by The Nature Conservancy and Conservation International, around 75
percent of the world's species live here. When divers first arrive here their excitement is palpable. It's
common to hear people praise God as they take in the remarkable scenery. Others prefer to remain in
silence taking in the overwhelming sight of so many islands with crystal clear water that softly brushes
over the white sandy beaches.
Commonly, divers will join a tour and live in a diving resort during their stay in the Raja Ampat Islands.
To access diving spots, we can easily contact and use the professional diving organizers, who can be
conveniently found in Sorong. You may rent a small boat if you wish to stop and make personal
discoveries along the line of the beaches. You can also trek around the islands to find hidden beauties,
like waterfalls and ancient caves.
If you are flying from Jakarta you can take a six hour flight to Sorong with a stopover in Manado.
Alternatively, you can join a diving tour in Bali and fly from there. There are also daily ferries available
between Sorong and Waisai, capital of the Raja Ampat district on the island of Waigeo. The journey
takes between 1.5-2 hours. There are also speedboats for rent at Sorong.
Questions 35 – 37 refer to the following procedure.
35. Where does this announcement take place ?
A. At Police office
B. At Fire department
C. In a Weapon Shop
D. At the Airport
36. What does the 2nd paragraph tell you about ?
A. International security regulation
B. Safety procedure system
C. Things can be brought onto an airplane
D. X – Ray machine
37. According to the text, we can conclude …..
A. All bags will be sent to the X-Ray machines
B. All bags will be checked by using X-Ray machines
C. All bags will be move to the X-Ray machines
D. All bags will be packed next to X-Ray machines
Announcement
In accordance with the international security regulation, the following items are
never allowed to be taken onto a plane by passengers, either in their carry-on
bags or in their checked luggage: weapons, including knives and guns;
explosives, including dynamite and fireworks.
The following items may be placed in checked luggage but not on carry-on bags.
Tools, including hammers, screwdrivers, and wrenches; sport equipment such
as golf clubs, baseball bats, skis, and ski poles.
When you pass through the security line, all bags will go through our X-Ray
machines and some bags will be manually checked by personal, as well.
Mr. Irash Arasy Alcox
Human Resources Director
Aleekinder Asia-Pasific, Ltd
123 ABC St
SOUTH BRISBANE 4101
Dear Sir,
Re: position applying for
I am writing to express my interest in the position you have advertised for a finance
manager in Aussy Telegraph on 23 October 2018.
My previous experience in the accounting, finance and tax has given me excellent
workplace skills which would be an asset to your company.
Due to my previous experience in the Aussy Aragon Steel, Ltd.I believe any employers
would strongly benefit from my employment.
Please find enclosed a copy of my current resume. I can be contacted on 0813 8832 1209
to discuss this opportunity further.
Thank you for considering my application and I look forward to meeting with you soon.
Yours faithfully,
Aleesha Naufalyn, CPA, CISA
Questions 38 – 40 refer to the following letter.
38. Why did Aleesha write the letter?
A. To enclose her current resume.
B. To show her ability in accounting.
C. To be accepted in the new company.
D. To tell about her previous experience.
39. What strength does Aleesha have?
A. She has abilities and good personality needed.
B. She arranges her interview with the director.
C. She will be promoted as the new manager.
D. She knows accounting only.
40. The word ‘posses’ in the sentence ‘I possess excellent communication skills’ is closest in
meaning to ....
A. do
B. get
C. have
D. make
ESSAY.
Direction : Read carefully then answer all the questions in write
Questions no 41 to 43 based on following information
41. What will you do then after you read the text?
42. What did Indonesian Marine Affairs and Fisheries Ministers suggest to protect the islands ?
43. Based on the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea, what is the definition of island ?
Indonesia has embarked on the task of counting its islands in order to better protect its
territory and marine resources. It hopes to locate and name an additional 1,700 islands in
time for the UN Conference on the Standardization of Geographical Names in August.
Indonesia wants to claim sovereignty and fishing rights in the waters surrounding the
islands, many of which its neighbors also claim.
The Indonesian government says illegal fishing in its waters is costing billions of dollars in
lost revenue each year. A fisheries spokeswoman told the BBC: "Sixty per cent of islands
in Indonesia don't have a name or officially have legal status, so they can easily be taken
or claimed by another country."
Indonesia is the world's largest archipelago. At the last UN conference on geographical
names in 2012, Indonesia registered 13,466 islands. A law in 1996 estimated that the
number of islands was 17,508. The UN Convention on the Law of the Sea defines an
island as, "a naturally formed area of land, surrounded by water, which is still exposed at
high tide".
A spokesman from Indonesia's Ministry of Marine Affairs and Fisheries explained the
scale of the task the counting team had. He said: "We have to visit every one of these
islands, and then we note the coordinates, the name, the meaning of the name, the
history of the land and describe the landscape and its geographical history…all that in
great detail."
Questions no. 44 and 45 based on the following description
44. What does the story tell you about ?
45. What happened to Nick in 1990 ?
Nick Vujivic was born to Dushka and Boris Vujivic in 1982 in Melbourne, Australia.
Although he was an otherwise healthy baby, Nick was born without arms and legs; he had
no legs, but two small feet, one of which had two toes. Nick has two siblings, Michelle and
Aaron. Initially, a Victoria state law prevented Nick from attending a mainstream school
due to his physical disability in spite of a lack of mental impairment. However, Vujivic
became one of the first physically disabled students integrated into a mainstream school
once those laws changed. However, his lack of limbs made him a target for school bullies,
and he fell into a severe depression. At age eight, he contemplated suicide and even tried
to drown himself in his bathtub at age ten; his love for his parents prevented him from
following through. He also stated in his music video "Something More" that God had a
plan for his life and he could not bring himself to drown because of this.
Nick prayed very hard that God would give him arms and legs, and initially told God that,
if his prayer remained unanswered, Nick would not praise him indefinitely. However, a key
turning point in his faith came when his mother showed him a newspaper article about a
man dealing with a severe disability. Vujivic realized he wasn't unique in his struggles and
began to embrace his lack of limbs. After this, Nick realized his accomplishments could
inspire others and became grateful for his life.
Nick gradually figured out how to live a full life without limbs, adapting many of the daily
skills limbed people accomplish without thinking. Nick writes with two toes on his left foot
and a special grip that slid onto his big toe. He knows how to use a computer and can
type up to 45 words per minute using the "heel and toe" method. He has also learned to
throw tennis balls, play drum pedals, get a glass of water, comb his hair, brush his teeth,
answer the phone and shave, in addition to participating in golf, swimming, and even sky-
diving.
During secondary school, he was elected captain of Mac Gregor State in Queensland and
worked with the student council on fundraising events for local charities and disability
campaigns. When he was seventeen, he started to give talks at his prayer group, and
later founded his non-profit organization, Life Without Limbs.

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  • 1. SOAL US BAHASA INGGRIS (PAKET 1) SMK JAKARTA UTARA I A. LISTENING SECTION PART I. PICTURES. Questions 1 to 3. Directions: There are three items in this part. For each item, you will see a picture on your test paper and you will hear four short statements. The statements will be spoken TWICE. They will not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say. When you hear the four statements, look at the picture on your test paper and choose the statement that best describes what you see in the picture. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer. Look at the sample below. Now listen to the four statements: Sample Answer: Statement (D), “The children are participating in the lesson”, best describes what you see in the picture. Therefore, you should choose answer (D). Now let’s begin with the picture marked number one (1) on your test paper. 1. 2. 3. A B C D In this section of the test you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are four parts to this section with special directions for each part.
  • 2. PART II. QUESTIONS – RESPONSES. Questions 4 to 7. Directions: There are four items in this part of the test. For each item, you will hear a question or statement spoken in English followed by four responses, also spoken in English. They will be spoken TWICE. They will not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say. You are to choose the best response to each question or statement and mark it on your answer sheet. Now listen to a sample question. You will hear : Sample Answer: You will also hear : The best response to the question, “When should I call back?” is choice (C), “Anytime after lunch is fine.” Therefore you should choose answer (C). Now let’s begin with question number four (4) on your test paper. 4. Mark your answer on your answer sheet 6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet 5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet 7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet PART III. SHORT CONVERSATIONS. Questions 8 to 11. Directions: There are four items in this part of the test. For each item you will hear a short conversation between two people. You will hear the conversations TWICE. They will not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say. On your test paper, you will read a question about each conversation. The question will be followed by four answers. You are to choose the best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet. Now, let’s begin with question number eight (8) on your test paper. 8. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Manager-applicant B. Colleague-colleague C. CEO-manager D. Buyer-client 10. What happened to John’s car? A. It was stolen. B. It had a flat tire. C. It was in an accident. D. It was sent to the shop for repairs. 9. What are they talking about? A. How to leave at the Gate 4 in Surabaya. B. How to go to Surabaya in 15 minutes. C. Bus schedule to Surabaya. D. Trip to Surabaya by bus. 11. What is the man probably going to do? A. Call a real estate agent B. Buy a new furniture C. Write some papers D. Sell the house PART IV. SHORT TALKS. Questions 12 to 15. Directions: In this part of the test you will hear two short talks. Each will be spoken TWICE. They will not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen carefully to understand and remember what is said. On your test paper, you will read two or more questions about each short talk. Each question will be followed by four answers. You have to choose the best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet. A B C D
  • 3. Now let’s begin with the following short talk. 12. Who is most likely the speaker? A. A recording studio manager. B. A museum employee. C. A security personnel. D. A daily visitor. 14. What is mainly talked about? A. Visitors to department stores. B. Discounts at a supermarket. C. New shopping regulations. D. Daily shoppers at Frankie. 13. Where are the guards standing? A. Next to one another. B. At the entrance. C. Under a poster. D. Along the way. 15 What does the speaker suggest? A. Having lunch at the store delicatessen. B. Getting two gallons of milk for $1.09. C. Visiting the store's dairy section. D. Buying flank steak for $5.50. B. READING SECTION PART V. Directions: From questions 16 – 26, four clauses/sentences, marked (A), (B), (C), or (D), are given beneath each incomplete dialog. Choose the one clause/sentence that best completes the dialog. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer. 16. Rahmat : ……. Sumbing mountain this weekend ? Ishak : I am not sure. If the weather is good. I’ll do it. Rahmat : Will you join me ? Ishak : Sounds great ! A. Have you ever climbed B. Are you going to climb C. Didi you climb D. We can climb 17. Windy : I am so surprised with the new ice cream that KFC just launched. I really love it. What about you? Dian : ….. It is too sweet and not suitable for a taste of dessert. A. I can’t agree more with you. B. I agree with you. C. I am totally on your side. D. I am afraid I have to disagree. 18. Ronald : Do you see the box that I put here? Nielson : … She needed it to put something. A. It was thrown away by Nancy. B. It was recycled by the factory. C. It was taken by Annie. D. It was sold to John. In this part of the test you will have the chance to show how well you understand written English. There are four parts to this section, with special directions for each part.
  • 4. 19. Velly : Have you made any vacation plans? Jelita : Yes. ... . A. I’m going to go snorkeling B. I was in London last month C. I went to Dieng with my friends D. I have been to Raja Ampat in Papua 20. Christ : How was your show last night ? Was it great ? Angel : ….. We got a standing ovation from the audience. Crist : You deserved it. Your choir is stunning. You are really a fabulous singer and your friends as well. A. It was terrible B. We were nervous C. Disappointed. I must say D. Absolutely 21. Kanda : Have heard the newest policy announced by our governor ? Dinda : What is it ? Kanda : Indonesia is on the third rank in using plastic. It really damages the environment. Dinda : I know. But plastic is lighter and durable. Kanda : You’re right. Because they are durable, the world needs a hundred years to decay them Dinda : So, what should we do if we want to go to the market, supermarket, bookstore, etc? Kanda : ……, it means that we keep our environment save and healthy A. Why don’t you use my own plastic box B. You may go to another store which provides free plastic bag C. It’s better we bring ‘spunbond’ bag everywhere D. Let us campaign the students to bring mineral drink from home 22. Agung : Look at the drain ! It’s full of garbage and mud. Herman : Yes, many people throw garbage in the river. They don’t have any awareness how to make the environment healthy. Flood and dengue fever will be endanger them, ….. Agung : You are right. A. If they threw more garbage. B. If it rains continuously. C. If the government had made a bigger garbage Dump. D. If we don’t call the doctors soon.
  • 5. PART VI. Directions: Questions 23 – 28 are based on short dialogs of certain situation, such as invitation, daily activity, opinion, etc. Choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Answer all the questions following each short dialog on the basis of what is stated or implied in the dialog. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer. Questions 23 - 25 are based on the following short dialog. Faridah : Can you give me a little more information about your apartment? Husein : Sure, what can I help you with? Faridah : What kind of public transportation is near your apartment? Husein : I'm not sure, but I believe there is a bus stop about three blocks away. Faridah : Do you know what direction that bus travels? Husein : I'm sorry. If you check online, you can get that kind of information. Faridah : Okay, I'll just go online. Husein : Okay. Good luck with your search. 23. What made Faridah ask to Husein ? A. Faridah prefers taking off line transportation than ordering on line transportation B. There is no bus stop around their apartment C. Husein is a new comer D. Faridah wants to know a kind of transportation available there 24. What will Faridah do next ? A. Husein will accompany her to wait for the bus B. She will search the transportation through on line application C. Husein will drive her to bus station D. Faridah cancels to go 25.’ If you check online, you can get that kind of information’. The word ‘on line’ has the closest meaning to ….. A. Connected B. Un accessible C. Detected D. Recorded Questions 28 - 30 are based on the following short dialog. Andy : Hey Teresa, how are you going ? Teresa : Not bad. How are you ? Andy : Going well, thanks. What have you been up lately ? Teresa : I’ve just been flat out with work. We’ve had so much to sort out with our account department. Today was crazy though because I missed my alarm and slept in ! Andy : Oh no ! What time do you usually have to get up ? Teresa : Usually around 5.30 am, because it takes an hour to get to work on train. Andy : That’s early ! I don’t usually get up until 7.30 am and then I just throw on my clothes , grab some toast and shoot off. Teresa : Ahh. I can’t do that. I like to take my time in the morning to get ready. I always plan to have a big breakfast and cup of tea but I usually just run out of time and end up grabbing a coffee and croissant on the way to work. Andy : yeah, me too
  • 6. 26. What are they talking about ? A. Their plan for holiday B. Their activity in their spare time C. Their business in the morning D. Their preparation before facing last examination 27. Where does Teresa usually have her breakfast ? A. In the car B. In the bus C. On the train D. At home 28. ‘ … I’ve just flat out with work’ Line 4 The word ‘flat out’ has closest meaning to ….. A. feel bored B. should be in hurry C. want to finish D. think to resign PART VI. Directions: Questions 29 – 40 are based on a selection of reading materials, such as notices, letters, forms, articles, advertisements, etc. Choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Answer all the questions following each reading selection on the basis of what is stated or implied in the selection. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer. Questions 29 – 31 are based on the following short dialog. 29. Who mostly use this electronic? A. Flight attendant and plumber B. Carpenter and Milkman C. Fishery and housewives D. Cook – Technician 30. What should we do after turn the temperature control "defrost"? A. Scrape the ice with a sharp instrument B. Remove all frozen foods and ice cube trays C. Remove all other food stuff D. Allow the ice to melt HOW TO CLEAN A REFRIGERATOR 1. Remove all frozen foods and ice cube trays. If you have a second refrigerator, use it to temporary store these items. If not, put the food in a cardboard box and cover it with newspaper. Dump the ice cubes. 2. Removes all other food stuff and place on your kitchen counter or in cardboard boxes. 3. Either turn the temperature control "defrost" or unplug the electricity to the refrigerator (or both). 4. Never scrape or jab at the ice with a sharp instrument. You may cause serious damage to the freezing unit. Allow it to melt. 5. Either put a flat pan under the freezer to catch the drips or put a large towel in the bottom of the refrigerator.
  • 7. 31. "Allow it to melt" (step 4). The word "it" refers to .... A. The food B. The refrigerator C. The ice D. The freezing unit Questions 32 – 34 refer to the following information. 32. What is the purpose of the text? A. Informing people the reason and the way to visit Raja Ampat. B. Telling people the complete information about flight schedule. C. Giving exact details about the coral conservation in Raja Ampat. D. Notifying readers how to contact professional diving organizers. 33. What is the main idea of the first paragraph? A. A report about the coral reef. B. Several ways to visit a location. C. Diving organizers in Raja Ampat. D. An information about Raja Ampat. 34. “… arrive here their excitement is palpable.” The word ‘ palpable’ has the closest meaning to ….. A. uncertain B. doubtful C. obvious D. fading The territory within the islands of the Four Kings (Raja Ampat) is enormous, covering 9.8 million acres of land and sea, home to 540 types of corals, more than 1,000 types of coral fish and 700 types of mollusks. This makes it the most diverse living library for world's coral reef and underwater biota. According to a report developed by The Nature Conservancy and Conservation International, around 75 percent of the world's species live here. When divers first arrive here their excitement is palpable. It's common to hear people praise God as they take in the remarkable scenery. Others prefer to remain in silence taking in the overwhelming sight of so many islands with crystal clear water that softly brushes over the white sandy beaches. Commonly, divers will join a tour and live in a diving resort during their stay in the Raja Ampat Islands. To access diving spots, we can easily contact and use the professional diving organizers, who can be conveniently found in Sorong. You may rent a small boat if you wish to stop and make personal discoveries along the line of the beaches. You can also trek around the islands to find hidden beauties, like waterfalls and ancient caves. If you are flying from Jakarta you can take a six hour flight to Sorong with a stopover in Manado. Alternatively, you can join a diving tour in Bali and fly from there. There are also daily ferries available between Sorong and Waisai, capital of the Raja Ampat district on the island of Waigeo. The journey takes between 1.5-2 hours. There are also speedboats for rent at Sorong.
  • 8. Questions 35 – 37 refer to the following procedure. 35. Where does this announcement take place ? A. At Police office B. At Fire department C. In a Weapon Shop D. At the Airport 36. What does the 2nd paragraph tell you about ? A. International security regulation B. Safety procedure system C. Things can be brought onto an airplane D. X – Ray machine 37. According to the text, we can conclude ….. A. All bags will be sent to the X-Ray machines B. All bags will be checked by using X-Ray machines C. All bags will be move to the X-Ray machines D. All bags will be packed next to X-Ray machines Announcement In accordance with the international security regulation, the following items are never allowed to be taken onto a plane by passengers, either in their carry-on bags or in their checked luggage: weapons, including knives and guns; explosives, including dynamite and fireworks. The following items may be placed in checked luggage but not on carry-on bags. Tools, including hammers, screwdrivers, and wrenches; sport equipment such as golf clubs, baseball bats, skis, and ski poles. When you pass through the security line, all bags will go through our X-Ray machines and some bags will be manually checked by personal, as well.
  • 9. Mr. Irash Arasy Alcox Human Resources Director Aleekinder Asia-Pasific, Ltd 123 ABC St SOUTH BRISBANE 4101 Dear Sir, Re: position applying for I am writing to express my interest in the position you have advertised for a finance manager in Aussy Telegraph on 23 October 2018. My previous experience in the accounting, finance and tax has given me excellent workplace skills which would be an asset to your company. Due to my previous experience in the Aussy Aragon Steel, Ltd.I believe any employers would strongly benefit from my employment. Please find enclosed a copy of my current resume. I can be contacted on 0813 8832 1209 to discuss this opportunity further. Thank you for considering my application and I look forward to meeting with you soon. Yours faithfully, Aleesha Naufalyn, CPA, CISA Questions 38 – 40 refer to the following letter. 38. Why did Aleesha write the letter? A. To enclose her current resume. B. To show her ability in accounting. C. To be accepted in the new company. D. To tell about her previous experience. 39. What strength does Aleesha have? A. She has abilities and good personality needed. B. She arranges her interview with the director. C. She will be promoted as the new manager. D. She knows accounting only. 40. The word ‘posses’ in the sentence ‘I possess excellent communication skills’ is closest in meaning to .... A. do B. get C. have D. make
  • 10. ESSAY. Direction : Read carefully then answer all the questions in write Questions no 41 to 43 based on following information 41. What will you do then after you read the text? 42. What did Indonesian Marine Affairs and Fisheries Ministers suggest to protect the islands ? 43. Based on the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea, what is the definition of island ? Indonesia has embarked on the task of counting its islands in order to better protect its territory and marine resources. It hopes to locate and name an additional 1,700 islands in time for the UN Conference on the Standardization of Geographical Names in August. Indonesia wants to claim sovereignty and fishing rights in the waters surrounding the islands, many of which its neighbors also claim. The Indonesian government says illegal fishing in its waters is costing billions of dollars in lost revenue each year. A fisheries spokeswoman told the BBC: "Sixty per cent of islands in Indonesia don't have a name or officially have legal status, so they can easily be taken or claimed by another country." Indonesia is the world's largest archipelago. At the last UN conference on geographical names in 2012, Indonesia registered 13,466 islands. A law in 1996 estimated that the number of islands was 17,508. The UN Convention on the Law of the Sea defines an island as, "a naturally formed area of land, surrounded by water, which is still exposed at high tide". A spokesman from Indonesia's Ministry of Marine Affairs and Fisheries explained the scale of the task the counting team had. He said: "We have to visit every one of these islands, and then we note the coordinates, the name, the meaning of the name, the history of the land and describe the landscape and its geographical history…all that in great detail."
  • 11. Questions no. 44 and 45 based on the following description 44. What does the story tell you about ? 45. What happened to Nick in 1990 ? Nick Vujivic was born to Dushka and Boris Vujivic in 1982 in Melbourne, Australia. Although he was an otherwise healthy baby, Nick was born without arms and legs; he had no legs, but two small feet, one of which had two toes. Nick has two siblings, Michelle and Aaron. Initially, a Victoria state law prevented Nick from attending a mainstream school due to his physical disability in spite of a lack of mental impairment. However, Vujivic became one of the first physically disabled students integrated into a mainstream school once those laws changed. However, his lack of limbs made him a target for school bullies, and he fell into a severe depression. At age eight, he contemplated suicide and even tried to drown himself in his bathtub at age ten; his love for his parents prevented him from following through. He also stated in his music video "Something More" that God had a plan for his life and he could not bring himself to drown because of this. Nick prayed very hard that God would give him arms and legs, and initially told God that, if his prayer remained unanswered, Nick would not praise him indefinitely. However, a key turning point in his faith came when his mother showed him a newspaper article about a man dealing with a severe disability. Vujivic realized he wasn't unique in his struggles and began to embrace his lack of limbs. After this, Nick realized his accomplishments could inspire others and became grateful for his life. Nick gradually figured out how to live a full life without limbs, adapting many of the daily skills limbed people accomplish without thinking. Nick writes with two toes on his left foot and a special grip that slid onto his big toe. He knows how to use a computer and can type up to 45 words per minute using the "heel and toe" method. He has also learned to throw tennis balls, play drum pedals, get a glass of water, comb his hair, brush his teeth, answer the phone and shave, in addition to participating in golf, swimming, and even sky- diving. During secondary school, he was elected captain of Mac Gregor State in Queensland and worked with the student council on fundraising events for local charities and disability campaigns. When he was seventeen, he started to give talks at his prayer group, and later founded his non-profit organization, Life Without Limbs.